WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-14

The correct answer is: A. 1912

Dada Saheb Phalke produced the first Indian feature film, Raja Harishchandra, in 1912. It was a silent film based on a Hindu mythological story. The film was a commercial success and is considered to be a landmark in the history of Indian cinema.

Option B is incorrect because 1913 is the year that Phalke produced his second feature film, Mohini Bhasmasur.

Option C is incorrect because 1911 is the year that Phalke produced his first short film, Raja Harishchandra (Prologue).

Option D is incorrect because 1910 is the year that Phalke produced his first documentary film, The Country of the Hindus.

The correct answer is: A. Macro economic analysis

Macroeconomics is the study of the economy as a whole, including topics such as inflation, unemployment, and economic growth. National income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced in a country in a given year. It is a key indicator of the health of an economy, and is used to track economic growth and inflation.

Microeconomics is the study of individual economic units, such as households and firms. It focuses on the behavior of these units and how they interact with each other in the market. Business cycle analysis is the study of the fluctuations in economic activity that occur over time. It seeks to understand the causes of these fluctuations and the policies that can be used to mitigate them. Analysis of government budget is the study of the government's spending and revenue. It focuses on how the government raises and spends money, and how this affects the economy.

In conclusion, the concept of national income lays down the basis of macroeconomic analysis because it is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced in a country in a given year. This information is used to track economic growth and inflation, which are key indicators of the health of an economy.

The correct answer is: D) Gorumara National Park.

Gorumara National Park is a national park in the Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal, India. It is famous for its one-horned rhinoceros population. The park was established in 1974 and covers an area of 178.44 square kilometers. It is home to a variety of wildlife, including elephants, tigers, deer, and birds.

The park is located in the foothills of the Himalayas and has a tropical climate. The vegetation in the park is a mix of grasslands, forests, and swamps. The park is a popular tourist destination and offers a variety of activities, such as safaris, trekking, and bird watching.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Jaldapara National Park is famous for its swamp deer population.
* Buxa Tiger Reserve is famous for its tiger population.
* Sunderbans National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is famous for its mangrove forests and Bengal tiger population.

The correct answer is C. truthful.

Candid means to be direct and honest, while indirect means to be vague or evasive. Honesty is the quality of being truthful and sincere, while untruthfulness is the quality of being dishonest or deceitful.

Option A, frank, is similar to candid in that it means to be direct and honest. However, frank can also mean to be blunt or outspoken, which candid does not necessarily mean.

Option B, wicked, is the opposite of honest. Wicked means to be evil or morally wrong.

Option D, untruthful, is also the opposite of honest. Untruthful means to be dishonest or deceitful.

The correct answer is: B. Tukaram.

Tukaram was a Marathi poet-saint who lived in the 17th century. He is considered one of the greatest Bhakti poets of Maharashtra. His poems are full of devotion to God and express his deep love for Him. He is also known for his social reforms and his work to uplift the poor and downtrodden.

Ramdas was a Marathi saint-poet who lived in the 17th century. He is considered one of the greatest saints of Maharashtra. His teachings are based on the principles of devotion to God and service to humanity. He is also known for his work to promote education and social reform.

Namdeva was a Marathi saint-poet who lived in the 13th century. He is considered one of the greatest saints of Maharashtra. His teachings are based on the principles of devotion to God and love for all living beings. He is also known for his work to promote social harmony and equality.

Eknath was a Marathi saint-poet who lived in the 16th century. He is considered one of the greatest saints of Maharashtra. His teachings are based on the principles of devotion to God and service to humanity. He is also known for his work to promote education and social reform.

All four of these saints were great Bhakti poets who made significant contributions to Marathi literature and culture. However, Tukaram is considered to be the greatest of them all. His poems are full of devotion to God and express his deep love for Him. He is also known for his social reforms and his work to uplift the poor and downtrodden.

Jalpaiguri district was formed by British rulers in 1869. Alipurduar district was carved out from Jalpaiguri on 25th June, 2014 as the 20th district in West Bengal.

The answer is C. Loom : Cloth.

In all the other options, the first item is a container and the second item is something that is contained in the first item. For example, a book is a container for pages, a table is a container for drawers, and a car is a container for wheels. However, a loom is not a container for cloth. A loom is a device used to weave cloth, but it is not a container for cloth.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{B}}$.

To find the value of $left. {frac{{{text{dy}}}}{{{text{dx}}}}} right|_{{text{x}} = 1}}$, we can use the following formula:

$$frac{dy}{dx} = lim_{h to 0} frac{y(x + h) - y(x)}{h}$$

In this case, we have $y(x) = x^2 + 2x + 10$, so we can substitute that into the formula to get:

$$begin{align}
frac{dy}{dx} &= lim_{h to 0} frac{(x + h)^2 + 2(x + h) + 10 - (x^2 + 2x + 10)}{h}
&= lim_{h to 0} frac{x^2 + 2xh + h^2 + 2x + 2h + 10 - x^2 - 2x - 10}{h}
&= lim_{h to 0} frac{2xh + h^2 + 2h}{h}
&= lim_{h to 0} 2x + h + 2
&= 2x + 2
end{align}$$

Evaluating at $x = 1$, we get:

$$begin{align}
frac{dy}{dx} &= 2(1) + 2
&= 4
end{align}$$

Therefore, the value of $left. {frac{{{text{dy}}}}{{{text{dx}}}}} right|_{{text{x}} = 1} = boxed{4}$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct value of $left. {frac{{{text{dy}}}}{{{text{dx}}}}} right|_{{text{x}} = 1}$.

The correct answer is: Both (A) and (B).

Upthrust is the upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of a partially or fully immersed object. It is caused by the pressure difference between the top and bottom of the object. The pressure at the bottom of the object is greater than the pressure at the top, because the fluid has to push against the object to get underneath it. This pressure difference creates an upward force on the object.

Weight is the force of gravity acting on an object. It is calculated by multiplying the mass of the object by the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 m/s^2 on Earth.

When a body is immersed in a liquid, it experiences both upthrust and weight. The upthrust pushes upwards on the body, while the weight pulls downwards on the body. The net force on the body is the difference between the upthrust and the weight. If the upthrust is greater than the weight, the body will float. If the upthrust is less than the weight, the body will sink.

Here is a diagram that illustrates the forces acting on a body immersed in a liquid:

[Diagram of a body immersed in a liquid, with arrows indicating the forces of upthrust and weight]

The upthrust is represented by the blue arrow, and the weight is represented by the red arrow. The net force on the body is the vector sum of the upthrust and the weight.

I hope this explanation is helpful! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: D) State government enterprises.

Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) is a state-owned coal mining company in India. It is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal. ECL is the largest coal mining company in India, with an annual production of over 100 million tonnes. The company operates 37 coal mines in West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Odisha.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because private companies do not operate the majority of coal mines in West Bengal. Option B is incorrect because multinational corporations do not operate the majority of coal mines in West Bengal. Option C is incorrect because Eastern Coalfields Limited is a state-owned company, not a multinational corporation.

The correct answer is D) All of the above. Foot and mouth disease, avian influenza, and anthrax are all major threats to livestock in West Bengal.

Foot and mouth disease is a highly contagious viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals, such as cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats. It can cause lameness, fever, and blisters in the mouth and on the feet. In severe cases, it can be fatal.

Avian influenza is a viral disease that affects birds. It can cause respiratory problems, diarrhea, and neurological problems. In severe cases, it can be fatal.

Anthrax is a bacterial disease that affects animals and humans. It can cause fever, chills, muscle aches, and a black skin lesion. In severe cases, it can be fatal.

All of these diseases can have a significant impact on the livestock industry in West Bengal. They can cause the death of animals, which can lead to financial losses for farmers. They can also disrupt the supply of meat and other livestock products.

There are a number of things that can be done to prevent the spread of these diseases, such as vaccinating animals, practicing good biosecurity, and reporting any suspected cases to the authorities.

The correct answer is: D. Knell : Death

A tocsin is a loud bell that is rung to warn people of danger. A knell is a slow, solemn ringing of a bell, especially to announce a death. Both a tocsin and a knell are sounds that are associated with negative events.

An antitoxin is a substance that is used to neutralize a toxin. A warning is a statement that tells someone to be careful or to avoid something. Both an antitoxin and a warning are things that can be used to prevent something bad from happening.

An augury is a prediction of the future, especially one based on the observation of birds or other natural phenomena. A clarion is a loud, clear trumpet call. Both an augury and a clarion are things that can be used to signal something.

However, a clarion is not associated with death in the same way that a knell is. A clarion is often used to signal a victory or a call to arms, while a knell is used to announce a death.

The correct answer is (a) Gujarat.

Gujarat was the worst affected state by hailstorm in 2014. The hailstorms caused widespread damage to crops and property, and left many people homeless. The state government declared a state of emergency and provided relief to the affected people.

The hailstorms occurred in the months of February and March 2014. The hailstones were as big as golf balls and caused extensive damage to crops, including wheat, cotton, and vegetables. The hailstorms also damaged houses and other buildings.

The state government estimated that the damage caused by the hailstorms was over Rs. 1,000 crore. The government provided relief to the affected people in the form of food, shelter, and medical assistance.

The hailstorms were a major natural disaster for Gujarat. The state government took all necessary measures to provide relief to the affected people.

The correct answer is (b), Dehradun.

Chandpur Garhi, Devalgarh, and Srinagar were all capitals of the Parmar rulers of Garhwal. Dehradun was not a capital of the Parmar rulers of Garhwal.

Chandpur Garhi was the first capital of the Parmar rulers of Garhwal. It was located in the present-day district of Tehri Garhwal. Devalgarh was the second capital of the Parmar rulers of Garhwal. It was located in the present-day district of Chamoli Garhwal. Srinagar was the third and final capital of the Parmar rulers of Garhwal. It is the present-day capital of the state of Uttarakhand.

The Parmar rulers of Garhwal were a Rajput dynasty that ruled the Garhwal region of India from the 11th to the 18th centuries. They were originally from the Gurjar Pratihara dynasty, which ruled much of northern India from the 7th to the 11th centuries. The Parmar rulers of Garhwal were a powerful and influential dynasty, and they played a significant role in the history of the Garhwal region.

The correct answer is: A. repress an emotion.

Biting one's lips is a common body language gesture that can be interpreted in a number of ways. It can be a sign of nervousness, anxiety, or stress. It can also be a sign of anger or frustration. In some cases, it can be a sign of sexual arousal.

However, the most common interpretation of biting one's lips is that it is a sign of someone trying to repress an emotion. This is often the case when someone is feeling angry, frustrated, or upset, but they are trying to keep their emotions under control. Biting one's lips can be a way of releasing some of the tension and frustration that is building up inside.

It is important to note that the interpretation of body language is not always straightforward. The meaning of a gesture can vary depending on the context in which it is used. For example, biting one's lips could be a sign of nervousness in one situation, but it could be a sign of sexual arousal in another situation.

If you are trying to interpret the meaning of someone's body language, it is important to consider the context in which the gesture is being used. You should also consider the person's facial expressions, tone of voice, and other body language cues.

Here are some brief explanations of the other options:

• To feel sorry: This is not typically a sign of biting one's lips. However, it is possible that someone might bite their lips if they are feeling sorry for themselves or someone else.
• To have doubt: This is also not typically a sign of biting one's lips. However, it is possible that someone might bite their lips if they are feeling unsure about something.
• To laugh at others: This is not typically a sign of biting one's lips. However, it is possible that someone might bite their lips if they are trying to hold back laughter.

The correct answer is: D. Endoscopy.

Optic fibers are used in endoscopy to transmit images and light from a camera to a screen. This allows doctors to see inside the body without having to make a large incision.

CAT scans, X-ray photos, and ultrasound scans are all medical imaging techniques that use different technologies to create images of the inside of the body. CAT scans use X-rays to create cross-sectional images of the body, while X-ray photos use X-rays to create two-dimensional images of the body. Ultrasound scans use sound waves to create images of the body.

Optic fibers are not used in CAT scans, X-ray photos, or ultrasound scans.

The correct answer is B. Potassium.

Potassium is an essential element for plant growth. It is involved in many important plant processes, including photosynthesis, protein synthesis, and water transport. Potassium fertilizers are used to supplement the potassium levels in the soil, which can be depleted by crop production.

Fluorine is not used in the manufacturing of fertilizers. It is a highly reactive element that can be toxic to plants.

Lead is also not used in the manufacturing of fertilizers. It is a heavy metal that can be toxic to plants and animals.

Aluminium is not used in the manufacturing of fertilizers. It is a light metal that is not essential for plant growth.

In conclusion, the correct answer is B. Potassium.

The correct answer is (c).

The territorial waters of India extend up to 12 nautical miles from the coast. This is in accordance with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, which India ratified in 1976. The territorial waters are a part of the country's territory and are subject to its sovereignty.

The territorial waters are measured from the baseline, which is the low-water line along the coast as marked on large-scale charts officially recognized by the coastal state. The territorial waters include the seabed and subsoil thereof.

The coastal state has full sovereignty over its territorial waters. This includes the right to control all activities in the territorial waters, such as navigation, fishing, and the laying of submarine cables and pipelines.

The coastal state also has the right to establish customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitary regulations in its territorial waters.

Foreign ships have the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters of India. This means that they may pass through the territorial waters without stopping or entering port, provided that they do not prejudice the peace, good order, or security of India.

The territorial waters of India are an important part of the country's maritime domain. They provide a buffer zone between India and the high seas, and they are a vital resource for the country's economy.

The correct answer is despotic.

A despot is a ruler with absolute power who is not accountable to the people. A despotic government is one that is ruled by a despot. Despotic governments are often characterized by corruption, human rights abuses, and economic stagnation.

The other options are not as relevant to the question.

• Devaluated means to reduce the value of something, such as currency. This is not a characteristic of a despotic government.
• Dwindling means to decrease in size or number. This is not a characteristic of a despotic government.
• Demeaning means to make someone feel worthless or inferior. This is not a characteristic of a despotic government.
• Demobilized means to disband a military force. This is not a characteristic of a despotic government.

In conclusion, the correct answer is despotic.

The correct answer is: Omnipotent.

Omnipotent means all-powerful. In the olden days, the king was considered to be all-powerful, and his word was law. He had the power to make laws, to wage war, and to punish his subjects.

Veteran means someone who has served in the military for a long time. Omnivorous means eating both plants and animals. Omniscient means knowing everything.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D. revolution/danger.

A black flag is a flag that is predominantly black in color. It is often used as a symbol of revolution, danger, or mourning. In the 18th and 19th centuries, black flags were flown by pirates to indicate that they would give no quarter to their enemies. In the 20th century, black flags were used by various revolutionary groups, such as the Black Panthers and the Weather Underground. Today, black flags are sometimes flown by anti-government protesters and by groups that support violence.

The other options are incorrect. A truce is a temporary cessation of hostilities between two or more parties. Peace is a state of harmony and tranquility. A protest is an expression of disapproval or objection.

The correct answer is: A) Agriculture and forest-related activities.

Tribal communities in West Bengal traditionally live in rural areas and depend on agriculture and forest-related activities for their livelihood. They are often involved in subsistence farming, hunting, gathering, and other forest-based activities.

Option B, large-scale industries, is not a traditional livelihood of tribal communities in West Bengal. While some tribal people may be employed in large-scale industries, this is not their traditional way of life.

Option C, the information technology sector, is a relatively new industry in West Bengal and does not provide a livelihood for many tribal people.

Option D, coastal fishing, is not a traditional livelihood of tribal communities in West Bengal. While some tribal people may live in coastal areas, they are not typically involved in fishing.

In conclusion, the traditional livelihood of many tribal communities in West Bengal is based on agriculture and forest-related activities.

The correct answer is: D. All of these

Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that does not involve the fusion of gametes. It is a common form of reproduction in fungi, and it can occur by fragmentation, budding, or spore formation.

Fragmentation is a type of asexual reproduction in which a piece of a fungus breaks off and grows into a new individual. This can happen when a fungus is damaged or when it is growing in a crowded environment.

Budding is a type of asexual reproduction in which a new individual grows out of a parent individual. This can happen when a fungus forms a bud, which is a small, new growth that eventually separates from the parent individual.

Spore formation is a type of asexual reproduction in which a fungus produces spores. Spores are tiny, reproductive cells that can be dispersed by the wind or water. When a spore lands in a suitable environment, it can germinate and grow into a new individual.

All of these methods of asexual reproduction are common in fungi. The method that is used most often depends on the species of fungus and the environment in which it is growing.

The correct answer is A. Communist Party of India (Marxist).

Ganashakti is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published in Kolkata, India. It is the mouthpiece of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). The newspaper was founded in 1948 by Jyoti Basu, who later became the Chief Minister of West Bengal. Ganashakti is one of the most popular newspapers in West Bengal, with a circulation of over 1 million copies.

The other options are incorrect. The Trinamool Congress is a regional political party in West Bengal. The Bharatiya Janata Party is a national political party in India. The Indian National Congress is a national political party in India.

The correct answer is: D. N. R. Narayana Murthy.

N. R. Narayana Murthy is an Indian business magnate, software engineer, and philanthropist. He is the co-founder and former chairman of Infosys Limited, a multinational information technology services and consulting company. He is also the co-founder of the Infosys Foundation, a non-profit organization that works in the areas of education, healthcare, rural development, and disaster relief.

Murthy was born in Mysore, India, in 1946. He received a bachelor's degree in electrical engineering from the Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur, in 1967. He then moved to the United States to attend the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, where he received a master's degree in electrical engineering in 1969 and a master's degree in business administration in 1972.

After graduating from MIT, Murthy returned to India and worked for a few years at Patni Computer Systems. In 1981, he co-founded Infosys with six other engineers. Infosys started out as a small company with just seven employees, but it grew rapidly under Murthy's leadership. The company went public in 1993 and became one of the largest information technology companies in the world.

Murthy retired as chairman of Infosys in 2011, but he remains a member of the board of directors. He is also the chairman of the Infosys Foundation.

Murthy has received numerous awards and honors for his work in business and philanthropy. He was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2000. He was also awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 2010. In 2014, he was awarded the World Economic Forum's Crystal Award for his lifetime achievement in business and society.

Murthy is a strong advocate for education and entrepreneurship. He has said that "education is the most powerful weapon which you can use to change the world" and that "entrepreneurship is the engine of growth." He is also a strong supporter of social responsibility and has said that "business has a responsibility to give back to society."

Murthy is a visionary leader who has made significant contributions to the fields of business and philanthropy. He is a role model for entrepreneurs and social activists around the world.

The correct answer is: A. Mother-in-law

Veena is the sister-in-law of Ashok. This means that Veena is married to Ashok's brother. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep, who is the only brother of Ashok. This means that Dheeraj is Ashok's father. Kalyani is the mother-in-law of Veena. This means that Kalyani is the mother of Sudeep, who is married to Veena. Therefore, Kalyani is the mother-in-law of Ashok.

Here is a diagram to illustrate the relationships:

• Ashok
• |
• Sudeep (Ashok's brother)
• |
• Veena (Ashok's sister-in-law)
• |
• Kalyani (Veena's mother-in-law)

As you can see, Kalyani is the mother of Sudeep, who is married to Veena. This makes Kalyani the mother-in-law of Veena, and therefore, the mother-in-law of Ashok.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationships between the people in the question.

• Option B: Aunt. Kalyani is not the aunt of Ashok. Veena is the aunt of Ashok, because she is the sister of Ashok's father.
• Option C: Wife. Kalyani is not the wife of Ashok. Veena is the wife of Ashok's brother.
• Option D: None of these. Kalyani is related to Ashok as his mother-in-law.

The correct answer is A) Pig and cow fat.

The greased cartridges controversy was a major political upheaval in India in the 1850s. The controversy arose from the introduction of a new type of rifle cartridge that was greased with a mixture of pig and cow fat. This was offensive to both Hindus and Muslims, who considered pigs and cows to be sacred animals. The controversy led to widespread protests and riots, and ultimately to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

Option B is incorrect because sheep and goat fat are not considered to be sacred by Hindus or Muslims. Option C is incorrect because vegetable oil is not a type of fat. Option D is incorrect because mineral oil is not a type of fat.

The correct answer is (c) Estimates Committee.

The Estimates Committee is a parliamentary committee that examines the estimates of expenditure laid before Parliament by the Union Government. It is a permanent committee consisting of 30 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 15 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

The Committee examines the estimates of expenditure with a view to suggest economies, savings and improvements in the administration of expenditure. It also examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on the Union Government's accounts.

The Committee submits its report to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The report is then laid on the table of both Houses of Parliament. The Government is required to take action on the recommendations of the Committee.

The Estimates Committee is a powerful committee that can play a significant role in improving the efficiency and effectiveness of the Union Government's expenditure.

The other options are incorrect because they all have representation from the Rajya Sabha.

(a) The Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary committee that examines the accounts of the Union Government. It is a permanent committee consisting of 22 members, 11 from the Lok Sabha and 11 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings is a parliamentary committee that examines the functioning of public undertakings. It is a permanent committee consisting of 22 members, 11 from the Lok Sabha and 11 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

(d) The Committee on Government Assurances is a parliamentary committee that examines the assurances given by the Government in Parliament. It is a permanent committee consisting of 15 members, 7 from the Lok Sabha and 8 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is: C. 5 June.

World Environment Day is celebrated on June 5 every year. It is a day for people to come together to raise awareness about the importance of protecting the environment. The day was first celebrated in 1972, and it has been celebrated every year since then.

The theme for World Environment Day 2023 is "Only One Earth." The theme focuses on the need to live sustainably in harmony with nature. The day will be celebrated with a variety of events and activities around the world.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 7 April is the World Health Day.
• Option B: 6 August is the International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples.
• Option C: 5 June is World Environment Day.
• Option D: 16 June is the International Day of Family Remittances.

The correct answer is B. opposite.

A magnetic storm is a disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere caused by a solar wind shock wave and/or a coronal mass ejection. The magnetic field generated due to a magnetic storm is directed in the opposite direction to the Earth's main field. This can cause problems for satellites and other spacecraft in orbit, as well as for power grids and telecommunications systems on Earth.

Option A is incorrect because the magnetic field generated due to a magnetic storm is not directed in the same direction as the Earth's main field.

Option C is incorrect because the magnetic field generated due to a magnetic storm is not directed southward.

Option D is incorrect because the magnetic field generated due to a magnetic storm is not directed northward.

The correct answer is: B. Keshavananda Bharti's case

In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that the basic structure of the Constitution is unamendable. This means that the fundamental rights cannot be amended in a way that would destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.

The other options are incorrect because:

• In the A.K. Gopalan's case, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights are not absolute and can be amended by Parliament.
• In the M.C. Mehta's case, the Supreme Court held that the right to life is a fundamental right and that the government has a duty to protect the environment.
• In the Golak Nath's case, the Supreme Court held that Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the fundamental rights.

The Kesavananda Bharati case was a landmark case in Indian constitutional law. It established the principle that the basic structure of the Constitution is unamendable. This principle has been used by the Supreme Court to strike down a number of laws that it has found to be unconstitutional.

The correct answer is: A. Force.

A newton is the unit of force in the International System of Units (SI). It is named after Isaac Newton, the English physicist and mathematician who first described the laws of motion.

One newton is the force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at a rate of one metre per second squared.

Momentum is the product of an object's mass and velocity. It is a vector quantity, meaning that it has both magnitude and direction.

Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration that an object experiences due to the force of gravity. It is a constant value, equal to 9.80665 m/s^2.

Velocity is the rate of change of an object's position. It is a vector quantity, meaning that it has both magnitude and direction.

In conclusion, the unit of force is the newton.

According to Schumpeter, monopoly profit acts as incentives for innovation. This is because monopolies have a large market share and can therefore charge higher prices than competitive firms. This higher price allows them to earn a profit, which they can then invest in research and development. This investment can lead to new products and services, which can benefit consumers.

A. Monopolies are inefficient. This is because monopolies have no incentive to lower prices or improve their products or services. They can charge whatever price they want and consumers will have to pay it, because there is no competition. This leads to higher prices and lower quality goods and services for consumers.

B. Monopoly profit acts as incentives for innovation. This is true, as explained above.

C. Monopolies are allocatively efficient. This is not true, as explained above.

D. Monopolies are productively efficient. This is not necessarily true. Monopolies may be productively efficient if they have lower costs than competitive firms. However, they may also be productively inefficient if they do not have any incentive to lower their costs.

The correct answer is: A. Explicit cost.

Explicit costs are costs that a firm incurs in hiring or purchasing any factor of production. They are costs that are directly paid out by the firm, such as wages, salaries, rent, and interest.

Implicit costs are costs that a firm incurs but does not directly pay out. They are the opportunity costs of using resources that the firm already owns. For example, if a firm owns its own building, the implicit cost of using that building is the rent that it could have earned if it had rented the building to someone else.

Variable costs are costs that vary with the level of output. For example, the cost of raw materials is a variable cost because it increases as the firm produces more output.

Fixed costs are costs that do not vary with the level of output. For example, the cost of rent is a fixed cost because it does not change even if the firm produces more or less output.

The correct answer is: A. Autotrophs.

Autotrophs are organisms that can produce their own food using inorganic materials and energy from sunlight or other sources. They are the primary producers in an ecosystem, and they provide food for other organisms.

Hetertrophs are organisms that cannot produce their own food, and they must consume other organisms or organic matter to survive. They are the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary consumers in an ecosystem.

Auxotrophs are organisms that require a specific nutrient or nutrients that they cannot synthesize themselves. They are often used in research to study the function of genes and proteins.

Saprotrophs are organisms that decompose dead organic matter. They are important in the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.

Here is a table that summarizes the characteristics of each type of organism:

| Type of organism | Can produce own food? | Source of energy | Example |
| --- | --- | --- | --- |
| Autotroph | Yes | Sunlight or other inorganic sources | Plants, algae, some bacteria |
| Heterotroph | No | Other organisms or organic matter | Animals, fungi, most bacteria |
| Auxotroph | No | Specific nutrients that they cannot synthesize themselves | Many bacteria and fungi |
| Saprotroph | No | Dead organic matter | Fungi, some bacteria |

The correct answer is: C. Britain

The phrase "equality before the law" is a legal principle that states that all people are equal in the eyes of the law. This means that no one is above the law, and that everyone is treated fairly and equally by the courts.

The phrase "equality before the law" is found in the preamble to the Constitution of India, which states that India is a "sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic". The phrase is also found in Article 14 of the Constitution, which states that "the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India".

The phrase "equality before the law" is derived from the English common law, which is the body of law that has developed over time in England and Wales. The phrase was first used in a legal context in the 17th century, and it has been used in the Constitution of India since it was adopted in 1950.

The phrase "equality before the law" is a fundamental principle of the Indian legal system, and it is one of the most important rights that is guaranteed to all citizens of India. The phrase is a reminder that everyone is equal in the eyes of the law, and that no one is above the law.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the source of the phrase "equality before the law". The phrase is not found in the constitutions of the United States, Germany, or Greece.

The correct answer is $boxed{{}^{10}{{text{C}}_2}{left( {frac{1}{2}} right)^2}}$.

The probability of getting heads on any given toss of a fair coin is $frac{1}{2}$. The probability of getting tails is also $frac{1}{2}$. The probability of getting heads on the first two tosses is $frac{1}{2} cdot frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{4}$.

To get the probability of getting only heads on the first two tosses and tails on the remaining eight tosses, we need to multiply the probability of getting heads on the first two tosses by the number of ways to choose two tosses from ten tosses, which is $10 choose 2$. We also need to multiply by the probability of getting tails on each of the remaining eight tosses, which is $frac{1}{2}$.

The probability of getting only heads on the first two tosses is therefore:

$$frac{1}{4} cdot {}^{10}{{text{C}}_2} cdot left( frac{1}{2} right)^8 = {}^{10}{{text{C}}_2}{left( {frac{1}{2}} right)^2}$$

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: $left( {frac{1}{2}} right)^2$ is the probability of getting heads on two consecutive tosses. This is not the correct answer because it does not take into account the possibility of getting tails on the remaining eight tosses.
• Option B: $^{10}{{text{C}}_2}{left( {frac{1}{2}} right)^8}$ is the probability of getting tails on the remaining eight tosses, given that the first two tosses are heads. This is not the correct answer because it does not take into account the possibility of getting heads on the first two tosses and tails on the remaining eight tosses.
• Option C: $left( {frac{1}{2}} right)^{10}$ is the probability of getting tails on all ten tosses. This is not the correct answer because it does not take into account the possibility of getting heads on the first two tosses.

The correct answer is C. Right to Equality.

The Right to Equality is one of the six fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. It includes equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, and the right to non-discrimination in respect of access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment.

The Right to Equality is enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which states that "the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India." This means that all persons are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the law. The State cannot discriminate against any person on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

The Right to Equality also includes the right to non-discrimination in respect of access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment. This means that no person can be denied access to these places on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

The Right to Equality is a fundamental right that is essential for the maintenance of a just and fair society. It is a right that protects all persons from discrimination and ensures that they are treated equally before the law.

The other options are incorrect because they do not include the right to equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels, etc.

A. Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom: This right includes the right to freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of movement, and the right to life and personal liberty.

B. Right to Freedom of Religion: This right includes the right to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propagate any religion.

D. Cultural and Educational Rights: This right includes the right to conserve one's language, script and culture, and the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

The correct answer is (c), wheat germ oil. Wheat germ oil is a good source of vitamin E, which is an important nutrient for human health. Vitamin E is an antioxidant, which means it helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Free radicals are unstable molecules that can damage cells, leading to diseases such as cancer and heart disease. Vitamin E also helps to boost the immune system and protect against infection.

Palm oil and coconut oil are both high in saturated fat, which can increase the risk of heart disease. Mustard oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. However, it is not a good source of vitamin E.

In conclusion, wheat germ oil is the best source of vitamin E among the options given.

The answer is 13.

The sequence is a list of numbers, each of which is the sum of the two numbers that come before it. So, the first number is 4, and the second number is 7, which is the sum of 4 and 3. The third number is 25, which is the sum of 7 and 18. The fourth number is 10, which is the sum of 25 and 5. The fifth number is 13, which is the sum of 10 and 3. The sixth number is 20, which is the sum of 13 and 7. The seventh number is 16, which is the sum of 20 and 6. The eighth number is 19, which is the sum of 16 and 3.

Therefore, the number that should fill the blank is 13.

The correct answer is: A. hydrogen

Hydrogen has the highest energy value (calorific value) of all the gases listed. It has a calorific value of 120 MJ/kg, which is significantly higher than the calorific values of LPG (46 MJ/kg), natural gas (39 MJ/kg), and methane (50 MJ/kg).

LPG is a mixture of propane and butane, which are both hydrocarbons. Natural gas is a mixture of methane, ethane, propane, and butane. Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon and has the lowest energy value of all the gases listed.

The energy value of a fuel is the amount of heat that is released when the fuel is burned. The higher the energy value of a fuel, the more heat is released when it is burned. This means that hydrogen can produce more heat than any of the other gases listed when it is burned.

Hydrogen is a clean-burning fuel that does not produce any harmful emissions. It is also a renewable resource, which means that it can be produced from water. This makes hydrogen a promising alternative to fossil fuels, which are non-renewable and produce harmful emissions.

The correct answer is: in.

The word "in" is used to indicate a location or position inside something. In this case, the mysterious creatures are prowling in the night. This means that they are moving around and being active during the night.

The other options are not as accurate. The word "at" is used to indicate a specific time or place. In this case, the mysterious creatures are not prowling at a specific time or place. They are prowling in the night, which means that they are active during the night, but not necessarily at a specific time.

The word "on" is used to indicate a surface or area. In this case, the mysterious creatures are not prowling on a surface or area. They are prowling in the night, which means that they are moving around and being active during the night.

The word "along" is used to indicate a path or route. In this case, the mysterious creatures are not prowling along a path or route. They are prowling in the night, which means that they are moving around and being active during the night.

The correct answer is: B. Article 12

Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines the term "State" to include the Government of India, the Government of any State and any local or other authority within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form.

Article 20 provides for protection in respect of conviction for offences.

Article 12 is the most relevant article in this context as it defines the term "State". The other articles are not relevant as they deal with different issues.

The South-west monsoon winds blow in India from around 10-15 June till September.

The correct answer is: B. Kinetic energy.

Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. It is possessed by an object due to its motion. The faster an object moves, the more kinetic energy it has. Kinetic energy is measured in joules (J).

Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position or state. It is not due to the object's motion. Potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy, and vice versa.

For example, a ball held above the ground has potential energy. When the ball is released, it falls and gains kinetic energy. As the ball falls, its potential energy decreases and its kinetic energy increases. When the ball hits the ground, all of its potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy.

The answer to the question is B. Kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. It is possessed by an object due to its motion. The faster an object moves, the more kinetic energy it has. Kinetic energy is measured in joules (J).

The correct answer is: C. The former master said that he would have been surprised if I had passed the examination.

The former master is using the past subjunctive mood to express a counterfactual situation. In other words, he is saying that he would have been surprised if I had passed the examination, but I did not pass the examination.

Option A is incorrect because the former master is not saying that he was surprised. He is saying that he would have been surprised.

Option B is incorrect because the former master is not saying that he should have been surprised. He is saying that he would have been surprised.

Option D is incorrect because the former master is not saying that he was surprised. He is saying that he would have been surprised.

The correct answer is (a) De facto Guardian.

A de facto guardian is a person who has taken on the role of guardian of a minor without having been appointed by a court. This can happen if the parents of the minor are deceased or unable to care for the child. A de facto guardian may be a relative, friend, or other person who has the best interests of the child at heart.

However, a de facto guardian is not legally entitled to make decisions about the child's property. This is because the law requires that a guardian be appointed by a court in order to have legal authority over a child's property.

Section 11 of The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 states that a de facto guardian is not entitled to dispose of the property of a Hindu minor. This means that a de facto guardian cannot sell, mortgage, or lease the property of a Hindu minor without the permission of the court.

The other options are incorrect because they are all persons who can be appointed by a court to be the guardian of a Hindu minor. A de-jure guardian is a person who has been appointed by a court to be the guardian of a minor. A father is a natural guardian of his minor children. A guardian appointed by a court is a person who has been appointed by a court to be the guardian of a minor.

The correct answer is A. 11.

Maharashtra has 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. It is also known as the Council of States. The Rajya Sabha has 250 members, who are elected by the members of the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories. The term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha is six years.

The 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha from Maharashtra are filled by the following political parties:

• Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP): 5 seats
• Shiv Sena: 3 seats
• Nationalist Congress Party (NCP): 2 seats
• Congress: 1 seat

The Rajya Sabha is a powerful body. It has the power to amend the Constitution, to approve the budget, and to pass laws. It also has the power to impeach the President of India.

The Rajya Sabha is an important part of the Indian Parliament. It plays a vital role in the making of laws and in the governance of the country.

The correct answer is: D. Legislative Council

The chairman of the Legislative Council is not a member of the house. The chairman is appointed by the governor of the state. The chairman is usually a retired judge or a senior politician. The chairman presides over the meetings of the Legislative Council and ensures that the rules of the house are followed.

The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the two houses of the Parliament of India. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are elected members of their respective houses. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha.

The Legislative Assembly is the lower house of the state legislature in a state of India. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the Legislative Assembly.

The Legislative Council is the upper house of the state legislature in a state of India. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is appointed by the governor of the state. The Chairman presides over the meetings of the Legislative Council.

The correct answer is: A. Argentina

Argentina won the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament, defeating Croatia in the final. Argentina won the tie 3-2, with Juan Martín del Potro winning the decisive fifth match.

Switzerland, Serbia, and Croatia were all eliminated in the quarterfinals.

Option A: Argentina

Argentina won the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament, defeating Croatia in the final. Argentina won the tie 3-2, with Juan Martín del Potro winning the decisive fifth match.

Option B: Switzerland

Switzerland was eliminated in the quarterfinals of the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament, losing to Argentina.

Option C: Serbia

Serbia was eliminated in the quarterfinals of the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament, losing to Croatia.

Option D: Croatia

Croatia lost to Argentina in the final of the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament.

Option E: None of the above/More than one of the above

None of the above options are correct. Argentina won the 2016 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament, defeating Croatia in the final.

The answer is D. Beam.

A house is a building that is used for habitation. It is typically made of wood, brick, or concrete, and has a roof and walls. A wall is a vertical structure that supports the weight of a building or other structure. A roof is the covering of a building or other structure that protects it from the weather. A beam is a long, rigid piece of wood, metal, or concrete that is used to support a weight.

In the given options, all are parts of a house except beam.

The correct answer is (d) Almora.

Almora is a district in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand, India. It is the largest district in the state by area, and is bordered by the districts of Nainital, Pithoragarh, Champawat, Bageshwar, and Rudraprayag. The district is home to the Kumaon Himalayas, and is a popular tourist destination.

Uttarkashi is a district in the Garhwal division of Uttarakhand, India. It is the northernmost district in the state, and is bordered by the states of Himachal Pradesh and China. The district is home to the Kedarnath and Badrinath temples, two of the most important Hindu pilgrimage sites.

Chamoli is a district in the Garhwal division of Uttarakhand, India. It is the second largest district in the state by area, and is bordered by the districts of Uttarkashi, Rudraprayag, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal, and Almora. The district is home to the Nanda Devi National Park, the largest national park in India.

Pithoragarh is a district in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand, India. It is the westernmost district in the state, and is bordered by the states of Himachal Pradesh and Nepal. The district is home to the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Therefore, the only district that is not situated along the International boundary is Almora.

The correct answer is (a) 23.5%.

Let $A$ be the third number. Then $B$ is 15% less than $A$, so $B = 0.85A$. $C$ is 32% less than $A$, so $C = 0.68A$.

To find the percentage by which $C$ is less than $B$, we can use the following formula:

Percentage change = $frac{new - old}{old} times 100%$

In this case, the new value is $C$ and the old value is $B$. So, the percentage change is:

Percentage change = $frac{0.68A - 0.85A}{0.85A} times 100% = 23.5%$

Therefore, $C$ is 23.5% less than $B$.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) 23.5%: This is the correct answer. It is calculated by using the formula above.
(b) 22%: This is incorrect. It is calculated by using the formula above, but with the wrong values.
(c) 20%: This is incorrect. It is calculated by using the formula above, but with the wrong values.
(d) 18%: This is incorrect. It is calculated by using the formula above, but with the wrong values.

The correct answer is: C. Jammu and Kashmir

The Constitution of India lists 61 subjects in the Concurrent List, which are subjects on which both the Central and State governments can make laws. However, the Central government has the power to override any law made by a State government on a Concurrent List subject.

The Concurrent List includes subjects such as criminal law, criminal procedure, preventive detention, railways, shipping and navigation, airways, posts and telegraphs, telephones, wireless, broadcasting, currency, coinage and legal tender, banking, insurance, stock exchanges and futures markets, electricity, irrigation, canals, drainage, water supplies, irrigation and canals, fisheries, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, trade and commerce with foreign countries, among others.

In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the Central government has the power to formulate any law on any subject, including those on the Concurrent List, without prior discussion with the State government. This is because Article 370 of the Constitution of India, which grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir, gives the Central government exclusive power to make laws for the State with respect to all matters.

The other options are incorrect because the Central government cannot formulate any law on any subject without prior discussion with the State government in those cases.

The correct answer is C. I, II and III.

Buddhism is a religion that originated in India over 2,500 years ago. It is based on the teachings of Siddhartha Gautama, who is also known as the Buddha. The Buddha taught that the cause of suffering is desire, and that the way to end suffering is to extinguish desire. He also taught that the way to extinguish desire is to follow the Eightfold Path.

The Eightfold Path is a set of eight steps that lead to enlightenment. The steps are:

1. Right understanding
2. Right thought
3. Right speech
4. Right action
5. Right livelihood
6. Right effort
7. Right mindfulness
8. Right concentration

If one follows the Eightfold Path, one will eventually reach nirvana, which is a state of perfect peace and happiness.

The Buddha did not teach that God or a soul exist. He taught that the only thing that exists is suffering, and that the only way to end suffering is to extinguish desire.

Option I is correct because the Buddha taught that the world is full of sorrows.

Option II is correct because the Buddha taught that people suffer on account of desires.

Option III is correct because the Buddha taught that if desires are conquered, nirvana will be attained.

Option IV is incorrect because the Buddha did not teach that God or a soul exist.

The correct answer is C. Downstairs.

Downtown is a word that refers to the central business district of a city. It is usually located in the lower part of the city, near the waterfront.

Downpore is not a word. It is a misspelling of the word "downpour." A downpour is a heavy rain shower.

Downright is an adverb that means "completely" or "utterly." For example, you might say that someone is downright rude or that something is downright delicious.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: **B) 1952**

The first general election in West Bengal after independence was held in 1952. The election was held for the Legislative Assembly of West Bengal. The Indian National Congress won the election with a majority of seats. The Communist Party of India was the main opposition party. The election was a landmark event in the history of West Bengal as it was the first time that the people of the state had the opportunity to choose their representatives. The election was also significant as it marked the beginning of the dominance of the Indian National Congress in West Bengal politics.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option A: The first general election in India was held in 1951. However, this election was not held in West Bengal as the state was not yet formed at the time.
* Option C: The second general election in India was held in 1957. This election was held in West Bengal and the Indian National Congress won the election with a majority of seats.
* Option D: The third general election in India was held in 1962. This election was also held in West Bengal and the Indian National Congress won the election with a majority of seats.

The correct answer is: A. Remains constant.

A Carnot engine is an ideal heat engine that operates on the Carnot cycle. The Carnot cycle is a theoretical thermodynamic cycle that is the most efficient possible cycle for converting heat into work. In a Carnot engine, heat is taken from a high-temperature reservoir and transferred to a low-temperature reservoir, doing work in the process. The temperature of the source remains constant because the engine is in equilibrium with the source.

Option B is incorrect because the temperature of the source decreases as heat is taken from it. Option C is incorrect because the temperature of the source increases as heat is taken from it. Option D is incorrect because the temperature of the source does not decrease and then remain constant.

The correct answer is (c). The Zayed Medal is the highest civilian honor of the United Arab Emirates. It is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions to the country in the fields of science, culture, education, sports, and humanitarian work. The medal was named after Sheikh Zayed bin Sultan Al Nahyan, the founding father of the United Arab Emirates.

(a) Pakistan's highest civilian honor is the Nishan-e-Pakistan.
(b) Saudi Arabia's highest civilian honor is the Order of King Abdulaziz.
(d) Qatar's highest civilian honor is the Order of the State of Qatar.

The correct answer is C. Sharing of power by two or more political parties.

A coalition government is a form of government in which two or more political parties cooperate to form a majority in the legislature and thereby hold power. This is in contrast to a single-party government, in which one party holds a majority of seats in the legislature and can therefore form a government without the need for cooperation from other parties.

Coalition governments are often formed when no single party wins a majority of seats in an election. In this case, the parties that come second, third, and so on may need to form a coalition government in order to have enough seats to pass legislation.

Coalition governments can be unstable, as the parties involved may have different policies and priorities. However, they can also be more representative of the views of the electorate, as they bring together different groups of people.

Option A is incorrect because it describes a federal system of government, in which power is shared between different levels of government, such as the national government and state governments.

Option B is incorrect because it describes a system of government in which power is shared by different social groups, such as ethnic groups or religious groups.

Option D is incorrect because it is not a correct statement about coalition governments.

The correct answer is wisdom.

Wisdom is the ability to make good judgments and decisions based on experience, knowledge, and understanding. It is the ability to see things clearly and to understand the implications of one's actions. Wisdom is essential for both science and art, as it allows one to make informed decisions about what to study and how to create.

Power is the ability to control or influence others. It is not necessarily a bad thing, but it is not the same as wisdom. Power can be used for good or evil, and it does not necessarily require knowledge or understanding.

Tact is the ability to say or do the right thing in a difficult situation. It is important in both science and art, as it allows one to avoid causing offense or misunderstanding. However, tact is not the same as wisdom. It is possible to be tactful without being wise, and vice versa.

Strength is the ability to overcome physical or emotional challenges. It is an important quality for both scientists and artists, as it allows them to persevere in the face of difficulty. However, strength is not the same as wisdom. It is possible to be strong without being wise, and vice versa.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "The . . . . . . . . to distinguish differences is the basis of science and art" is wisdom. Wisdom is the ability to make good judgments and decisions based on experience, knowledge, and understanding. It is the ability to see things clearly and to understand the implications of one's actions. Wisdom is essential for both science and art, as it allows one to make informed decisions about what to study and how to create.

The correct answer is B. Mitochondria.

Mitochondria are organelles found in eukaryotic cells that are responsible for energy production. They are shaped like beans and have two membranes: an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner membrane is folded into cristae, which increase the surface area of the membrane. This allows for more ATP to be produced.

ATP is the energy currency of the cell. It is used to power all of the cell's activities, including cell division, muscle contraction, and nerve impulse transmission.

Ribosomes are organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells that are responsible for protein synthesis. They are made up of RNA and protein.

Golgi bodies are organelles found in eukaryotic cells that are responsible for packaging and exporting proteins. They are flattened sacs that are connected to the endoplasmic reticulum.

Vacuoles are organelles found in plant cells that are responsible for storage and waste disposal. They are large, fluid-filled sacs that are surrounded by a membrane.

In conclusion, mitochondria are the organelles that are involved in the manufacture and supply of energy to the cell.

The correct answer is: C. Rarer to denser medium and it occurs with loss of intensity.

Total internal reflection is an optical phenomenon that occurs when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle. The critical angle is the angle of incidence at which the light ray is totally reflected back into the denser medium.

When light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal. This is because the light travels slower in the rarer medium. If the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the light ray will be totally reflected back into the denser medium.

Total internal reflection can be used to create optical fibers, which are used in telecommunications and other applications.

Option A is incorrect because light travels from a rarer to denser medium in total internal reflection.

Option B is incorrect because total internal reflection occurs with loss of intensity.

Option D is incorrect because light travels from a denser to rarer medium in total internal reflection.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "We should take up the first item, let us begin this song" is grammatically correct and makes sense. The verb "begin" is in the infinitive form, which is the correct form to use when making a suggestion or request. The sentence is also clear and concise, and does not require any further explanation.

Option A, "this song begin us," is grammatically incorrect. The verb "begin" should be conjugated to agree with the subject, which is "us." The correct conjugation is "begin."

Option B, "us begin with this song," is also grammatically incorrect. The preposition "with" is not necessary in this sentence. The correct sentence would be "let us begin this song."

Option C, "us beginning this song," is grammatically correct, but it is not as clear as the original sentence. The phrase "us beginning this song" could be interpreted in several ways, such as "we are beginning this song" or "we are going to begin this song." The original sentence is more concise and makes it clear that the speaker is making a suggestion or request.

The correct answer is: A) Scholarships to meritorious students.

The Sikshashree scheme is a government scheme in Maharashtra, India, that provides scholarships to meritorious students from economically weaker sections of society. The scheme was launched in 2001 and has since benefited over 10 million students.

The scheme provides scholarships for students from class 1 to class 12, as well as for students pursuing higher education. The amount of the scholarship varies depending on the student's class and the type of education they are pursuing.

The scheme is administered by the Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education. To be eligible for the scholarship, students must meet certain eligibility criteria, including having a family income below a certain limit.

The Sikshashree scheme is a valuable initiative that has helped to improve the educational opportunities of students from economically weaker sections of society. The scheme has also helped to reduce the dropout rate among students from these sections.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Scholarships to meritorious students. This is the correct answer. The Sikshashree scheme provides scholarships to meritorious students from economically weaker sections of society.
* Option B: Free textbooks to school children. This is not the correct answer. The Sikshashree scheme does not provide free textbooks to school children. However, there are other government schemes that do provide free textbooks to school children.
* Option C: Financial assistance to teachers. This is not the correct answer. The Sikshashree scheme does not provide financial assistance to teachers. However, there are other government schemes that do provide financial assistance to teachers.
* Option D: Training for teachers. This is not the correct answer. The Sikshashree scheme does not provide training for teachers. However, there are other government schemes that do provide training for teachers.

The correct answer is: B. short run abnormal profits are competed away by firms entering the industry.

In perfect competition, there are many firms producing identical products. This means that firms have no control over the price of their product, and they must accept the market price. The market price is determined by the intersection of the demand and supply curves.

In the short run, firms can make abnormal profits if the market price is above the average cost of production. However, in the long run, firms will enter the industry if there are abnormal profits to be made. This will increase the supply of the product, which will lower the market price. As the market price falls, firms will start to make normal profits, which are profits that are just enough to keep firms in the industry.

Option A is incorrect because firms will not leave the industry in the long run if there are abnormal profits to be made. Option C is incorrect because the government does not compete in the market in perfect competition. Option D is incorrect because greater advertising does not affect the market price in perfect competition.

The correct answer is: Visible light has a higher frequency than radio waves, but a lower frequency than X-rays.

Radio waves have the lowest frequency of all electromagnetic radiation, followed by microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays. The frequency of electromagnetic radiation is inversely proportional to its wavelength. This means that radio waves have the longest wavelength and gamma rays have the shortest wavelength.

Visible light is a type of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye. It has a wavelength of about 400 to 700 nanometers. Radio waves have a wavelength of about 1 millimeter to 1 kilometer, while X-rays have a wavelength of about 0.01 to 10 nanometers.

The higher the frequency of electromagnetic radiation, the more energy it has. This is why X-rays can be used to see through objects, while radio waves are used for communication.

Visible light is a very important part of our lives. It allows us to see the world around us and to perform many of our daily activities. It is also used in many technologies, such as photography, television, and lasers.

The correct answer is C. hardly any effort.

The word "hardly" means "almost not at all." So, the sentence "The old man felled some trees with hardly no effort at all" means that the old man felled the trees with very little effort.

The word "hard" means "requiring or using great physical or mental effort." So, the sentence "The old man felled some trees with hard effort" would mean that the old man felled the trees with a lot of effort.

The word "a hardly any effort" is not a grammatically correct phrase.

The word "No improvement" is not an option.

The correct answer is (b). World Environment Day is celebrated on June 5 every year. It is a day for people to come together and raise awareness about the importance of protecting the environment. The day was first celebrated in 1974, and it has been growing in popularity ever since. In 2019, the theme of World Environment Day was "Beat Air Pollution." This year, the theme is "Ecosystem Restoration."

Option (a) is incorrect because December 1 is the International Day of Disabled Persons. Option (c) is incorrect because November 14 is the International Day for Tolerance. Option (d) is incorrect because August 15 is the Independence Day of India.

World Environment Day is a great opportunity for people to learn more about the environment and how they can help protect it. There are many ways to get involved, such as attending events, volunteering, or simply making small changes in your own life.

The correct answer is (c), a mixed economy.

A mixed economy is an economic system that combines elements of both capitalism and socialism. In a mixed economy, some of the means of production are privately owned and operated, while others are owned and operated by the state. The government may also play a role in regulating the economy and providing social welfare programs.

India has a mixed economy. The private sector plays a major role in the economy, but the government also owns and operates a number of key industries. The government also plays a role in regulating the economy and providing social welfare programs.

A capitalist economy is an economic system in which the means of production are privately owned and operated for profit. In a capitalist economy, the government plays a limited role in the economy, and businesses are free to compete with each other.

A socialist economy is an economic system in which the means of production are owned and operated by the state. In a socialist economy, the government plays a major role in the economy, and businesses are not allowed to compete with each other.

(d), None of the above, is not the correct answer because India has a mixed economy.

The correct answer is: As I was passing by the house, I saw a man standing at the gate.

The word "by" can be used to indicate a position next to or near something. In this case, the speaker is passing next to the house. The word "at" can be used to indicate a position in front of or near something. In this case, the man is standing in front of the gate.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the speaker's position or the man's position. The word "across" can be used to indicate a position on the other side of something. In this case, the speaker is not on the other side of the house. The word "in" can be used to indicate a position inside something. In this case, the man is not inside the house. The word "through" can be used to indicate a position that goes from one side of something to the other. In this case, the speaker is not going through the house. The word "on" can be used to indicate a position on top of something. In this case, the man is not on top of the gate. The word "over" can be used to indicate a position above something. In this case, the man is not above the gate.

I hope this explanation is helpful!

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The rate of infiltration is the rate at which water enters the soil. It is affected by a number of factors, including the soil type, the amount of rainfall, and the antecedent moisture content of the soil.

In the early part of a rainstorm, the rate of infiltration is high. This is because the soil is dry and the pores are open. As the rain continues to fall, the pores fill with water and the rate of infiltration decreases. This is because the water in the pores reduces the capillary forces that draw water into the soil.

In addition, as the soil becomes moistened, the clay particles swell and reduce the size of the pores. This further reduces the rate of infiltration.

Finally, raindrop impact can break up soil clumps and splash fine particles into the pores. This also reduces the rate of infiltration.

After several hours of rainfall, the rate of infiltration reaches a constant value. This is because the soil is saturated and the pores are filled with water. The rate of infiltration will remain constant until the soil begins to dry out.

Here are some additional details about each of the factors that affect the rate of infiltration:

• Soil type: The type of soil affects the rate of infiltration because different soils have different pore sizes. Soils with large pores have a higher rate of infiltration than soils with small pores.
• Amount of rainfall: The amount of rainfall affects the rate of infiltration because more rain means more water to infiltrate the soil. The rate of infiltration will increase as the amount of rainfall increases.
• Antecedent moisture content: The antecedent moisture content is the amount of water that is already in the soil before the rain starts to fall. The rate of infiltration will be lower if the soil is already wet than if the soil is dry.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (a).

For a system of linear equations to have infinitely many solutions, the two equations must be equal. In this case, the equations are:

$$kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0$$
$$12x + ky – k = 0$$

Subtracting the second equation from the first equation, we get:

$$-9x + 2y = 3$$

Dividing both sides by 2, we get:

$$-4.5x + y = frac{3}{2}$$

We can see that this equation is always true, regardless of the value of $k$. Therefore, the system of equations has infinitely many solutions for any value of $k$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make the system of equations equal. For example, if $k = 3$, the first equation becomes $3x + 9y – 6 = 0$ and the second equation becomes $12x + 3y – 3 = 0$. These equations are not equal, so the system of equations does not have infinitely many solutions.

The correct answer is D. CH4.

Methane is a chemical compound with the chemical formula CH4. It is the simplest alkane and the main component of natural gas. Methane is a colorless, odorless, and flammable gas. It is lighter than air and can easily escape into the atmosphere. Methane is a greenhouse gas and contributes to climate change.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct chemical formula for methane. Option A, CH2, is the chemical formula for ethylene. Option B, CH1, is not a valid chemical formula. Option C, CH3, is the chemical formula for methyl radical.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: A. Kumbh Mela

The Kumbh Mela is a mass Hindu pilgrimage that occurs every 12 years at one of four sacred sites in India: Haridwar, Allahabad, Nashik, and Ujjain. It is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world, with an estimated 100 million people attending the 2013 Kumbh Mela. The Kumbh Mela is a time for Hindus to bathe in the sacred rivers, to receive blessings from holy men, and to make offerings to the gods.

The Gangasagar Mela is a Hindu pilgrimage that takes place every year on the banks of the Ganges River at the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. The Gangasagar Mela is a time for Hindus to bathe in the sacred waters of the Ganges, to receive blessings from holy men, and to make offerings to the gods.

The Jagannath Rath - Yatra Mela is a Hindu pilgrimage that takes place every year in the city of Puri in Odisha, India. The Jagannath Rath - Yatra Mela is a time for Hindus to worship the god Jagannath, to pull the chariot of Jagannath through the streets of Puri, and to make offerings to the gods.

The Pushkar Fair is a Hindu pilgrimage that takes place every year in the city of Pushkar in Rajasthan, India. The Pushkar Fair is a time for Hindus to bathe in the sacred waters of the Pushkar Lake, to worship the god Brahma, and to make offerings to the gods.

The Kumbh Mela is the largest and most important of these four fairs. It is held every 12 years at one of four sacred sites in India: Haridwar, Allahabad, Nashik, and Ujjain. The Kumbh Mela is a time for Hindus to bathe in the sacred rivers, to receive blessings from holy men, and to make offerings to the gods.

The correct answer is: D. price inelastic

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a good or service. A good or service with an inelastic demand curve is one where consumers are relatively unresponsive to changes in price. This means that a small change in price will lead to a relatively small change in demand.

In contrast, a good or service with an elastic demand curve is one where consumers are relatively responsive to changes in price. This means that a small change in price will lead to a relatively large change in demand.

When demand is inelastic, a shift in supply will have a bigger effect on price than output. This is because a small change in supply will lead to a relatively large change in price, which will have a relatively small effect on demand. As a result, output will not change very much.

When demand is elastic, a shift in supply will have a smaller effect on price than output. This is because a small change in supply will lead to a relatively small change in price, which will have a relatively large effect on demand. As a result, output will change more than when demand is inelastic.

Here is a table that summarizes the relationship between price elasticity of demand and the effect of a shift in supply on price and output:

| Price elasticity of demand | Effect of a shift in supply on price and output |
| --- | --- |
| Inelastic | Price will change more than output |
| Elastic | Price will change less than output |

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (c), washing soda.

Baking powder is a leavening agent used in baking. It is a mixture of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) and an acidic substance, such as cream of tartar. When baking powder is added to dough, the acid reacts with the baking soda to produce carbon dioxide gas. This gas bubbles up and causes the dough to rise.

Caustic soda is a strong alkali with the chemical formula NaOH. It is also known as sodium hydroxide or lye. Caustic soda is a highly corrosive substance that can cause severe burns if it comes into contact with skin or eyes. It is used in a variety of industrial processes, including the manufacture of paper, soap, and detergents.

Bleaching soda is a white, crystalline solid with the chemical formula Na2CO3. It is also known as sodium carbonate or washing soda. Bleaching soda is a mild alkali that is used in a variety of household and industrial applications. It is used to clean and deodorize, and it is also used in the manufacture of paper, glass, and soap.

In conclusion, the common name of sodium carbonate is washing soda.

The correct answer is: C. No acceleration is produced in it.

A body moving with a constant speed in a circle is said to be in uniform circular motion. In uniform circular motion, the velocity of the body is constant in magnitude but changes in direction. This change in direction is caused by the centripetal force acting on the body. The centripetal force is always directed towards the center of the circle and is perpendicular to the velocity of the body. The centripetal force is provided by the tension in the string if the body is moving in a circle on a string, or by the force of gravity if the body is moving in a circle around the Earth.

The centripetal force does not cause any acceleration in the body. This is because the centripetal force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the body. The acceleration is only produced when the force is not perpendicular to the velocity. In the case of uniform circular motion, the force is always perpendicular to the velocity, so there is no acceleration.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because work is done on the body by the centripetal force.
• Option B is incorrect because a force does act on the body, namely the centripetal force.
• Option D is incorrect because the velocity of the body does change in direction, even though the speed is constant.

The correct answer is: C. make

The verb "make" is used in the present tense to describe a general rule or requirement. In this case, the rule is that a player can only make one move at a time. The other options are incorrect because they are not in the present tense.

• A. makes is in the present tense, but it is in the third person singular. The subject of the sentence is "one", which is singular, but the verb should be plural because it is describing a general rule that applies to all players.
• B. will make is in the future tense. The rules of chess are not a future event, they are a current rule.
• D. No improvement is incorrect because the sentence is grammatically incorrect. The verb "make" should be in the present tense.

The correct answer is (c) Upper back.

The scapula, also known as the shoulder blade, is a large, flat, triangular bone located in the upper back. It is the only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bone. The scapula is connected to the humerus (upper arm bone) by the shoulder joint, and to the clavicle (collarbone) by the acromioclavicular joint. The scapula provides attachment for many muscles, including the muscles that move the shoulder joint.

The thigh bone is the longest bone in the body. It is located in the upper leg and connects the hip to the knee. The pelvic girdle is a ring of bones that connects the upper body to the lower body. It consists of the sacrum, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis. The hand is a complex structure that consists of 27 bones, including the carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.

The scapula is located in the upper back, between the ribs and the humerus. It is a large, flat, triangular bone that provides attachment for many muscles, including the muscles that move the shoulder joint. The scapula is connected to the humerus by the shoulder joint, and to the clavicle by the acromioclavicular joint.

The correct answer is: B. Leonid Brezhnev

The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was signed on August 9, 1971, by the Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi, and the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union, Leonid Brezhnev. The treaty was a major turning point in the relationship between the two countries, and it helped to cement India's position as a non-aligned nation.

Nikita Khrushchev was the leader of the Soviet Union from 1953 to 1964. He was responsible for de-Stalinization, the process of dismantling the cult of personality around Joseph Stalin. He also oversaw the Cuban Missile Crisis, which brought the world to the brink of nuclear war.

Yuri Andropov was the leader of the Soviet Union from 1982 to 1984. He was a hardliner who tried to crack down on dissent in the Soviet Union. He also oversaw the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan.

Mikhail Gorbachev was the leader of the Soviet Union from 1985 to 1991. He was responsible for the reforms of glasnost and perestroika, which led to the collapse of the Soviet Union.

In conclusion, the leader of Russia at the time of signing of The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was Leonid Brezhnev.

The correct answer is C. 1924.

The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is the national Olympic committee for India. It was founded in 1924 and is recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The IOA is responsible for selecting and sending Indian athletes to the Olympic Games and other international competitions. It also organizes the National Games of India.

The IOA is headquartered in New Delhi. The current president of the IOA is Narinder Dhruv Batra.

The IOA has been criticized for its lack of transparency and accountability. It has also been accused of corruption and nepotism. In 2012, the IOA was suspended by the IOC for its failure to comply with the IOC's Code of Ethics. The suspension was lifted in 2014 after the IOA made a number of reforms.

Despite its problems, the IOA has played an important role in promoting sport in India. It has helped to increase the number of Indians participating in sport and has also helped to improve the performance of Indian athletes at the international level.

The other options are incorrect.

Option A is incorrect because the IOA was founded in 1924, not 1938.

Option B is incorrect because the IOA was founded in 1924, not 1986.

Option D is incorrect because the IOA was founded in 1924, not 1914.

The correct answer is: C. Either I or II is implicit.

The statement "The X-Airlines has decided to increase the passenger fare by 15 percent with immediate effect" does not provide enough information to determine whether assumption I or assumption II is correct. It is possible that the demand for seats of X-Airlines may remain unchanged even after the hike of fare, or it is also possible that the demand for seats may decrease. Similarly, it is possible that other airline companies may also hike the passenger fares, or they may not.

Therefore, either assumption I or assumption II could be correct, but we cannot say for sure without more information.

The odd number in the given list is 147. All the other numbers are prime numbers, while 147 is a composite number.

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers. A natural number greater than 1 that is not prime is called a composite number.

29, 53, and 85 are all prime numbers because they are not divisible by any number other than themselves and 1. 125 is a composite number because it is divisible by 5 and 25.

The correct answer is (c) Din Bandhu Mitra.

Din Bandhu Mitra was a Bengali writer and journalist who is best known for his novel Neel Darpan (The Mirror of Indigo). He was also a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement.

In his novel Neel Darpan, Mitra wrote about the Sanyasi Rebellion, a peasant uprising that took place in Bengal in the early 1800s. The novel was a powerful indictment of British rule and helped to raise awareness of the plight of the Indian people.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was a Bengali writer and social reformer who is best known for his novel Anandamath (The Sacred Brotherhood). He was not involved in the Sanyasi Rebellion.

(b) Sisir Kumar Ghosh was a Bengali journalist and politician who was a leading figure in the Indian independence movement. He was not involved in the Sanyasi Rebellion.

(d) Harish Chandra Mukherjee was a Bengali writer and journalist who was a prominent figure in the Indian Renaissance. He was not involved in the Sanyasi Rebellion.

The correct answer is (c) 240.

There are $x+y$ people in total, and we want to count the number of ways to arrange them in a row such that all the girls sit together. We can do this by first considering the girls as a single unit. There are $y!$ ways to arrange the girls, and then there are $x!$ ways to arrange the boys. So the total number of ways is $y!x!$.

However, this overcounts the number of arrangements, since we don't care about the order of the girls within their group. To account for this, we divide by $y!$. This gives us the number of ways to arrange the boys and girls such that all the girls sit together:

$$frac{y!x!}{y!} = x!$$

For example, if there are 3 boys and 2 girls, then there are $2!3!$ ways to arrange them in a row:

• GGBB
• GBGB
• BGB
• BGG

However, only the first arrangement satisfies the condition that all the girls sit together. So the answer is $3!$, or 6.

The other options are incorrect because they do not account for the fact that we don't care about the order of the girls within their group.

The correct answer is: C. flows

The River Nile is a river in northeastern Africa and is the longest river in the world, though some sources cite the Amazon River as the longest. The Nile River is an "international" river as its drainage basin covers eleven countries, namely, Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Ethiopia, Eritrea, South Sudan, Sudan and Egypt. In particular, the Nile is the primary water source of Egypt and Sudan.

The Nile River flows northward through northeastern Africa, from its source in the East African Rift Valley to its mouth on the Mediterranean Sea in the Northern Mediterranean region. The river is about 6,695 km (4,160 mi) long, and its drainage basin covers an area of about 3,349,000 km2 (1,293,000 sq mi). The Nile is the longest river in the world, though some sources cite the Amazon River as the longest.

The Nile River is an "international" river as its drainage basin covers eleven countries, namely, Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Ethiopia, Eritrea, South Sudan, Sudan and Egypt. In particular, the Nile is the primary water source of Egypt and Sudan.

The Nile River is a major source of water for irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power. The river is also a major transportation route, and is home to a variety of wildlife.

The Nile River is a vital part of the African continent, and its importance cannot be overstated.

The verb "flow" is used to describe the movement of a liquid, such as water. In the sentence "The River Nile flows into the Mediterranean," the verb "flows" is used to describe the movement of the Nile River from its source in the East African Rift Valley to its mouth on the Mediterranean Sea.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the movement of the Nile River. Option A, "is flowing," is incorrect because it implies that the Nile River is currently in the process of flowing. However, the Nile River is a continuous body of water, and it is always flowing. Option B, "has flown," is incorrect because it implies that the Nile River has stopped flowing. However, the Nile River is always flowing. Option D, "will be flowing," is incorrect because it implies that the Nile River will start flowing in the future. However, the Nile River is always flowing.

The correct answer is **D) All of the above**.

Durga Puja, Saraswati Puja, and Kali Puja are all major Hindu festivals that are celebrated in India and other parts of the world with the immersion of idols in rivers or lakes.

Durga Puja is a ten-day festival that celebrates the victory of the goddess Durga over the demon Mahishasura. The festival is celebrated in the autumn, and the idols of Durga are immersed in rivers or lakes on the last day of the festival.

Saraswati Puja is a festival that celebrates the goddess of knowledge and learning. The festival is celebrated in the month of January or February, and the idols of Saraswati are immersed in rivers or lakes on the day of the festival.

Kali Puja is a festival that celebrates the goddess Kali, who is the goddess of power and destruction. The festival is celebrated in the month of October or November, and the idols of Kali are immersed in rivers or lakes on the night of the festival.

The immersion of idols in rivers or lakes is a symbolic gesture of letting go of the old and welcoming the new. It is also a way of showing respect to the goddesses and thanking them for their blessings.

First Vidyasagar Puraskar (1980) was won by Annada Shankar Roy and Lila Majumdar.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Commonwealth is a voluntary association of 54 independent countries, most of which were formerly part of the British Empire. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) is the biennial meeting of the heads of government of the Commonwealth countries. The Commonwealth Finance Ministers Meeting (CFMM) is the annual meeting of the finance ministers of the Commonwealth countries. The Commonwealth Education Ministers Meeting (CEMM) is the regular meeting of the education ministers of the Commonwealth countries. The Commonwealth Law Ministers Meeting (CLMM) is the regular meeting of the law ministers of the Commonwealth countries. The Commonwealth Health Ministers Meeting (CHMM) is the regular meeting of the health ministers of the Commonwealth countries.

These meetings are important because they provide a forum for the leaders of the Commonwealth countries to discuss issues of common interest and to work together to promote peace, democracy, development, and prosperity.

The correct answer is: B. One-third.

The Zabti System was a land revenue system introduced by the Mughal emperor Akbar in the 16th century. Under this system, the state's share of the produce was fixed at one-third. This was a significant increase from the previous system, under which the state's share was only one-tenth.

The Zabti System was based on a survey of landholdings, which was carried out by Mughal officials. The survey recorded the size of each landholding, the type of crop grown, and the quality of the land. This information was used to calculate the state's share of the produce.

The Zabti System was a major innovation in land revenue administration. It was based on a scientific survey of landholdings, and it fixed the state's share of the produce at a fair and equitable rate. This system helped to increase the state's revenue, and it also helped to improve the lives of the peasants.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the actual share of the produce fixed as state's share under the Zabti System of Mughals. Option A is incorrect because it states that the state's share was one-half. Option C is incorrect because it states that the state's share was one-fourth. Option D is incorrect because it states that the state's share was one-fifth.

The correct answer is C. Uttar Pradesh.

Uttar Pradesh has 80 Lok Sabha seats, the highest of any state in India. Maharashtra has 48 seats, Madhya Pradesh has 29 seats, and Bihar has 40 seats.

Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million people. It is also one of the most politically important states in India, as it has the largest number of seats in the Lok Sabha.

Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India, with a population of over 110 million people. It is also a major economic and industrial center in India.

Madhya Pradesh is a central Indian state with a population of over 70 million people. It is a major agricultural and mineral producing state.

Bihar is a northeastern Indian state with a population of over 100 million people. It is one of the poorest states in India.

The correct answer is B. Anatomy.

Anatomy is the study of the structure of organisms and their parts. It is a branch of biology that deals with the physical form of organisms and their organs and tissues. Anatomy is important for understanding how organisms function and how they interact with their environment.

Morphology is the study of the form and structure of organisms. It is a branch of biology that deals with the external features of organisms, such as their shape, size, and color. Morphology is important for understanding how organisms have adapted to their environment.

Histology is the study of the microscopic structure of tissues. It is a branch of biology that deals with the cells and tissues that make up organisms. Histology is important for understanding how organisms function and how they develop.

Cytology is the study of cells. It is a branch of biology that deals with the structure, function, and behavior of cells. Cytology is important for understanding how organisms function and how they develop.

In conclusion, the study of internal structure of organism is called anatomy.

The correct answer is A) 950.

The child sex ratio (0-6 years) in West Bengal is 950, which means that there are 950 girls for every 1000 boys in this age group. This is lower than the national average of 940, and it is a cause for concern. There are a number of factors that can contribute to a low child sex ratio, including female infanticide, sex-selective abortion, and neglect of girls. It is important to address these issues in order to improve the lives of girls and women in West Bengal.

Option B is incorrect because the child sex ratio in West Bengal is not 956.

Option C is incorrect because the child sex ratio in West Bengal is not 959.

Option D is incorrect because the child sex ratio in West Bengal is not 963.

The answer is B. Horse.

In the pair "King : Throne", the king sits on the throne. Similarly, in the pair "Rider : Horse", the rider rides the horse.

The other options do not have the same relationship.

A. Seat is a general term for a place to sit, while a throne is a specific type of seat that is used by a king or queen.
C. Saddle is a piece of equipment that is placed on a horse's back, while a horse is an animal that is ridden by a person.
D. Chair is a piece of furniture that is used for sitting, while a rider is a person who rides a horse.

The correct answer is: A) Promoting industrial investment.

The West Bengal Industrial Development Corporation (WBIDC) is a state-owned enterprise of the Government of West Bengal, India. It was established in 1964 to promote industrial investment in the state. WBIDC provides a range of services to investors, including land acquisition, infrastructure development, and financial assistance.

The WBIDC has played a significant role in the development of the industrial sector in West Bengal. It has helped to attract a number of major companies to the state, including Tata Steel, ITC, and Hindustan Unilever. The WBIDC has also been instrumental in the development of industrial parks and infrastructure in the state.

Tourism development, agricultural research, and wildlife conservation are all important sectors of the economy in West Bengal, but they are not the primary focus of the WBIDC. The WBIDC's primary focus is on promoting industrial investment in the state.

The correct answer is: A firm may be considered to be of optimum size when its AC is at its minimum.

A firm's optimum size is the level of output at which its average cost is at its minimum. This is because at this level of output, the firm is producing at the most efficient level and is not incurring any unnecessary costs.

Option B is incorrect because AC is at its minimum when the firm is producing at its optimum size. However, AC can also be at its minimum when the firm is producing at a lower level of output. This is because the firm may be experiencing economies of scale at this lower level of output.

Option C is incorrect because AC = TFC when the firm is producing at zero output. This is because the firm's total fixed costs are incurred regardless of the level of output.

Option D is incorrect because a firm's demand curve is not always horizontal. A firm's demand curve can be downward-sloping, which means that the firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve. This means that the firm can sell more units of output by lowering its price.

The correct answer is A. Photosynthesis.

Chloroplasts are organelles found in plant cells that are responsible for photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Glucose is a type of sugar that plants use for energy. Oxygen is a gas that is released into the atmosphere.

Option B is incorrect because chloroplasts are not responsible for storage. Storage is the process by which cells store nutrients and other materials. Chloroplasts do not store nutrients or other materials.

Option C is incorrect because chloroplasts are not responsible for cell movement. Cell movement is the process by which cells move around. Chloroplasts do not move around.

Option D is incorrect because chloroplasts are not responsible for respiration. Respiration is the process by which cells break down glucose to produce energy. Chloroplasts do not break down glucose to produce energy.

The correct answer is C. National Council and Council of States.

The National Council is the lower house of the Federal Assembly of Switzerland. It has 200 members, who are elected every four years by proportional representation. The Council of States is the upper house of the Federal Assembly. It has 46 members, two from each canton. The members of the Council of States are elected by the cantonal parliaments.

The National Council and the Council of States have equal powers. They both have to approve laws before they can become law. They also both have to approve the federal budget.

The National Council is responsible for matters that affect the whole country, such as foreign policy and defense. The Council of States is responsible for matters that affect the cantons, such as education and healthcare.

The National Council and the Council of States meet in the Federal Palace in Bern.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Salinization is the accumulation of salts in soil and water. It can occur naturally, but it is also caused by human activities such as irrigation. When water evaporates, it leaves behind the salts it contains. Over time, this can lead to the accumulation of high levels of salt in the soil, which can make it difficult for plants to grow.

Lowering of the water table is the decrease in the level of groundwater. It can be caused by a number of factors, including increased pumping of groundwater, drought, and climate change. When the water table drops, it can make it difficult for plants to access water, and it can also lead to the salinization of soils.

Water logging is the accumulation of excess water in the soil. It can occur when there is too much rainfall or when irrigation is not properly managed. Water logging can suffocate plants and make it difficult for them to grow. It can also lead to the salinization of soils.

All of these problems can have a negative impact on agriculture and the environment. It is important to manage groundwater resources carefully to avoid these problems.

The correct answer is: B. Rajgriha

The First Buddhist Council was held in Rajgriha, India, in the 5th century BCE. It was convened by the Buddha's disciple Mahakassapa to discuss and codify the Buddha's teachings. The council was attended by over 500 monks, and it resulted in the creation of the Pali Canon, the oldest surviving collection of Buddhist texts.

The First Buddhist Council was a significant event in the history of Buddhism. It helped to preserve the Buddha's teachings and to establish the Buddhist tradition.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Kashmir: Kashmir is a region in northern India. It is not known for its connection to Buddhism.
• B. Rajgriha: Rajgriha was the capital of the Magadha kingdom during the Buddha's lifetime. It is the site of many important events in the Buddha's life, including his enlightenment and his first sermon.
• C. Pataliputra: Pataliputra was the capital of the Mauryan Empire. It is the site of the Second Buddhist Council.
• D. Vaisali: Vaisali was an important city in the Buddha's time. It is the site of the Third Buddhist Council.

Midnapore canal was commenced in 1871 to link Cuttacj and Calcutta.

The correct answer is (b), Giant Panda.

The Giant Panda is a large, black and white bear native to central China. It is one of the world's most endangered species, with only about 1,600 individuals remaining in the wild. The Giant Panda is a herbivore and its diet consists mainly of bamboo. It is a solitary animal and is active mainly at night.

The WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature) is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961. It is one of the world's largest and most respected conservation organizations, with over 5 million supporters worldwide. The WWF's mission is to conserve nature and reduce the most pressing threats to the diversity of life on Earth.

The WWF's logo is a giant panda. The panda was chosen as the WWF's logo because it is a symbol of endangered species and the need for conservation. The panda is also a symbol of China, where the WWF was founded.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the WWF's logo. The Asiatic Lion is a large cat native to India. The Musk Deer is a small deer native to Asia. The Indian Wild Ass is a wild ass native to India.

The correct answer is: B. Ionosphere

The ionosphere is a region of Earth's upper atmosphere that is ionized by solar radiation. It is located above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere. The ionosphere is important for radio communication because it reflects radio waves back to Earth. This allows radio signals to travel over long distances.

The stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere. It is located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere. The stratosphere is characterized by a decrease in temperature with increasing altitude. This is due to the fact that the stratosphere contains ozone, which absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere. It is located above the surface of the Earth and below the stratosphere. The troposphere is characterized by an increase in temperature with increasing altitude. This is due to the fact that the troposphere contains water vapor, which traps heat from the sun.

The mesosphere is the third layer of Earth's atmosphere. It is located above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere. The mesosphere is characterized by a decrease in temperature with increasing altitude. This is due to the fact that the mesosphere contains very little gas.

The correct answer is B. MU(X) must be equal to MU(Y).

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a consumer consumes more of a good, the marginal utility of that good decreases. This means that the additional satisfaction that a consumer gets from consuming one more unit of a good decreases as the consumer consumes more of that good.

When the consumer maximizes utility, the marginal utility of each good is equal to the price of that good. This is because the consumer will not consume any more of a good if the marginal utility of that good is less than the price of that good.

If Px = Py, then the marginal utility of X must be equal to the marginal utility of Y. This is because the consumer will not consume any more of X or Y if the marginal utility of X is less than the marginal utility of Y or vice versa.

A is incorrect because the consumer may consume more of X than Y or vice versa.
C is incorrect because MU(X) may equal MU(Y) but it is not necessarily so.
D is incorrect because X and Y may be complements or substitutes.

The correct answer is (a). Rakas Tal is a lake in Ladakh, India. The other three lakes, Khurpa Tal, Pari Tal, and Brahma Tal, are all located in Uttarakhand.

Rakshas Tal is a high-altitude lake located in the Ladakh region of India. It is situated at an elevation of 4,500 meters (14,800 feet) above sea level. The lake is about 10 kilometers (6.2 miles) long and 5 kilometers (3.1 miles) wide. It is a popular tourist destination, and is known for its beautiful scenery and clear water.

Khurpa Tal is a lake located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. It is situated at an elevation of 3,000 meters (9,800 feet) above sea level. The lake is about 2 kilometers (1.2 miles) long and 1 kilometer (0.6 miles) wide. It is a popular tourist destination, and is known for its beautiful scenery and clear water.

Pari Tal is a lake located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is situated at an elevation of 3,500 meters (11,500 feet) above sea level. The lake is about 1 kilometer (0.6 miles) long and 0.5 kilometers (0.3 miles) wide. It is a popular tourist destination, and is known for its beautiful scenery and clear water.

Brahma Tal is a lake located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. It is situated at an elevation of 3,600 meters (11,800 feet) above sea level. The lake is about 3 kilometers (1.9 miles) long and 1.5 kilometers (0.9 miles) wide. It is a popular tourist destination, and is known for its beautiful scenery and clear water.

Jyotirindra Maitra, Hemanga Biswas, Salil Chowdhury, Bhupen Hazarika, Praful Mukhopadhyay, Kabir Suman wrote many famous Gana Sangeet.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for human health. It is involved in many important bodily functions, including the production of collagen, the absorption of iron, and the maintenance of a healthy immune system. Vitamin C is also a powerful antioxidant, which means that it can protect cells from damage caused by free radicals.

Vitamin C is found in a variety of fruits and vegetables, including citrus fruits, berries, tomatoes, and broccoli. It is also available as a dietary supplement.

Vitamin C is a heat-sensitive vitamin, which means that it can be destroyed by cooking. However, it is important to note that the amount of vitamin C that is lost during cooking varies depending on the cooking method. For example, boiling and frying can destroy up to 50% of the vitamin C content of food, while steaming and microwaving can destroy up to 20%.

To minimize the loss of vitamin C during cooking, it is important to cook food quickly and at a low temperature. It is also important to avoid overcooking food, as this can also destroy vitamin C.

In addition to cooking, vitamin C can also be destroyed by exposure to light and air. Therefore, it is important to store vitamin C-rich foods in a cool, dark place.

Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that plays a role in many important bodily functions. It is important to consume enough vitamin C through a healthy diet or dietary supplements. However, it is important to note that vitamin C is a heat-sensitive vitamin and can be destroyed by cooking. Therefore, it is important to cook food quickly and at a low temperature to minimize the loss of vitamin C.

The correct answer is C. Relaxing control mechanism.

Liberalization is the process of making the economy more open and competitive. This can be done by reducing government regulation, privatizing state-owned enterprises, and opening up the economy to foreign investment.

Reducing the number of industries would be the opposite of liberalization, as it would make the economy less open and competitive. Reducing competition would also be the opposite of liberalization, as it would give businesses less incentive to innovate and improve their products and services. Free determination of interest rates is not necessarily a sign of liberalization, as it can also be done in a controlled economy.

In conclusion, liberalization means relaxing control mechanisms and making the economy more open and competitive.

The correct answer is: C. William Wordsworth.

The line "A thing of beauty is a joy for ever" is from William Wordsworth's poem "Ode: Intimations of Immortality from Recollections of Early Childhood". The poem is about the loss of innocence and the search for meaning in life. The line "A thing of beauty is a joy for ever" is a reminder that even though we lose our innocence, there are still things in life that can bring us joy.

Thomas Chatterton was an English poet who lived from 1752 to 1770. He is best known for his poems that were written in the style of medieval literature.

Charles Dickens was an English novelist who lived from 1812 to 1870. He is best known for his novels about social injustice, such as "Oliver Twist" and "A Christmas Carol".

Jonathan Swift was an Irish writer who lived from 1667 to 1745. He is best known for his satirical works, such as "Gulliver's Travels".

The correct answer is: Only conclusion I follows.

The statement "No country is absolutely self-dependent these days" does not imply that it is impossible to grow and produce all that a country needs. It is possible that countries are not self-dependent because they choose to specialize in certain industries and trade with other countries for the goods and services they cannot produce themselves. It is also possible that countries are not self-dependent because they lack the resources to produce all that they need. However, the statement does not provide enough information to determine whether or not it is impossible to grow and produce all that a country needs.

The statement also does not imply that countrymen in general have become lazy. It is possible that countries are not self-dependent because they lack the resources to produce all that they need, or because they choose to specialize in certain industries and trade with other countries for the goods and services they cannot produce themselves. It is also possible that countries are not self-dependent because of government policies or other factors. However, the statement does not provide enough information to determine whether or not countrymen in general have become lazy.

Therefore, only conclusion I follows.

The correct answer is: A. Bhubaneswar

The Judicature of Orissa is located in Bhubaneswar, the capital of Odisha. The High Court of Orissa is the highest court in the state. It was established in 1862 and is located in Bhubaneswar. The High Court has jurisdiction over all civil and criminal cases in the state.

Cuttack was the capital of Orissa until 1948. It is still an important city in the state and is home to many historical and cultural landmarks. However, the Judicature of Orissa is located in Bhubaneswar.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A. 44th

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. This was done in order to facilitate the implementation of the government's socialist policies. The amendment also provided for the compulsory acquisition of private property for public purposes, subject to payment of compensation.

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 had earlier amended the Constitution to make the right to property a fundamental right. However, this amendment was widely criticized as being undemocratic and authoritarian. The 44th Amendment Act was therefore passed to reverse the changes made by the 42nd Amendment Act.

The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 was passed to provide for the appointment of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The 45th Amendment Act of 1980 was passed to provide for the appointment of a Finance Commission every five years.

The 44th Amendment Act was a significant amendment to the Constitution. It had a major impact on the rights of citizens and the powers of the government. The amendment was controversial at the time, but it has since been accepted as a necessary step in the development of India's democracy.

The correct answer is: A. Larger the resulting price change for a given increase in supply.

The price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. A higher price elasticity of demand means that consumers are more sensitive to changes in price, and a lower price elasticity of demand means that consumers are less sensitive to changes in price.

When the price elasticity of demand is high, a small change in price will lead to a large change in demand. This is because consumers are very sensitive to changes in price, and they will buy less of the product when the price goes up.

When the price elasticity of demand is low, a large change in price will lead to a small change in demand. This is because consumers are not very sensitive to changes in price, and they will continue to buy the product even when the price goes up.

The price elasticity of demand is important for businesses because it affects how much they can charge for their products. If the price elasticity of demand is high, businesses will have to charge a lower price in order to sell their products. If the price elasticity of demand is low, businesses can charge a higher price for their products.

The price elasticity of demand is also important for governments because it affects how much tax revenue they can collect. If the price elasticity of demand is high, governments will collect less tax revenue when they raise taxes. If the price elasticity of demand is low, governments will collect more tax revenue when they raise taxes.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option B: More rapid the rate at which the marginal utility of that product diminishes. This is not necessarily true. The price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price, while the marginal utility of a product is a measure of how much satisfaction consumers get from consuming one more unit of the product. These two concepts are not related.
• Option C: Less competitive will be the industry supplying that product. This is also not necessarily true. The price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price, while the competitiveness of an industry is a measure of how many firms there are in the industry and how easy it is for new firms to enter the industry. These two concepts are also not related.
• Option D: Smaller the resulting price change for a given increase in supply. This is the opposite of what is true. The larger the price elasticity of demand, the larger the resulting price change for a given increase in supply.

The correct answer is: C. What are you going to do with it?

The other options are incorrect because they use the wrong tense. Option A, "What you are going to do with it?", uses the present continuous tense, which is used to talk about things that are happening now or in the near future. However, your friend has already won the money, so it is not something that is happening now or in the near future. Option B, "What will you go to do with it?", uses the future progressive tense, which is used to talk about things that will be happening in the future. However, your friend has not yet decided what to do with the money, so it is not something that will be happening in the future. Option D, "What have you gone to do with it?", uses the past participle form of the verb "to do", which is used to talk about things that have already happened. However, your friend has not yet done anything with the money, so it is not something that has already happened.

The correct answer, "What are you going to do with it?", uses the simple present tense, which is used to talk about things that are habitual or that happen regularly. In this case, your friend has won some money, and you are asking them what they are going to do with it. This is a regular event, so the simple present tense is the correct tense to use.

The Khemta dancers practise the movements of their eyes and other parts of the body which demanf=d huge skills and expertise.

The correct answer is C. To initiate heart beat.

A pacemaker is a small device that is implanted in the chest to regulate the heart beat. It does this by sending electrical signals to the heart muscle, which cause it to contract and pump blood.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is the function of the kidneys.
• Option B is the function of the digestive system.
• Option D is the function of the respiratory system.

West Bengal is the only state which owns and operates a tramway in the country. Trams are present in the city of Kolkata.

The answer is A. Casino.

Acting is performed in a theatre, and gambling is performed in a casino. Both acting and gambling are activities that people engage in for entertainment. They are also both activities that can be risky, and that can result in a loss of money.

A club is a place where people go to socialize and have fun. A bar is a place where people go to drink alcohol. A gym is a place where people go to exercise. None of these places are associated with gambling in the same way that a casino is.

The correct answer is B. Swasthya Sathi.

Swasthya Sathi is a flagship health insurance scheme launched by the West Bengal government in 2016. It is a cashless and paperless health insurance scheme that provides coverage for up to ₹5 lakh per family per year. The scheme is open to all families residing in West Bengal, irrespective of their income or social status.

The scheme covers a wide range of medical expenses, including hospitalization, surgery, and medicines. It also covers pre-existing diseases and critical illnesses. Swasthya Sathi is a major step forward in the state's efforts to provide affordable and accessible healthcare to its citizens.

Ayushman Bharat, Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana, and Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana are all government-sponsored health insurance schemes, but they are not available in West Bengal. Ayushman Bharat is a national health insurance scheme that was launched in 2018. It provides coverage for up to ₹5 lakh per family per year. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana is a health insurance scheme for the poor in Delhi. It provides coverage for up to ₹30,000 per family per year. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is a health insurance scheme for the poor in rural areas. It provides coverage for up to ₹30,000 per family per year.

The correct answer is: All of the above.

Joint demand is a situation in which the demand for one good or service is affected by the demand for another good or service. This can occur when the two goods or services are complementary, meaning that they are used together. For example, the demand for ink is affected by the demand for pens, because people need ink to use pens. Similarly, the demand for newspapers is affected by the demand for magazines, because people often read both newspapers and magazines. Finally, the demand for buses is affected by the demand for trains, because people often choose to take either a bus or a train to get around.

In each of these cases, the demand for one good or service is affected by the demand for another good or service. This is because the two goods or services are complementary. When the demand for one good or service increases, the demand for the other good or service also tends to increase. Conversely, when the demand for one good or service decreases, the demand for the other good or service also tends to decrease.

Joint demand can have a significant impact on the market for goods and services. For example, if the demand for ink increases, the price of ink is likely to increase. This is because suppliers will be able to charge more for ink when there is more demand for it. Similarly, if the demand for newspapers decreases, the price of newspapers is likely to decrease. This is because suppliers will be able to charge less for newspapers when there is less demand for them.

Joint demand can also have an impact on the production of goods and services. For example, if the demand for ink increases, suppliers of ink will likely increase production. This is because they will be able to sell more ink when there is more demand for it. Similarly, if the demand for newspapers decreases, suppliers of newspapers will likely decrease production. This is because they will be able to sell fewer newspapers when there is less demand for them.

Overall, joint demand can have a significant impact on the market for goods and services. It can affect the price, production, and consumption of goods and services.

The correct answer is: B. the Pleistocene epoch.

The Pleistocene epoch is the uppermost epoch of the Neogene period. It began 2.588 million years ago and ended 11,700 years ago. It is also known as the Ice Age epoch, as it was a time of repeated glaciations and interglacials. The Pleistocene epoch is divided into two periods: the Gelasian and the Pleistocene. The Gelasian period lasted from 2.588 million years ago to 2.1 million years ago, and the Pleistocene period lasted from 2.1 million years ago to 11,700 years ago.

The Pleistocene epoch was a time of great change on Earth. The climate was much colder than it is today, and the Earth was covered in ice sheets. The glaciers advanced and retreated many times during the Pleistocene epoch, and this caused the sea level to fluctuate. The Pleistocene epoch was also a time of great extinctions. Many large mammals, such as the mammoths and saber-toothed cats, became extinct during this time.

The Pleistocene epoch is important because it was a time of great change on Earth. The climate was much colder than it is today, and the Earth was covered in ice sheets. The glaciers advanced and retreated many times during the Pleistocene epoch, and this caused the sea level to fluctuate. The Pleistocene epoch was also a time of great extinctions. Many large mammals, such as the mammoths and saber-toothed cats, became extinct during this time.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the uppermost epoch of the Neogene period. The Miocene epoch is the third epoch of the Neogene period, and the Oligocene epoch is the second epoch of the Neogene period.

The correct answer is (d) Vipin Chandra Joshi.

Vipin Chandra Joshi is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the 1985 batch. He is the current Chief Secretary of Uttarakhand. He has held various positions in the government of India, including Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Ministry of Finance. He has also served as the Chief Secretary of the states of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Lt. Gen. (Retd.) Gurmeet Singh is a retired Indian Army officer. He served as the Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army from 2016 to 2017. He is the first Sikh to hold the position of Chief of Army Staff.

Sukhbir Singh Sandhu is an Indian politician. He is the President of the Shiromani Akali Dal (SAD) and the Leader of the Opposition in the Punjab Legislative Assembly. He is the son of former Chief Minister of Punjab Parkash Singh Badal.

Surjeet Singh Barnala was an Indian politician. He was the Chief Minister of Punjab from 1985 to 1990 and from 1997 to 2002. He was also the President of the All India Congress Committee (AICC) from 1992 to 1996.

The correct answer is: A. PQRS

When rescuers arrived, they had to wait several hours before the ground was cool enough to stand on at the ruins.

• P: When rescuers arrived
• Q: they had to wait several hours
• R: before the ground was
• S: cool enough to stand on
• A: at the ruins

The sentence is in chronological order, so the correct sequence is PQRS.

The correct answer is: C. Fundamental Rights

During an emergency, the President can suspend the Fundamental Rights of citizens, except for the right to life and personal liberty. This means that the government can restrict or take away other rights, such as the right to freedom of speech, the right to assemble, and the right to practice religion.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are not suspended during an emergency. These principles are guidelines for the government to follow in order to create a just and equitable society. The Amendment Procedures are also not suspended during an emergency. This means that the government can still amend the Constitution, even if there is an emergency.

Judicial Review is the power of the courts to strike down laws that they believe are unconstitutional. During an emergency, the President can suspend the power of judicial review. This means that the courts cannot strike down laws that the government passes during an emergency.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Directive Principles of State Policy are principles that the government should follow in order to create a just and equitable society. They are not enforceable in court, but they are still important guidelines for the government to follow.
• B. Amendment Procedures are the rules that govern how the Constitution can be changed. They are not suspended during an emergency, so the government can still amend the Constitution even if there is an emergency.
• C. Fundamental Rights are the basic rights of all citizens. They are guaranteed by the Constitution and cannot be taken away by the government except in certain circumstances, such as during an emergency.
• D. Judicial Review is the power of the courts to strike down laws that they believe are unconstitutional. During an emergency, the President can suspend the power of judicial review. This means that the courts cannot strike down laws that the government passes during an emergency.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**.

The Iron Age in West Bengal is associated with the rise of urban centers, the use of iron tools and weapons, and the development of a script.

* The rise of urban centers is evident from the archaeological evidence of large settlements with well-planned streets and buildings. These settlements were likely centers of trade and commerce, as well as political and religious power.
* The use of iron tools and weapons is also evident from the archaeological evidence. Iron tools were used for agriculture, construction, and other purposes, while iron weapons were used for warfare.
* The development of a script is evidenced by the discovery of inscribed objects, such as seals and pottery. These objects suggest that the people of West Bengal had a developed system of writing.

The Iron Age in West Bengal was a time of great change and development. The rise of urban centers, the use of iron tools and weapons, and the development of a script all contributed to the region's growing prosperity and importance.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: The rise of urban centers is evident from the archaeological evidence of large settlements with well-planned streets and buildings. These settlements were likely centers of trade and commerce, as well as political and religious power.
* Option B: The use of iron tools and weapons is also evident from the archaeological evidence. Iron tools were used for agriculture, construction, and other purposes, while iron weapons were used for warfare.
* Option C: The development of a script is evidenced by the discovery of inscribed objects, such as seals and pottery. These objects suggest that the people of West Bengal had a developed system of writing.

The correct answer is: D. Both its limbs are of unequal length.

A siphon is a device that transfers liquids from one place to another using gravity. It consists of a tube that is bent into a U-shape, with the ends of the tube placed in the two vessels. When the liquid in the upper vessel is higher than the liquid in the lower vessel, the liquid will flow through the tube from the upper vessel to the lower vessel.

The siphon will fail to work if the two limbs of the tube are of unequal length. This is because the liquid in the longer limb will have to travel a greater distance than the liquid in the shorter limb. As a result, the pressure in the longer limb will be lower than the pressure in the shorter limb. This difference in pressure will prevent the liquid from flowing through the tube.

The other options are incorrect because they will not affect the operation of the siphon. The level of the liquid in the two vessels does not matter, as long as the liquid in the upper vessel is higher than the liquid in the lower vessel. The temperature of the liquids does not matter, as long as the liquids are both liquids. The densities of the liquids do not matter, as long as the liquids are both fluids.

The correct answer is (d). Nelson Mandela was released from jail after 27 years on March 31, 1990. He was arrested in 1962 and charged with sabotage and conspiracy to overthrow the government. He was sentenced to life in prison and spent the next 27 years in Robben Island Prison. His release was a major turning point in South African history and led to the end of apartheid.

(a) February 11, 199 is an incorrect answer. Nelson Mandela was not released from jail on this date.

(b) January 26, 1990 is an incorrect answer. Nelson Mandela was not released from jail on this date.

(c) December 6, 1989 is an incorrect answer. Nelson Mandela was not released from jail on this date.

The correct answer is: A) Santal

The Santal are an indigenous people of India and Bangladesh. They are the largest tribal group in India, with a population of over 7 million. The Santal are concentrated in the states of Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal, and Odisha. They speak the Santali language, which is a member of the Munda language family.

The Santal are a matrilineal society, which means that property and inheritance are passed down through the female line. The Santal are also a polytheistic religion, and they worship a number of gods and goddesses.

The Santal have a rich culture and tradition, and they are known for their music, dance, and art. They are also known for their strong sense of community and their resistance to oppression.

The Santal have faced a number of challenges in recent years, including displacement, poverty, and discrimination. However, they have also made significant progress in terms of education, health, and economic development.

The Santal are a proud and resilient people, and they continue to play an important role in the cultures of India and Bangladesh.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The Oraon are the second largest Scheduled Tribe in West Bengal, with a population of over 2 million.
* The Munda are the third largest Scheduled Tribe in West Bengal, with a population of over 1 million.
* The Bhumij are the fourth largest Scheduled Tribe in West Bengal, with a population of over 500,000.

The correct answer is A) Eat Right Movement.

The Eat Right Movement is a government initiative that focuses on promoting healthy eating habits and preventing non-communicable diseases. The movement was launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The goal of the movement is to improve the health of the people of India by encouraging them to eat a healthy diet.

The Eat Right Movement is based on the following principles:

* Eat a balanced diet.
* Eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.
* Limit your intake of processed foods.
* Drink plenty of water.
* Exercise regularly.

The movement has been successful in raising awareness about the importance of healthy eating. It has also led to a number of changes in the way that food is marketed and sold in India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not focus on promoting healthy eating habits and preventing non-communicable diseases.

* B) Fit India Movement is a government initiative that focuses on promoting physical activity and fitness.
* C) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a government initiative that focuses on cleanliness and sanitation.
* D) National Health Mission is a government initiative that focuses on providing healthcare to the people of India.

The correct answer is: D. as a moderator.

Graphite is a good moderator because it is a good neutron absorber. Neutrons are produced when uranium-235 atoms split, and they need to be slowed down in order to be captured by other uranium-235 atoms. Graphite slows down neutrons by scattering them. This is important because it allows the chain reaction to continue.

A lubricant is a substance that reduces friction between two surfaces. Graphite is not a good lubricant because it is a solid. Solids do not flow easily, and they can actually increase friction.

A fuel is a substance that is burned to produce heat. Graphite is not a good fuel because it does not burn easily. It is also not a good source of energy.

An insulator is a substance that does not conduct electricity. Graphite is a good insulator because it is a poor conductor of electricity. This is important because it prevents the flow of electricity through the reactor core.

The correct answer is C. Radiobiology.

Radiobiology is the study of the effects of ionizing radiation on living organisms. It is a multidisciplinary field that draws on physics, chemistry, biology, and medicine. Radiobiology has applications in a wide range of fields, including medicine, agriculture, and environmental science.

Pathology is the study of disease. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of disease. Pathology is a very broad field, and it encompasses a wide range of subspecialties.

Etiology is the study of the causes of disease. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the factors that contribute to the development of disease. Etiology is a very important field of study, as it can help us to prevent and treat disease.

Cosmology is the study of the origin, evolution, and ultimate fate of the universe. It is a branch of astronomy that deals with the largest scales in the universe. Cosmology is a very complex field, and it is still an active area of research.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Study of effect of radiation on plant and animal is" is C. Radiobiology.

The correct answer is D. podsolisation.

Podsolisation is a type of soil formation that occurs in acidic, poorly drained soils. It is characterized by the accumulation of organic matter in the upper layers of the soil, the leaching of iron and aluminum from the upper layers, and the formation of a bleached, sandy A horizon.

Salinisation is the accumulation of salts in the soil. It can occur when water evaporates from the soil, leaving behind the salts that were dissolved in it. Salinisation can make the soil difficult for plants to grow in.

Gleisation is a type of soil formation that occurs in waterlogged soils. It is characterized by the accumulation of organic matter in the upper layers of the soil, the reduction of iron and manganese, and the formation of a grey, mottled B horizon.

Calcification is a type of soil formation that occurs in alkaline soils. It is characterized by the accumulation of calcium carbonate in the soil. Calcification can make the soil difficult for plants to grow in.

The correct answer is: A. The marginal utility of the two goods consumed is equal.

The consumer is in equilibrium, maximizing his total utility, when the marginal utility of the two goods consumed is equal. This means that the consumer is getting the same amount of satisfaction from each good. If the marginal utility of one good is higher than the marginal utility of the other good, the consumer will want to consume more of the good with the higher marginal utility. This will continue until the marginal utilities of the two goods are equal.

Option B is incorrect because the proportion of the marginal utility and the respective price is not relevant to the consumer's equilibrium. The consumer only cares about the marginal utility of the goods, not the price.

Option C is incorrect because the consumer getting satisfaction from the consumption is not enough to ensure that he is in equilibrium. The consumer must also be getting the same amount of satisfaction from each good.

Option D is incorrect because the consumer being satisfied with his expenditure on various goods is not enough to ensure that he is in equilibrium. The consumer must also be getting the same amount of satisfaction from each good.

The correct answer is (b). The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established in 1919. It is the oldest trade union federation in India. It was founded by Lala Lajpat Rai, Mahatma Gandhi, and other leaders of the Indian independence movement. The AITUC is affiliated to the International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC). It has a membership of over 10 million workers. The AITUC is a powerful force in the Indian labor movement. It has played a major role in the struggle for workers' rights in India.

Option (a) is incorrect because the AITUC was established in 1919, not 1920.

Option (c) is incorrect because the AITUC was established in 1919, not 1922.

Option (d) is incorrect because the AITUC was established in 1919, not 1924.

The correct answer is: **A) Kolkata**

Kolkata is the capital of West Bengal and the most populous city in the state. It has a literacy rate of 87.22%, which is the highest among all districts in West Bengal. The literacy rate of Kolkata is higher than the national average of 74.04%.

The literacy rate of Kolkata is due to a number of factors, including the city's strong economy, its focus on education, and its large number of universities and colleges. The city is also home to a number of cultural institutions that promote literacy, such as the National Library of India and the Victoria Memorial Hall.

The literacy rate of Kolkata is important because it has a positive impact on the city's economy and society. A more literate population is more likely to be employed, earn higher wages, and participate in civic activities. A higher literacy rate also leads to a more informed and engaged citizenry.

The other options are not correct because they have lower literacy rates than Kolkata. East Midnapore has a literacy rate of 77.35%, Hooghly has a literacy rate of 78.45%, and North 24 Parganas has a literacy rate of 79.33%.

The correct answer is D. None of the above.

The word "in" is used to indicate a location within a place. For example, "He is in Perth." The word "at" is used to indicate a specific location. For example, "He is at the airport." The word "on" is used to indicate a surface or area. For example, "He is on the plane."

In this case, the man is not in, at, or on Perth. He is flying from Japan to Perth. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."

The correct answer is (d). Shabana Azmi is not a recipient of the International Gandhi Peace Prize.

The International Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award given by the Indian government to individuals or organizations in recognition of their contributions to peace and non-violence. The award was established in 1995 to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.

The award has been given to a number of notable individuals, including Nelson Mandela, Desmond Tutu, and Aung San Suu Kyi. Shabana Azmi is an Indian actress, politician, and social activist. She has been a vocal critic of the Indian government and has been arrested on several occasions for her activism. She has not been awarded the International Gandhi Peace Prize.

The correct answer is: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) selects employees of All India Services.

The UPSC is an independent body that conducts the Civil Services Examination (CSE) to select candidates for the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and other Group A and Group B civil services of the Government of India.

The UPSC is also responsible for the appointment of officers to the All India Services (AIS). The AIS is a group of elite civil services that are responsible for the administration of the country. The AIS comprises the IAS, IFS, IPS, and other Group A services.

The UPSC selects officers for the AIS through a competitive examination. The examination is conducted in three stages: the Preliminary Examination, the Main Examination, and the Interview.

The Preliminary Examination is a screening test that is conducted to shortlist candidates for the Main Examination. The Main Examination is a written examination that is conducted to assess the candidates' knowledge of various subjects. The Interview is a personal interview that is conducted to assess the candidates' personality and suitability for the civil services.

The UPSC is a highly respected institution that has played a vital role in the development of India. The UPSC has selected some of the most brilliant and talented individuals to serve the country. The UPSC is a symbol of merit and excellence, and it is a source of pride for the Indian people.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The UPSC does not suspend employees of All India Services. The suspension of an employee is a disciplinary action that is taken by the government.
• The UPSC does not elect employees of All India Services. The election of an employee is a democratic process that is conducted by the people.
• The UPSC does not appoint employees of All India Services. The appointment of an employee is a bureaucratic process that is conducted by the government.

The answer is A. GARE.

The other options are all words that can be used as verbs, nouns, or adjectives. For example, "wear" can be a verb meaning "to put on clothing" or a noun meaning "clothing." "Tear" can be a verb meaning "to rip something apart" or a noun meaning "a piece of cloth that has been ripped." "Dear" can be an adjective meaning "beloved" or a noun meaning "a person who is loved." "Near" can be an adjective meaning "close" or a noun meaning "a place that is close."

The word "gare" is not a common English word. It is a French word that means "station." It is not used in English as a verb, noun, or adjective.

The correct answer is: D. All of the above

The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes the way of losing citizenship acquired under the Act prior to it under the constitution viz.:

• Deprivation: A person may be deprived of his citizenship if the Central Government is satisfied that he has acquired the citizenship of India by fraud, misrepresentation or concealment of material fact.
• Renunciation: A person may renounce his citizenship of India by making a declaration to that effect to the Central Government.
• Termination: The citizenship of a person may be terminated if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of another country and has taken an oath or made a declaration of allegiance to that country.

Please let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is A. Calcutta (Kolkata).

Calcutta was the capital of British India from 1772 to 1911. It was also the headquarters of the British East India Company in Bengal during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Delhi was the capital of the Mughal Empire, but it was not under British control during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
* Lucknow was the capital of the Awadh kingdom, but it was also not under British control during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
* Kanpur was a major city in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, but it was not the headquarters of the British East India Company in Bengal.

The Mahananda barrage and Dauk barrage are linked with Teesta barrage to irrigate the districts of Cooch Behar, Darjeeeling, Jalpaiguri, North and South Dinajpur and Malda.

The correct answer is A. 6 months.

A state emergency is a situation in which the President of India declares that a state of emergency exists in a state of India. This can be done on the advice of the Union Cabinet. The President can declare a state of emergency if he or she is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

Once a state of emergency is declared, the President can suspend the operation of certain fundamental rights under the Constitution. The President can also make laws by ordinance, which have the same effect as laws passed by Parliament.

A state of emergency can be continued for a maximum period of six months. However, the President can extend the period of emergency for a further six months, with the approval of Parliament. The President can also revoke the declaration of emergency at any time.

The following are the options for the question:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year
• C. 2 years
• D. 5 years

The correct answer is A. 6 months. This is because the President can declare a state of emergency for a maximum period of six months. However, the President can extend the period of emergency for a further six months, with the approval of Parliament. The President can also revoke the declaration of emergency at any time.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the maximum period for which a state of emergency can be declared.

The correct answer is (a) Colombia.

The Environmental Democracy Index (EDI) is a tool developed by the World Resources Institute (WRI) to measure the extent to which citizens of a country have the right to participate in environmental decision-making. The EDI is based on a survey of experts and citizens in each country, and it covers a range of topics, including access to information, public participation in decision-making, and access to justice.

In 2015, Colombia ranked first in the EDI, with a score of 78.5 out of 100. This was the first time that Colombia had ranked first in the EDI, and it was a significant improvement from its previous ranking of 10th in 2014.

Colombia's high ranking in the EDI is due to a number of factors, including its strong legal framework for environmental protection, its commitment to public participation in decision-making, and its efforts to address environmental justice issues.

Colombia's legal framework for environmental protection is one of the strongest in Latin America. The country's constitution includes a number of provisions that guarantee the right to a healthy environment, and its environmental laws are comprehensive and well-enforced.

Colombia is also committed to public participation in environmental decision-making. The country has a number of laws and regulations that require public participation in environmental impact assessments, and it has established a number of mechanisms for citizens to participate in environmental decision-making.

Finally, Colombia has made significant efforts to address environmental justice issues. The country has established a number of programs to address the environmental problems that disproportionately affect poor and marginalized communities, and it has made progress in improving access to environmental information and justice.

Colombia's high ranking in the EDI is a testament to its commitment to environmental protection and its efforts to promote environmental democracy. The country's progress in these areas is an example for other countries to follow.

The other options are incorrect because they did not rank first in the Environmental Democracy Index development by WRA in 2015.

(b) Latvia ranked 11th in the EDI in 2015.
(c) Lithuania ranked 12th in the EDI in 2015.
(d) Hungary ranked 13th in the EDI in 2015.

The correct answer is D. The Trusteeship Council.

The Trusteeship Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. It was established in 1945 to oversee the administration of trust territories, which were territories that were not self-governing and were placed under the administration of a trusteeship agreement with the United Nations.

The Trusteeship Council has virtually accomplished its object as all 11 trust territories have achieved self-government or independence. The last trust territory, Palau, became independent in 1994.

The Security Council is responsible for maintaining international peace and security. It has 15 members, five of which are permanent members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and 10 of which are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.

The General Assembly is the main deliberative organ of the United Nations. It has 193 members, each of which has one vote. The General Assembly meets in regular sessions every year and in special sessions when necessary.

The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized international organs and specialized agencies.

The Trusteeship Council is the only principal organ of the United Nations that has virtually accomplished its object.

The correct answer is D. Magnetic wave.

An MRI machine uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to create detailed images of the inside of the body. The magnetic field aligns the hydrogen atoms in the body, and the radio waves cause them to change their alignment. As the hydrogen atoms return to their original alignment, they emit radio waves that are detected by the MRI machine. These radio waves are then used to create a detailed image of the inside of the body.

Sound waves, X-rays, and ultrasound waves are not used in MRI machines. Sound waves are too weak to penetrate the body, X-rays can damage tissue, and ultrasound waves cannot provide the same level of detail as MRI images.

MRI machines are a safe and effective way to diagnose a variety of medical conditions. They are often used to diagnose cancer, heart disease, and stroke. MRI machines are also used to monitor the progress of treatment and to plan surgery.

The missing number is 13.

The numbers in the sequence are all prime numbers, except for 12, which is a composite number. The sequence starts with 2, which is the smallest prime number, and then adds 1 to each number to get the next number in the sequence. So, the next number in the sequence after 12 is 13, which is a prime number.

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers. A natural number greater than 1 that is not prime is called a composite number.

Sri Krishna Kirtana is considered the second oldest work of Bengali literature after Charyapada. Sri Krishna Kirtana was written by Boru Chandidas in the later half of 14th century CE.

The correct answer is C. Glycerol trinitrate.

Glycerol trinitrate, also known as nitroglycerin, is a powerful explosive. It is a clear, colorless liquid that is odorless and has a sweet taste. Nitroglycerin is made by nitrating glycerol, a three-carbon alcohol. The nitration process involves adding nitric acid to glycerol, which results in the formation of three nitrate groups on each glycerol molecule.

Nitroglycerin is used in a variety of explosives, including dynamite, blasting caps, and safety fuses. It is also used in some medical applications, such as treating angina pectoris.

A. Glycerol is a colorless, odorless, viscous liquid that is found in animal and vegetable fats and oils. It is used in a variety of products, including cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and food.

B. Glycerol triacetate is a white, crystalline solid that is used in the manufacture of plastics, resins, and explosives.

C. Glycerol trinitrate is a powerful explosive that is used in dynamite, blasting caps, and safety fuses.

D. Glycerol triiodate is a yellow, crystalline solid that is used in the manufacture of explosives and fireworks.

Sal is a major species found in Tropical Dry Deciduous forests. Tropical Dry Deciduous forests are found in the Western plateau regions in the districts of Bankura, Purulia, East and West Midnapore, Birbhum and Bardhaman of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (a) Uttar Pradesh.

Uttar Pradesh has the largest representation in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It has 80 seats in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, and 31 seats in the Rajya Sabha, the upper house.

The other options are incorrect. Madhya Pradesh has 29 seats in the Lok Sabha and 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha. Maharashtra has 48 seats in the Lok Sabha and 19 seats in the Rajya Sabha. Andhra Pradesh has 25 seats in the Lok Sabha and 8 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million people. It is also the largest state in terms of area, covering over 200,000 square kilometers. The capital of Uttar Pradesh is Lucknow.

The correct answer is (c) Gujarat. The Wild Ass Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, India. It is the largest sanctuary for wild asses in the world, and is home to over 4,000 of these animals. The sanctuary was established in 1972 to protect the wild ass, which was once on the verge of extinction. The sanctuary is also home to a variety of other wildlife, including blackbuck, chinkara, and nilgai.

Option (a) is incorrect because the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Uttar Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh is a state in northern India. The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries, including the Dudhwa National Park and the Corbett National Park. However, the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Uttar Pradesh.

Option (b) is incorrect because the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Assam. Assam is a state in northeastern India. The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries, including the Kaziranga National Park and the Manas National Park. However, the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Assam.

Option (d) is incorrect because the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Rajasthan. Rajasthan is a state in northwestern India. The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries, including the Ranthambore National Park and the Sariska Tiger Reserve. However, the Wild Ass Sanctuary is not located in Rajasthan.

The correct answer is D. Ultrasonic waves cannot be polarized.

Polarization is the property of waves that have a preferred orientation in space. Light waves, for example, can be polarized in the vertical or horizontal direction. Radio waves, ultraviolet waves, and infrared waves can also be polarized.

Ultrasonic waves are sound waves with frequencies above the range of human hearing. They are used in a variety of applications, including medical imaging, sonar, and non-destructive testing. Ultrasonic waves are not polarized because they are longitudinal waves. Longitudinal waves are waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate in the same direction as the wave is traveling. This means that there is no preferred orientation for the particles of the medium, and therefore no way to polarize the wave.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Radio waves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between 30 Hz and 300 GHz. They are used in a variety of applications, including radio, television, and radar. Radio waves can be polarized.
• Ultraviolet waves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between 100 and 300 terahertz. They are shorter than visible light and longer than X-rays. Ultraviolet waves can be polarized.
• Infrared waves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between 300 terahertz and 300 gigahertz. They are longer than visible light and shorter than microwaves. Infrared waves can be polarized.
• Ultrasonic waves are sound waves with frequencies above the range of human hearing. They are used in a variety of applications, including medical imaging, sonar, and non-destructive testing. Ultrasonic waves are not polarized.

The correct answer is (d). Chaufula is a folk dance of Rajasthan, not Uttarakhand.

Thadiya is a folk dance of Uttarakhand that is performed during the harvest festival of Makar Sankranti. It is a group dance that is performed by both men and women. The dancers hold hands and form a circle, and they move their bodies in a rhythmic way to the music.

Mitai is a folk dance of Uttarakhand that is performed during the marriage ceremony. It is a group dance that is performed by both men and women. The dancers hold hands and form a circle, and they move their bodies in a rhythmic way to the music.

Jhumelo is a folk dance of Uttarakhand that is performed during the harvest festival of Baisakhi. It is a group dance that is performed by both men and women. The dancers hold hands and form a circle, and they move their bodies in a rhythmic way to the music.

The correct answer is D. Homeopathy.

Homeopathy is a system of alternative medicine based on the principle that "like cures like", i.e., a substance that causes the symptoms of a disease in healthy people will cure similar symptoms in sick people. Homeopathic remedies are prepared by diluting a substance in water or alcohol until there is no longer any trace of the original substance left. Homeopathic practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted, the more potent it becomes.

Homeopathy is not supported by scientific evidence. There is no evidence that homeopathic remedies are effective in treating any medical condition. In fact, some studies have shown that homeopathic remedies may actually be harmful.

The word "homeopathy" comes from the Greek words "homoios" (similar) and "pathos" (suffering). The word was first used in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homeopathy.

The options A, B, and C are incorrect spellings of the word "homeopathy".

The answer is B. Q.

The other options, A, C, and D, are all letters that appear in the English alphabet. Q is the only letter that does not appear in the English alphabet.

The English alphabet is a set of 26 letters that are used to write the English language. The letters are A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z.

Q is the 17th letter of the English alphabet. It is a consonant that is pronounced with a voiceless uvular stop. It is the only letter in the English alphabet that is not used to form a word by itself.

The correct answer is: D. a validated hypothesis.

A theory is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspect of the natural world, based on a body of facts that have been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experiment. Such fact-supported theories are not "guesses" but reliable accounts of the real world. The theory of biological evolution is more than "just a theory." It is as factual an explanation of the universe as the atomic theory of matter or the germ theory of disease. Our understanding of gravity is still a work in progress. But the phenomenon of gravity, like evolution, is an accepted fact.

An assumption is a statement that is taken for granted or accepted as true without proof. An "if-then" proposition is a statement that describes the relationship between two events. A hypothesis is a tentative statement about the natural world leading to deductions that can be tested. A validated hypothesis is a hypothesis that has been tested and found to be true.

In conclusion, a theory is a validated hypothesis. It is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspect of the natural world, based on a body of facts that have been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experiment.

The correct answer is (c) Nagasena.

Nagasena was a Buddhist monk who lived in the 3rd century BCE. He is best known for his debates with King Milinda, which are recorded in the Milinda Panha. The Milinda Panha is a Pali text that is considered to be one of the most important texts in Theravada Buddhism.

The Milinda Panha is a dialogue between King Milinda and Nagasena. The king is a non-Buddhist who is seeking to understand Buddhism. Nagasena is a Buddhist monk who is skilled in debate. The dialogue covers a wide range of topics, including the nature of reality, the nature of the self, and the nature of suffering.

The Milinda Panha is an important text because it provides a glimpse into the early development of Buddhism. It also provides a valuable record of the Buddhist teachings as they were understood in the 3rd century BCE.

The other options are incorrect. (a) Ananda was the Buddha's attendant. (b) Ashvaghosh was a Sanskrit poet and dramatist. (d) None of the above is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: A. Non-equilibrium, irreversible.

Transport phenomena are the physical processes that transfer mass, energy, and momentum from one location to another. They occur in all states of matter, but are most commonly studied in gases and liquids. Transport phenomena are driven by gradients in temperature, pressure, concentration, and other physical properties.

The transport phenomena are irreversible because they occur in a non-equilibrium state. In a non-equilibrium state, there is a net flow of mass, energy, or momentum. This flow is caused by a difference in the values of the physical properties at different locations. For example, heat will flow from a hot object to a cold object until the two objects reach the same temperature.

The transport phenomena are also non-equilibrium because they are dissipative. Dissipative processes are those that lose energy to the surroundings. In the case of transport phenomena, the energy lost to the surroundings is usually in the form of heat.

The transport phenomena are important in many fields, including engineering, physics, chemistry, and biology. They are used to design and analyze devices and processes that transport mass, energy, or momentum. For example, the transport phenomena are used to design heat exchangers, refrigerators, and engines.

The transport phenomena are also important in understanding the natural world. They are used to model the weather, the climate, and the movement of fluids in the ocean.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Non-equilibrium, irreversible. This is the correct answer. Transport phenomena occur only in a non-equilibrium state, and they are irreversible.
• Option B: Non-equilibrium, reversible. This is not the correct answer. Transport phenomena are irreversible, not reversible.
• Option C: Equilibrium, irreversible. This is not the correct answer. Transport phenomena occur only in a non-equilibrium state, not in an equilibrium state.
• Option D: Equilibrium, reversible. This is not the correct answer. Transport phenomena are irreversible, not reversible.

The correct answer is A. Graphite.

Graphite is a form of carbon that is used as a lubricant because it is soft and slippery. It is also a good conductor of heat and electricity, which makes it useful in a variety of applications.

Silica is a type of sand that is not used as a lubricant. It is hard and abrasive, which would actually damage the surfaces that it is supposed to be lubricating.

Iron oxide is a type of rust that is also not used as a lubricant. It is also hard and abrasive, and it would not provide any benefit as a lubricant.

Diamond is the hardest natural substance on Earth. It is also very brittle, and it would not be able to withstand the pressure and heat that is generated when two surfaces rub together. Therefore, diamond is not used as a lubricant.

West Bengal Film Development Corporation (WBFDC) is a separate organisational set up which is engaged in screening as well as distribution of the films.

The correct answer is (b). Chamoli district is located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is bordered by the following districts:

• Dehradun district to the north
• Pauri Garhwal district to the northeast
• Rudraprayag district to the east
• Tehri Garhwal district to the southeast
• Uttarkashi district to the south
• Pithoragarh district to the southwest
• Almora district to the west

Chamoli district is a mountainous district with a high altitude. The highest peak in the district is Nanda Devi, which is the second highest peak in India. The district is also home to the Kedarnath Temple, which is one of the most important Hindu pilgrimage sites.

The correct answer is: B. Only argument II is strong.

Argument I is weak because it does not provide any evidence to support its claim that jobs should be offered to only deserving candidates without any reservation for a particular group. It is possible that there are deserving candidates from single child families who would not be able to get jobs without reservation.

Argument II is strong because it provides evidence to support its claim that reservation in government jobs for candidates from single child families will help reduce the growing population in India. The evidence is that parents will be encouraged to adopt single child norm if they know that their child will have an advantage in getting a government job.

It is important to note that both arguments are based on assumptions. Argument I assumes that all candidates are equally deserving of jobs, and argument II assumes that parents will be motivated to have only one child by the prospect of reservation. These assumptions may or may not be true, and further research is needed to determine whether reservation in government jobs for candidates from single child families is a good idea.

The correct answer is B. Jalpaiguri.

Siliguri is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Jalpaiguri district, which is in the northern part of the state. The city is known as the "Gateway to North East India" because it is the main transportation hub for the region. Siliguri is also a major commercial and industrial center.

The other options are incorrect. Darjeeling is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the northern part of the state, and is known for its tea plantations. Alipurduar is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the northern part of the state, and is known for its forests and wildlife. Cooch Behar is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the northern part of the state, and is known for its palaces and temples.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Maharashtra has the largest urban population in India, with 72.5 million people living in urban areas in 2020. This is more than double the population of the second-most populous state, Uttar Pradesh, which has 31.1 million people living in urban areas.

The urban population of Maharashtra has been growing rapidly in recent years. In 2001, the state had a population of 56.7 million, of which 34.1 million lived in urban areas. This means that the urban population of Maharashtra has grown by 92% in the past 20 years.

The growth of the urban population in Maharashtra is due to a number of factors, including economic growth, migration, and natural increase. The state has experienced rapid economic growth in recent years, which has led to an increase in the demand for labor. This has attracted migrants from rural areas, who have come to the state in search of employment. In addition, the natural increase in the population of Maharashtra has also contributed to the growth of the urban population.

The growth of the urban population in Maharashtra has had a number of impacts on the state. One impact is that it has led to an increase in the demand for infrastructure, such as housing, transportation, and water and sanitation. The state has been struggling to meet this demand, which has led to problems such as slums and traffic congestion.

Another impact of the growth of the urban population is that it has led to an increase in pollution. The state's cities are some of the most polluted in India, and this pollution is having a negative impact on the health of the population.

The growth of the urban population in Maharashtra is a challenge that the state will need to address in the coming years. The state will need to invest in infrastructure and improve the quality of life in its cities. In addition, the state will need to find ways to reduce pollution and improve the environment.

The correct answer is E. has/breathes.

Earthworms are invertebrates, which means they do not have a backbone. They also do not have lungs or gills. Instead, they breathe through their skin. This is possible because their skin is very thin and has a large surface area. The blood vessels in their skin carry oxygen from the air into the body, and carbon dioxide from the body into the air.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how earthworms breathe. Option A, is having/has breath, is incorrect because earthworms do not have breath. Option B, has had/is breathing, is incorrect because earthworms do not have breath. Option C, was having/breathed, is incorrect because earthworms do not have breath. Option D, will have/was breathing, is incorrect because earthworms do not have breath.

I hope this helps!

Hiralal Sen is credited with being one of the first directors of Bengal and India. He started the cinema industry with the 'Royal Bioscope Company' and was making short films from around 1900.

The correct answer is (b), Daryao Vs. State of U.P.

The doctrine of res judicata is a legal principle that prevents a party from relitigating an issue that has already been decided by a court of competent jurisdiction. In the case of Daryao Vs. State of U.P., the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of res judicata applied to writ petitions. This means that a party cannot file a writ petition challenging a decision that has already been made by a court of competent jurisdiction.

The other options are incorrect because they do not deal with the doctrine of res judicata. Option (a), L.I.C, Vs. India Automobiles & Company, is a case about the liability of an insurer. Option (c), Bhula Bhai Vs. State of MP, is a case about the right to property. Option (d), Premier Automobile Vs. Kamlakar, is a case about the liability of a manufacturer.

The correct answer is: D. Vietnam

Vietnam is the new member of International Coffee Organisation.

The International Coffee Organization (ICO) is an intergovernmental organization that was established in 1962 to promote and defend the interests of coffee producers and consumers. The ICO has 132 member countries, including Vietnam.

Vietnam is the world's second-largest coffee producer, after Brazil. The country's coffee industry is worth an estimated $3 billion. Vietnam's coffee exports have grown significantly in recent years, and the country is now the world's largest exporter of Robusta coffee beans.

Vietnam's membership in the ICO will help to strengthen the country's coffee industry and promote its coffee products to the global market.

The correct answer is A. Nepali, Hindi, Lepcha, Bhutani.

Nepali is the official language of Sikkim. It is spoken by about 60% of the population. Hindi is the second most spoken language, spoken by about 20% of the population. Lepcha is the third most spoken language, spoken by about 10% of the population. Bhutani is the fourth most spoken language, spoken by about 5% of the population.

Bengali, Tripuri, Marathi, and Manipuri are not spoken in Sikkim.

Bengali is spoken in the Indian state of West Bengal and the Bangladesh. Tripuri is spoken in the Indian state of Tripura. Marathi is spoken in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Manipuri is spoken in the Indian state of Manipur.

The correct answer is: C. Kathmandu

The SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu, Nepal. It was established in 1985 and is the headquarters of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). The Secretariat is responsible for coordinating the activities of SAARC and providing support to the member states.

The SAARC Secretariat is headed by the Secretary-General, who is appointed by the SAARC Council of Ministers. The current Secretary-General is Arjun Bahadur Thapa of Nepal.

The SAARC Secretariat has a staff of over 200 people from all SAARC member states. The staff is responsible for carrying out the day-to-day work of the Secretariat, including providing administrative support to the SAARC Council of Ministers, the SAARC Standing Committee, and the SAARC Technical Committees.

The SAARC Secretariat is funded by the SAARC member states. The Secretariat's budget is approved by the SAARC Council of Ministers.

The SAARC Secretariat is an important institution for the promotion of regional cooperation in South Asia. It plays a vital role in coordinating the activities of SAARC and providing support to the member states.

The correct answer is C. in.

Mike often hides in that tree. This means that he goes inside the tree to hide. The other options are not correct because they do not describe where Mike hides. Option A, above, is not correct because Mike does not hide on top of the tree. Option B, behind, is not correct because Mike does not hide behind the tree. Option D, none of the above, is not correct because one of the options is correct.

The correct answer is A. NZ.

The top-level domain (TLD) for New Zealand is .nz. It was first registered in 1990 and is administered by InternetNZ. .nz is a country code top-level domain (ccTLD), which means that it is reserved for use by organizations and individuals from New Zealand.

The other options are incorrect. B. NW is the TLD for the Northwest Territories in Canada. C. NE is the TLD for Nebraska in the United States. D. ZL is the TLD for Zambia.

The correct answer is: Brian Lara.

Brian Lara scored 501 not out for Warwickshire against Durham in 1994. This is the highest individual score in first-class cricket.

Hanif Mohammad scored 334 not out for Pakistan against West Indies in 1958. This was the highest individual score in first-class cricket for 36 years, until Lara broke it.

Sir Donald Bradman scored 334 for Australia against England in 1930. This was the highest individual score in first-class cricket for 29 years, until Hanif Mohammad broke it.

Sachin Tendulkar scored 249 not out for India against South Africa in 2003. This is the highest individual score by an Indian batsman in first-class cricket.

In conclusion, Brian Lara scored the most runs in a single first-class innings. He scored 501 not out for Warwickshire against Durham in 1994. This is the highest individual score in first-class cricket.

The correct answer is D. Milk.

Bees produce honey from nectar and pollen, while cows produce milk from grass. Both honey and milk are nutritious substances that are consumed by humans.

Option A, Animal, is incorrect because it is too broad. Bees and cows are both animals, but they are not the same type of animal. Bees are insects, while cows are mammals.

Option B, Water, is incorrect because it is not a product that is produced by cows. Cows do drink water, but they do not produce it.

Option C, Grass, is incorrect because it is a food that is consumed by cows, but it is not a product that is produced by cows. Cows eat grass to produce milk.

In 1992, Kaushik Sen founded Bengali theatre group 'Swapnasandhani'. Some major productions of it include Macbeth, Jal Chhabi, Tiktiki, Punoscho, Birpurush, etc.

The correct answer is C) Kolkata. The Bengal Chamber of Commerce and Industry (BCCI) is a non-profit, non-political organization that was founded in 1855. It is the oldest chamber of commerce in India and is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal. The BCCI has a membership of over 3,000 companies and individuals from a variety of industries. The BCCI's mission is to promote and protect the interests of its members and to contribute to the economic development of West Bengal and India. The BCCI provides a range of services to its members, including advocacy, networking, training, and research. The BCCI also organizes a number of events and conferences throughout the year.

The other options are incorrect. New Delhi is the capital of India and is home to the Indian government. Mumbai is the financial capital of India and is home to the Bombay Stock Exchange. Chennai is the capital of Tamil Nadu and is home to the Indian Institute of Technology Madras.

The correct answer is: **B) 20% by 2030**

The state government has set a target to increase the share of renewable energy in its energy mix to 20% by 2030. This means that by 2030, 20% of all the energy used in the state will come from renewable sources, such as solar and wind power. This is a significant increase from the current level of renewable energy use in the state, which is around 10%.

There are a number of reasons why the state government has set this target. One reason is that renewable energy is becoming increasingly cost-competitive with traditional forms of energy, such as coal and natural gas. Another reason is that renewable energy is a cleaner and more sustainable form of energy. Renewable energy does not produce greenhouse gases, which contribute to climate change.

The state government's target is ambitious, but it is achievable. The state has a number of resources that are well-suited for renewable energy, such as solar and wind power. The state also has a number of policies in place that support renewable energy, such as tax breaks and subsidies.

If the state government is successful in meeting its target, it will have a number of benefits. The state will reduce its reliance on imported energy, which will save money and improve energy security. The state will also reduce its greenhouse gas emissions, which will help to address climate change.

In addition, the state's renewable energy industry will create jobs and boost the economy. The state's renewable energy industry is already growing rapidly, and the state government's target is expected to accelerate this growth.

The state government's target is a positive step towards a cleaner, more sustainable future. The state is well-positioned to meet its target, and if it is successful, it will have a number of benefits for the state and its residents.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: 10% by 2025. This is a lower target than the state government's actual target. The state government has set a target to increase the share of renewable energy in its energy mix to 20% by 2030.
* Option B: 20% by 2030. This is the correct answer. The state government has set a target to increase the share of renewable energy in its energy mix to 20% by 2030.
* Option C: 30% by 2035. This is a higher target than the state government's actual target. The state government has set a target to increase the share of renewable energy in its energy mix to 20% by 2030.
* Option D: 40% by 2040. This is a very high target. The state government has not set a target as high as 40% by 2040.

The answer is D. His nephew.

Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son." This means that the man in the portrait is the son of Harsh's father's son. In other words, he is Harsh's nephew.

Harsh also said, "Brothers and sisters I have none." This means that he does not have any siblings. If the man in the portrait were his brother, then Harsh would have said "brothers and sisters" instead of "brothers."

Therefore, the man in the portrait must be Harsh's nephew.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. His son is incorrect because Harsh said that he does not have any sons.
• B. His cousin is incorrect because Harsh's father's son would be his cousin, but Harsh said that he does not have any cousins.
• C. His uncle is incorrect because Harsh's father's son would be his uncle, but Harsh said that he does not have any uncles.
• E. None of these is incorrect because the man in the portrait must be Harsh's nephew.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The West Bengal Livestock Development Corporation (WBLDC) is a state government undertaking under the Department of Animal Husbandry and Fisheries, Government of West Bengal. It was established in 1973 with the objective of promoting the development of livestock and livestock products in the state.

The WBLDC is responsible for the following activities:

* Marketing of livestock products
* Providing veterinary services
* Promoting livestock insurance
* Providing training and extension services to farmers
* Organizing livestock fairs and exhibitions
* Promoting the development of dairy, poultry, piggery, and other livestock sectors

The WBLDC has a network of offices and marketing outlets spread across the state. It also has a number of veterinary hospitals and dispensaries, as well as a training institute. The WBLDC is a major player in the livestock sector in West Bengal and plays a vital role in the development of the sector.

Option A: Marketing of livestock products

The WBLDC markets a variety of livestock products, including meat, milk, eggs, and hides. It also markets livestock feed and other related products. The WBLDC markets its products through a network of retail outlets, as well as through online channels.

Option B: Providing veterinary services

The WBLDC provides a range of veterinary services, including vaccination, treatment, and surgery. It also provides artificial insemination services. The WBLDC has a network of veterinary hospitals and dispensaries spread across the state.

Option C: Promoting livestock insurance

The WBLDC promotes livestock insurance through a network of agents. It also provides information and assistance to farmers on livestock insurance. The WBLDC has a tie-up with a number of insurance companies to provide livestock insurance.

Option D: All of the above

The WBLDC is responsible for all of the activities mentioned above. It is a major player in the livestock sector in West Bengal and plays a vital role in the development of the sector.

The correct answer is $boxed{A + C % B x D}$.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: $A % B x C + D$ means $A$ is the daughter of $B$, who is the wife of $C$, who is the daughter of $D$. This does not mean that $D$ is the uncle of $A$.
• Option B: $A x B + C % D$ means $A$ is the wife of $B$, who is the brother of $C$, who is the daughter of $D$. This does not mean that $D$ is the uncle of $A$.
• Option C: $A + C % B x D$ means $A$ is the brother of $C$, who is the daughter of $B$, who is the wife of $D$. This means that $D$ is the uncle of $A$.
• Option D: None of these.

Therefore, the correct answer is $boxed{A + C % B x D}$.

The correct answer is: Only assumption II is implicit.

The statement is an announcement that advises passengers to fasten their seat belts while seated in the trolley of the ropeway. This suggests that passengers might not fasten their seat belts unless they are advised to do so. This is supported by the fact that the announcement is made in the passengers' own interest. Therefore, assumption II is implicit.

Assumption I is not implicit. The statement does not say that people are always careful about their own safety. It is possible that some people are careful about their own safety, while others are not. The statement only advises passengers to fasten their seat belts, regardless of whether they are careful about their own safety or not.

The correct answer is: B. have refused

The sentence is in the present perfect tense, which indicates that the action of refusing has been completed and its effects are still ongoing. The other options are not in the present perfect tense, so they are incorrect.

• A. are protesting is in the present continuous tense, which indicates that the action of protesting is ongoing. This is not consistent with the meaning of the sentence, which indicates that the French have already refused to buy British beef.
• C. were protesting is in the past tense, which indicates that the action of protesting occurred at a specific time in the past. This is not consistent with the meaning of the sentence, which indicates that the French have refused to buy British beef for some time.
• D. refused is in the simple past tense, which indicates that the action of refusing occurred at a specific time in the past. This is not consistent with the meaning of the sentence, which indicates that the French have refused to buy British beef for some time.
• E. will be refusing is in the future tense, which indicates that the action of refusing will occur at a specific time in the future. This is not consistent with the meaning of the sentence, which indicates that the French have refused to buy British beef for some time.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. have refused

The correct answer is: B. Warm

Tepid is a word that describes something that is slightly warm or moderately hot. It is not as hot as boiling water, but it is warmer than cold water.

Hot is a word that describes something that is very warm or very hot. It is much hotter than tepid water.

Cold is a word that describes something that is not warm or hot. It is much colder than tepid water.

Boiling is a word that describes something that is very hot and is turning into steam. It is much hotter than tepid water.

The answer is D. Terrible.

A. Medium is a word that means "of a moderate or average size, amount, or degree."
B. Average is a word that means "a number expressing the central or typical value in a set of data, in particular the mean, median, or mode."
C. Mediocre is a word that means "of only moderate quality; not very good."
D. Terrible is a word that means "extremely bad or unpleasant."

The word "terrible" is different from the rest of the words in the list because it is the only word that has a negative connotation. The other words all have neutral or positive connotations.

The correct answer is: D) July & August

West Bengal is located in the eastern part of India, and its climate is tropical monsoon. The hottest months in West Bengal are typically July and August, when the average temperature is around 30 degrees Celsius. The monsoon season in West Bengal runs from June to September, and during this time the state receives heavy rainfall. The high temperatures and humidity during the monsoon season can make it very uncomfortable to be outdoors.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the hottest months in West Bengal. December and January are the coldest months, with an average temperature of around 15 degrees Celsius. March and April are the beginning of the hot season, and the average temperature is around 25 degrees Celsius. May and June are the hottest months before the monsoon season, and the average temperature is around 30 degrees Celsius.

The correct answer is: **D) Dooars**

Sal and Teak are important commercial trees found in the Dooars region of West Bengal. The Dooars is a sub-Himalayan region in the eastern Himalayas, located in the states of West Bengal and Assam in India. It is a hilly region with a tropical climate, and is home to a variety of forests, including sal forests, teak forests, and bamboo forests. Sal and teak are both important commercial trees, and are used to make a variety of products, including furniture, paper, and construction materials.

The other options are incorrect:

* Rarh is a region in the western part of West Bengal. It is a relatively dry region, and is not home to any significant forests.
* North Bengal plains is a region in the northern part of West Bengal. It is a flat, fertile region, and is home to a variety of crops, including rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
* Sundarbans is a delta region in the south-western part of West Bengal. It is a mangrove forest, and is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, crocodiles, and monkeys.