WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-9

The correct answer is (a) Punch-marked coins.

Punch-marked coins were the earliest coins used in the Indian subcontinent. They were made of silver or copper and were stamped with a variety of symbols, including animals, geometric shapes, and religious symbols. The coins were used as a form of currency and were also used in religious ceremonies.

Copper coins were also used in the Indian subcontinent, but they were not as common as punch-marked coins. Copper coins were made of pure copper and were not stamped with any symbols. They were used as a form of currency, but they were not as valuable as punch-marked coins.

Alloy coins were made of a mixture of metals, such as silver and copper. They were not as common as punch-marked coins or copper coins. Alloy coins were used as a form of currency, but they were not as valuable as punch-marked coins or copper coins.

Gold coins were the most valuable type of coin used in the Indian subcontinent. They were made of pure gold and were stamped with a variety of symbols, including animals, geometric shapes, and religious symbols. Gold coins were used as a form of currency, but they were also used as a form of wealth and were often stored in temples or other safe places.

The correct answer is **A) Bengali**.

Bengali is the official language of the Indian state of West Bengal and the neighboring country of Bangladesh. It is the seventh most spoken language in the world, with over 265 million speakers. Bengali is a member of the Indo-Aryan language family, and is closely related to Hindi and Assamese.

Hindi is the official language of India, and is the most widely spoken language in the country. It is a member of the Indo-Aryan language family, and is closely related to Bengali and Urdu.

English is the official language of the United Kingdom, and is widely spoken in many countries around the world. It is a member of the Indo-European language family, and is not closely related to Bengali, Hindi, or any other Indian language.

Nepali is the official language of Nepal, and is spoken by over 26 million people. It is a member of the Indo-Aryan language family, and is closely related to Hindi and Bengali.

The correct answer is (d) Tunisia.

Najla Bouden Romdhane was nominated as the first female Prime Minister of Tunisia on 29 September 2021. She is a geophysicist and engineer who has held various government positions, including Minister of Higher Education and Scientific Research.

Nigeria has had two female presidents, Patience Jonathan and Aisha Buhari. New Zealand has had one female prime minister, Jacinda Ardern. Finland has had two female prime ministers, Anneli Jäätteenmäki and Sanna Marin.

The correct answer is A. wood charcoal.

Wood charcoal is a type of activated carbon that is made by heating wood in the absence of oxygen. This process removes all of the water and volatile compounds from the wood, leaving behind a porous, black solid. Wood charcoal is used in a variety of applications, including decolorizing brown sugar solution.

Coconut charcoal is another type of activated carbon that is made by heating coconut shells in the absence of oxygen. It is similar to wood charcoal in terms of its properties and applications.

Animal charcoal is a type of activated carbon that is made by heating animal bones in the absence of oxygen. It is less commonly used than wood or coconut charcoal, but it has some unique properties that make it suitable for certain applications.

Sugar charcoal is a type of activated carbon that is made by heating sugar in the absence of oxygen. It is not commonly used, and it has no advantages over other types of activated carbon.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. wood charcoal.

West Bengal shares its interstate boundaries with Bihar and Jharkhand in the West, Odisha in the South, Assam in the North-east and Sikkim in the North.

The correct answer is: C. Till they have attained 65 years of age.

The Constitution of India, Article 222(1), states that a Judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.

Option A is incorrect because the Chief Justice of India does not have the power to remove a Judge of a High Court from office. Only the President of India can do so, on the recommendation of the Supreme Court Collegium.

Option B is incorrect because the retirement age of a Judge of a High Court is 65 years, not 62 years.

Option D is incorrect because a Judge of a High Court cannot hold office as long as they desire. They must retire at the age of 65 years.

The correct answer is A. Rs. 1,500.

Marginal cost is the change in total cost that results from producing one additional unit of output. In this case, the marginal cost of producing the 410th unit is Rs. 1,500, because the total cost increases by Rs. 1,500 when production increases from 400 units to 410 units.

Option B is incorrect because it is the total cost of producing 410 units. Option C is incorrect because it is the change in total cost that results from producing 10 units of output. Option D is incorrect because it is not one of the possible answers.

Rabindra Smriti Puraskar is the highest literary award that is given in West Bengal.

The correct answer is: D. Elderly Persons

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) declared 2011 as the International Year of the Elderly Persons. The year was dedicated to promoting the well-being and rights of older persons and to raising awareness of the challenges they face.

The year 2011 was also the International Year of Chemistry. The year was dedicated to celebrating the achievements of chemistry and to promoting its role in solving global challenges.

The year 2011 was not the International Year of Biodiversity or the International Year of Youth.

The correct answer is (b), Parliament.

The Constitution of India lists the subjects on which the Union and the State governments can legislate. The subjects not included in any of these lists are called Concurrent List subjects. The Parliament has the power to legislate on Concurrent List subjects.

The Supreme Court is the highest court in India and has the power to interpret the Constitution. However, it does not have the power to legislate.

The State Legislature has the power to legislate on subjects that are included in the State List. However, it does not have the power to legislate on Concurrent List subjects.

Regional Councils are legislative bodies in some states of India. They have the power to legislate on subjects that are included in the Concurrent List, but only in relation to the areas that they cover.

In conclusion, the Parliament is the only body that can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any of the lists of subjects given in the Constitution.

The correct answer is (d). The Abid Hussain Committee was a committee set up by the Government of India in 1991 to recommend reforms in the energy sector. The committee submitted its report in 1992, and its recommendations were implemented by the government. The committee's recommendations included the deregulation of the energy sector, the introduction of competition, and the privatization of state-owned enterprises. The committee's recommendations were successful in reforming the energy sector and improving its efficiency.

Option (a), export promotion, is incorrect because the Abid Hussain Committee was not related to export promotion. The committee was set up to recommend reforms in the energy sector, not in the export sector.

Option (b), small and medium industries, is incorrect because the Abid Hussain Committee was not related to small and medium industries. The committee was set up to recommend reforms in the energy sector, not in the small and medium industry sector.

Option (c), agricultural development, is incorrect because the Abid Hussain Committee was not related to agricultural development. The committee was set up to recommend reforms in the energy sector, not in the agricultural sector.

The answer is $boxed{106}$.

The sequence is $10, 14, 26, 42, 70, 106$. The sequence is generated by adding the previous two numbers in the sequence. For example, $42 = 26 + 16$ and $70 = 42 + 28$.

Option A, $100$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option B, $102$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option C, $106$, is correct because it is the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option D, $114$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

The correct answer is (c).

The Constitution of India does classify ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. This is mentioned in Article 75(1) of the Constitution.

The total number of ministers in the union Government, including the Prime minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. This is mentioned in Article 75(3) of the Constitution.

Therefore, both statements given above are correct.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) 1 only: This option is incorrect because statement 2 is also correct.
(b) 2 only: This option is incorrect because statement 1 is also correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2: This option is correct because both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2: This option is incorrect because both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Khol, Dotara, and Ektara are all musical instruments that are commonly associated with Kirtan. Kirtan is a form of devotional singing that is popular in Hinduism and Sikhism. It is often accompanied by music, and the instruments mentioned above are all commonly used in Kirtan.

Khol is a double-headed drum that is played with the hands. It is made of wood and has a skin on each head. The skin is usually made of goat or cowhide. The khol is played by striking the heads with the hands in a rhythmic pattern.

Dotara is a stringed instrument that is played with a bow. It has two strings, and the body is made of wood. The dotara is played by drawing the bow across the strings in a rhythmic pattern.

Ektara is a one-stringed instrument that is played with the fingers. It is made of a gourd with a single string attached to it. The ektara is played by plucking the string with the fingers in a rhythmic pattern.

All of these instruments are used in Kirtan to create a lively and energetic atmosphere. The music of Kirtan is often used to praise God and to express devotion.

The correct answer is A.

In the given question, X + Y means X is the daughter of Y; X - Y means X is the brother of Y; X % Y means X is the father of Y and X x Y means X is the sister of Y.

To find the niece of J, we need to find a relation between J and I such that J is the father of I's mother or J is the brother of I's mother.

In option A, J - N % C x I, we can see that J is the father of C and C is the mother of I. Therefore, I is the niece of J.

In option B, I x C - N % J, we can see that I is the sister of C and C is the mother of N. Therefore, N is the niece of J.

In option C, J + M x C % I, we can see that J is the father of M and M is the sister of C. Therefore, C is the niece of J.

In option D, I x C + N - J, we can see that I is the sister of C and C is the father of N. Therefore, N is the nephew of J.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

The correct answer is (c). To help in organizing Village Panchayats is not a part of Fundamental Duties under Indian Constitution.

The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations that every Indian citizen is expected to follow. They were added to the Constitution in 1976 by the 42nd Amendment. The Fundamental Duties are as follows:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; and to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
6. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
7. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
8. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
9. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
10. To provide opportunities for education and to promote adult education.

The Fundamental Duties are not enforceable in a court of law, but they are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by them.

The correct answer is: D. All of the above

Plant cells have several organelles that are unique to them, including a central vacuole, chloroplasts, and a cell wall.

• Central vacuole: The central vacuole is a large, fluid-filled organelle that takes up most of the space in a plant cell. It helps to maintain the cell's shape and turgor pressure, and it also stores nutrients and waste products.
• Chloroplasts: Chloroplasts are organelles that contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that absorbs sunlight and uses it to produce food for the plant.
• Cell wall: The cell wall is a rigid structure that surrounds the plant cell membrane. It provides support and protection for the cell, and it also helps to regulate the movement of substances into and out of the cell.

These organelles are essential for the survival of plant cells. They allow plants to photosynthesize, store nutrients, and maintain their shape and structure.

The correct answer is: D. Marginal productivity theory.

The marginal productivity theory of interest is a theory of interest that states that the interest rate is determined by the marginal productivity of capital. In other words, the interest rate is the rate of return that an investor expects to earn on a loan or investment. The higher the marginal productivity of capital, the higher the interest rate will be.

The marginal productivity theory of interest is based on the idea that capital is a factor of production, just like labor and land. Capital is productive in the sense that it can be used to produce goods and services. The marginal productivity of capital is the additional output that is produced when one more unit of capital is used.

The marginal productivity theory of interest is a useful tool for understanding the determination of interest rates. It can be used to explain why interest rates are higher in some countries than in others, and why interest rates are higher for some types of loans than for others.

The other options are incorrect because they are not theories of interest.

• Keynes theory of interest is a theory of interest that was developed by John Maynard Keynes. Keynes argued that the interest rate is determined by the liquidity preference of individuals and the supply of money.
• New established theory of interest is not a well-defined theory. It is possible that the question is referring to the loanable funds theory of interest, which is a theory of interest that states that the interest rate is determined by the supply and demand for loanable funds.
• Hicks Henson's theory of interest is not a well-defined theory. It is possible that the question is referring to the Hicks-Hansen IS-LM model, which is a model of the macroeconomy that shows the relationship between interest rates and output.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (c) Motive.

Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act states that "The court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of human nature, the conduct of parties, and the evidence in the case."

Intention, preparation, and conduct are all factors that the court may consider in determining whether a fact is likely to have happened. However, motive is not a factor that is specifically mentioned in Section 8. This is because motive is not always relevant to the determination of whether a fact is likely to have happened. For example, if a person is found with the murder weapon, the court may presume that they committed the murder, even if they do not have a motive for doing so.

In some cases, motive may be relevant to the determination of whether a fact is likely to have happened. For example, if a person is found with the murder weapon and they have a motive for committing the murder, the court may be more likely to find that they committed the murder. However, motive is not always relevant, and it is not a factor that is specifically mentioned in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act.

The correct answer is (d).

M1 is a measure of the money supply that includes currency in circulation and demand deposits. Currency in circulation refers to the physical money that is in the hands of the public, while demand deposits are checking accounts that can be easily withdrawn.

Time deposits are not included in M1 because they are not as liquid as currency and demand deposits. Time deposits are savings accounts that cannot be easily withdrawn, and they typically have a minimum balance requirement.

Currency with the public is included in M1 because it is a form of money that is readily available for spending. Currency is also the most liquid form of money, meaning that it can be easily converted into other forms of money or goods and services.

Demand deposits are included in M1 because they are a form of money that is readily available for spending. Demand deposits are also a relatively liquid form of money, meaning that they can be easily converted into other forms of money or goods and services.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

The correct answer is A. Sphygmology.

Sphygmology is the study of the pulse and arterial blood pressure. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the circulatory system.

Sphygmology is a very important part of medical practice, as it allows doctors to assess the health of the heart and blood vessels. It is also used to monitor the progress of treatment for various medical conditions.

Sphygmology is a relatively simple procedure that can be performed by a doctor or nurse. It involves using a stethoscope to listen to the sounds of the heart and blood vessels. The sounds that are heard can provide valuable information about the health of the circulatory system.

Sphygmology is a very important tool for the diagnosis and treatment of cardiovascular disease. It is a simple, non-invasive procedure that can provide valuable information about the health of the heart and blood vessels.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Sphygmology is the study of the pulse and arterial blood pressure. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the circulatory system.
• B. Scerology is the study of blood serum. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the blood.
• C. Sonography is the use of sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. It is a non-invasive procedure that is used to diagnose a variety of medical conditions.
• D. None of these is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A) Nadia.

Nadia was a princely state in the Bengal region of India. It was renowned for its association with the Vaishnava saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, who was born in Nadia in 1486. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a major figure in the Bhakti movement, which emphasized the importance of devotion to God. He is considered to be one of the most important religious figures in Bengal.

The other options are incorrect. Mallabhum was a princely state in the Jharkhand region of India. Dinajpur was a princely state in the North Bengal region of India. Cooch Behar was a princely state in the Assam region of India. None of these states were as renowned for their association with Chaitanya Mahaprabhu as Nadia.

The correct answer is (b) 21.71%.

The Indian Forest Status Report-2022 states that the forest cover in India is 21.71% of the total geographical area. This is an increase of 0.21% from the previous report in 2019. The report also states that the net forest area has increased by 1,546 square kilometers since 2019.

The increase in forest cover is due to a number of factors, including government initiatives to increase forest cover, afforestation programs, and the natural regeneration of forests. The government has set a target of increasing forest cover to 33% of the total geographical area by 2030.

The increase in forest cover is beneficial for a number of reasons. Forests provide a number of ecosystem services, such as regulating the climate, providing water and air purification, and supporting biodiversity. Forests also play an important role in the economy, providing employment and income for millions of people.

However, the increase in forest cover is not without its challenges. The expansion of forests can lead to conflict with other land uses, such as agriculture and development. Forests can also be a source of greenhouse gas emissions, particularly when they are cleared or burned.

Despite these challenges, the increase in forest cover in India is a positive development. It is important to continue to protect and expand forests, as they play a vital role in the health of the planet.

Option (a) is incorrect because it states that the forest cover in India is 11.66%. This is lower than the actual figure of 21.71%.

Option (c) is incorrect because it states that the forest cover in India is 27.57%. This is higher than the actual figure of 21.71%.

Option (d) is incorrect because it states that the forest cover in India is 33.45%. This is higher than the government's target of 33%.

The correct answer is: A. Perfect substitute goods.

An indifference curve is a graph that shows all the combinations of two goods that provide the same level of satisfaction to a consumer. The shape of an indifference curve can tell us a lot about the relationship between the two goods.

A perfect substitute good is a good that has no other substitutes. In other words, if you have one perfect substitute good, you don't need any other. For example, if you're thirsty, you could drink water or soda. Both of these goods would satisfy your thirst, so they are perfect substitutes.

An indifference curve that is L-shaped indicates that the two goods are perfect substitutes. This is because the consumer is indifferent between any combination of the two goods. For example, if the consumer has $10 to spend, they could buy 5 bottles of water or 2 bottles of soda. They would be equally satisfied with either combination.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe the relationship between the two goods as perfectly substitutes.

• Option B, substitute goods, is incorrect because substitute goods are goods that can be used in place of each other. For example, coffee and tea are substitute goods. If you don't have coffee, you could drink tea instead.
• Option C, perfect complementary goods, is incorrect because perfect complementary goods are goods that must be used together. For example, a left shoe and a right shoe are perfect complementary goods. You can't use one without the other.
• Option D, complementary goods, is incorrect because complementary goods are goods that are used together, but they don't have to be used together. For example, a car and gas are complementary goods. You can't drive a car without gas, but you can use gas for other things, like heating your home.

The correct answer is D. on his own.

The President of India is the head of state and the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces. He is also the final authority on all matters relating to the appointment and dismissal of the Council of Ministers. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers on his own, without the consent of the Speaker, the Prime Minister, or any other authority.

The President's power to dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers is derived from Article 75(2) of the Constitution, which states that "the President may, at his pleasure, remove from his office any Minister who for any reason ceases to command his confidence." This power is absolute and cannot be challenged in any court of law.

The President's power to dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers is a significant one, as it can be used to remove a minister who is not performing his duties satisfactorily or who is no longer in the confidence of the President. However, this power should be used sparingly and only in exceptional circumstances, as it can have a destabilizing effect on the government.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not a constitutional authority with the power to consent to the dismissal of a member of the Council of Ministers.
• Option B is incorrect because the President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers even if there is no emergency.
• Option C is incorrect because the President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers without the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

The correct answer is D. Foreign exchange reserves are not a major component of the West Bengal budget.

Revenue receipts are the money that the government receives from taxes, fees, and other sources. Capital receipts are the money that the government receives from borrowing, selling assets, and other sources. Revenue expenditure is the money that the government spends on things like salaries, pensions, and other day-to-day expenses. Capital expenditure is the money that the government spends on things like infrastructure projects, new buildings, and other long-term investments.

Foreign exchange reserves are the money that the government holds in foreign currencies. These reserves are used to support the value of the country's currency, to pay for imports, and to meet other financial obligations.

While foreign exchange reserves are important, they are not a major component of the West Bengal budget. The majority of the budget is spent on revenue and capital expenditure.

The correct answer is (a) Article-13.

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the State from making any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. It also prohibits the State from making any law which discriminates against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

The Rule of Law is a principle of governance in which all persons, institutions and entities, public and private, including the State itself, are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced and independently adjudicated, and which are consistent with international human rights norms and standards. It requires, as well, measures to ensure adherence to the principles of supremacy of law, equality before the law, accountability to the law, fairness in the application of the law, separation of powers, participation in decision-making, legal certainty, avoidance of arbitrariness and procedural and legal transparency.

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution is one of the most important articles in the Constitution as it guarantees the Rule of Law. The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of democracy and it is essential for the protection of the rights of citizens. Article 13 ensures that the State cannot make any law which violates the fundamental rights of citizens. It also ensures that the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on any grounds.

The Rule of Law is a principle that is enshrined in the Constitutions of many countries around the world. It is a principle that is essential for the protection of the rights of citizens and for the promotion of democracy.

The answer is D. Escalator.

A ladder is a portable structure consisting of two long poles joined at regular intervals by crosspieces, used for reaching high places.

A staircase is a series of steps leading from one level to another.

A bridge is a structure built to span physical obstacles without closing the way beneath such as a river, valley, or road, for the purpose of providing passage over the obstacle.

An escalator is a moving staircase or moving walkway for carrying people between floors of a building or between different levels of a transportation hub.

The escalator is different from the rest because it is the only option that is powered. The other options are all non-powered structures that can be used to move people from one level to another.

The correct answer is: A. a, an, an

The word "supermarket" is a common noun, which means it refers to any supermarket. We use "a" before common nouns that are not specific. In this case, the speaker is not referring to a particular supermarket, but rather any supermarket that might be located at the end of the street.

The word "end" is a singular noun, which means we use "the" before it.

The word "street" is a common noun, which means we use "a" before it.

Here is a breakdown of each option:

• A. a, an, an: This is the correct answer. The word "supermarket" is a common noun, which means it refers to any supermarket. We use "a" before common nouns that are not specific. In this case, the speaker is not referring to a particular supermarket, but rather any supermarket that might be located at the end of the street. The word "end" is a singular noun, which means we use "the" before it. The word "street" is a common noun, which means we use "a" before it.
• B. a, the, the: This is incorrect. We do not use "the" before common nouns that are not specific. In this case, the speaker is not referring to a particular supermarket, but rather any supermarket that might be located at the end of the street.
• C. a, a, a: This is incorrect. We use "the" before singular nouns that are specific. In this case, the speaker is not referring to a particular supermarket, but rather any supermarket that might be located at the end of the street.
• D. an, the, a: This is incorrect. We do not use "an" before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound. In this case, the word "end" begins with a consonant sound.

The correct answer is: **None of the above.**

The Cooch Behar Palace is a palace in Cooch Behar, West Bengal, India. It is the former residence of the Maharajas of Cooch Behar. The palace is known for its European architectural style, and is often compared to the Palace of Versailles in France. However, it is not officially called the "Versailles of the East".

The palace was built in the 19th century by Maharaja Nripendra Narayan. It is a large, sprawling complex with over 100 rooms. The palace is decorated with a variety of European art and furniture. It is also home to a number of gardens, including a Japanese garden and a rose garden.

The Cooch Behar Palace is a popular tourist destination. It is open to the public for tours.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the official names of the Cooch Behar Palace. Buckingham Palace is the official residence of the British monarch, while Windsor Castle is the oldest and largest inhabited castle in the world. Both of these palaces are located in England.

The correct answer is: C. Deputy Chairman of Lok Sabha

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing committee of the Parliament of India. It is a powerful committee that scrutinizes the accounts of the government of India. The PAC is headed by the Deputy Chairman of the Lok Sabha.

The PAC is responsible for examining the appropriation accounts of the government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The PAC also examines the reports of the Public Accounts Committees of the state legislatures.

The PAC is a very important committee of the Parliament of India. It plays a vital role in ensuring that the government of India is accountable to the people of India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: The Leader of the Opposition is the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. The Leader of the Opposition is not a member of the PAC.
• Option B: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not a member of the PAC.
• Option D: The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not a member of the PAC.

The correct answer is (b) 40.6 %.

India's total merchandise trade as a percentage of G.D.P. has increased from 29.5% in 2004-05 to 40.6% in 2012-13. This means that India's trade has grown faster than its economy in recent years. This is a positive development, as it suggests that India is becoming more integrated into the global economy.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is lower than the actual value. Option (c) is incorrect because it is higher than the actual value. Option (d) is incorrect because it is not a valid percentage.

The correct answer is: A) Directly by the people.

The Panchayat Samiti is a local government body in India that is responsible for the development and administration of rural areas. It is composed of elected representatives from the villages within its jurisdiction. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are elected directly by the people of the villages.

Option B is incorrect because the members of the Gram Panchayat are not the ones who elect the members of the Panchayat Samiti. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are elected directly by the people of the villages.

Option C is incorrect because the members of the Zilla Parishad are not the ones who elect the members of the Panchayat Samiti. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are elected directly by the people of the villages.

Option D is incorrect because the members of the Panchayat Samiti are not appointed by the state government. They are elected directly by the people of the villages.

The correct answer is: B. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT)

The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) is an international treaty aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology. It was opened for signature in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. The NPT has three main pillars: non-proliferation, disarmament, and the peaceful uses of nuclear energy.

The NPT prohibits the transfer of nuclear weapons or nuclear weapons technology to non-nuclear-weapon states. It also prohibits non-nuclear-weapon states from acquiring nuclear weapons or nuclear weapons technology. The NPT does allow non-nuclear-weapon states to develop nuclear energy for peaceful purposes, but only under strict safeguards to ensure that the nuclear material is not used for weapons purposes.

The NPT has been ratified by 191 countries, including the five nuclear-weapon states: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The NPT is considered to be one of the most important international treaties in existence. It has played a key role in preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and in promoting nuclear disarmament.

The Izmir Treaty is a treaty between Greece and Turkey that was signed in 1930. The treaty established the border between the two countries and resolved a number of other disputes between them. The Izmir Treaty is not related to the spread of nuclear weapons.

Therefore, the correct answer is: B. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT)

The correct answer is (a).

Constitution Day is celebrated in India on November 26 every year. It is the day on which the Constitution of India was adopted in 1949. The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India and it provides for a parliamentary system of government. It also guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens of India.

Option (b) is incorrect because November 27 is not Constitution Day.

Option (c) is incorrect because January 26 is Republic Day. Republic Day is celebrated in India on January 26 every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.

Option (d) is incorrect because August 15 is Independence Day. Independence Day is celebrated in India on August 15 every year to commemorate the day when India gained independence from British rule.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Storms or frontal systems develop where air is rising, atmospheric pressure is low, and at the equator and in the mid-latitudes.

• Air rises when it is warm and less dense than the surrounding air. This can happen when the sun heats the ground, causing the air near the surface to warm and rise. It can also happen when cold air moves in from the north, pushing the warm air up.
• Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air above a given point. Low pressure areas are associated with rising air, while high pressure areas are associated with sinking air.
• The equator and the mid-latitudes are the two regions of the Earth where most storms occur. This is because these regions are where the Earth's surface is warmest and the air is most unstable.

When air rises, it cools and condenses, forming clouds. If the air rises high enough, it can form thunderstorms, hurricanes, or other types of severe weather.

The correct answer is: A. Chemist : Laboratory

A lawyer is a professional who practices law, which is the system of rules that are created and enforced through social or governmental institutions to regulate behavior. A court is a place where legal proceedings take place. A chemist is a scientist who studies the composition, structure, and properties of matter. A laboratory is a place where scientific experiments are conducted.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A businessman is a person who is involved in business, which is the activity of making and selling goods or services. An office is a room or building where people work.
• A labourer is a person who does physical work for money. A factory is a building where goods are manufactured.
• An athlete is a person who is skilled in sports or other physical activities. The Olympics is an international sports festival that is held every four years.

The correct answer is A. against.

The word "averse" means "having or showing a strong dislike or disinclination." In this context, the speaker is asking the listener if they are reluctant to recommend their name for a job or other opportunity. The listener should not hesitate to admit it if they are averse to recommending the speaker, as the speaker would rather know the truth than be led to believe that they have a good chance of getting the job when they do not.

The other options are not as accurate in this context. Option B, "for," means "in favor of." This does not make sense in the context of the sentence, as the speaker is not asking the listener if they are in favor of recommending their name. Option C, "about," means "concerning." This is also not as accurate as option A, as the speaker is not asking the listener if they have any concerns about recommending their name. Option D, "to," means "in order to." This is also not as accurate as option A, as the speaker is not asking the listener if they are going to recommend their name.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. against.

The correct answer is: A. PRSQ

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: PRSQ

This option is the correct answer because it puts the words in the correct order to form a coherent sentence. The sentence states that Western civilization is so powerful and so uniform in its character that it is bound to influence every national culture by affecting its external way of life.

• Option B: QSRP

This option is incorrect because it puts the word "national" before the word "culture." The correct order is "culture" followed by "national."

• Option C: RQSP

This option is incorrect because it puts the word "affecting" before the word "its." The correct order is "its" followed by "affecting."

• Option D: SPRQ

This option is incorrect because it puts the word "so" before the word "powerful." The correct order is "powerful" followed by "so."

The correct answer is (a) West Bengal.

As per the 2011 Census, the population density of West Bengal was 1028 persons per square kilometer, which is the highest among all the states of India. The population density of Kerala was 858 persons per square kilometer, followed by Uttar Pradesh with 828 persons per square kilometer and Bihar with 1102 persons per square kilometer.

The population density of a state is the number of people living in a square kilometer of that state. It is calculated by dividing the total population of the state by the total area of the state. The population density of a state can be used to measure the level of urbanization in that state. A high population density indicates that the state is highly urbanized, while a low population density indicates that the state is less urbanized.

The population density of West Bengal is high due to a number of factors. One factor is the state's location in the Ganges Delta. The Ganges Delta is a fertile region that is ideal for agriculture. This has led to a high population of farmers in the state. Another factor is the state's proximity to Bangladesh. Bangladesh is a densely populated country, and many people from Bangladesh have migrated to West Bengal in search of better opportunities.

The high population density of West Bengal has a number of implications. One implication is that the state faces a shortage of resources, such as water and land. Another implication is that the state faces a problem of pollution. The state's cities are often congested and polluted.

The government of West Bengal is taking a number of steps to address the problems associated with the state's high population density. One step is to promote industrialization. Industrialization will create jobs and help to reduce the number of people who are dependent on agriculture. Another step is to improve the infrastructure of the state's cities. This will help to reduce congestion and pollution.

The food carnival 'Ahare Bangla' generally takes place in the month of December.

The correct answer is C. both (a) and (b).

Assam is a state in north-eastern India. It is the largest state in India by area, and the third most populous. The capital of Assam is Dispur.

The important industries of Assam are tea processing, oil refineries and coal, silk and plywood.

Tea processing is the largest industry in Assam. Assam is the world's largest producer of black tea. The tea industry employs about 2 million people in Assam.

Oil refineries are also important in Assam. The state has two oil refineries, one at Digboi and the other at Numaligarh. The oil refineries produce gasoline, diesel, kerosene and other petroleum products.

Coal is another important industry in Assam. The state has large reserves of coal. The coal is used to generate electricity and to produce steel.

Silk and plywood are also important industries in Assam. Assam is the largest producer of silk in India. The silk industry employs about 1 million people in Assam. Plywood is made from wood. The plywood industry employs about 500,000 people in Assam.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because it does not include silk and plywood. Option B is incorrect because it does not include oil refineries and coal. Option D is incorrect because it is not one of the important industries of Assam.

The correct answer is (c), rice.

Rice is the most valuable item in the agricultural export of India. In 2020-21, India exported rice worth $23.3 billion, accounting for 22% of the country's total agricultural exports. India is the world's second-largest producer of rice, after China. The main rice-producing states in India are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh.

Oil cakes are a type of animal feed made from the oil-bearing parts of plants, such as soybeans, cottonseeds, and sunflower seeds. They are a good source of protein and energy for livestock. In 2020-21, India exported oil cakes worth $12.4 billion, accounting for 12% of the country's total agricultural exports.

Raw cotton is a natural fiber that is used to make textiles. India is the world's second-largest producer of raw cotton, after China. In 2020-21, India exported raw cotton worth $10.6 billion, accounting for 10% of the country's total agricultural exports.

Spices are a type of flavoring that is used in cooking. They are made from the dried parts of plants, such as cloves, cinnamon, and nutmeg. Spices are used to add flavor to food and to preserve it. In 2020-21, India exported spices worth $8.2 billion, accounting for 8% of the country's total agricultural exports.

The correct answer is B. Tenth Schedule.

The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India, popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law, was enacted in 1985 to curb the defection of elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures. The law provides for the disqualification of a member of Parliament or State Legislature if he/she voluntarily gives up his/her membership of a political party or joins another political party without the prior permission of his/her party. The law also provides for the disqualification of a member of Parliament or State Legislature if he/she votes in the House contrary to the whip issued by his/her party.

The Tenth Schedule has been amended several times since its enactment. The most recent amendment was made in 2018. The amendment has made the anti-defection law more stringent by reducing the number of members required to form a new political party from one-third to one-fourth of the total strength of the House. The amendment has also made it more difficult for members to defect from one political party to another by requiring them to give a written resignation to their original party before joining another party.

The Tenth Schedule has been successful in curbing the defection of elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures. However, the law has also been criticized for being too harsh and for stifling dissent.

The answer is D, aphid.

Aphids are small, soft-bodied insects that feed on the sap of plants. They are considered pests because they can damage plants by sucking their juices.

Moth, bee, and cockroach are all insects that have six legs and three body parts. They are also all winged.

Lizard is a reptile that has four legs and a long tail. It is not an insect.

Aphids are different from the other options because they are not insects. They are in the order Hemiptera, which also includes true bugs, such as cicadas and leafhoppers.

The correct answer is: C. Both A and B

• Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a consumer consumes more of a good or service, the additional satisfaction or utility gained from each additional unit consumed declines. In other words, the more you have of something, the less you value each additional unit.

For example, let's say you're really hungry and you order a pizza. The first slice of pizza will taste amazing and you'll get a lot of utility from it. The second slice will still taste good, but not as good as the first slice. The third slice will still be good, but not as good as the second slice, and so on.

• Law of Diminishing Returns

The law of diminishing returns states that in all productive processes, adding more of one input (e.g., labor) while holding all other inputs constant will at some point yield lower incremental per-unit returns.

In other words, if you have a fixed amount of land and you add more and more workers, at some point the additional output from each additional worker will start to decline. This is because the workers will start to get in each other's way and there will be less and less land for each worker to work with.

• Explanation

In the context of the question, statement A is correct because it is a statement of the law of diminishing marginal utility. Statement B is also correct because it is a statement of the law of diminishing returns. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

The correct answer is: A. Haberlandt.

Haberlandt is regarded as the father of plant tissue culture because he was the first to propose the idea of growing plants from isolated plant cells in 1902. He also coined the term "plant tissue culture".

White is credited with developing the first successful method for growing plant cells in culture in 1934. He used a liquid medium to culture carrot cells, and he was able to keep the cells alive for several months.

Linnaeus is a Swedish botanist who is considered the father of modern taxonomy. He developed the binomial system of nomenclature, which is still used today to classify plants and animals.

Skoog is an American plant physiologist who is known for his work on plant growth regulators. He developed the Skoog medium, which is a nutrient medium that is used to culture plant cells.

Haberlandt's work was groundbreaking, and it laid the foundation for the development of plant tissue culture as a scientific discipline. White's work was also important, as it showed that plant cells could be grown in culture and that they could be maintained for long periods of time. Linnaeus' work was important for the development of taxonomy, but it did not have a direct impact on the development of plant tissue culture. Skoog's work was important for the development of plant growth regulators, but it did not have a direct impact on the development of plant tissue culture.

The correct answer is: D. All of the above.

The modern theory of plate tectonics states that the Earth's surface is made up of a number of rigid plates that move relative to each other. These plates are constantly in motion, and their movement is driven by convection currents in the Earth's mantle. The movement of the plates causes the creation of new oceanic crust at the mid-ocean ridges, the destruction of oceanic crust at subduction zones, and the collision of continental plates.

The creation of new oceanic crust occurs at the mid-ocean ridges, where two plates are moving apart. As the plates move apart, magma rises from the Earth's mantle and cools to form new oceanic crust. The destruction of oceanic crust occurs at subduction zones, where one plate is moving under another. As the plate is subducted, it is melted and recycled back into the Earth's mantle. The collision of continental plates can cause the formation of mountains, volcanoes, and earthquakes.

The theory of plate tectonics is a unifying theory that explains the movement of the Earth's plates and the features that are created by their movement. It is a well-tested theory that has been supported by a wide range of evidence.

The correct answer is: B. but the drop may only be temporary

The sentence "The unemployment rate has dropped sharply this month, though it may only be temporary" is grammatically correct. However, it is not clear what the speaker is trying to say. The word "though" introduces a contrast, so the speaker is saying that the unemployment rate has dropped sharply, but something else is true. What is that something else?

The answer is given in the second part of the sentence, "it may only be temporary." The speaker is saying that the drop in the unemployment rate may not be permanent. This is a reasonable thing to say, since the unemployment rate often fluctuates from month to month.

The other options are not as good. Option A, "but it may be only temporary," is the same as option B, but it is wordier. Option C, "even though the drop may only be temporary," is also the same as option B, but it is more formal. Option D, "but such a drop may only be a temporary one," is not as clear as option B. It is not clear what the speaker means by "such a drop." Option E, "No correction required," is not correct. The sentence is grammatically correct, but it is not clear what the speaker is trying to say.

The correct answer is: B. British.

The Zamindari system was a land revenue system introduced by the British East India Company in Bengal in the 18th century. Under this system, the Company granted large tracts of land to local landlords, known as zamindars, in return for a fixed annual revenue. The zamindars were responsible for collecting revenue from the peasants who worked the land.

The Zamindari system was widely criticized for being exploitative and for leading to widespread poverty. It was abolished in 1950 after India gained independence.

The other options are incorrect. The Mughals were a Muslim dynasty that ruled over India from the 16th to the 18th centuries. The Pala Dynasty was a Buddhist dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 8th to the 12th centuries. The Sena Dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 11th to the 12th centuries.

The correct answer is: E. No error

The sentence is grammatically correct. The word "which" is used to introduce a relative clause that provides additional information about the noun "schools." The word "had" is the past tense of the verb "have," and it is used to indicate that the schools in question used English as their medium of instruction. The word "as" is a subordinating conjunction that introduces a clause that provides a reason for the fact that the schools used English as their medium of instruction. The word "majority" is a noun that refers to the largest number of people in a group. The word "there" is a pronoun that refers to the area in which the schools are located. The word "spoke" is the past tense of the verb "speak," and it is used to indicate that the majority of people in the area spoke English.

The sentence is clear and easy to understand. It does not contain any errors in grammar, punctuation, or spelling.

The correct answer is C. Both A & B.

Momentum is a physical quantity that is the product of mass and velocity. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The SI unit of momentum is the kilogram-meter per second (kg m/s).

Momentum is a conserved quantity, meaning that it is always conserved in a closed system. This means that the total momentum of a system will always remain the same, unless there is an external force acting on the system.

Momentum is an important concept in physics, and it is used in many different areas, such as mechanics, fluid dynamics, and particle physics.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Mass. Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object. It is a scalar quantity, meaning it has only magnitude. The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
• Option B: Velocity. Velocity is a measure of how fast an object is moving and in what direction it is moving. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The SI unit of velocity is the meter per second (m/s).
• Option C: Both A & B. Momentum is a physical quantity that is the product of mass and velocity. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The SI unit of momentum is the kilogram-meter per second (kg m/s).
• Option D: None of the above. This option is incorrect because momentum is related to both mass and velocity.

The correct answer is B. 120/80.

Blood pressure is the force of blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). The top number, or systolic pressure, is the pressure when your heart beats. The bottom number, or diastolic pressure, is the pressure when your heart is at rest between beats.

Normal blood pressure is less than 120/80 mm Hg. If your blood pressure is between 120/80 and 139/89 mm Hg, you have prehypertension. If your blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg or higher, you have high blood pressure.

High blood pressure is a major risk factor for heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, and other health problems. If you have high blood pressure, it is important to work with your doctor to control it.

Option A is incorrect because 80/120 is a higher blood pressure than 120/80.

Option C is incorrect because 80/110 is a higher blood pressure than 120/80.

Option D is incorrect because 110/90 is a higher blood pressure than 120/80.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it provides a reason why persons convicted of criminal offences in the past should not be allowed to contest elections in India. The argument states that such persons cannot serve the cause of the people and country. This is a valid reason because it is based on the assumption that persons who have been convicted of criminal offences are not fit to hold public office.

Argument II is weak because it does not provide a reason why persons convicted of criminal offences in the past should be allowed to contest elections in India. The argument simply states that it is democracy and that people should decide whom to vote for. This is not a valid reason because it does not address the issue of whether or not persons convicted of criminal offences are fit to hold public office.

In conclusion, only argument I is strong. Argument II is weak.

The correct answer is: A. Alauddin Khalji

Alauddin Khalji was the first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state. He did this in order to promote religious harmony and to show his support for the Muslim community. He also wanted to improve relations with the Muslim world.

Feroz Tughlaq also organized Haj pilgrimage, but he did not do it at the expense of the state. He required pilgrims to pay for their own travel and expenses.

Akbar did not organize Haj pilgrimage. He was a tolerant ruler who allowed Muslims to practice their religion freely, but he did not support the Haj pilgrimage financially.

Aurangzeb did not organize Haj pilgrimage either. He was a conservative ruler who tried to impose Islamic law on his subjects. He did not support the Haj pilgrimage because he believed that it was a waste of money.

In conclusion, Alauddin Khalji was the first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state. He did this in order to promote religious harmony and to show his support for the Muslim community. He also wanted to improve relations with the Muslim world.

The correct answer is (a) Lithium. Lithium is the lightest metal in the periodic table, with a density of 0.534 g/cm3. It is a soft, silvery-white metal that is highly reactive. Beryllium (density 1.85 g/cm3), zinc (density 7.14 g/cm3), and sodium (density 0.97 g/cm3) are all heavier than lithium.

Lithium is a member of the alkali metal group and is the third element in the periodic table. It is a highly reactive metal that is used in batteries, lubricants, and other applications. Beryllium is a member of the alkaline earth metal group and is the fourth element in the periodic table. It is a hard, brittle metal that is used in alloys, ceramics, and other applications. Zinc is a member of the transition metal group and is the 30th element in the periodic table. It is a blue-white metal that is used in batteries, pigments, and other applications. Sodium is a member of the alkali metal group and is the 11th element in the periodic table. It is a soft, silvery-white metal that is used in batteries, soaps, and other applications.

The correct answer is Aman. Aman rice is a type of rice that is predominantly grown in West Bengal. It is a short-grain rice that is known for its soft texture and nutty flavor. Aman rice is a popular choice for making biryani and other rice dishes.

Basmati rice is a type of long-grain rice that is grown in India and Pakistan. It is known for its long, slender grains and its delicate, fragrant flavor. Basmati rice is often used in pilafs and other rice dishes.

Sona Masuri rice is a type of short-grain rice that is grown in India. It is known for its soft, fluffy texture and its mild flavor. Sona Masuri rice is often used in pulao and other rice dishes.

Ponni rice is a type of long-grain rice that is grown in India. It is known for its strong, nutty flavor and its ability to hold its shape when cooked. Ponni rice is often used in idli and dosa.

Aman rice is a type of rice that is predominantly grown in West Bengal. It is a short-grain rice that is known for its soft texture and nutty flavor. Aman rice is a popular choice for making biryani and other rice dishes.

The correct answer is (d). The Constituent Assembly for framing the Constitution for Independent India was set up in 1946.

The Constituent Assembly was a body of elected representatives who were responsible for drafting the Constitution of India. The Assembly was set up on 9 December 1946, and its first meeting was held on 11 December 1946. The Assembly consisted of 389 members, of whom 292 were elected from British India and 93 were nominated by the princely states. The Assembly was presided over by Dr Rajendra Prasad.

The Constituent Assembly worked for two years and 11 months, and it adopted the Constitution of India on 26 November 1949. The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.

The Constituent Assembly was a historic body that played a vital role in the making of modern India. The Assembly's work was complex and challenging, but it was ultimately successful in drafting a Constitution that has served India well for over 70 years.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly was not set up in 1945. The Cabinet Mission Plan, which proposed the setting up of the Constituent Assembly, was announced on 16 May 1946. Option (b) is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly was not set up in 1947. India gained independence on 15 August 1947, and the Constituent Assembly was already in existence by that time. Option (c) is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly was not set up in 1949. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949, but the Constituent Assembly had been in existence for two years and 11 months by that time.

The correct answer is: B. the rolling friction is much less than the sliding friction.

When an object rolls, the only force that opposes its motion is rolling friction. Rolling friction is much less than sliding friction because the contact area between the object and the surface is much smaller. This is because the object rolls on a small contact patch, while when it slides, the entire surface of the object is in contact with the surface.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled. This is true, but it does not explain why it is easier to roll the barrel than to pull it.
• C. more surface area of the barrel is in contact with the road when it is pulled. This is also true, but it does not explain why it is easier to roll the barrel than to pull it.
• D. coal tar is a liquid and it flows in the barrel when it is rolled. This is true, but it does not explain why it is easier to roll the barrel than to pull it.

The correct answer is (d).

A decree is a court order that requires a party to do something or to refrain from doing something. Under the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), a decree may be executed by the court which passed it or by the court to which it is sent for execution.

The Tehsildar is a revenue officer in charge of a tehsil, which is a sub-division of a district. The Collector is a revenue officer in charge of a district. The District Judge is a judicial officer who is the head of the district judiciary.

The Tehsildar, Collector, and District Judge are not empowered to execute decrees under the CPC. Only the court which passed the decree or the court to which it is sent for execution can execute a decree.

The court which passed the decree has the first right to execute the decree. If the court which passed the decree is unable or unwilling to execute the decree, the decree may be sent to another court for execution. The court to which the decree is sent for execution is called the executing court.

The executing court has the power to take all necessary steps to enforce the decree, including the attachment of property, the sale of property, and the arrest of the judgment debtor.

The correct answer is: A. 1950

The Planning Commission was set up on March 15, 1950 by the Government of India to formulate a comprehensive plan for the development of the country. It was headed by the Prime Minister and had a number of members, including representatives of the central and state governments, as well as experts in various fields.

The Planning Commission was responsible for preparing five-year plans for the development of the country. The first five-year plan was launched in 1951 and the last one was launched in 1997. The Planning Commission was dissolved in 2014 and its functions were transferred to the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog).

Option B is incorrect because the Planning Commission was set up in 1950, not 1951.

Option C is incorrect because the Planning Commission was set up in 1950, not 1952.

Option D is incorrect because the Planning Commission was set up in 1950, not 1949.

The correct answer is (a) Ladakh.

The world's highest movie theater, the highest in the world, opened in August 2021 in Ladakh, India. The theater is located at an altitude of 12,500 feet (3,810 meters) in the village of Phyang. It has a capacity of 75 people and shows Bollywood films.

The theater was built by the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) with the help of the Indian government. The LAHDC is a local government body that is responsible for the development of Ladakh. The Indian government provided financial assistance for the construction of the theater.

The theater is expected to attract tourists to Ladakh. Ladakh is a popular tourist destination in India. It is known for its stunning scenery, including snow-capped mountains, glaciers, and lakes. The theater is expected to provide tourists with a unique experience of watching a movie in a high-altitude location.

The theater is also expected to promote the local culture of Ladakh. Ladakh has a rich culture and history. The theater is expected to showcase the local culture through the films that are shown.

The theater is a welcome addition to Ladakh. It is expected to attract tourists, promote the local culture, and provide a unique experience for moviegoers.

The other options are incorrect because they are not locations in Ladakh.

Badal Sarkar experimented with Stage craft, costumes, presentation and subject matter of theatre. He is seen as modern Indian playwright in Bengali just as Vijay Tendulkar in Marathi and Girish Karnad in Kannada.

The correct answer is C) Subhas Chandra Bose.

Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist who was the leader of the Indian National Army (INA). The INA was an armed force formed by Indian soldiers who had been captured by the Japanese during World War II. The INA fought against the British in India, and it was a major factor in the Indian independence movement.

Mahatma Gandhi was a leader of the Indian independence movement who used nonviolent resistance to achieve his goals. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a leader of the Indian independence movement who was known for his administrative skills.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* A) Mahatma Gandhi was a leader of the Indian independence movement who used nonviolent resistance to achieve his goals. He is considered the father of modern India.
* B) Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. He was a leader of the Indian independence movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.
* C) Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist who was the leader of the Indian National Army (INA). The INA was an armed force formed by Indian soldiers who had been captured by the Japanese during World War II. The INA fought against the British in India, and it was a major factor in the Indian independence movement.
* D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a leader of the Indian independence movement who was known for his administrative skills. He was instrumental in the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union after independence.

The most popular fertilizer for foliar application is urea. Urea is a water-soluble nitrogen fertilizer that is quickly absorbed by plants. It is also relatively inexpensive and easy to use. Urea can be applied to plants as a foliar spray or as a side dressing. When applied as a foliar spray, urea is absorbed directly by the leaves and can provide a quick boost of nitrogen to plants. When applied as a side dressing, urea is absorbed through the roots and provides a more gradual release of nitrogen.

Sodium nitrate is a water-soluble nitrogen fertilizer that is also quickly absorbed by plants. However, sodium nitrate can be more expensive than urea and it can also increase the salinity of the soil.

DAP is a water-soluble phosphorus fertilizer that is not as quickly absorbed by plants as urea or sodium nitrate. DAP is also more expensive than urea or sodium nitrate.

Potassium chloride is a water-soluble potassium fertilizer that is not as quickly absorbed by plants as urea or sodium nitrate. Potassium chloride is also more expensive than urea or sodium nitrate.

In conclusion, urea is the most popular fertilizer for foliar application because it is inexpensive, easy to use, and quickly absorbed by plants.

The correct answer is: C. There is no relation between iso-production curve and ridge curves.

An iso-product curve is a curve that shows all the combinations of inputs that produce the same level of output. A ridge curve is a curve that shows the maximum output that can be produced with a given set of inputs.

There is no direct relationship between iso-product curves and ridge curves. Iso-product curves show the combinations of inputs that produce the same level of output, while ridge curves show the maximum output that can be produced with a given set of inputs. These are two different concepts, and there is no reason why they should be related.

In fact, it is possible for an iso-product curve to intersect a ridge curve. This would happen if the combination of inputs represented by the iso-product curve was also the combination of inputs that produced the maximum output. However, this is not a necessary relationship, and it is possible for an iso-product curve to never intersect a ridge curve.

In conclusion, there is no direct relationship between iso-product curves and ridge curves. These are two different concepts, and there is no reason why they should be related.

The correct answer is C. both (a) and (b).

The Paleozoic era was a time of great geological activity. The Caledonian mountain range rose in the northern hemisphere, while the Appalachians and Central European mountains rose in the southern hemisphere. Life also came ashore during this time, and the first animals to do so were invertebrates.

The Caledonian mountain range was formed when the continents of Laurentia and Baltica collided. This collision caused the Earth's crust to fold and buckle, creating a mountain range that stretched from Greenland to Scotland. The Appalachians and Central European mountains were formed when the continents of Gondwana and Laurasia collided. This collision also caused the Earth's crust to fold and buckle, creating a mountain range that stretched from North America to Europe.

The first animals to come ashore were invertebrates, such as sea scorpions and trilobites. These animals were able to survive on land because they had hard exoskeletons that protected them from the elements. They also had gills that allowed them to breathe underwater.

The Paleozoic era was a time of great change and upheaval. The Earth's surface was constantly changing, and life was also evolving rapidly. The first animals to come ashore were a major milestone in the history of life on Earth.

The correct answer is: B. geyser

A geyser is a type of hot spring that erupts periodically, ejecting a column of hot water and steam into the air. Geysers form when groundwater heated by magma rises through cracks in the Earth's crust. The water is superheated, meaning that it is hotter than its boiling point. When the pressure is released, the water and steam erupt.

Craters are bowl-shaped depressions in the Earth's surface that are formed by volcanic eruptions. Hot springs are natural springs of water that are heated by magma or geothermal energy. Volcanoes are mountains or other landforms that are formed when magma erupts from the Earth's crust.

The correct answer is C. 47%.

Urea is a chemical compound with the formula CO(NH2)2. It is a white, odorless solid that is produced in the liver from ammonia and carbon dioxide. Urea is the main component of urine and is also used in fertilizers and other industrial applications.

The percentage of nitrogen in urea can be calculated by the following equation:

%N = (N/M) x 100

where N is the mass of nitrogen in the compound and M is the molar mass of the compound.

The molar mass of urea is 60.06 g/mol. The mass of nitrogen in urea is 28.02 g/mol. Therefore, the percentage of nitrogen in urea is:

%N = (28.02/60.06) x 100 = 47%

Option A is incorrect because it is the percentage of oxygen in urea. Option B is incorrect because it is the percentage of carbon in urea. Option D is incorrect because it is the percentage of hydrogen in urea.

The Subroto Cup is an annual football tournament for school children in India. It is named after Subroto Mukherjee, the first Indian Air Force chief. The tournament is organized by the Air India Sports Promotion Society and is open to boys and girls in the age group of 10-14 years. The tournament is played in a knock-out format and the final is played at the Air Force Stadium in New Delhi.

The Subroto Cup is one of the most prestigious football tournaments in India. It has produced some of the country's best footballers, including Bhaichung Bhutia, Sunil Chhetri, and Jeje Lalpekhlua. The tournament is also a great opportunity for young footballers to showcase their talent and get noticed by scouts from professional clubs.

The Subroto Cup is a great way to promote football in India and to encourage young people to take up the sport. It is also a great opportunity for schools to compete against each other and to develop their footballing skills. The tournament has been running for over 50 years and it is still going strong. It is a great example of how sport can be used to promote education and development.

The other options are not correct because they are not associated with football. Hockey is a team sport in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. Football is a team sport in which two teams of eleven players try to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms. Basketball is a team sport in which two teams of five players each try to score points by throwing a ball through a hoop elevated 10 feet above the ground. Badminton is a racquet sport in which two or four players hit a shuttlecock with racquets across a net.

The correct answer is: D. Neither I nor II is implicit.

The statement "In spite of poor services, the commutators have not complained against it" does not provide enough information to determine whether or not assumption I (Generally people do not tolerate poor services) or assumption II (Complaints sometimes improve services) is implicit. It is possible that the commutators do not tolerate poor services, but they have not complained because they do not believe that complaining will improve the services. It is also possible that the commutators do tolerate poor services, or that they do not believe that complaining will improve the services.

In order to determine whether or not assumption I or II is implicit, we would need more information about the commutators' attitudes towards poor services and their beliefs about the effectiveness of complaining.

The correct answer is C. Cousin.

Here is a step-by-step explanation:

1. Deepak's father's wife is Deepak's stepmother.
2. The daughter of Deepak's stepmother is Deepak's stepsister.
3. The younger of the two brothers of Deepak's stepsister is Deepak's stepsister's brother.
4. Deepak's stepsister's brother is Deepak's cousin.

Therefore, the boy playing football is Deepak's cousin.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Son: This is incorrect because Deepak and the boy playing football have different fathers.
• Brother: This is incorrect because Deepak and the boy playing football have different mothers.
• Brother-in-law: This is incorrect because Deepak and the boy playing football are not married to each other's siblings.
• Cousin: This is the correct answer because Deepak and the boy playing football are related through their mothers.

The correct answer is C. S. R. Tendulkar and Prof. C. N. R. Rao.

S. R. Tendulkar is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of the sport. He is the highest run-scorer of all time in international cricket, and he holds the record for the most centuries in both Test and One Day International (ODI) cricket. Tendulkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2014.

Prof. C. N. R. Rao is an Indian chemist who is known for his work on solid-state and materials chemistry. He is the first Indian scientist to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, which he won in 1983. Rao was also awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2013.

A. S. R. Tendulkar and P. V. Narsimha Rao were both Indian politicians. Tendulkar was the Prime Minister of India from 1991 to 1996, while Rao was the Prime Minister of India from 1998 to 2004. Neither of them was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2013.

B. S. R. Tendulkar and N. T. Rama Rao were both Indian actors. Tendulkar was a popular actor in the 1970s and 1980s, while Rama Rao was a popular actor in the 1950s and 1960s. Neither of them was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2013.

D. S. R. Tendulkar and Nageshwar Rao were both Indian cricketers. Tendulkar was a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of the sport, while Nageshwar Rao is a current Indian cricketer. Neither of them was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2013.

The correct answer is (b) Purshottam Das Tandon.

Purshottam Das Tandon was the first Speaker of the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly. He was elected to the Legislative Assembly in 1937 and served as Speaker from 1937 to 1952. He was also a member of the Indian National Congress and served as the President of the Uttar Pradesh Congress Committee from 1937 to 1946.

Madan Mohan Verma was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1977 to 1979. He was also a member of the Rajya Sabha from 1980 to 1986.

Atmaram Govind Kheir was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1985 to 1988. He was also a member of the Lok Sabha from 1980 to 1984.

Nafisul Hasan is a member of the Samajwadi Party and served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 2012 to 2017. He is also a member of the Rajya Sabha from 2018 to 2024.

The Toto tribe is considered a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) and is primarily found in Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal, India. They are a small tribe of about 10,000 people who live in the hills of the Dooars region. The Totos are a matrilineal society, which means that property and inheritance are passed down through the female line. They are also a polytheistic religion, and their main deity is called Singbonga. The Totos are a very traditional people, and they have a rich culture and heritage. They are known for their unique language, their traditional dress, and their music and dance.

The Totos are a very vulnerable group, and they face many challenges. They are often discriminated against, and they have limited access to education and healthcare. They are also at risk of losing their land and their traditional way of life. The Indian government has taken some steps to protect the Totos, but more needs to be done to ensure their survival.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Purulia district is home to the Santhal tribe.
* The Sundarbans is a mangrove forest in the Bay of Bengal.
* The Kolkata Metropolitan Area is a large urban area in West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d). Native Opinion was the first newspaper published by the Indians in English language. It was founded in 1821 by Bhau Daji Lad, a Marathi scholar and social reformer. The newspaper was published from Bombay (now Mumbai) and was a major voice of the Indian independence movement. It was also a forum for the discussion of social and political issues. Native Opinion was a weekly newspaper and was printed in both English and Marathi. It was one of the most popular newspapers in India during the 19th century.

The other options are incorrect. Hindu Patriot was a newspaper founded in 1857 by Girish Chandra Ghosh. It was a pro-British newspaper and was critical of the Indian independence movement. The Hindu was a newspaper founded in 1878 by Kasturi Srinivasan. It is one of the oldest and most respected newspapers in India. Young India was a newspaper founded in 1919 by Mahatma Gandhi. It was a mouthpiece of the Indian independence movement and was critical of the British government.

The correct answer is: D. Five popular animal of China

Fuwa is a portmanteau of the Chinese words 福 (fú, meaning "fortune") and 娃 (wá, meaning "child"). The five mascots are Beibei (北北), Jingjing (晶晶), Huanhuan (欢欢), Yingying (迎迎), and Nini (妮妮). Beibei is a fish, Jingjing is a panda, Huanhuan is a Tibetan antelope, Yingying is a swallow, and Nini is a fire-cracker. The five mascots represent the five Olympic rings and the five elements of Chinese philosophy: water, wood, fire, earth, and metal.

Option A is incorrect because it includes the Olympic Flame, which is not one of the five elements of Chinese philosophy.

Option B is incorrect because it includes the map of China, which is not one of the five Olympic rings.

Option C is incorrect because it includes the world map, which is not one of the five elements of Chinese philosophy.

Two houses of the Legislature : The Legislative Council and the Legislative Assembly were created under the Government of India Act, 1935.

The correct answer is D. The Bangla Academy Literary Award is given for novels, short stories, poetry, and other literary works in the Bengali language. It is the highest literary award in Bangladesh. The award was instituted in 1956 by the Bangla Academy, a government-sponsored institution for the promotion of Bengali literature. The award is given annually to the best literary work published in the previous year. The award consists of a cash prize, a plaque, and a citation. The award is considered to be a great honor for any Bengali writer.

Option A is incorrect because the Bangla Academy Literary Award is not only given for novels. It is also given for short stories, poetry, and other literary works.

Option B is incorrect because the Bangla Academy Literary Award is not only given for short stories. It is also given for novels, poetry, and other literary works.

Option C is incorrect because the Bangla Academy Literary Award is not only given for poetry. It is also given for novels, short stories, and other literary works.

The correct answer is: C. Labour Day

1 May is observed as Labour Day or International Workers' Day in many countries around the world. It is a day to celebrate the achievements of the labour movement and to promote workers' rights.

The first Labour Day was celebrated in 1886 in Chicago, Illinois, United States. The day was chosen because it was the anniversary of the Haymarket Affair, a violent clash between workers and police that resulted in the deaths of several people.

Labour Day is now celebrated in over 80 countries around the world. In some countries, it is a public holiday, while in others it is a day for workers to take part in demonstrations and rallies.

A. World day for War Orphans is observed on 6 June.
B. United Nations Day for South-South Cooperation is observed on 12 September.
D. World Suicide Prevention Day is observed on 10 September.

Some movies of actor Dev are Agnis Path, Dui Prithibi, Paglu, Challenge, Khoka 420, Rangbaaz, Chaner Pahar, etc.

The correct answer is A. Itinerant.

An itinerant is a person who travels from place to place, typically for work or to sell goods. They may live in a van, RV, or other mobile home, or they may stay in temporary lodgings such as hotels or hostels. Itinerants often have a nomadic lifestyle, and they may not have a permanent home.

A mendicant is a person who begs for money or food. They may do this as a way of life, or they may do it because they are unable to work. Mendicants often live on the streets, and they may be seen as a nuisance or a threat by some people.

A journeyman is a skilled worker who has completed an apprenticeship and is now qualified to work independently. Journeymen often travel from place to place, looking for work. They may also be employed by a company that sends them to different locations on a regular basis.

A tramp is a person who travels from place to place without a fixed home or job. Tramps may be homeless, or they may choose to live a nomadic lifestyle. They often live in poverty, and they may be seen as a social outcast.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "One who travels from place to place" is A. Itinerant.

The correct answer is (b). The Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) was established in 1976. It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Government of India and is the principal export credit agency of India. Exim Bank provides financial assistance to Indian exporters and importers, and also promotes Indian exports through various schemes and initiatives.

Option (a) is incorrect because the Export-Import Bank of India was established in 1976, not 1964.

Option (c) is incorrect because the Export-Import Bank of India was established in 1976, not 1980.

Option (d) is incorrect because the Export-Import Bank of India was established in 1976, not 1982.

The correct answer is: A. The same in both cases in all respects.

The pitch of a sound is determined by its frequency, which is the number of waves that pass a given point in a given amount of time. The higher the frequency, the higher the pitch. The speed of sound is constant, so the frequency of a sound will not change as the source of the sound moves towards or away from you.

The intensity of a sound is determined by its amplitude, which is the height of the waves. The higher the amplitude, the louder the sound. The intensity of a sound will increase as the source of the sound moves towards you, and decrease as the source of the sound moves away from you.

In the case of a train whistle, the pitch of the whistle will be the same whether the train is arriving or departing. The intensity of the whistle will be higher when the train is arriving, because the train is moving towards you and the sound waves are therefore closer together.

The correct answer is C) 1973.

The West Bengal Land Reforms Act was enacted in 1973. It was a major piece of legislation that sought to redistribute land and improve the lives of the rural poor in West Bengal. The Act abolished the zamindari system, which was a system of land tenure in which large landowners, known as zamindars, held most of the land and collected rent from the peasants who worked it. The Act also limited the amount of land that a person could own and required landowners to lease land to tenants on a fair and equitable basis.

The West Bengal Land Reforms Act was a landmark piece of legislation that had a significant impact on the lives of the rural poor in West Bengal. It helped to redistribute land and improve the lives of the peasants who worked it. However, the Act has also been criticized for being too complex and for not being implemented effectively.

The other options are incorrect. Option A, 1955, is the year in which the Indian Constitution was adopted. Option B, 1962, is the year in which the Sino-Indian War took place. Option D, 1980, is the year in which Indira Gandhi was assassinated.

The correct answer is D. West Bengal experiences an influx of migrants from neighboring states such as Bihar and Jharkhand, Assam and Tripura, Nepal and Bhutan.

Bihar and Jharkhand are two of the poorest states in India, and many people from these states migrate to West Bengal in search of better opportunities. Assam and Tripura are also relatively poor states, and they have a long history of conflict between different ethnic groups. This has led to a large number of people from these states migrating to West Bengal in search of peace and stability. Nepal and Bhutan are two of the poorest countries in South Asia, and many people from these countries migrate to West Bengal in search of better jobs and a higher standard of living.

The influx of migrants from neighboring states has had a significant impact on West Bengal. The state has had to deal with the challenges of providing basic services such as housing, education, and healthcare to the migrants. The influx of migrants has also led to an increase in crime and social unrest.

Despite the challenges, the influx of migrants has also had some positive effects on West Bengal. The migrants have brought with them new skills and ideas, and they have helped to boost the state's economy. The migrants have also helped to make West Bengal a more diverse and cosmopolitan state.

The correct answer is: A. 2 feet 10 inches.

The net is 3 feet 6 inches high at the posts, but it is 2 feet 10 inches high in the center. This is to ensure that the ball can pass over the net without hitting it too high.

Option B is incorrect because the net is not 2 feet 11 inches high in the center.

Option C is incorrect because the net is not 2 feet 1 inch high in the center.

Option D is incorrect because the net is not 3 feet 6 inches high in the center.

The Damodar river originates from the Khamarpath hill of the Chotanagpur plateau in Bihar. After flowing for about 289 km in Bihar, it enters West Bengal.

The correct answer is (a). Wheat is a cereal crop that is not susceptible to Phalaris minor, a type of grass that is a weed in wheat fields. The other options are all correctly matched.

• Potato - Late blight: Late blight is a fungal disease that can cause severe damage to potato crops.
• Bajra - Ergot: Ergot is a fungal disease that can cause grain to become infected and produce a toxic substance.
• Sugarcane - Powdery mildew: Powdery mildew is a fungal disease that can cause white powdery spots on the leaves of sugarcane plants.

Phalaris minor is a type of grass that is a weed in wheat fields. It can compete with wheat for water and nutrients, and it can also harbor diseases that can infect wheat plants. Wheat is not susceptible to Phalaris minor, so this is not a correct match.

Major flowers produced in West Bengal are rose, tubersose, carnation, gerbera, gladiolus, hibiscus, orchids and marigold. Main flower producers are Kalimpong, Pamkskura, Ranaghat, Thakurnagar, Bagnan, etc. Main exports are sent to Middle East countries.

The correct answer is: A. intensity of illumination.

Lux is the SI unit of illuminance, which is a measure of the amount of light that is incident on a surface. Illuminance is equal to the luminous flux per unit area, and is measured in lux (lx).

Luminous efficiency is a measure of how efficiently a light source emits visible light. It is defined as the ratio of the luminous flux to the radiant flux, and is measured in lumens per watt (lm/W).

Luminous flux is a measure of the total amount of visible light emitted by a light source. It is measured in lumens (lm).

Luminous intensity is a measure of the strength of a light source in a particular direction. It is defined as the luminous flux per unit solid angle, and is measured in candelas (cd).

In brief, lux is a measure of how much light is falling on a surface, while luminous efficiency is a measure of how efficiently a light source emits visible light. Luminous flux is a measure of the total amount of visible light emitted by a light source, and luminous intensity is a measure of the strength of a light source in a particular direction.

The correct answer is D.

The mother is jeering at her son, which means she is mocking or ridiculing him. She is asking him whether he supposes that he knows better than his father. This suggests that she believes that her son is being arrogant and disrespectful by thinking that he knows more than his father.

Option A is incorrect because the mother is not asking if her son is supposed to know better than his father. She is asking if he supposes that he knows better.

Option B is incorrect because the mother is not asking whether her son knows better than his father. She is asking if he supposes that he knows better.

Option C is incorrect because the mother is not asking whether her son supposed that he would know better than his father. She is asking if he supposes that he knows better.

The correct answer is C. Pia mater.

The pia mater is the innermost of the three meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord. It is a thin, delicate membrane that is closely attached to the surface of the brain and spinal cord. The pia mater is composed of a single layer of cells and contains a network of blood vessels that supply the brain and spinal cord with blood.

The dura mater is the outermost of the three meninges. It is a thick, tough membrane that is attached to the skull. The dura mater contains a layer of blood vessels that supply the meninges with blood.

The arachnoid membrane is the middle of the three meninges. It is a thin, delicate membrane that is located between the dura mater and the pia mater. The arachnoid membrane contains a space called the subarachnoid space, which is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

The pleural membrane is a thin, serous membrane that lines the lungs and the inner surface of the chest wall. It helps to protect the lungs and to keep them moist.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is $boxed{text{A. }4467}$.

The sequence is a simple subtraction of $5824-5242=582$, $5242-4718=524$, $4718-4856=-138$, and $4856-5164=-308$. Therefore, the next number in the sequence is $5824-582=boxed{4467}$.

Option B is incorrect because $5242-4718=524$, not $5242-4718=582$.

Option C is incorrect because $4718-4856=-138$, not $4718-4856=524$.

Option D is incorrect because $4856-5164=-308$, not $4856-5164=524$.

The correct answer is (d). The 7th BRICS Summit of 2015 was held in Ufa, Russia.

Abaza is a town in the Republic of Adygea, Russia. It is located on the left bank of the Belaya River, 100 kilometers (62 mi) north of Maykop, the capital of Adygea. The town has a population of 45,000 people.

Balakovo is a city in Saratov Oblast, Russia. It is located on the Volga River, 100 kilometers (62 mi) north of Saratov. The city has a population of 117,000 people.

Kotovo is a town in Saratov Oblast, Russia. It is located on the Volga River, 120 kilometers (75 mi) north of Saratov. The town has a population of 15,000 people.

Ufa is the capital of Bashkortostan, Russia. It is located on the Belaya River, 1,400 kilometers (870 mi) east of Moscow. The city has a population of 1,116,000 people.

The correct answer is (c) Section 53.

Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of facts proving the existence of a state of mind. Section 27 deals with the relevancy of facts proving the existence of a right or custom. Section 133 deals with the relevancy of facts proving the existence of a general reputation. Section 53 deals with the relevancy of facts proving the existence of a public right.

Public rights are rights that are enjoyed by the public at large, such as the right to use a public road. Section 53 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that facts proving the existence of a public right are relevant in a civil case in which the existence of the right is in issue.

For example, if a person is sued for trespass, they may argue that they had a right to be on the land in question. In this case, the court would consider evidence of the existence of a public right to use the land. If there is evidence that the land is a public road, then the court would be more likely to find that the person had a right to be on the land.

However, Section 53 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not apply to criminal cases. In a criminal case, the prosecution must prove the guilt of the accused beyond a reasonable doubt. This means that the prosecution cannot rely on evidence of public rights to prove the guilt of the accused.

For example, if a person is charged with murder, the prosecution cannot rely on evidence that the victim was a member of the public to prove that the accused had a motive to kill the victim. The prosecution must prove that the accused had a personal motive to kill the victim.

In conclusion, Section 53 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with criminal matters.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Disaster preparedness in West Bengal involves early warning systems, evacuation plans, and infrastructure strengthening.

Early warning systems are used to detect and warn people of impending disasters. This can be done through a variety of means, such as sirens, public announcements, and text messages.

Evacuation plans are used to ensure that people can safely leave an area that is at risk of a disaster. These plans should be clear and concise, and they should be communicated to all residents in the affected area.

Infrastructure strengthening is used to make buildings and other infrastructure more resistant to damage from disasters. This can be done through a variety of means, such as using stronger materials, improving drainage systems, and installing early warning systems.

All of these measures are essential to ensure the safety of people in West Bengal in the event of a disaster.

The correct answer is D. impropriety.

A scandal is an action or event regarded as morally or legally wrong and causing general public outrage. In this case, the murderer was declared innocent, which is considered to be an impropriety because it is morally wrong to let a murderer go free.

A rumour is a piece of unverified information that is spread from person to person. In this case, the rumour could be that the murderer was declared innocent because they were rich or had connections.

Silly is an adjective that means foolish or stupid. In this case, it would be silly to say that the murderer was declared innocent because they were rich or had connections.

Talk is a verb that means to speak about something. In this case, it would be talk to say that the murderer was declared innocent because they were rich or had connections.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is A. halogen.

Halogens are elements in the 17th group of the periodic table. They are highly reactive and form salts with metals. The three elements with atomic numbers 35, 53, and 85 are chlorine, iodine, and astatine, respectively. All three of these elements are halogens.

Alkaline metals are elements in the 1st group of the periodic table. They are highly reactive and form hydroxides with water. The three elements with atomic numbers 1, 3, and 11 are hydrogen, lithium, and sodium, respectively. None of these elements are halogens.

Inert gases are elements in the 18th group of the periodic table. They are highly unreactive and do not form compounds with other elements. The three elements with atomic numbers 2, 10, and 18 are helium, neon, and argon, respectively. None of these elements are halogens.

Halides are compounds that contain a halogen atom. The three elements with atomic numbers 35, 53, and 85 are chlorine, iodine, and astatine, respectively. All three of these elements can form halides with other elements. However, the term "halide" is more commonly used to refer to compounds that contain chlorine or bromine.

The correct answer is A. Seige. The correct spelling is siege.

A siege is a military operation in which an armed force surrounds a town or building to capture it by cutting off supplies and communications.

Solemn is an adjective meaning serious, dignified, and earnest.

Syllable is a unit of pronunciation having one vowel sound, with or without surrounding consonants, forming the whole or a part of a word.

Seize is a verb meaning to take or capture by force.

The answer is B. Grief.

Anger, humorous, kindness, and joy are all emotions. Grief is a feeling of deep sadness or sorrow, especially caused by the death of someone close.

Anger is a feeling of annoyance, displeasure, or hostility. It can be caused by a variety of things, such as being treated unfairly, being criticized, or being hurt.

Humorous is something that is funny or amusing. It can be caused by a variety of things, such as a joke, a funny story, or a funny situation.

Kindness is the quality of being friendly, generous, and considerate. It can be shown in a variety of ways, such as helping someone in need, being polite, or being forgiving.

Joy is a feeling of great pleasure and happiness. It can be caused by a variety of things, such as achieving a goal, spending time with loved ones, or experiencing something beautiful.

The correct answer is: B. National Science Day

National Science Day is celebrated on 24 March every year in India to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Indian physicist Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman in 1928. The Raman Effect is the scattering of light by a substance, and the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Raman in 1930 for his discovery.

National Science Day is a day to celebrate the achievements of Indian scientists and to promote science and technology in India. It is also a day to encourage young people to take up careers in science and technology.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Thinking Day is celebrated on 22 February every year by the World Association of Girl Guides and Girl Scouts.
• World Tuberculosis Day is celebrated on 24 March every year to raise awareness about tuberculosis and to promote its prevention and control.
• World Wildlife Day is celebrated on 3 March every year to celebrate the world's wild animals and plants and to raise awareness about the threats they face.

The correct answer is D. Neurons.

A neuron, also known as a nerve cell, is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. Neurons are specialized to transmit information to other cells in the body. They do this by sending electrical signals along their axons, which are long, thin projections that extend from the cell body. When an electrical signal reaches the end of an axon, it causes the release of chemicals called neurotransmitters. These neurotransmitters then bind to receptors on the surface of other cells, causing them to either fire an electrical signal or not. This process is how neurons communicate with each other and with other cells in the body.

Lymphs are a type of white blood cell that helps to fight infection. They are produced in the bone marrow and circulate through the body in the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is a network of vessels that helps to remove waste products and toxins from the body.

Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney. They are responsible for filtering the blood and producing urine. Urine is a waste product that contains water, salts, and other substances that the body does not need.

Nerves are bundles of axons that transmit information from the brain and spinal cord to other parts of the body. They are made up of three types of cells: neurons, glial cells, and Schwann cells. Neurons are the cells that transmit information, glial cells provide support and protection for neurons, and Schwann cells wrap around axons to form myelin sheaths, which insulate axons and speed up the transmission of information.

The correct answer is A. Arteries.

Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the body's tissues. They are thick-walled and muscular, which helps them to maintain a high blood pressure and to pump blood against the force of gravity.

Veins are blood vessels that carry oxygen-poor blood from the body's tissues back to the heart. They are thin-walled and have valves that help to prevent blood from flowing backwards.

Both arteries and veins are important for the circulatory system, but arteries play a more critical role in carrying oxygen-rich blood to the body's tissues.

The correct answer is A. Article 356.

Article 356 of the Constitution of India, also known as the President's Rule, is a provision that allows the President of India to suspend the state government and assume direct control over a state if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Article 356 has been invoked 129 times since the Constitution came into force in 1950. The most recent occasion was in November 2020, when the President's Rule was imposed in Maharashtra.

The imposition of President's Rule is a controversial issue, with some arguing that it is an undemocratic measure that allows the central government to interfere in the affairs of the states. Others argue that it is a necessary tool to maintain law and order and to ensure that the Constitution is upheld.

The following are the brief explanations of each option:

• Article 343 deals with the Official Language of the Union.
• Article 51(A) deals with Fundamental Duties.
• Article 80 deals with Composition of the Council of States.

The correct answer is: C. A colour blind person cannot see any colours.

Colour blindness is a condition in which people have difficulty distinguishing between certain colors. The most common type of colour blindness is red-green colour blindness, which affects about 8% of males and 0.5% of females. People with red-green colour blindness have difficulty distinguishing between red and green, and may also have difficulty distinguishing between other colors that are similar to red and green, such as orange and brown.

People with colour blindness can still see colors, but they may see them differently than people who are not colour blind. For example, a person with red-green colour blindness may see a red traffic light as green, or a green traffic light as red. This can be dangerous, as it can lead to accidents.

There is no cure for colour blindness, but there are ways to manage it. People with colour blindness can learn to rely on shapes, patterns, and positions of signs and signals to help them navigate the world. They can also use special glasses or contact lenses that can help them see colors more accurately.

Option A is true. Colour blind people learn to rely on shapes, patterns, and positions of signs and signals to help them navigate the world.

Option B is true. Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour blindness.

Option D is true. For some people, it might be difficult to recognize colours of traffic lights and signs.

The correct answer is D. Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad.

The Panchayati Raj System is a three-tier system of local self-government in India. It consists of the Gram Sabha (village assembly), the Panchayat Samiti (block panchayat), and the Zilla Parishad (district council).

The Gram Sabha is the lowest level of the Panchayati Raj System. It is a body of all the adult members of a village. The Gram Sabha is responsible for planning and implementing development schemes in the village. It also has the power to levy taxes and collect fees.

The Panchayat Samiti is the intermediate level of the Panchayati Raj System. It is a body of elected representatives from the villages in a block. The Panchayat Samiti is responsible for planning and implementing development schemes in the block. It also has the power to levy taxes and collect fees.

The Zilla Parishad is the highest level of the Panchayati Raj System. It is a body of elected representatives from the Panchayat Samitis in a district. The Zilla Parishad is responsible for planning and implementing development schemes in the district. It also has the power to levy taxes and collect fees.

The Panchayati Raj System is a vital part of the Indian democracy. It provides a platform for the people to participate in the decision-making process and to hold their elected representatives accountable. The Panchayati Raj System has been instrumental in bringing about development and social change in rural India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the three-tier structure of the Panchayati Raj System.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Patachitra is a genre of Indian painting that is typically done on cloth or paper. It is often used to depict scenes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, the life of Buddha, or local folklore and legends. Patachitra paintings are typically done in a style that is both realistic and stylized, and they often use bright colors and intricate patterns.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* Hindu epics like Ramayana and Mahabharata: The Ramayana and Mahabharata are two of the most important Hindu epics. The Ramayana tells the story of Rama, a prince who is exiled from his kingdom and must fight to reclaim his throne. The Mahabharata tells the story of a war between two families, the Pandavas and the Kauravas. Both epics are full of adventure, romance, and drama, and they have been told and retold for centuries.
* The life of Buddha: Buddha was a spiritual teacher who lived in India in the 6th century BCE. He is considered the founder of Buddhism, one of the world's major religions. Buddha's teachings focus on the importance of compassion, wisdom, and non-violence.
* Local folklore and legends: Patachitra paintings often depict scenes from local folklore and legends. These stories can be about gods and goddesses, heroes and villains, or ordinary people who have performed great deeds. Local folklore and legends are often passed down through the generations, and they can provide insights into the culture and history of a particular region.

The correct answer is A. Camels and Roar.

The other three pairs of words are related in that they are all examples of animals that make a particular sound. Dogs bark, birds chirp, and horses neigh. Camels, on the other hand, do not roar. They make a sound that is more like a grunt or a groan.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Camels and Roar: Camels are large mammals that are native to Africa, Asia, and Australia. They are known for their long necks, humped backs, and ability to survive in harsh desert environments. Camels do not roar. They make a sound that is more like a grunt or a groan.
• B. Dogs and Bark: Dogs are domesticated mammals that are closely related to wolves. They are known for their loyalty, intelligence, and ability to be trained. Dogs bark. They use their bark to communicate with other dogs, humans, and other animals.
• C. Birds and Chirp: Birds are feathered, two-legged animals that are warm-blooded. They are the only animals that can fly. Birds chirp. They use their chirping to communicate with other birds.
• D. Horse and Neigh: Horses are large, four-legged mammals that are used for transportation and recreation. They are known for their speed, agility, and strength. Horses neigh. They use their neighing to communicate with other horses.

The odd one out is A. Iron.

The other four elements are all non-metals. Iron is a metal.

Iron is a chemical element with the symbol Fe and atomic number 26. It is a metal in the first transition series and is the most common element in the Earth's crust. It is a member of the iron group in the periodic table: a group of elements in the periodic table of the chemical elements that have a similar chemical behaviour. The atomic number of iron is 26, and its atomic mass is 55.845. Iron is a solid at room temperature and has a melting point of 1538 °C and a boiling point of 2862 °C. It is a very strong metal and is used in many different applications, including construction, machinery, and transportation.

Potassium is a chemical element with the symbol K and atomic number 19. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal that oxidizes rapidly in air and is very reactive with water, generating sufficient heat to ignite the hydrogen produced. Potassium is the sixth most abundant element in the Earth's crust and exists in nature, primarily as the mineral sylvite. Potassium is essential for life, being an important component of cell membranes and an electrolyte. It is also used in fertilizers, batteries, and explosives.

Sodium is a chemical element with the symbol Na and atomic number 11. It is a soft, silvery-white, highly reactive metal. Sodium is an alkali metal, being in group 1 of the periodic table, and is a highly reactive element. It is an essential nutrient in all living things as a component of salt. Sodium is also used in many industrial processes, including the manufacture of glass, soap, and detergents.

Chlorine is a chemical element with the symbol Cl and atomic number 17. It is a pale yellow-green gas at standard temperature and pressure and exists as a diatomic molecule. Chlorine is an extremely reactive element and is the second most abundant halogen. It is used in many industrial processes, including the manufacture of bleach, PVC, and pharmaceuticals.

Iodine is a chemical element with the symbol I and atomic number 53. It is a non-metallic, lustrous, deep purple-black solid at standard temperature and pressure. The element has one of the highest atomic numbers of any naturally occurring non-metal. It is a member of the halogen group in the periodic table and is a highly reactive element. Iodine is used in many industrial processes, including the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, dyes, and pigments.

The correct answer is (c) Malappuram.

Malappuram district in Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India, with 94.6% of its population literate. This is followed by Kannur district in Kerala (94.0%), Ernakulam district in Kerala (93.9%), and Kozhikode district in Kerala (93.8%).

Aizawal district in Mizoram has a literacy rate of 91.5%, Bidar district in Karnataka has a literacy rate of 70.3%, and Serchhip district in Mizoram has a literacy rate of 92.1%.

The literacy rate in India is the percentage of the population aged 7 and above that can read and write with understanding. The literacy rate in India has increased significantly over the past few decades, from 18.3% in 1951 to 74.04% in 2011. This increase is due to a number of factors, including the expansion of education, the improvement of economic conditions, and the government's focus on literacy programs.

The high literacy rate in Kerala is due to a number of factors, including the state's strong focus on education, the high level of social development, and the state's relatively low population density. Kerala has a long history of promoting education, and the state has one of the highest literacy rates in the world. The state also has a high level of social development, with a low poverty rate and a high standard of living. Kerala's relatively low population density also means that the state has a relatively large number of schools and teachers per capita.

The official languages of the African Development Bank are English and French. This means that all official documents and communications of the Bank are in both languages. The Bank also provides interpretation and translation services for its meetings and events.

English and French are the two most widely spoken languages in Africa. They are also the languages of instruction in many African schools and universities. This makes them the most practical choices for the Bank's official languages.

The use of English and French as the Bank's official languages ensures that all African countries can participate fully in its activities. It also helps to promote understanding and cooperation between African countries.

The Bank's use of English and French is also in line with the practice of other international organizations, such as the United Nations and the World Bank. These organizations use multiple languages to ensure that their work is accessible to as many people as possible.

In conclusion, the official languages of the African Development Bank are English and French. This is because these are the two most widely spoken languages in Africa and they are also the languages of instruction in many African schools and universities. The use of English and French as the Bank's official languages ensures that all African countries can participate fully in its activities and it also helps to promote understanding and cooperation between African countries.

The correct answer is B. Refrigerator.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are a group of man-made chemicals that were once widely used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosol cans. However, CFCs are very harmful to the environment, as they deplete the ozone layer. The ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. Depletion of the ozone layer can lead to an increase in skin cancer and other health problems, as well as damage to plants and ecosystems.

In 1987, the Montreal Protocol was signed by 197 countries. The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty that aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and use of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances. India ratified the Montreal Protocol in 1992.

In recent years, India has taken several steps to reduce its reliance on CFCs. In 2016, the Indian government announced a ban on the production and import of CFCs. The government has also provided financial assistance to businesses that have switched to alternative refrigerants.

The production of CFCs is now proposed to be banned in India. This is a positive step, as it will help to protect the ozone layer and reduce the risk of health problems and environmental damage.

The other options are incorrect. Televisions do not use CFCs. Tube lights use a different type of gas, called mercury vapor. Cooking gas does not use CFCs.

The answer is B. Needle.

A stick is a long, thin piece of wood or other material. A needle is a long, thin piece of metal with a sharp point at one end and an eye at the other. A thorn is a sharp, pointed projection on a plant. A pin is a small, thin piece of metal with a head at one end and a sharp point at the other. A nail is a long, thin piece of metal with a head at one end and a sharp point at the other.

All of the options except needle are used to pierce or penetrate something. A needle is used to sew or knit.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Mining can have a significant impact on the environment, including deforestation, water pollution, and land degradation.

Deforestation is the clearing of forests for other uses, such as agriculture or mining. This can lead to a loss of biodiversity, soil erosion, and climate change.

Water pollution can occur when mining operations release pollutants into water bodies. These pollutants can include heavy metals, sediment, and chemicals. Water pollution can harm aquatic life and make water unsafe for drinking or irrigation.

Land degradation is the loss of soil quality or productivity. This can occur due to a number of factors, including mining, deforestation, and climate change. Land degradation can lead to a loss of biodiversity, soil erosion, and a decline in agricultural productivity.

Mining can also have a number of other environmental impacts, such as air pollution, noise pollution, and visual pollution. These impacts can have a negative impact on the health and well-being of people living in the area around a mine.

It is important to take steps to mitigate the environmental impacts of mining. This can be done through a number of measures, such as reforestation, water treatment, and land reclamation.

Under Geetanjali scheme, the state government provides funds to build houses to people who have monthly income below Rs.6000

The correct answer is (d), Odisha.

In February 2015, the Odisha government launched a "dolphin-census" in the coastal eco-system and shorelines of the State. The census was conducted by the State Forest Department in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). The objective of the census was to assess the population of dolphins in Odisha and to identify the threats to their survival.

The census was conducted using a combination of methods, including boat surveys, aerial surveys, and interviews with fishermen. The results of the census showed that there are approximately 1,000 dolphins in Odisha. The most common species of dolphin found in Odisha is the Irrawaddy dolphin.

The census also identified a number of threats to the survival of dolphins in Odisha, including habitat loss, pollution, and entanglement in fishing nets. The Odisha government has taken a number of measures to protect dolphins, including the creation of dolphin sanctuaries and the enforcement of fishing regulations.

Gujarat, Karnataka, and West Bengal are also coastal states with dolphins. However, there is no evidence that these states have conducted a dolphin-census in recent years.

The correct answer is: Serena Williams.

Serena Williams won the Women's Single Wimbledon tournament in 2017. She defeated Angelique Kerber in the final, 6-3, 6-3. This was Williams' seventh Wimbledon title and her 22nd Grand Slam title overall.

Garbine Muguruza was the runner-up in the 2017 Wimbledon Women's Single tournament. She lost to Serena Williams in the final, 6-3, 6-3. Muguruza was the first Spanish woman to reach the Wimbledon final since Arantxa Sánchez Vicario in 1994.

Ekaterina Makarova and Elena Vesnina were the winners of the 2017 Wimbledon Women's Doubles tournament. They defeated Barbora Krejčíková and Kateřina Siniaková in the final, 6-4, 6-2. Makarova and Vesnina were the first Russian women to win the Wimbledon Women's Doubles title since Natasha Zvereva and Gigi Fernández in 1999.

Serena Williams is an American professional tennis player. She has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles, the most in the Open Era and the second-most in history. Williams is also a four-time Olympic gold medalist. She is considered one of the greatest tennis players of all time.

The correct answer is: C. Iron

Magnetic domains are regions within a ferromagnetic material where the magnetic moments of atoms are aligned in the same direction. This alignment creates a net magnetic field.

Ferromagnetic materials are materials that are strongly attracted to magnets. They include iron, nickel, cobalt, and some alloys.

Copper and silver are not ferromagnetic materials. They are not attracted to magnets.

Therefore, the only material that normally occurs in magnetic domains is iron.

The correct answer is: B. Bhoja I

Bhoja I was the most notable ruler of the Paramara dynasty of Malwa in central India. He ruled from 1010 to 1060 CE and was a great patron of art, literature, and music. He is also known for his military conquests, which extended his kingdom from the Narmada River in the south to the Chambal River in the north.

Sindhuraja was the founder of the Paramara dynasty and ruled from 893 to 910 CE. He was a powerful ruler who defeated the Rashtrakutas and the Pratiharas. He also built a number of temples and forts in Malwa.

Vakpati Munja was the son of Sindhuraja and ruled from 910 to 940 CE. He was a great warrior who defeated the Chalukyas and the Gurjara-Pratiharas. He also built a number of temples and forts in Malwa.

The Paramara dynasty was a Rajput dynasty that ruled Malwa in central India from the 9th to the 14th centuries CE. The dynasty was founded by Sindhuraja in 893 CE and reached its zenith under the rule of Bhoja I (1010-1060 CE). The Paramaras were patrons of art, literature, and music, and their kingdom was a center of learning and culture. The dynasty declined in the 13th century CE and was finally overthrown by the Delhi Sultanate in 1305 CE.

The correct answer is: in.

The rains have set in means that the rains have started and are expected to continue for some time. The other options do not make sense in this context.

• A. in: The rains have set in means that the rains have started and are expected to continue for some time.
• B. of: The rains have set of does not make sense.
• C. on: The rains have set on does not make sense.
• D. out: The rains have set out does not make sense.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (c) 273 Kelvin.

Water has its maximum density at 4 degrees Celsius (39.2 degrees Fahrenheit) and 1 atmosphere of pressure. This is because the molecules of water are arranged in a more compact structure at this temperature and pressure. At higher temperatures, the molecules move faster and have more energy, which causes them to spread out and have a lower density. At lower temperatures, the molecules move more slowly and have less energy, which causes them to pack together more tightly and have a higher density.

(a) 373 Kelvin is the boiling point of water. At this temperature, the water molecules have enough energy to escape from the liquid state and enter the gas state. This causes the density of the water to decrease.

(b) 277 Kelvin is the melting point of ice. At this temperature, the water molecules have enough energy to break the bonds that hold them together in the solid state. This causes the density of the water to increase.

(d) 269 Kelvin is below the freezing point of water. At this temperature, the water molecules are moving too slowly to break the bonds that hold them together in the solid state. This causes the density of the water to decrease.

The correct answer is A. Maraud.

A foray is a sudden attack or raid, especially by a small group of people. It can also be a journey or expedition, especially one into unknown or dangerous territory.

A maraud is a person who engages in marauding, especially a pirate or bandit.

A contest is a competition or rivalry between two or more people or groups.

A ranger is a person who patrols or guards an area, especially a forest or park.

Intuition is the ability to understand something immediately, without the need for conscious reasoning.

In this case, the word "foray" is most closely associated with the word "maraud". Both words refer to a sudden attack or raid, especially by a small group of people.

The correct answer is (c), cyclonite. RDX is a powerful explosive also known as cyclonite, hexogen, or cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine. It is a white, crystalline solid that is highly soluble in water. RDX is used in a variety of military and commercial applications, including explosives, propellants, and initiators.

(a) Cyanohydrin is a chemical compound with the formula HCN. It is a colorless, flammable liquid that is highly toxic. Cyanohydrin is used in the production of various chemicals, including plastics, pharmaceuticals, and pesticides.

(b) Dextran is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units. It is produced by bacteria and fungi. Dextran is used in a variety of medical applications, including blood plasma expanders, colloids, and laxatives.

(d) Cyclohexane is a hydrocarbon with the formula C6H12. It is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and a fuel. Cyclohexane is also used in the production of various chemicals, including nylon and polystyrene.

The correct answer is A) Backyard poultry rearing.

Backyard poultry rearing is the most common type of poultry farming in West Bengal. It is a traditional practice that has been passed down for generations. Backyard poultry farmers typically raise a small number of chickens, ducks, or geese for their own consumption and to sell excess eggs and meat.

Large-scale commercial production is a relatively new phenomenon in West Bengal. There are a few large poultry farms in the state, but they account for a small percentage of the total poultry population. These farms typically raise a large number of birds in a confined space.

Free-range organic farming is a niche market in West Bengal. There are a few small farms that practice this type of farming, but they account for a very small percentage of the total poultry population. These farms raise their birds outdoors in a free-range environment and feed them organic feed.

Government-run enterprises are not involved in poultry farming in West Bengal.

The correct answer is: A. Equal to 1.

The Cobb-Douglas production function is a mathematical function that describes the relationship between the inputs (capital and labor) and the output of a production process. The function is given by the following equation:

$Q = AK^aL^{1-a}$

where $Q$ is the output, $K$ is the capital, $L$ is the labor, $a$ is the elasticity of substitution between capital and labor, and $A$ is a constant.

The elasticity of substitution is a measure of how easily one input can be substituted for another. If the elasticity of substitution is equal to 1, then the inputs are perfect substitutes. This means that if the price of one input increases, the firm will be able to completely substitute the other input without any loss in output.

If the elasticity of substitution is less than 1, then the inputs are imperfect substitutes. This means that if the price of one input increases, the firm will not be able to completely substitute the other input without some loss in output.

If the elasticity of substitution is greater than 1, then the inputs are complementary. This means that if the price of one input increases, the firm will use more of the other input.

In the case of the Cobb-Douglas production function, the elasticity of substitution is equal to 1. This means that capital and labor are perfect substitutes. This is a significant property of the Cobb-Douglas production function because it implies that the firm can easily substitute one input for the other in response to changes in prices.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Equal to 1. This is the correct answer. The elasticity of substitution between capital and labor is equal to 1 in the Cobb-Douglas production function.
• Option B: More than 1. This is not the correct answer. The elasticity of substitution between capital and labor is equal to 1 in the Cobb-Douglas production function.
• Option C: Less than 1. This is not the correct answer. The elasticity of substitution between capital and labor is equal to 1 in the Cobb-Douglas production function.
• Option D: Zero. This is not the correct answer. The elasticity of substitution between capital and labor is equal to 1 in the Cobb-Douglas production function.

The correct answer is (b) Hrithik Roshan.

Amitabh Bachchan is an Indian actor, film producer, television personality, and playback singer. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest and most influential actors in Indian cinema. He has won numerous awards, including four National Film Awards and thirteen Filmfare Awards.

Hrithik Roshan is an Indian actor, dancer, and model. He is known for his work in Hindi films. He has won numerous awards, including two National Film Awards and six Filmfare Awards.

Abhishek Bachchan is an Indian actor, producer, and television personality. He is the son of Amitabh Bachchan and Jaya Bachchan. He has won numerous awards, including two Filmfare Awards.

Salman Khan is an Indian actor, producer, television personality, and philanthropist. He is known for his work in Hindi films. He has won numerous awards, including two Filmfare Awards.

In the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau, Hrithik Roshan won the best actor award for his performance in the film "Krrish 3".

The correct answer is (c). India was a supplier of raw materials during British rule.

India was a colony of Britain from 1857 to 1947. During this time, the Indian economy stagnated. This was due to a number of factors, including the British government's policies of economic exploitation, the drain of wealth from India, and the lack of investment in Indian industries.

As a result of British rule, India became a supplier of raw materials to Britain. India's economy was based on agriculture, and the British government forced Indian farmers to grow cash crops such as cotton and indigo, which were then exported to Britain. This led to the decline of traditional Indian industries, such as textiles, which could not compete with British imports.

The British government also imposed high tariffs on Indian goods, which made it difficult for Indian industries to compete in the global market. In addition, the British government did not invest in Indian infrastructure, such as roads, railways, and schools. This lack of investment made it difficult for India to develop its economy.

As a result of British rule, India became a poor and underdeveloped country. The Indian economy did not begin to grow until after independence in 1947.

The correct answer is: (R) is appropriate reason of (A).

The assertion (A) states that as the proportion of one variable factor in a combination with fixed factor is increased, after a point the marginal product of the factor will diminish. This is because as more of the variable factor is added, it will have less and less of an effect on the output, as the fixed factor is already at its maximum capacity.

The reason (R) states that beyond the level of optimum combination of inputs leads to this. This is also true, as the optimum combination of inputs is the point at which the marginal product of each input is equal. After this point, adding more of any input will cause the marginal product of that input to decrease.

Therefore, (R) is an appropriate reason of (A).

The correct answer is: **B) British colonial rule in Bengal**.

The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj ud-Daulah, on 23 June 1757. The battle took place near the village of Plassey, 150 kilometres (93 mi) north of Calcutta, on the banks of the Hooghly River.

The British were led by Robert Clive, who had been appointed governor of the Company's Bengal Presidency in 1756. Siraj ud-Daulah was opposed to the Company's growing power in Bengal, and he had already expelled the Company's forces from Calcutta in June 1756.

Clive's forces were outnumbered by Siraj ud-Daulah's, but they were better trained and equipped. The battle was a close-fought affair, but the British were eventually victorious. Siraj ud-Daulah was killed in the battle, and the British took control of Bengal.

The Battle of Plassey marked the beginning of British colonial rule in Bengal. The British East India Company would go on to conquer much of India in the following decades.

Option A is incorrect because the Mughal Empire had already been in control of Bengal for centuries before the Battle of Plassey. The Mughals were a Muslim dynasty that ruled over much of India from the 16th to the 18th centuries.

Option C is incorrect because the Maratha Empire was a Hindu empire that was founded in the 17th century. The Marathas were a powerful military force, but they did not have any significant presence in Bengal.

Option D is incorrect because the Independent Sultanate of Bengal was a Muslim sultanate that ruled over Bengal from the 14th to the 16th centuries. The sultanate was overthrown by the Mughals in the 16th century.

The correct answer is: C. Specific Heat formula

The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of the substance by one degree Celsius. The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g/°C. This means that it takes 4.184 joules of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius.

The heat transfer formula is $Q = mcdT$, where $Q$ is the heat transferred, $m$ is the mass of the substance, $c$ is the specific heat of the substance, and $T$ is the change in temperature.

The enthalpy formula is $H = U + PV$, where $H$ is the enthalpy, $U$ is the internal energy, $P$ is the pressure, and $V$ is the volume.

The heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to vaporize one mole of a substance at its boiling point. The heat of vaporization of water is 2257 J/mol.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: C. Specific Heat formula.

The correct answer is: **All of the above**.

Conflicts may sometimes arise between inland and marine fishers, small-scale and large-scale fishing operations, and aquaculture farmers and environmentalists.

**Inland and marine fishers** may conflict over access to resources, such as water and fish stocks. Inland fishers may also conflict with farmers over water rights.

**Small-scale and large-scale fishing operations** may conflict over the use of resources, such as fishing gear and fish stocks. Small-scale fishers may also conflict with large-scale fishers over government subsidies.

**Aquaculture farmers and environmentalists** may conflict over the use of land and water resources, the impact of aquaculture on wild fish stocks, and the use of chemicals in aquaculture.

These conflicts can have a significant impact on the livelihoods of those involved, as well as on the environment. It is important to find ways to resolve these conflicts in a sustainable way.

The correct answer is (b) R.S. Sharma.

R.S. Sharma was the President of the Gymnastic Federation of India in 2019. He is a former Indian gymnast and coach. He was the first Indian gymnast to win a medal at the Asian Games, winning a bronze medal in the vault event at the 1974 Asian Games. He was also the first Indian gymnast to compete at the Olympics, competing at the 1976 Summer Olympics in Montreal.

Sudhakar Shetty is a former Indian gymnast and coach. He was the President of the Gymnastic Federation of India from 2002 to 2012.

Rakesh Garg is a former Indian gymnast. He was the President of the Gymnastic Federation of India from 1992 to 2002.

Karnail Singh is a former Indian gymnast. He was the President of the Gymnastic Federation of India from 1982 to 1992.

The correct answer is: He got through his examination fairly well although his health had broken down a few days before it started.

The word "through" means "to the end of something" or "to complete something successfully." In this case, the speaker is saying that the person managed to complete their examination despite being unwell.

The word "down" means "to become ill or injured" or "to fail." In this case, the speaker is saying that the person's health deteriorated a few days before the examination.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence. The word "on" does not make sense because the speaker is not saying that the person started their examination. The word "in" does not make sense because the speaker is not saying that the person was inside their examination. The word "of" does not make sense because the speaker is not saying that the person was a part of their examination.

The correct answer is (d) Arjun Kumar Dev.

Arjun Kumar Dev is a member of the Indian National Congress and won the by-election held at Bageshwar in Uttarakhand in September, 2023. He defeated his nearest rival, Chandan Das of the Bharatiya Janata Party, by a margin of 10,000 votes.

Dev is a former MLA from the Bageshwar constituency and has been a member of the Congress party since 1998. He is a popular leader in the region and is known for his work in the field of education and health.

The by-election was held after the death of sitting MLA Suresh Singh Negi in July, 2023. Negi was a member of the Congress party and had been MLA from the Bageshwar constituency since 2012.

The by-election was seen as a test of the popularity of the Congress party in the state of Uttarakhand. The party had lost the 2022 assembly elections to the Bharatiya Janata Party and was looking to regain lost ground.

The victory of Arjun Kumar Dev is a boost for the Congress party in Uttarakhand. It shows that the party is still popular in the state and is capable of winning elections. The victory is also a personal triumph for Dev, who has been a popular leader in the region for many years.

The correct answer is D. Firuz Shah Tughlaq.

Firuz Shah Tughlaq was a 14th-century ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. He is known for his many public works projects, including the construction of canals, dams, and bridges. He also built a number of new cities, including Firozabad and Jaunpur.

Nasiruddin Mahmud was a 13th-century ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. He is known for his military campaigns, which extended the Sultanate's territory. He also built a number of mosques and tombs.

Ghiyasuddin Balban was a 13th-century ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. He is known for his military campaigns, which consolidated the Sultanate's power. He also built a number of forts and mosques.

Ibrahim Lodi was a 15th-century ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. He is known for his military campaigns, which extended the Sultanate's territory. He also built a number of mosques and tombs.

Firuz Shah Tughlaq built the largest number of irrigation canals in the Sultanate period. He built a total of 12 canals, which irrigated over 1 million acres of land. These canals helped to increase agricultural production and improve the lives of the people.

The correct answer is (a) 2055.

The National Population Policy, 2000, was a policy document issued by the Government of India in 2000. The policy aimed to address the issue of population growth in India. The policy set a goal of achieving population stabilization by 2045. However, in 2012, the government revised the goal to 2055. The revision was made in light of the fact that the population growth rate in India had declined significantly since 2000.

The National Population Policy, 2000, proposed a number of measures to achieve population stabilization. These measures included promoting family planning, improving access to education and healthcare, and empowering women. The policy also emphasized the need to address the issue of gender inequality.

The National Population Policy, 2000, has been criticized by some for being too ambitious. However, the policy has also been praised for its comprehensive approach to the issue of population growth. The policy has been credited with helping to reduce the population growth rate in India.

The following are the options for the question:

(a) 2055: This is the correct answer. The National Population Policy, 2000, set a goal of achieving population stabilization by 2055.
(b) 2060: This is not the correct answer. The National Population Policy, 2000, did not set a goal of achieving population stabilization by 2060.
(c) 2065: This is not the correct answer. The National Population Policy, 2000, did not set a goal of achieving population stabilization by 2065.
(d) 2070: This is not the correct answer. The National Population Policy, 2000, did not set a goal of achieving population stabilization by 2070.

The correct answer is (c) Karnataka.

Karnataka has the largest reserve of copper ore in India. The total reserve of copper ore in Karnataka is estimated to be 23.4 million tonnes. The major copper ore deposits in Karnataka are located in the districts of Bellary, Chitradurga, and Tumkur.

Bihar has a reserve of 1.2 million tonnes of copper ore. Jharkhand has a reserve of 1.1 million tonnes of copper ore. Rajasthan has a reserve of 0.9 million tonnes of copper ore.

Copper ore is a mineral that is used to produce copper metal. Copper metal is used in a variety of applications, including electrical wiring, plumbing, and construction.

The correct answer is: A) Mangrove vegetation and tidal activity.

The Sundarbans is a vast mangrove forest delta in the Bay of Bengal. It is the world's largest mangrove forest and is shared by India and Bangladesh. The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is home to a wide variety of wildlife, including tigers, crocodiles, and dolphins.

The soils of the Sundarbans are unique and are influenced by the mangrove vegetation and tidal activity. The mangrove trees produce a thick layer of organic matter that helps to protect the soil from erosion. The tidal activity also helps to mix the soil and bring nutrients to the surface.

The other options are incorrect because they do not influence the soils of the Sundarbans in the same way. High elevation and rocky terrain do not create the same conditions as mangrove vegetation and tidal activity. Volcanic eruptions and arid conditions and desert winds do not occur in the Sundarbans.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{B}}$, ethene.

Ethene is an odd compound because it has an odd number of carbon atoms. The other options, propane, methane, and ethane, all have an even number of carbon atoms.

Ethene is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $ce{C2H4}$. It is a colorless, flammable gas that is used in the production of plastics, rubber, and other chemicals. Ethene is also the simplest alkene, which is a type of hydrocarbon that contains one or more double bonds between carbon atoms.

Propane is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $ce{C3H8}$. It is a colorless, flammable gas that is used as a fuel in heating and cooking appliances. Propane is also used as a refrigerant and in the production of plastics and other chemicals.

Methane is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $ce{CH4}$. It is a colorless, odorless, and flammable gas that is the main component of natural gas. Methane is also used as a fuel in heating and cooking appliances.

Ethane is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $ce{C2H6}$. It is a colorless, odorless, and flammable gas that is used as a fuel in heating and cooking appliances. Ethane is also used as a refrigerant and in the production of plastics and other chemicals.

The correct answer is: A) Purulia.

Chhau dance is a traditional dance form of eastern India, primarily performed in the state of West Bengal. It is characterized by its martial arts movements and elaborate masks. The dance is performed by both men and women, and is often associated with the worship of Hindu deities.

Purulia is a district in West Bengal that is known for its chhau dance tradition. The dance is performed here during the annual chhau festival, which is held in the month of December. The festival is a major tourist attraction, and attracts visitors from all over the world.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Kolkata is the capital of West Bengal, but it is not the main center of chhau dance.
* Darjeeling is a hill station in West Bengal, but it is not known for its chhau dance tradition.
* Sundarbans is a mangrove forest in West Bengal, but it is not known for its chhau dance tradition.

The correct answer is (b). The first genetically engineered human insulin was launched in 1983.

Insulin is a hormone that is produced by the pancreas and helps the body to use glucose for energy. People with diabetes do not produce enough insulin, or their bodies do not use insulin properly. This can lead to high blood sugar levels, which can damage the body over time.

Genetically engineered human insulin is made in a laboratory using bacteria. It is identical to the insulin that is produced by the human body, and it is used to treat diabetes.

The first genetically engineered human insulin was approved for use in the United States in 1983. It was called Humulin, and it was developed by Genentech. Humulin was a major breakthrough in the treatment of diabetes, and it has helped millions of people around the world to manage their condition.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the first genetically engineered human insulin was not launched in 1970. Option (c) is incorrect because the first genetically engineered human insulin was not launched in 1990. Option (d) is incorrect because the first genetically engineered human insulin was not launched in 1993.

The correct answer is (a).

The double possibility rule was laid down in the case of Whitby v. Mitchell (1890). The rule states that if a person is injured by the negligence of another, they can only recover damages if it is more likely than not that they would not have been injured if the negligence had not occurred.

In the case of Whitby v. Mitchell, the plaintiff was injured when he was hit by a train. He claimed that the train driver was negligent in failing to see him and stop the train. The defendant argued that the plaintiff would have been injured even if the train driver had not been negligent, because he was standing in the middle of the tracks.

The court held that the plaintiff could recover damages, because it was more likely than not that he would not have been injured if the train driver had not been negligent. The court found that the train driver had a duty to take reasonable care to avoid hitting people, and that he had breached that duty by failing to see the plaintiff and stop the train. The court also found that the plaintiff would not have been injured if the train driver had not been negligent, because he would have been able to get out of the way of the train if the train driver had stopped in time.

The double possibility rule is a common law rule that is applied in many jurisdictions. The rule is designed to protect defendants from liability for injuries that would have occurred even if they had not been negligent. The rule is also designed to ensure that plaintiffs only recover damages for injuries that are caused by the negligence of others.

The double possibility rule has been criticized by some legal scholars, who argue that it is too restrictive and that it does not adequately compensate plaintiffs for their injuries. However, the rule remains an important part of the law of negligence, and it is likely to continue to be applied in many jurisdictions.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to cases in which the double possibility rule was laid down.

The correct answer is C. Only 3.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colorless, odorless gas that is slightly heavier than air. It is a major component of the Earth's atmosphere, and it is also found in volcanic gases, soda water, and carbonated beverages.

CO2 is not a poisonous gas. In fact, it is essential for life on Earth. Plants use CO2 to produce food through photosynthesis. Humans and other animals exhale CO2 as a waste product.

CO2 is an acidic oxide. This means that it reacts with water to form carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is a weak acid, but it can cause some materials to corrode.

CO2 does turn lime water milky. Lime water is a solution of calcium hydroxide. When CO2 is added to lime water, it reacts with the calcium hydroxide to form calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate is a white solid, which is what causes the lime water to turn milky.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

The odd one out is Cranium.

• Tibia is the larger of the two bones in the lower leg.
• Cortex is the outer layer of the brain.
• Cerebellum is the part of the brain that controls balance and coordination.

The cranium is the skull, which is made up of several bones that protect the brain. It is not a part of the nervous system.

The correct answer is: B. Tennis

Federation Cup, World Cup, Allywyn International Trophy and Challenge Cup are awarded to winners of Tennis.

• Federation Cup is a women's tennis competition held by the International Tennis Federation (ITF). It is the world championship of women's national teams.
• World Cup is a men's tennis tournament held by the Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP). It is the second most prestigious tournament after the Grand Slams.
• Allywyn International Trophy is a men's tennis tournament held by the ATP. It is a lower-level tournament than the World Cup.
• Challenge Cup is a men's tennis tournament held by the ITF. It is the lowest-level tournament of the four.

Basketball, cricket, and volleyball are all sports that have their own world championships, but they do not have tournaments called the Federation Cup, World Cup, Allywyn International Trophy, or Challenge Cup.

The correct answer is C. biosphere.

The biosphere is the part of Earth where life exists. It includes the land, water, and air, as well as all the organisms that live in these areas. The biosphere is a dynamic system that is constantly changing. It is affected by the Earth's climate, geology, and biology.

The biosphere is divided into several different zones, based on the type of life that exists in each zone. The terrestrial biosphere includes all the land on Earth, from the poles to the equator. The aquatic biosphere includes all the water on Earth, from the oceans to the lakes and rivers. The atmospheric biosphere includes the air around Earth.

The biosphere is essential for life on Earth. It provides the air we breathe, the water we drink, and the food we eat. It also provides the habitat for all the plants and animals that live on Earth.

The biosphere is a fragile system. It can be damaged by human activities, such as pollution and climate change. It is important to protect the biosphere so that life on Earth can continue.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere, above the troposphere and below the mesosphere. It is characterized by a temperature increase with altitude, due to the absorption of ultraviolet radiation by ozone.
• The ionosphere is a region of Earth's upper atmosphere that is ionized by solar radiation. It is important for radio communication, as it reflects radio waves back to Earth.
• The mesosphere is the third layer of Earth's atmosphere, above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere. It is characterized by a decrease in temperature with altitude.

The answer is D. Paragon.

A ruffian is a violent or disorderly person. A criminal is a person who has committed a crime. A gangster is a member of a gang, especially a criminal gang. A pirate is a person who robs ships at sea. A paragon is a person or thing regarded as a perfect example of a particular quality or type.

Paragon is the only word in the list that does not refer to someone who is considered to be bad or criminal.

The correct answer is A. 1 and 2.

Methyl alcohol is also called wood spirit because in early stage it was prepared by the destructive distillation of wood. Ethyl alcohol is also called grain alcohol because it is obtained by the starch enriched substance.

Rectified spirit is not called commercial alcohol. Commercial alcohol is a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water, and it is not necessarily rectified.

The correct answer is A. liming.

Liming is the process of adding calcium or magnesium carbonate to soil to neutralize acidity. It is the most common way to correct soil acidity, and it is effective in a wide range of soils.

Proper irrigation is important for maintaining soil pH, but it does not directly correct acidity. Irrigation can help to leach out acids from the soil, but it can also add water that can dissolve more acids from the soil.

Application of fertilizers can also affect soil pH, but the effect depends on the type of fertilizer. Some fertilizers, such as ammonium sulfate, can make soil more acidic, while others, such as lime, can make soil more alkaline.

Adding sodium hydroxide is not a recommended way to correct soil acidity. Sodium hydroxide is a strong base, and it can damage soil structure and make it difficult for plants to grow.

In addition to liming, there are other ways to correct soil acidity. These include adding organic matter, such as compost or manure, to the soil, and growing plants that tolerate acidic soils.

The correct answer is C. International Civil Aviation Organization.

ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that was established in 1944. It is responsible for developing and promoting international civil aviation safety and efficiency. ICAO has 193 member states and its headquarters are located in Montreal, Canada.

A. Indian Corporation of Agriculture Organization is not a correct answer because there is no such organization.

B. Institute of Company of Accounts Organization is not a correct answer because there is no such organization.

D. None of the above is not a correct answer because C is the correct answer.

The correct answer is (d), Uttarakhand.

The Nelong Valley is a valley in the Garhwal Himalayas in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the Chamoli district, about 200 kilometers from the state capital, Dehradun. The valley is about 50 kilometers long and 10 kilometers wide, and is surrounded by mountains on all sides. The main river in the valley is the Nelong River, which flows from the glaciers in the Himalayas to the Ganges River. The valley is home to a number of villages, and is a popular tourist destination.

The other options are incorrect. Himachal Pradesh is a state in the Indian Himalayas. Sikkim is a state in the eastern Himalayas. Jammu and Kashmir is a state in the northwestern Himalayas.

The answer is: B. Honey

Wool, silk, and wax are all natural fibers that are produced by animals. Honey, on the other hand, is a sweet, sticky substance that is produced by bees from the nectar of flowers.

Wool is a fiber that is produced by sheep. It is a soft, warm material that is often used to make clothing. Silk is a fiber that is produced by silkworms. It is a strong, lustrous material that is often used to make clothing and other textiles. Wax is a substance that is produced by bees. It is a hard, brittle material that is often used to make candles and other products.

Honey is a sweet, sticky substance that is produced by bees from the nectar of flowers. It is a popular food and is also used in many different products, such as cosmetics and medicine.

The reason why honey is the odd one out in this list is because it is not a natural fiber. The other three options are all natural fibers that are produced by animals. Honey, on the other hand, is a sweet, sticky substance that is produced by bees from the nectar of flowers.

The correct answer is (a) Arbitration.

Arbitration is a method of settling disputes between two or more parties by referring them to an independent third party, the arbitrator, who renders a binding decision. The Constitution of India expressly recognizes arbitration as a method of settling international disputes in Article 32(1), which provides that "the Supreme Court shall have jurisdiction to hear, inter alia, any dispute with respect to any treaty or agreement between the Government of India and any other country."

Negotiation is a process of discussion and compromise between two or more parties with the aim of reaching an agreement. Conciliation is a process of mediation in which a neutral third party helps the parties to reach an agreement. Both negotiation and conciliation are voluntary processes, and the parties are free to accept or reject the recommendations of the mediator or conciliator.

The Constitution of India does not expressly recognize negotiation or conciliation as methods of settling international disputes. However, these methods are often used in practice, and they may be referred to in treaties or agreements between India and other countries.

The correct answer is (a) Bihar.

Bihar recorded the highest decadal growth rate of population during 1991-2001, with a growth rate of 28.59%. This was followed by Nagaland (28.08%), Uttar Pradesh (25.85%), and Sikkim (24.81%).

The high growth rate in Bihar can be attributed to a number of factors, including a high fertility rate, a low mortality rate, and a large number of young people. The high fertility rate is due to a number of factors, including traditional social norms that favor large families, a lack of access to family planning services, and a lack of education and employment opportunities for women. The low mortality rate is due to improvements in healthcare and sanitation. The large number of young people is due to the high fertility rate in previous decades.

The high growth rate in Bihar has a number of implications, including a strain on resources, such as food, water, and energy; an increase in pollution; and a decrease in the quality of life. The government of Bihar is taking a number of measures to address the challenges posed by the high growth rate, including investing in education and healthcare, promoting family planning, and creating employment opportunities.

To convert temperature from Celsius to Kelvin, you must add 273.

The Kelvin scale is a temperature scale where absolute zero, the theoretical temperature at which all molecular motion ceases, is taken as zero. The Celsius scale is a temperature scale where water freezes at 0 degrees and boils at 100 degrees. To convert from Celsius to Kelvin, you add 273 to the Celsius temperature. For example, 20 degrees Celsius is equal to 293 Kelvin.

Option A is incorrect because subtracting 273 from a Celsius temperature will give you a negative number, which is not a valid Kelvin temperature.

Option B is incorrect because multiplying a Celsius temperature by 273 will give you a number that is much larger than any possible Kelvin temperature.

Option C is incorrect because adding 273 to a Celsius temperature will give you a number that is much larger than any possible Kelvin temperature.

The correct answer is: C. I and III.

The Alvars and Nayanars were Tamil Hindu saints who lived in the 6th to 9th centuries CE. They were devoted to the worship of Vishnu and Shiva, respectively, and their hymns are some of the most important texts in Tamil literature.

The Alvars and Nayanars were from all castes, and their hymns show that they were critical of the caste system. They often sang about the equality of all people in the eyes of God, and they condemned the discrimination that was practiced against people of lower castes.

The Alvars and Nayanars also played an important role in the development of bhakti, or devotional Hinduism. Their hymns helped to popularize the idea that God is accessible to all people, regardless of their caste or social status.

The importance of the traditions of the Alvars and Nayanars is sometimes indicated by the claim that their compositions were as important as the Vedas. This is a significant claim, as the Vedas are the most sacred texts in Hinduism. The fact that the Alvars and Nayanars were considered to be on a par with the Vedas shows the high regard in which they were held.

In conclusion, the Alvars and Nayanars were critical of the caste system and played an important role in the development of bhakti Hinduism. Their hymns are some of the most important texts in Tamil literature, and their traditions are still revered today.

The correct answer is: B. blame

To acquit someone means to declare them not guilty of a crime. The opposite of this is to blame someone, which means to hold them responsible for something wrong that they have done.

The other options are not antonyms of acquit. To confirm something means to state that it is true or correct. To punish someone means to inflict pain or suffering on them as a punishment for a crime or wrongdoing. To indict someone means to formally accuse them of a crime.

Here are some examples of how the word "acquit" can be used in a sentence:

• The jury acquitted the defendant of all charges.
• The judge acquitted the defendant on the grounds of self-defense.
• The police officer acquitted the driver of any wrongdoing.

Here are some examples of how the word "blame" can be used in a sentence:

• The parents blamed their son for the damage to the car.
• The teacher blamed the student for not doing their homework.
• The coach blamed the team for losing the game.

The correct answer is (d), mustard gas.

Mustard gas is a chemical weapon that was used extensively during World War I. It is a blistering agent that causes severe skin burns, blindness, and respiratory problems. It is also a mutagen and carcinogen, meaning that it can cause genetic mutations and cancer.

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials. It is a respiratory poison that can cause death by asphyxiation.

Hydrogen cyanide is a colorless, flammable gas with a bitter almond odor. It is a highly toxic chemical that can cause death by asphyxiation.

Phosgene is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by the reaction of carbon monoxide and chlorine. It is a lung irritant that can cause death by asphyxiation.

All of these gases are dangerous and can cause serious health problems. However, mustard gas is the only one that was specifically used as a chemical weapon during World War I.

The correct answer is C. Unaccountable.

An inexplicable event is one that cannot be explained or accounted for. It is something that is beyond understanding or comprehension.

Unconnected means not joined or linked together. It is something that is separate or distinct.

Chaotic means disorderly or confused. It is something that is without order or organization.

Confusing means difficult to understand or interpret. It is something that is perplexing or bewildering.

Here are some examples of inexplicable events:

• The disappearance of Flight 370.
• The Loch Ness Monster.
• The Bermuda Triangle.

These events are all inexplicable because there is no clear explanation for them. They are beyond our understanding and comprehension.

Unconnected, chaotic, and confusing are not synonyms of inexplicable because they do not mean the same thing. Unconnected means not joined or linked together, chaotic means disorderly or confused, and confusing means difficult to understand or interpret. These words do not describe the nature of inexplicable events, which are beyond understanding or comprehension.

The correct answer is B. is trying to do too much.

The idiom "to bite off more than you can chew" means to attempt something that is too difficult or challenging for you. In this case, Sachin is trying to do too much, and he is likely to fail if he does not take on a more manageable workload.

Option A is incorrect because it is not a common meaning of the idiom. Option C is incorrect because it is not a common meaning of the idiom, and it does not make sense in the context of the question. Option D is incorrect because it is not a common meaning of the idiom, and it does not make sense in the context of the question.

The correct answer is: should.

The word "should" is used to express a strong recommendation or advice. In this case, the speaker is recommending that the listener respect their elders. This is because elders have more life experience and knowledge than younger people, and they can offer valuable advice and guidance. Additionally, respecting elders is a sign of good character and maturity.

The other options are not as strong as "should." The word "could" is used to express possibility or ability. In this case, the speaker is saying that the listener is able to respect their elders, but they are not necessarily required to do so. The word "would" is used to express a wish or intention. In this case, the speaker is saying that they would like the listener to respect their elders, but they are not necessarily demanding that they do so. The word "ought to" is similar to "should," but it is slightly less forceful. In this case, the speaker is saying that the listener should respect their elders, but they are not necessarily insisting that they do so.

In conclusion, the correct answer is "should" because it expresses the strongest recommendation or advice.

Tea grows well in the hill slopes of Darjeeling, Terai and Duars of West Bengal. Tea plants need well drained loamy soil, hot and humid temperatures ranging between 25 degrees to 32 degrees and rainfall of 150-350 cm.

The correct answer is Abul Fazl.

Abul Fazl was a 16th-century Indian scholar, historian, and poet. He was born in Agra in 1551 and died in 1602. He was a close advisor to the Mughal emperor Akbar and is best known for his work Akbarnama, a chronicle of Akbar's reign.

Kabir was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet and saint. He was born in Kashi (now Varanasi) and died in Maghar. He is considered one of the most important figures in Indian religious history.

Bairam Khan was a 16th-century Turkic general and statesman. He was Akbar's foster father and guardian. He was killed in 1561.

Abdul Latif was a 16th-century Sufi saint and poet. He was born in Multan and died in Lahore. He is considered one of the most important figures in Punjabi literature.

The eligibility requirements for the post of Governor is specified in Article 157 and 158 of the Constitution. Article 167C, Article 200, Article 213 and Article 355 lays down the various powers enjoyed by the Governor.

West Bengal State Food Processing and Horticulture Development Cooperatives Limited was established in 1986.

The correct answer is (a) Governor.

The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor of the state. The Commission is responsible for reviewing the financial position of the Panchayats in the state and making recommendations to the government on the devolution of financial resources to the Panchayats.

The Commission consists of a Chairman and four members, who are appointed by the Governor. The Chairman is a person who has had experience in public finance or administration. The members are drawn from the fields of finance, administration, law, and social work.

The Commission has to submit its report to the Governor within a period of one year from the date of its constitution. The report of the Commission is placed before the State Legislature and the government takes appropriate action on the recommendations of the Commission.

The State Finance Commission is an important institution for the devolution of financial resources to the Panchayats. The recommendations of the Commission help to strengthen the financial position of the Panchayats and enable them to provide better services to the people.

The other options are incorrect because:

(b) The Chief Minister is the head of the executive of the state. He/She is not responsible for constituting the State Finance Commission.

(c) The Home Minister is responsible for the maintenance of law and order in the state. He/She is not responsible for constituting the State Finance Commission.

(d) The Finance Minister is responsible for the management of the state's finances. He/She is not responsible for constituting the State Finance Commission.

The correct answer is: A. 1 month.

According to Article 62(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, if the President dies, resigns, or is removed from office before the expiry of his term, the vacancy in the office of the President shall be filled within one month.

The Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected. The election of a new President is held within six weeks of the vacancy occurring. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states.

The President is the head of state of India and the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces. He is also the President of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of Parliament. The President has the power to appoint the Prime Minister and other members of the Union Council of Ministers, to dissolve Parliament, to declare war, and to sign treaties.

The correct answer is C. Glucose.

Glucose is a simple sugar that is the body's main source of energy. It is broken down into pyruvate in the cytoplasm of cells, and then into acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria. Acetyl-CoA is then used in the Krebs cycle to produce ATP, the body's energy currency.

Proteins and fats are also broken down into smaller molecules that can be used to produce energy, but they are not as efficient as glucose. Proteins are broken down into amino acids, and fats are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol. Amino acids and fatty acids can be used to produce acetyl-CoA, but they require more steps than glucose does. Glycerol can be used to produce pyruvate, but it is not as efficient as glucose.

Alkanes are hydrocarbons that do not contain any oxygen. They are not broken down by the body for energy.

In conclusion, glucose produces the highest amount of energy upon oxidation.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{A) }0}$.

The improper integral $int_0^infty {e^{-2t}} dt$ converges because the function $e^{-2t}$ is continuous and decreasing on $[0, infty)$, and the limit of the integral as $a to infty$ is $0$.

To see this, note that for any $a > 0$, we have

$$int_a^infty {e^{-2t}} dt leq int_a^infty dt = a.$$

Taking the limit as $a to infty$, we get

$$lim_{a to infty} int_a^infty {e^{-2t}} dt leq lim_{a to infty} a = 0.$$

Since the limit of the integral is less than or equal to $0$, the integral must converge to $0$.

The correct answer is (b) Dehradun.

Dehradun is the most populous district in Uttarakhand, with a population of 1,011,708 as per the 2011 Census. It is the state capital and the largest city in the state. Dehradun is located in the Doon Valley, which is a popular tourist destination. The city is also home to a number of educational institutions, including the Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee and the University of Dehradun.

Almora is the second most populous district in Uttarakhand, with a population of 563,781 as per the 2011 Census. It is located in the Kumaon region of the state. Almora is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic beauty and its historical monuments.

Haridwar is the third most populous district in Uttarakhand, with a population of 548,132 as per the 2011 Census. It is located in the Garhwal region of the state. Haridwar is a holy city for Hindus, and is a popular pilgrimage destination.

Udham Singh Nagar is the fourth most populous district in Uttarakhand, with a population of 474,314 as per the 2011 Census. It is located in the Terai region of the state. Udham Singh Nagar is a major agricultural district, and is also home to a number of industrial units.

The answer is E. Explosion.

A flood is a large amount of water that covers an area that is usually dry. A hurricane is a large storm with strong winds that forms over warm ocean waters. An avalanche is a large mass of snow, ice, and rock that slides down a mountain. An earthquake is a sudden movement of the Earth's crust.

An explosion is a sudden release of energy that causes a loud noise and a shock wave. Explosions can be caused by a variety of things, including chemical reactions, nuclear reactions, and the detonation of explosives.

The other four options are all natural disasters. Explosions are not typically considered natural disasters, as they are usually caused by human activity.

The correct answer is: A. 1984.

The Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was established in 1984 by the Government of India under the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985. The BIFR was set up to provide a mechanism for the rehabilitation of sick industrial companies in India.

The BIFR has the following powers:

• To initiate proceedings for the rehabilitation of sick industrial companies.
• To approve rehabilitation plans for sick industrial companies.
• To order winding up of sick industrial companies.
• To appoint administrators for sick industrial companies.

The BIFR has been instrumental in the rehabilitation of a number of sick industrial companies in India. The BIFR has also been successful in winding up a number of sick industrial companies.

The BIFR has been criticized for its slow pace of work and for its lack of transparency. However, the BIFR has been a valuable tool for the rehabilitation of sick industrial companies in India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B is incorrect because the BIFR was established in 1984, not 1986.
• Option C is incorrect because the BIFR was established in 1984, not 1987.
• Option D is incorrect because the BIFR was established in 1984, not 1989.

The correct answer is: C. Lead

Newspaper is made from wood pulp, which contains lead. When food is wrapped in newspaper, the lead can leach into the food and contaminate it. Lead is a toxic metal that can cause a variety of health problems, including brain damage, seizures, and death.

Magnesium, aluminum, and copper are also metals that can be found in newspaper. However, these metals are not as toxic as lead and are not likely to cause health problems if they are consumed in small amounts.

In addition to lead, newspaper can also contain other contaminants, such as ink and pesticides. These contaminants can also leach into food and cause health problems.

For these reasons, it is not recommended to wrap food in newspaper. If you must wrap food in paper, use a type of paper that is specifically designed for food contact, such as parchment paper or wax paper.

The correct answer is: C. Andy Murray

Novak Djokovic defeated Andy Murray in the 2016 French Open men's singles final. Djokovic won the match in four sets, 3–6, 6–3, 6–2, 6–4. This was Djokovic's second French Open title and his 12th Grand Slam title overall.

Stefan Edberg was a Swedish tennis player who won six Grand Slam singles titles. He won the French Open in 1985 and 1986.

Andy Roddick was an American tennis player who won one Grand Slam singles title, the 2003 US Open.

Fred Alexander was an American tennis player who won seven Grand Slam singles titles. He won the French Open in 1914, 1915, and 1919.

The correct answer is A. 2413.

The first word, "right," is an adjective that means "correct" or "accurate." The second word, "always," is an adverb that means "at all times" or "in every case." The third word, "Sonali," is a name. The fourth word, "is," is a verb that means "to be."

The sentence "right always Sonali is" is grammatically incorrect. The correct sentence is "Sonali is always right."

The option A, 2413, is the only option that is grammatically correct. The other options are grammatically incorrect.

The option B, 1423, is grammatically incorrect because the word "always" comes after the word "Sonali." The word "always" should come before the word "Sonali."

The option C, 3241, is grammatically incorrect because the word "is" comes after the word "Sonali." The word "is" should come before the word "Sonali."

The option D, 3421, is grammatically incorrect because the word "is" comes after the word "Sonali." The word "is" should come before the word "Sonali."

The correct answer is A. Proteins.

Antibodies are proteins that are produced by the body's immune system in response to an infection or other foreign substance. They bind to specific antigens, which are molecules that are found on the surface of bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens. This binding helps to neutralize the pathogen and prevent it from causing disease.

Lipids are a type of molecule that is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. They are found in the cell membrane, which is the outer layer of cells. Lipids are also found in fat, oil, and cholesterol.

Carbohydrates are a type of molecule that is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. They are the body's main source of energy. Carbohydrates are found in foods such as bread, pasta, rice, and potatoes.

Nucleic acids are a type of molecule that is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus atoms. They are found in the nucleus of cells and are responsible for storing and transmitting genetic information.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. Proteins.

The correct answer is (b), Kyrgyzstan. The name Kyrgyzstan comes from the Turkic words "kırk" meaning "forty" and "üz" meaning "tribe". Therefore, the name Kyrgyzstan closely means "country of 40 tribes".

Kazakhstan is named after the Kazakh people, who are a Turkic people native to Central Asia. The name Kazakhstan means "land of the Kazakhs".

Tajikistan is named after the Tajik people, who are an Iranian people native to Central Asia. The name Tajikistan means "land of the Tajiks".

Uzbekistan is named after the Uzbek people, who are a Turkic people native to Central Asia. The name Uzbekistan means "land of the Uzbeks".

The answer is: D. Plastic

Paper, wool, wood, and leather are all natural materials. Plastic is a synthetic material.

Paper is made from wood pulp. Wool is made from the hair of sheep. Wood is the hard, fibrous material that makes up the trunks and branches of trees. Leather is made from the skin of animals.

Plastic is a material that is made from oil and other chemicals. It is a man-made material that is not found in nature.

Plastic is a very versatile material. It can be used to make a wide variety of products, including bottles, bags, toys, and furniture. However, plastic is also a major source of pollution. It can take hundreds of years for plastic to decompose, and it often ends up in landfills or in the ocean.

It is important to reduce our use of plastic and to recycle plastic whenever possible. We can also choose to buy products that are made from sustainable materials, such as paper, wool, wood, or leather.

The correct answer is (b).

A State of the Indian Union is not empowered under the Constitution to take foreign loans directly. The Constitution of India, Article 292, states that "No State shall without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan or make any gift or agreement involving any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State unless the terms of the loan, gift or agreement have been approved by the President."

This means that any loan that a State of the Indian Union takes must be approved by the Government of India. The Government of India, in turn, is represented by the Reserve Bank of India. Therefore, a State of the Indian Union can only take foreign loans with the permission of the Reserve Bank of India.

Option (a) is incorrect because the Constitution of India does not empower a State of the Indian Union to take foreign loans directly. Option (c) is incorrect because the Constitution of India does not require a State of the Indian Union to obtain the permission of the Reserve Bank of India before taking foreign loans. Option (d) is incorrect because the Constitution of India does not require a State of the Indian Union to obtain the permission of the Government of India before taking foreign loans.

The correct answer is D. Nandalal Bose - Flute.

Muthuswami Dikshitar was a Carnatic music composer. Sultana was a singer. Gopalakrishnan was a violinist. All of these are correct pairs. Nandalal Bose was a painter, not a flutist.

The correct answer is: A. untouchability.

Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form. It also prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of untouchability. The article states that "Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law."

Untouchability is a social practice that has been prevalent in India for centuries. It is based on the belief that certain groups of people are considered to be "untouchable" and are therefore not allowed to mix with other groups of people. This practice has led to the segregation and discrimination of millions of people in India.

The Constitution of India was adopted in 1950 and it was one of the first constitutions in the world to abolish untouchability. Article 17 of the Constitution is a landmark provision that has helped to improve the lives of millions of people in India.

The practice of untouchability is still prevalent in some parts of India, but it has been significantly reduced since the adoption of the Constitution. The government of India has taken a number of steps to eradicate untouchability, including enacting laws against it, providing education and employment opportunities to people from the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes, and raising awareness about the issue.

The practice of untouchability is a violation of the fundamental rights of all citizens of India. It is a social evil that has no place in a modern society. The government of India is committed to eradicating untouchability and ensuring that all citizens are treated with dignity and respect.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B, discrimination, is not abolished by Article 17. Article 17 only abolishes untouchability. Discrimination on the grounds of caste, religion, sex, place of birth, or any other ground is prohibited by Article 15 of the Constitution.
• Option C, equality, is not abolished by Article 17. Article 17 only abolishes untouchability. Equality is guaranteed to all citizens of India by Article 14 of the Constitution.
• Option D, titles, are not abolished by Article 17. Article 17 only abolishes untouchability. The use of titles is regulated by Article 18 of the Constitution.

The correct answer is: D) Rarh region.

The Rarh region is a geographical region in West Bengal, India. It is located in the central part of the state and is bounded by the Hooghly River to the north, the Damodar River to the south, the Jharkhand state to the west, and the Burdwan district to the east.

The Rarh region is a major industrial hub in West Bengal. The leather industry is one of the most important industries in the region. The leather industry is concentrated in the towns of Birbhum, Murshidabad, and Nadia.

The leather industry in the Rarh region is based on the processing of raw hides and skins. The hides and skins are sourced from slaughterhouses, tanneries, and leather factories. The hides and skins are processed into leather products such as shoes, bags, belts, and wallets.

The leather industry in the Rarh region is a major source of employment for the people in the region. The leather industry is also a major contributor to the economy of the state.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option A is incorrect because the Kolkata metropolitan area is located in the Ganges Delta region.
* Option B is incorrect because the Himalayan foothills are located in the northern part of West Bengal.
* Option C is incorrect because the coastal region is located in the southern part of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d). A lease can be determined by efflux of time, implied surrender, or forfeiture.

• Efflux of time means that the lease has expired. This is the most common way for a lease to end.
• Implied surrender means that the tenant has given up possession of the property and the landlord has accepted this. This can happen if the tenant moves out without giving notice or if the landlord takes possession of the property without the tenant's consent.
• Forfeiture means that the landlord has taken back the property because the tenant has breached the terms of the lease. This can happen if the tenant fails to pay rent, damages the property, or uses the property for an illegal purpose.

It is important to note that the terms of a lease can vary, so it is always best to consult with an attorney to understand how a particular lease may be terminated.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{B}}$.

Humans have two sets of teeth: deciduous teeth (baby teeth) and permanent teeth. Deciduous teeth typically start to fall out between the ages of 6 and 12, and permanent teeth start to come in around the same time.

There are 20 deciduous teeth, 10 in each jaw. These teeth are smaller and less complex than permanent teeth. They are also not as firmly rooted in the gums, which is why they fall out more easily.

There are 32 permanent teeth, 16 in each jaw. These teeth are larger and more complex than deciduous teeth. They are also more firmly rooted in the gums, which is why they are less likely to fall out.

The four teeth that come out twice are the wisdom teeth. Wisdom teeth are the third molars, and they are the last teeth to come in. They usually start to come in between the ages of 17 and 25.

Wisdom teeth can sometimes cause problems, such as overcrowding, infection, and tooth decay. If wisdom teeth are causing problems, they may need to be removed.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the number of teeth that come out twice. Option A, 4, is the number of incisors in each jaw. Option C, 20, is the total number of deciduous teeth. Option D, 28, is the total number of permanent teeth.

Metro dairy is located in North 24 Parganas.

The correct answer is: B. It is a poor conductor of heat.

Woolen cloth is a poor conductor of heat. This means that it does not allow heat to flow easily through it. When you wear woolen clothes, the heat from your body is trapped between the fibers of the cloth, which helps to keep you warm.

Option A is incorrect because woolen cloth is a poor conductor of heat, not a good conductor of heat.

Option C is incorrect because external heat rays cannot enter into the body through the woollen cloth. The woolen cloth acts as a barrier between the body and the outside environment, preventing heat from escaping.

Option D is incorrect because woolen cloth does not reflect heat. It traps heat instead.

The correct answer is: D. Have written

William Wordsworth is a famous English poet who lived from 1770 to 1850. He is considered one of the most important poets of the Romantic period. Wordsworth wrote many great poems on nature, including "I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud" and "Tintern Abbey." These poems are still read and enjoyed by people all over the world.

The verb "write" can be used in the present tense, past tense, or present perfect tense. In this case, the present perfect tense is the most appropriate tense to use. This is because the question is asking about William Wordsworth's body of work as a whole, which includes poems that he wrote over the course of his lifetime. The present perfect tense is used to talk about actions that have been completed in the past but have effects that continue into the present. In this case, the effect of Wordsworth's writing is that he has left behind a legacy of great poems on nature.

The other options are not as appropriate in this context. The verb "write" in the present tense (option A) would be used to talk about something that William Wordsworth is doing right now. The verb "write" in the past tense (option B) would be used to talk about something that William Wordsworth did in the past. The verb "are writing" (option C) is not a grammatically correct sentence.

The correct answer is C. Pituitary gland.

The pituitary gland is a pea-sized gland that is located at the base of the brain. It is responsible for producing hormones that control many important bodily functions, including growth, metabolism, and reproduction.

The liver is the largest organ in the body. It is located in the upper right abdomen, below the diaphragm. The liver has many important functions, including:

• Metabolizing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
• Producing bile, which helps to digest fats
• Storing vitamins and minerals
• Removing toxins from the blood

The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland that is located in the neck. It produces hormones that control metabolism, growth, and development.

The salivary glands are located in the mouth and produce saliva, which helps to moisten food and begin the process of digestion.

The pituitary gland is the smallest gland in the body. It is located at the base of the brain and is responsible for producing hormones that control many important bodily functions.

Many areas for sand mining in West Midnapore, Birbhum and East Bardhaman are identified. Exploration of natural gas resources also known as Coal Bed Methane is taking place along the coal mines in West Bengal.