WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-24

The correct answer is C. 9.45 kilocalories.

One gram of fat contains 9.45 kilocalories of energy. This is more than twice the amount of energy contained in one gram of carbohydrates or protein, which is 4.18 kilocalories. The reason for this is that fat is a more concentrated form of energy. It is made up of long chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms, which are packed together very tightly. When these chains are broken down, they release a lot of energy.

Fat is an important source of energy for the body. It is also a good source of essential fatty acids, which are necessary for the proper functioning of the body. However, it is important to eat a healthy balance of fat, carbohydrates, and protein. Too much fat can lead to weight gain and other health problems.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct number of kilocalories of energy released from one gram of fat.

The correct answer is (c).

Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million people. It is also the second-largest state in terms of area, after Rajasthan. The state's economy is based on agriculture, manufacturing, and services. In 2010-11, Uttar Pradesh's contribution to India's total GDP was 10.9%. This was the third largest contribution of any state, after Maharashtra (15.3%) and Gujarat (10.1%).

Maharashtra is the most industrialized state in India, and its economy is based on manufacturing, services, and agriculture. In 2010-11, Maharashtra's contribution to India's total GDP was 15.3%.

Gujarat is the third-most populous state in India, and its economy is based on manufacturing, services, and agriculture. In 2010-11, Gujarat's contribution to India's total GDP was 10.1%.

The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the actual contribution of Uttar Pradesh to India's total GDP in 2010-11.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Equity share capital is a type of ownership interest in a company. When a company issues equity shares, it is essentially selling a piece of itself to investors. Equity shareholders are the owners of the company and have the right to vote on important matters, such as the election of directors. They also have the right to receive a share of the company's profits, if any.

Debentures are loans that companies issue to raise money. Debenture holders are creditors of the company, and they have the right to be repaid the principal amount of the loan, plus interest, on a specified date. Debentures are typically considered to be a more secure form of investment than equity shares, as they have a higher priority claim on the company's assets in the event of liquidation.

Preference share capital is a type of ownership interest in a company that ranks above equity shares in terms of priority of payment. Preference shareholders are entitled to receive a fixed dividend, which is paid before any dividends are paid to equity shareholders. They also have the right to be repaid the principal amount of their investment, if any, before equity shareholders in the event of liquidation.

All three of these sources of finance can be used to raise long-term funds for a company. The choice of which source to use will depend on a number of factors, such as the company's financial situation, its investment objectives, and the cost of each type of finance.

The correct answer is A. Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by the outer layers of the sun.

The dark lines in the solar spectrum are called Fraunhofer lines, and they are caused by the absorption of certain wavelengths of light by the gases in the sun's atmosphere. The different elements in the sun's atmosphere absorb different wavelengths of light, so the Fraunhofer lines are a unique fingerprint of the sun's composition.

Option B is incorrect because destructive interference is not a factor in the formation of Fraunhofer lines. Option C is incorrect because the prism used in the photograph does not absorb any wavelengths of light. Option D is incorrect because the light emitted by the core of the sun does contain all wavelengths of light, but the outer layers of the sun absorb some of these wavelengths.

The probability density function (PDF) of a continuous random variable $X$ is a function $f_X(x)$ that gives the probability that $X$ takes on a value between $x$ and $x + dx$, for an infinitesimally small value of $dx$. The total probability that $X$ takes on any value is 1, so the PDF must satisfy the condition $int_mathbb{R} f_X(x) dx = 1$.

In this case, the PDF is given by

$$f_X(x) = begin{cases} K(5x - 2x^2) & text{if } 0 leq x leq 2 \ 0 & text{otherwise} end{cases}$$

The value of $K$ is not specified, but it can be found by integrating the PDF over the entire real line. This gives

$$1 = int_mathbb{R} f_X(x) dx = K int_0^2 (5x - 2x^2) dx = K left[ frac{5x^2}{2} - frac{2x^3}{3} right]_0^2 = 4K$$

Therefore, $K = frac{1}{4}$.

The probability that $X > 1$ is the area under the PDF to the right of $x = 1$. This area can be found by integrating the PDF from $1$ to $2$. This gives

$$P(X > 1) = int_1^2 f_X(x) dx = int_1^2 frac{1}{4} (5x - 2x^2) dx = frac{5x^2}{8} - frac{x^3}{12} bigg|_1^2 = frac{1}{8} - frac{1}{12} = boxed{frac{3}{14}}$$

The correct answer is C. Dhokra Damar.

Dokra is a unique metal casting technique that is practiced by the Dhokra Damar community in West Bengal. It is a lost-wax casting technique that is used to create a variety of objects, including jewelry, sculptures, and utensils. The process of making a Dokra object begins with the creation of a wax model of the desired object. This model is then covered in a layer of clay, which is fired to harden. Once the clay is fired, the wax is melted out, leaving a hollow cavity in the clay. Molten metal is then poured into the cavity, and the clay is removed once the metal has cooled. The final product is a metal object that is in the shape of the original wax model.

The Dhokra Damar community has been practicing this technique for centuries, and it is a vital part of their culture. The objects that they create are not only beautiful, but they are also functional. Dokra objects are often used in religious ceremonies, and they are also prized by collectors.

The Dhokra Damar community is facing a number of challenges, including the loss of traditional knowledge and the competition from mass-produced goods. However, they are working to preserve their culture and their craft, and they are committed to passing it on to future generations.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to the community that practices Dokra craft.

A. Malhars are a community of farmers and herders who live in the Malwa region of central India.
B. Kumhars are a community of potters who live in many parts of India.
D. Patuas are a community of scroll painters who live in West Bengal.

The correct answer is at.

The preposition at is used to indicate a specific time or place. In this case, the speaker is saying that there is no point in arriving at the theater before 9 o'clock, which is when the show starts.

The other prepositions would not make sense in this context. In is used to indicate a general location or period of time. Of is used to indicate possession or a part of something. To is used to indicate a destination or purpose.

Here are some examples of how the other prepositions could be used:

• I arrived in the theater at 8:30.
• The show is of great interest to me.
• I went to the theater to see the show.

The correct answer is C) Winter.

Tusu songs are a type of folk song that is popular in the Indian state of West Bengal. They are usually sung during the winter months, from December to February. The songs are about the goddess Tusu, who is said to protect people from disease and other misfortunes. Tusi songs are often accompanied by dancing and other rituals.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Summer: Tusi songs are not usually sung during the summer months. This is because the weather is too hot and humid during this time of year, and people are more likely to be indoors.
* Monsoon: Tusi songs are not usually sung during the monsoon months. This is because the weather is too wet and rainy during this time of year, and people are more likely to be indoors.
* Spring: Tusi songs are not usually sung during the spring months. This is because the weather is too warm and sunny during this time of year, and people are more likely to be outdoors.
* Winter: Tusi songs are usually sung during the winter months. This is because the weather is cooler and drier during this time of year, and people are more likely to be outdoors.

The correct answer is (d). Tanpura is a stringed instrument that is used in classical Indian music. It is not a folk instrument of Uttarakhand.

Dhol Damau is a pair of drums that are played together. They are used in folk music and dance performances. Ransingha is a trumpet-like instrument that is made from a cow's horn. It is used in folk music and religious ceremonies. Hudka is a wind instrument that is made from a gourd. It is used in folk music and dance performances.

Tanpura is a long-necked lute that is used in classical Indian music. It has four strings that are tuned to the tonic, fifth, and octave of the main melody. The tanpura is played by plucking the strings with the fingers. The sound of the tanpura is used to provide a drone accompaniment to the main melody.

Tanpura is not a folk instrument of Uttarakhand. It is a classical Indian instrument that is used in Hindustani music.

The correct answer is (d). Apples are a good source of potassium, which is an important mineral for heart health. Potassium helps to regulate blood pressure and heart rhythm. It also helps to prevent the build-up of plaque in the arteries.

Sodium and potassium are both electrolytes, which are minerals that help to regulate the body's fluid balance. However, too much sodium can raise blood pressure, while potassium can help to lower it. Phosphorus is a mineral that is important for bone health. Magnesium is a mineral that is important for muscle and nerve function.

Apples are also a good source of fiber, which can help to lower cholesterol levels. They are also a good source of antioxidants, which can help to protect the body against damage from free radicals.

Overall, apples are a healthy food that can be beneficial for heart health.

The correct answer is A. nitrogen.

Electric bulbs typically contain chemically inert gases such as nitrogen to prevent the filament from burning up. Nitrogen is a non-reactive gas that does not react with the filament, even at high temperatures. This helps to extend the life of the bulb.

Chlorine is a reactive gas that can react with the filament, causing it to burn up more quickly. Oxygen is also a reactive gas that can react with the filament, but it is less reactive than chlorine. Hydrogen is a flammable gas that can cause the bulb to explode.

Therefore, the best gas to use in an electric bulb is nitrogen. It is non-reactive, does not react with the filament, and does not cause the bulb to explode.

The correct answer is (d). A Sikh is not a Hindu within the meaning of Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, is an Act to amend and codify the law relating to marriage among Hindus. The Act defines a Hindu as "a person who professes the Hindu religion and includes a person who is a Buddhist, Jain or Sikh by religion."

A Sikh is a follower of Sikhism, a monotheistic religion founded in the 15th century by Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Sikhs believe in one God, and they follow the teachings of the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy book of Sikhism.

Sikhs are not Hindus because they have a different religion, different beliefs, and different practices. Sikhs do not believe in the Hindu gods or goddesses, and they do not follow the Hindu scriptures. Sikhs also have a different way of life than Hindus. For example, Sikhs do not practice the Hindu caste system, and they do not believe in the Hindu concept of reincarnation.

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, is a law that applies to Hindus. Sikhs are not Hindus, so the Act does not apply to them.

11 backward districts are covered under Sarba Griha Deep Prakalpa (Sabar Ghare Alo). These are North and South Dinajpur, East and West Midnapore, Malda, Murshidabad, Purulia, Birbhum, Bankura, Jalpaiguri and South 24 Parganas.

The correct answer is: Agha Khan Cup.

The Agha Khan Cup is an international field hockey competition for men's national teams. It is the oldest international hockey competition in the world, having been first held in 1908. The tournament is named after the Aga Khan, the spiritual leader of the Ismaili Muslims.

The Agha Khan Cup is held every four years, and is contested by the top eight teams in the world. The current champions are Pakistan, who won the 2018 tournament.

The Agha Khan Cup is considered to be one of the most prestigious hockey tournaments in the world. It is a major goal for any national team to qualify for the tournament, and winning the tournament is considered to be a major achievement.

The other options are not associated with the game of hockey.

• Derby is a horse race held in Epsom, England.
• Merdeka is a Malaysian national holiday.
• Vizzy Trophy was an Indian domestic cricket competition.
• Rovers Cup was an Indian domestic football competition.

The correct answer is (c), Ravi.

The Sutlej is a river in northern India and Pakistan. It is one of the five major tributaries of the Indus River. The Sutlej originates in the Himalayas in Tibet and flows through the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab before entering Pakistan. The Sutlej is a major source of irrigation and drinking water for both India and Pakistan.

The Baspa is a river in Himachal Pradesh, India. It is a tributary of the Sutlej River. The Baspa originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. The Baspa is a popular destination for white-water rafting and trekking.

The Spiti is a river in Himachal Pradesh, India. It is a tributary of the Sutlej River. The Spiti originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. The Spiti is a popular destination for trekking and mountaineering.

The Beas is a river in Himachal Pradesh, India. It is a tributary of the Sutlej River. The Beas originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. The Beas is a popular destination for white-water rafting and fishing.

The correct answer is: C. concerted

A concerted effort is a joint action taken by a group of people or organizations towards a common goal. In this case, the principal and staff have made concerted efforts to enable the students to attend college on the days of the bus strike. This includes providing alternative transportation options, such as shuttle buses or carpooling, and offering flexible scheduling options, such as allowing students to make up missed work.

The other options are not as accurate. Option A, integrated, means combining or coordinating different parts into a whole. This does not accurately describe the efforts of the principal and staff, which are focused on a single goal. Option B, deliberate, means done with careful thought and planning. This is also not an accurate description, as the efforts of the principal and staff are not necessarily based on careful thought and planning. Option D, systematic, means done according to a plan or system. This is also not an accurate description, as the efforts of the principal and staff are not necessarily based on a plan or system.

The correct answer is: B. Fertilization of ova takes place in test tube which development of embryo occur in uterus.

In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a process in which an egg is fertilized by sperm outside the body. The fertilized egg, or embryo, is then placed in the woman's uterus, where it can implant and grow.

IVF is used when a woman has difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a pregnancy to term. It can also be used to help women who have a genetic disorder that could be passed on to their children.

The first successful IVF baby was born in 1978. Since then, millions of babies have been born using IVF.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Fertilization of ova and development takes place in test tube. This is not correct. Fertilization takes place in a test tube, but development takes place in the woman's uterus.
• Option B: Fertilization of ova takes place in test tube which development of embryo occur in uterus. This is the correct answer.
• Option C: Fertilization takes place in uterus while development takes place in test tube. This is not correct. Fertilization takes place in a test tube, but development takes place in the woman's uterus.
• Option D: Development of ova take place in test tube without fertilization. This is not correct. Fertilization must take place before development can occur.

The correct answer is: A. Namadev

Namadev was a 13th-century Indian poet-saint and a key figure in the Bhakti movement. He was born in a Marathi-speaking family in the village of Narsipur, near Pune, in the Deccan region of India. Namadev was a devout Vaishnava, and his poetry is full of devotion to Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi. He is also known for his work on the Bhagavad Gita, which he translated into Marathi.

Namadev's teachings were based on the principles of love, devotion, and service to God. He emphasized the importance of living a simple life and avoiding material possessions. He also stressed the importance of equality and social justice.

Namadev's teachings had a profound impact on the Bhakti movement, and he is considered one of the most important figures in the history of Indian religion.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Namadev: Namadev was a 13th-century Indian poet-saint and a key figure in the Bhakti movement. He was born in a Marathi-speaking family in the village of Narsipur, near Pune, in the Deccan region of India. Namadev was a devout Vaishnava, and his poetry is full of devotion to Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi. He is also known for his work on the Bhagavad Gita, which he translated into Marathi.
• B. Ekanatha: Ekanatha was a 16th-century Indian saint and poet. He was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Paithan, in the Deccan region of India. Ekanatha was a devout Vaishnava, and his poetry is full of devotion to Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi. He is also known for his work on the Mahabharata, which he translated into Marathi.
• C. Tukaram: Tukaram was a 17th-century Indian saint and poet. He was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Dehu, in the Deccan region of India. Tukaram was a devout Vaishnava, and his poetry is full of devotion to Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi. He is also known for his work on the Bhagavad Gita, which he translated into Marathi.
• D. Gnanadeva: Gnanadeva was a 13th-century Indian saint and philosopher. He was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Alandi, near Pune, in the Deccan region of India. Gnanadeva was a devout Vaishnava, and his philosophy is based on the principles of love, devotion, and service to God. He is also known for his work on the Bhagavad Gita, which he translated into Marathi.

The answer is B. Knight.

A nun is a woman who has dedicated her life to God and lives in a convent. A monk is a man who has dedicated his life to God and lives in a monastery. A priest is a man who has been ordained to perform religious ceremonies and rituals. A padre is a priest in the Catholic Church.

A knight is a man who is a member of the military and is skilled in the use of weapons. Knights are often associated with chivalry and the Crusades.

The word "knight" is different from the rest of the words in the list because it is the only word that does not refer to a religious figure.

Salt Lake Stadium is also known as Yuba Bharati Krirangan. It is the largest stadium in India and the second largest football stadium in the world, in terms of capacity.

The correct answer is: A. six banks.

In April 1980, the government of India nationalized six banks:

• The Bank of India
• The Central Bank of India
• The Punjab National Bank
• The Canara Bank
• The Indian Bank
• The United Commercial Bank

The nationalization of these banks was part of a larger effort by the government to increase its control over the Indian economy. The government believed that by nationalizing these banks, it would be able to better regulate the financial system and promote economic development.

The nationalization of these banks was controversial at the time, and it remains a controversial topic today. Some people argue that the nationalization of these banks was necessary to protect the interests of depositors and to promote economic development. Others argue that the nationalization of these banks was a mistake that led to inefficiency and corruption.

Regardless of the merits of the nationalization of these banks, it is a significant event in Indian history. It is a reminder of the government's role in the economy and of the power of the state to intervene in the private sector.

The correct answer is: A. Decreases with light doping.

The depletion layer is a region at the junction of a P-type and N-type semiconductor where there are no free charge carriers. The width of the depletion layer depends on the doping concentration of the P-type and N-type semiconductors. The higher the doping concentration, the narrower the depletion layer. This is because the higher doping concentration results in a higher concentration of free charge carriers in the P-type and N-type semiconductors, which reduces the electric field at the junction and hence the width of the depletion layer.

Option B is incorrect because the depletion layer increases with heavy doping.

Option C is incorrect because the width of the depletion layer is not independent of applied voltage. The applied voltage affects the electric field at the junction, which in turn affects the width of the depletion layer.

Option D is incorrect because the depletion layer is decreased under reverse bias.

The correct answer is: A. Soda glass.

Soda glass is a type of glass that is made from silica, soda ash, and lime. It is the most common type of glass used in windows, bottles, and other containers. Soda glass has a low melting point, which makes it easy to work with. It is also relatively inexpensive to produce.

Soda glass can block ultraviolet rays because it contains iron oxide. Iron oxide absorbs ultraviolet light, which prevents it from passing through the glass. This makes soda glass a good choice for applications where it is important to protect people from exposure to ultraviolet light, such as in windows and sunglasses.

Pyrex glass is a type of borosilicate glass that is made from silica, boric oxide, and soda ash. It is a more heat-resistant type of glass than soda glass. Pyrex glass is often used in cookware and laboratory equipment.

Jena glass is a type of optical glass that is made from silica, soda ash, and lime. It is a high-quality type of glass that is used in lenses, prisms, and other optical instruments.

Crooked glass is a type of glass that is not flat. It is often used in decorative applications, such as stained glass windows.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: A. Soda glass.

The correct answer is: A. easily perceived.

Lack of occupation is not necessarily revealed by manifest idleness. This means that someone who is not working or actively engaged in an activity may not appear to be idle. They may be busy with other things, such as thinking, planning, or resting.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the sentence. Option B, easily acquired, suggests that lack of occupation is something that is easily obtained. However, this is not necessarily the case. Lack of occupation can be due to a variety of factors, such as unemployment, disability, or retirement. Option C, easily infected, suggests that lack of occupation is something that is easily spread from one person to another. However, this is not the case. Lack of occupation is not a contagious disease. Option D, easily deflected, suggests that lack of occupation is something that can be easily avoided. However, this is not always the case. There are many situations in which people may find themselves without occupation, such as during a recession or when they are caring for a family member.

The correct answer is: B. Devendra Jhajharia.

Devendra Jhajharia is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower. He is the first Indian to win two gold medals at the Paralympic Games. He won his first gold medal at the 2004 Athens Paralympic Games and his second gold medal at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. He is also the first Indian to win a medal at the Paralympic Games in two different sports. He won a silver medal in the discus throw at the 2012 London Paralympic Games.

Rinku Hooda is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower. He won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. He is the first Indian to win a medal in the javelin throw at the Paralympic Games.

Sundar Singh Gurjar is an Indian Paralympic powerlifter. He won a gold medal at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. He is the first Indian to win a gold medal in powerlifting at the Paralympic Games.

Mariyappan Thangavelu is an Indian Paralympic high jumper. He won a gold medal at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. He is the first Indian to win a gold medal in high jump at the Paralympic Games.

The correct answer is D. RSPQ.

The correct sequence of the sentences is:

D. RSPQ

1. There was presumably, some defect in the reversal handle of the tram and its main switch had not been put off.
2. As a result, when the power supply was restored in the early morning the tram began to move.
3. In the early morning of 19 January it suddenly started backing out of the depot on its own.
4. Tramways sources explained that power supply to the overhead wires at the siding had been switched off for some repair work.
5. It went up a quarter mile away, crashed into state bus which caught fire went it smashed into an electric feeder box and a water tap.

The first sentence introduces the main idea of the paragraph, which is that a tram went on a trip all by itself and ended up in a disaster. The second sentence explains how the tram was able to move, even though the power supply had been switched off. The third sentence provides more details about the tram's journey, including the fact that it crashed into a bus. The fourth sentence provides more information about the power outage, and the fifth sentence describes the aftermath of the crash.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical order of events. For example, option A (PQRS) puts the sentence about the power outage before the sentence about the tram's journey. This is not possible, because the tram could not have moved if the power supply had not been restored. Option B (PRQS) puts the sentence about the tram's journey before the sentence about the power outage. This is also not possible, because the tram could not have crashed into the bus if it had not been moving. Option C (RQSP) puts the sentence about the tram's journey before the sentence about the defect in the reversal handle. This is not possible, because the defect in the reversal handle was the reason why the tram was able to move.

The correct answer is: A) Labor unrest.

Labor unrest is a major challenge faced by industries in West Bengal in the past. The state has a long history of labor strikes and protests, which have disrupted production and caused economic losses. In recent years, the government has taken steps to address the issue of labor unrest, but it remains a major challenge for businesses operating in the state.

Excess government regulations can also be a challenge for businesses, but it is not as significant as labor unrest in West Bengal. The state has a complex regulatory environment, which can make it difficult for businesses to comply with all the rules and regulations. However, the government has been working to simplify the regulatory environment in recent years, which has made it easier for businesses to operate.

Abundant resources are not a challenge for businesses in West Bengal. The state has a wealth of natural resources, including coal, iron ore, and natural gas. These resources have attracted investment from businesses in the mining and manufacturing sectors.

A stable political environment is not a challenge for businesses in West Bengal. The state has a long history of political stability, which has created a favorable environment for businesses. The government has also been supportive of businesses, and has taken steps to improve the infrastructure and investment climate in the state.

In conclusion, the major challenge faced by industries in West Bengal in the past was labor unrest. The state has a long history of labor strikes and protests, which have disrupted production and caused economic losses. In recent years, the government has taken steps to address the issue of labor unrest, but it remains a major challenge for businesses operating in the state.

The correct answer is: B. Leisure

The word "leisure" means time free from work or other obligations, which can be used for rest, relaxation, or amusement. It is derived from the Old French word "leisir," which means "to be allowed."

The other options are incorrect because they are not the correct spelling of the word "leisure." The word "liesure" is not a word in the English language. The word "leasure" is a misspelling of the word "leisure." The word "lesiure" is also a misspelling of the word "leisure."

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: Nicolo Conti.

Nicolo Conti was an Italian merchant and traveler who visited India during the Vijayanagara period. He was the first European to write about the Vijayanagara Empire, and his accounts provide valuable insights into the history and culture of the empire.

Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador who visited India during the Mauryan period. He is best known for his book Indica, which provides a detailed account of Indian society and culture.

Yuan Chawng was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the Tang dynasty. He is best known for his book Da Tang Xiyu Ji, which provides a detailed account of his travels through India.

Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the Gupta period. He is best known for his book Faxian's Travels, which provides a detailed account of his travels through India.

All of these travelers provided valuable insights into India, but only Nicolo Conti visited India during the Vijayanagara period.

The correct answer is C. 2004.

The United Progressive Alliance (UPA) is a political alliance in India formed by the Indian National Congress (INC) and several other regional parties. The UPA was formed in 2004 to contest the 2004 Indian general election. The UPA won the election and formed the government with Manmohan Singh as the Prime Minister. The UPA was re-elected in 2009 and 2014. However, the UPA lost the 2019 Indian general election to the National Democratic Alliance (NDA).

The UPA is a coalition of parties that share a common ideology of secularism, socialism, and democracy. The UPA is the largest political alliance in India and it has a strong base of support in the country. The UPA has been in power for two terms and it has made significant contributions to the development of India.

The UPA has been criticized for its handling of the economy and for its corruption scandals. However, the UPA remains a popular political alliance and it is likely to continue to play a major role in Indian politics in the years to come.

Option A is incorrect because the Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.

Option B is incorrect because the United Progressive Alliance was not founded in 19987.

Option D is incorrect because the United Progressive Alliance was not founded in 1980.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{{16}}{{32}}}$.

The probability of getting at least one head is the complement of the probability of getting no heads. The probability of getting no heads is the probability of getting tails all five times. This is $frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{2} = frac{1}{32}$. Therefore, the probability of getting at least one head is $1 - frac{1}{32} = boxed{frac{{16}}{{32}}}$.

Each option can be explained as follows:

• Option A: $frac{1}{{32}}$ is the probability of getting all tails. This is a very unlikely event, so it is not the correct answer.
• Option B: $frac{{13}}{{32}}$ is the probability of getting exactly one head. This is possible, but it is not as likely as getting at least one head. Therefore, it is not the correct answer.
• Option C: $frac{{16}}{{32}}$ is the probability of getting at least one head. This is the correct answer.
• Option D: $frac{{31}}{{32}}$ is the probability of getting all heads. This is a very unlikely event, so it is not the correct answer.

The eight health districts are Nandigram, Jhargram, Bishnupur, Rampurhat, Diamond Harbour, Bashirhat, Asansol and Kalimpong. 'Jal-Tirtha' scheme is presently running in arid regions of Birbhum, Bankura, Purulia and West Midnapore. 1000 Shishu Aloys are opened simultaneoulsly in 20 districts including Purulia, East and West Midnapore, North and South Dinajpur, Malda, Birbhum, Bankura, Darjeeling, North and South 24 Parganas, etc. Under Geetanjali scheme, the State government provides Rs.70 thousand per house in plain area and rs.75 thousand inmountain areas and Sunderban region for the construction of house.

The correct answer is: C. Total internal reflection.

Fibre optics work on the principle of total internal reflection. This is the phenomenon that occurs when light passes from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index, and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle. In this case, all of the light is reflected back into the first medium.

This principle is used in fibre optic cables to transmit light over long distances. The light is guided down the cable by the total internal reflection at the interface between the core and cladding of the fibre. The core is made of a material with a higher refractive index than the cladding, so the light is always reflected back into the core.

Scattering of light is the phenomenon that occurs when light is scattered in all directions by particles in a medium. This can happen when light passes through a medium with particles that are much smaller than the wavelength of light. The particles can be dust, water droplets, or even air molecules.

Total internal absorption is the phenomenon that occurs when light is absorbed by a material. This can happen when light passes through a material with a high absorption coefficient. The absorption coefficient is a measure of how much light is absorbed by the material per unit distance.

Optical rotation is the phenomenon that occurs when light is rotated as it passes through a material. This can happen when the material has a chiral structure. A chiral structure is a structure that is not identical to its mirror image.

I hope this helps!

The famous places like Darjeeling and Kalimpong lie in Northern mpuntaio region of West Bengal.

The correct answer is A. Lactic acid.

Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic respiration, which is a type of respiration that occurs when there is not enough oxygen available. When muscles are working hard, they need more oxygen than they can get from the blood. This causes them to switch to anaerobic respiration, which produces lactic acid as a waste product.

Lactic acid can build up in the muscles, causing them to become sore and cramped. This is why people often get cramps after strenuous exercise.

Ethanol is a type of alcohol that is found in alcoholic beverages. It is not produced by the body during anaerobic respiration.

Pyruvic acid is a chemical that is produced during glycolysis, which is the first step in cellular respiration. It is not a waste product, and it does not cause cramps.

Glucose is a type of sugar that is the body's main source of energy. It is not produced by the body during anaerobic respiration, and it does not cause cramps.

The answer is C. Tolstoy.

Keats, Wordsworth, Ghalib, and Tagore were all poets. Tolstoy was a novelist.

John Keats (1795-1821) was an English poet of the Romantic era. He is best known for his odes, such as "Ode to a Nightingale" and "Ode on a Grecian Urn."

William Wordsworth (1770-1850) was an English poet, considered one of the founders of the Romantic movement in literature. He is best known for his long poem "The Prelude" and his collection of short poems "Lyrical Ballads."

Mirza Ghalib (1797-1869) was an Indian poet who wrote in Urdu and Persian. He is considered one of the greatest poets of the Urdu language.

Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was an Indian poet, novelist, short story writer, essayist, painter, musician, and philosopher. He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.

The correct answer is C. 1776.

Adam Smith's major work, An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations, was published in 1776. It is considered one of the most important books ever written on economics. In it, Smith argues that the wealth of a nation is not determined by the amount of gold and silver it possesses, but rather by the productivity of its people. He also argues that the free market is the best way to organize an economy, as it allows for the efficient allocation of resources and the division of labor.

The other options are incorrect. Option A, 1756, is the year that Smith's Theory of Moral Sentiments was published. Option B, 1766, is the year that Smith was appointed as a commissioner of customs in Scotland. Option D, 1786, is the year that Smith died.

The Biswa Bangla brand is an initiative by the West Bengal government to promote tourism, handicrafts, and agricultural products.

Tourism: The Biswa Bangla brand aims to promote West Bengal as a tourist destination by highlighting its rich culture and heritage. The brand has been used to promote a number of tourism initiatives, including the development of new tourist attractions, the promotion of existing tourist attractions, and the marketing of West Bengal as a tourist destination.

Handicrafts: The Biswa Bangla brand aims to promote West Bengal's handicrafts industry by highlighting the quality and craftsmanship of West Bengal's handicrafts. The brand has been used to promote a number of handicrafts initiatives, including the development of new handicrafts markets, the promotion of existing handicrafts markets, and the marketing of West Bengal's handicrafts to international buyers.

Agricultural products: The Biswa Bangla brand aims to promote West Bengal's agricultural products by highlighting the quality and freshness of West Bengal's agricultural products. The brand has been used to promote a number of agricultural products initiatives, including the development of new agricultural markets, the promotion of existing agricultural markets, and the marketing of West Bengal's agricultural products to international buyers.

In conclusion, the Biswa Bangla brand is an initiative by the West Bengal government to promote tourism, handicrafts, and agricultural products. The brand has been used to promote a number of initiatives in each of these areas.

The correct answer is (a). Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable at the option of such creditors.

This is because Section 53 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that "Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable at the option of such creditors."

This means that if a creditor can prove that a transfer of immovable property was made with the intent to defeat or delay them, they can have the transfer declared void. This can be done by filing a suit in court.

If the transfer is declared void, the property will be returned to the transferor's estate and the creditors will be able to recover their debts from the property.

Option (b) is incorrect because it states that the transfer is not void. This is not correct because Section 53 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that the transfer is voidable.

Option (c) is incorrect because it states that the transfer is void. This is not correct because Section 53 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that the transfer is voidable.

Option (d) is incorrect because it states that none of the above is correct. This is not correct because the correct answer is (a).

The correct answer is (d), Chile.

Ecuador, Colombia, and Brazil are all major coffee producing countries. Ecuador is the 10th largest coffee producer in the world, Colombia is the 3rd largest, and Brazil is the largest. Chile, on the other hand, is not a major coffee producer. It only produces a small amount of coffee, and it is not a significant player in the global coffee market.

There are a few reasons why Chile is not a major coffee producer. First, the climate in Chile is not ideal for coffee cultivation. Coffee plants need a warm, humid climate, and Chile's climate is more temperate. Second, the soil in Chile is not well-suited for coffee cultivation. Coffee plants need rich, loamy soil, and Chile's soil is more sandy. Third, labor costs in Chile are high. Coffee production is a labor-intensive process, and the cost of labor in Chile is higher than in many other coffee-producing countries.

As a result of these factors, Chile is not a major coffee producer. It only produces a small amount of coffee, and it is not a significant player in the global coffee market.

The correct answer is: A. Cash : Vault

A treasure is a valuable collection of objects, typically gold, silver, or jewels, often hidden or buried. A chest is a large box with a lid, typically used for storing valuables. A cash is a sum of money, especially in coins or notes. A vault is a strong room or safe, especially for storing money or valuables.

The relationship between treasure and chest is that a chest is a container for a treasure. The relationship between cash and vault is that a vault is a container for cash.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. Finance is the management of money, while exchequer is a government department responsible for collecting taxes and managing public money. Coins are pieces of metal stamped with a design and used as money, while mint is a place where coins are made. Money is a medium of exchange, while account is a record of financial transactions.

The correct answer is: Gold.

Nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent and will react with most metals to produce a salt and hydrogen gas. However, gold is a noble metal and is not easily oxidized. In fact, nitric acid will not react with gold at all.

Copper, zinc, and iron are all metals that will react with nitric acid. Copper will produce copper nitrate, zinc will produce zinc nitrate, and iron will produce iron nitrate. In addition, all three metals will produce hydrogen gas.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Gold is a noble metal and is not easily oxidized. In fact, nitric acid will not react with gold at all.
• Copper is a metal that will react with nitric acid to produce copper nitrate and hydrogen gas.
• Zinc is a metal that will react with nitric acid to produce zinc nitrate and hydrogen gas.
• Iron is a metal that will react with nitric acid to produce iron nitrate and hydrogen gas.

The correct answer is (c) Kanpur.

Kanpur is a city in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is the 12th most populous city in India and the 10th most populous city in the world. Kanpur is a major industrial city and is known for its leather industry. The city is also home to a number of educational institutions, including the Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur.

Kanpur has been ranked as one of the most polluted cities in the world. The city's air quality is poor due to a number of factors, including industrial emissions, vehicular emissions, and dust. The city's air quality has been a major concern for the residents of Kanpur and the government has taken a number of measures to improve the air quality of the city.

The following are the reasons for Kanpur having the highest air pollution in 2019:

• Industrial emissions: Kanpur is a major industrial city and is home to a number of industries, including the leather industry. These industries emit a large amount of pollutants into the air, which contributes to the city's poor air quality.
• Vehicular emissions: Kanpur is a major transportation hub and has a large number of vehicles. These vehicles emit a large amount of pollutants into the air, which contributes to the city's poor air quality.
• Dust: Kanpur is located in a dusty region and the city is often covered in dust. This dust can also contribute to the city's poor air quality.

The government has taken a number of measures to improve the air quality of Kanpur, including:

• Implementing emission control measures for industries
• Promoting the use of public transport
• Planting trees
• Raising awareness about air pollution

However, these measures have not been effective in improving the air quality of Kanpur. The city's air quality is still poor and the residents of Kanpur are facing a number of health problems due to air pollution.

The correct answer is: A. Mahatma Gandhi

Mahatma Gandhi was the first person to call Subhash Chandra Bose as 'Desh Nayak'. He did so in a letter to Bose in 1938. In the letter, Gandhi praised Bose for his patriotism and his commitment to the Indian independence movement. He also expressed his hope that Bose would continue to play a leading role in the movement.

Ram Manohar Lohia was a socialist leader who was also a close associate of Gandhi. He was a strong supporter of Bose and his efforts to achieve Indian independence. However, he never called Bose as 'Desh Nayak'.

Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali polymath who was also a strong supporter of Bose. He was a Nobel laureate in literature and is considered to be one of the greatest writers in the history of the Bengali language. However, he never called Bose as 'Desh Nayak'.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a freedom fighter and statesman who was one of the most important leaders of the Indian independence movement. He was also the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. However, he never called Bose as 'Desh Nayak'.

In conclusion, the only person who had called Subhash Chandra Bose as 'Desh Nayak' was Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is: A. Flow of liquids from higher to lower potential

A fountain pen works on the principle of capillary action. Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces without the assistance of, and in opposition to external forces like gravity. The narrow spaces in a fountain pen are the ink channels that connect the ink reservoir to the nib. The ink is drawn up through these channels by capillary action and then flows out of the nib when the pen is used.

Option B is incorrect because capillary action is not the same as the flow of liquids from higher to lower potential. Capillary action can occur even when there is no difference in potential between the two ends of the liquid.

Option C is incorrect because Bernoulli's principle is a principle of fluid dynamics that states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy. Bernoulli's principle does not explain how a fountain pen works.

Option D is incorrect because viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. Viscosity does not explain how a fountain pen works.

The correct answer is: A) Sikhs.

Baisakhi is a major Sikh festival celebrated on the first day of the month of Vaisakh (the second month of the Nanakshahi calendar, which is based on the solar cycle), which usually falls in April. It marks the beginning of the harvest season and the Sikh New Year. The day also commemorates the establishment of the Khalsa Panth, the collective body of the Sikh people, by Guru Gobind Singh on 1699.

Hindus also celebrate Baisakhi, but it is not as important to them as it is to Sikhs. For Hindus, Baisakhi is a harvest festival and a time to celebrate the arrival of spring. It is also a time to pay tribute to the sun god, Surya.

Muslims and Christians do not celebrate Baisakhi.

The correct answer is C. 1949.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI was nationalized on January 1, 1949, by the RBI (Nationalization) Act, 1948.

The RBI is the central bank of India. It is responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy, regulating the financial system, and issuing currency. The RBI is also the banker to the government of India and the banker's bank.

The RBI is a statutory body with a board of directors. The board is appointed by the government of India. The RBI is headquartered in Mumbai.

The RBI has a number of functions, including:

• Formulating and implementing monetary policy
• Regulating the financial system
• Issuing currency
• Acting as the banker to the government of India
• Acting as the banker's bank
• Supervising and regulating banks
• Promoting the development of the financial system
• Conducting research on monetary and financial matters
• Providing financial services to the government and the public

The RBI is an important institution in the Indian economy. It plays a key role in maintaining financial stability and promoting economic growth.

The International Bureau of Education (IBE) is a specialized agency of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). It was founded in 1925 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The IBE's mission is to promote education for all, to improve the quality of education, and to ensure that education is relevant to the needs of society. The IBE does this by conducting research, providing technical assistance, and developing educational policies and programs.

UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that promotes international cooperation in education, science, culture, and communication. It was founded in 1945 and is headquartered in Paris, France. UNESCO's mission is to contribute to the building of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development and intercultural dialogue through education, the sciences, culture, communication and information.

UNIDO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that promotes industrial development and the transfer of technology to developing countries. It was founded in 1966 and is headquartered in Vienna, Austria. UNIDO's mission is to promote and accelerate the industrialization of developing countries and economies in transition, in order to eradicate poverty, achieve sustainable development and promote inclusive and equitable globalization.

The IMF is an international financial institution that was founded in 1945. It is headquartered in Washington, D.C. The IMF's mission is to promote international monetary cooperation, exchange stability, and orderly exchange arrangements; to foster economic growth and high levels of employment; and to provide temporary financial assistance to countries to help them address balance of payments problems.

The correct answer is A. UNESCO.

The correct answer is: D. for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only on the recommendation of a high powered committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.

Option A is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner does not hold office for a period of six years. The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Option B is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only on the recommendation of a high powered committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.

Option C is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner does not hold office for five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier. The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

The correct answer is (a) 90 days.

The President of the Philippines is elected to a six-year term. If the President dies, resigns, or is removed from office, the Vice President becomes President. If the Vice President is also unable to serve, the President of the Senate becomes President. If the President of the Senate is also unable to serve, the Speaker of the House of Representatives becomes President.

The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within 90 days. If the vacancy occurs during the last two years of the President's term, the Vice President or the next in line to the presidency will serve for the remaining two years. If the vacancy occurs during the first four years of the President's term, a special election will be held to fill the vacancy.

Option (b), six months, is incorrect. The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within 90 days, not six months.

Option (c), nine months, is incorrect. The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within 90 days, not nine months.

Option (d), one year, is incorrect. The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within 90 days, not one year.

The correct answer is D. The American Radio Relay League (ARRL) was founded in 1914.

The ARRL is the national association for amateur radio in the United States. It is the largest organization of amateur radio enthusiasts in the world, with over 1.7 million members. The ARRL provides a wide range of services to its members, including technical information, training, and advocacy. It also publishes several magazines and books on amateur radio.

The ARRL was founded in 1914 by Hiram Percy Maxim, who was a pioneer in the development of amateur radio. The ARRL's mission is to promote and protect the interests of amateur radio. It does this by lobbying for favorable legislation, providing technical information and training, and organizing amateur radio events.

The ARRL is a valuable resource for amateur radio enthusiasts. It provides a wealth of information and support, and it helps to promote the hobby of amateur radio.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: The 1940s. This is incorrect because the ARRL was founded in 1914, not the 1940s.
• Option B: The 1930s. This is incorrect because the ARRL was founded in 1914, not the 1930s.
• Option C: The 1920s. This is incorrect because the ARRL was founded in 1914, not the 1920s.
• Option D: The 1910s. This is correct because the ARRL was founded in 1914.

The odd word in the given list is "thesis". A thesis is a long piece of writing that is submitted as part of a graduate degree program. It is a formal argument that presents the writer's original research and analysis. A magazine is a periodical publication that contains articles, stories, and other features of general interest. A novel is a long fictional story that is typically published in book form. A dictionary is a book or electronic resource that lists the words of a language (typically in alphabetical order) and gives their meaning, or gives the equivalent words in a different language, often also providing information about pronunciation, origin, and usage.

The other three words are all examples of published works that are typically read for pleasure or education. A thesis, on the other hand, is a formal academic document that is written to demonstrate the writer's mastery of a particular subject. It is not typically read for pleasure, but rather for its scholarly content.

The correct answer is (c).

F is the brother of A. C is the daughter of A. K is the sister of F. G is the brother of C.

An uncle is the brother of a parent. In this case, F is the brother of A, who is the parent of C. Therefore, F is the uncle of G.

A is the father of C, but not the uncle of G.

C is the daughter of A, but not the uncle of G.

K is the sister of F, but not the uncle of G.

Girish Chandra Ghosh is considered as the Father of Modern Bengali stage.

The correct answer is: A. zones of climate.

The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a number of major pressure zones, which correspond with zones of climate. These zones are:

• The equatorial low-pressure zone, which is located near the equator and is characterized by warm, moist air.
• The subtropical high-pressure zones, which are located at about 30 degrees north and south latitude and are characterized by dry, sinking air.
• The mid-latitude low-pressure zones, which are located at about 60 degrees north and south latitude and are characterized by stormy weather.
• The polar high-pressure zones, which are located at the poles and are characterized by cold, dry air.

The Earth's climate is determined by a number of factors, including the amount of solar radiation that it receives, the distribution of land and water, and the presence of oceans and mountains. The latitudinal differences in pressure are one of the most important factors that influence the Earth's climate. The equatorial low-pressure zone is the warmest part of the Earth because it receives the most direct sunlight. The subtropical high-pressure zones are the driest parts of the Earth because the sinking air prevents clouds from forming. The mid-latitude low-pressure zones are the stormiest parts of the Earth because the rising air causes clouds to form and thunderstorms to develop. The polar high-pressure zones are the coldest parts of the Earth because they receive the least direct sunlight.

The latitudinal differences in pressure also influence the Earth's weather patterns. The trade winds, which are the prevailing winds that blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere, are caused by the difference in pressure between the equatorial low-pressure zone and the subtropical high-pressure zones. The jet streams, which are fast-flowing bands of air that are located in the upper atmosphere, are caused by the difference in temperature between the polar high-pressure zones and the mid-latitude low-pressure zones.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The Jal Swapna scheme is a government initiative that aims to provide safe drinking water to rural households, improve irrigation facilities, and develop water resources. The scheme was launched in 2015 and has been implemented in over 100,000 villages across India.

The scheme provides financial assistance to rural households to construct water pipelines and borewells. It also provides training and support to farmers to improve their irrigation practices. In addition, the scheme is working to develop new water resources, such as rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge.

The Jal Swapna scheme has been successful in providing safe drinking water to millions of rural households. It has also helped to improve irrigation facilities and develop new water resources. The scheme has had a positive impact on the lives of millions of people in rural India.

Option A: Providing safe drinking water to rural households.

The Jal Swapna scheme provides financial assistance to rural households to construct water pipelines and borewells. This has helped to improve access to safe drinking water in rural areas.

Option B: Improving irrigation facilities.

The Jal Swapna scheme provides training and support to farmers to improve their irrigation practices. This has helped to improve crop yields and reduce the use of pesticides and fertilizers.

Option C: Developing water resources.

The Jal Swapna scheme is working to develop new water resources, such as rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge. This will help to meet the growing demand for water in rural areas.

The correct answer is: A. Granada in Spain

The 2014 ISSF World Shooting Championships were held in Granada, Spain from 20 to 28 September 2014. It was the 52nd edition of the championships.

The championships were held at the Centro Andaluz de Tiro Olímpico in Granada. A total of 590 athletes from 109 countries competed in the championships.

The championships were a qualifying event for the 2016 Summer Olympics in Rio de Janeiro.

The following is a brief description of each option:

• A. Granada in Spain: The 2014 ISSF World Shooting Championships were held in Granada, Spain from 20 to 28 September 2014. It was the 52nd edition of the championships.
• B. New Delhi in India: The 2010 ISSF World Shooting Championships were held in New Delhi, India from 30 October to 11 November 2010. It was the 50th edition of the championships.
• C. Toronto in Canada: The 2015 ISSF World Shooting Championships were held in Toronto, Canada from 28 August to 11 September 2015. It was the 53rd edition of the championships.
• D. Moscow in Russia: The 2016 ISSF World Shooting Championships were held in Moscow, Russia from 6 to 15 October 2016. It was the 54th edition of the championships.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

If the prices increase by 100% over the previous year and GNP is constant, it means that we cannot determine whether production has increased, decreased, or stayed the same. This is because GNP is a measure of the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a country in a given year, while prices are a measure of the average level of prices of goods and services in a country in a given year. Therefore, if prices increase by 100%, it could mean that production has increased, but prices have also increased, so the total value of production may not have changed. Alternatively, it could mean that production has decreased, but prices have also decreased, so the total value of production may not have changed. Or, it could mean that production has stayed the same, but prices have increased.

To determine whether production has increased, decreased, or stayed the same, we would need to know more information, such as the quantity of goods and services produced.

The correct answer is B. Thyroxin.

Thyroxin is a thyroid hormone that regulates carbohydrate metabolism. It is produced by the thyroid gland and is essential for normal growth and development. Thyroxin helps to regulate the body's metabolism by increasing the rate at which cells use oxygen and glucose. This helps to increase the production of energy and the breakdown of carbohydrates. Thyroxin also helps to regulate the body's temperature and heart rate.

Parathyroid hormone is a hormone that regulates calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood. It is produced by the parathyroid glands, which are four small glands located in the neck. Parathyroid hormone helps to maintain a healthy balance of calcium and phosphorus in the blood by increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines and the release of calcium from the bones. Parathyroid hormone also helps to increase the excretion of phosphorus in the urine.

Estrogen is a hormone that is produced by the ovaries. It is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, such as the growth of breasts and the development of a feminine body shape. Estrogen also plays a role in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and in the maintenance of pregnancy.

Parathyroid hormone and estrogen do not regulate carbohydrate metabolism.

The correct answer is A) Panchayati Raj and urban local bodies.

The 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Constitution of India were enacted in 1992. The 73rd Amendment deals with Panchayati Raj institutions, while the 74th Amendment deals with urban local bodies.

Panchayati Raj institutions are local self-government institutions at the village, intermediate and district levels. They are responsible for a wide range of functions, including agriculture, rural development, education, health, and sanitation.

Urban local bodies are local self-government institutions at the municipal, corporation and town council levels. They are responsible for a wide range of functions, including water supply, sanitation, roads, and parks.

Land reforms are changes in the legal system that are intended to improve the status of landless people and to redistribute land more equitably.

Labour laws are laws that regulate the relationship between employers and employees. They cover issues such as wages, working hours, and safety.

Environmental protection is the prevention of damage to the environment. It includes measures to reduce pollution, conserve natural resources, and protect wildlife.

The correct answer is: D. generous

A miser is a person who is extremely unwilling to spend money or give away possessions. A generous person is one who is willing to give or spend freely, especially on others.

The other options are not antonyms of miserly.

A liberal person is one who is open to new ideas and experiences, and who is tolerant of others' opinions. A spendthrift is a person who spends money carelessly or wastefully. A charitable person is one who is generous in giving to others, especially to those in need.

Here are some examples of miserly behavior:

• A miser might hoard money and possessions, and never spend anything unless absolutely necessary.
• A miser might be reluctant to give gifts or help others in need.
• A miser might be very careful with money, and always try to get the best deal possible.

Here are some examples of generous behavior:

• A generous person might give money to charity, or help others in need.
• A generous person might give gifts to friends and family, even if they can't afford it.
• A generous person might be willing to share their possessions with others.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: C. Mortar

Mortar is a thick paste of cement, sand, and water used to bind masonry units together. It is also used to fill in gaps between masonry units and to provide a smooth surface for plaster or tile.

Concrete is a mixture of cement, sand, gravel, and water that is used to create structures such as buildings, roads, and bridges. It is a strong and durable material that can withstand a variety of weather conditions.

RCC is a reinforced concrete structure that is made by adding steel reinforcement bars to concrete. The steel reinforcement bars help to strengthen the concrete and make it more resistant to cracking.

Kiln is a furnace used to heat materials to high temperatures. It is used in a variety of industries, including ceramics, glassmaking, and metalworking.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "A thick paste of cement, sand and water is called" is C. Mortar.

The correct answer is: **A) 1973**

The West Bengal Panchayat Act, 1973 is an Act of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly to provide for the establishment of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels in the State of West Bengal. It was enacted on 25th August, 1973.

The Act provides for the constitution of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. The Panchayats are to be elected by the people of the respective areas. The Act also provides for the functions and powers of the Panchayats.

The Act has been amended several times since its enactment. The most recent amendment was made in 2013.

The following are the options for the question:

* A) 1973
* B) 1985
* C) 1994
* D) 2003

Option A is the correct answer. The West Bengal Panchayat Act was enacted in 1973.

Option B is incorrect. The West Bengal Panchayat Act was not enacted in 1985.

Option C is incorrect. The West Bengal Panchayat Act was not enacted in 1994.

Option D is incorrect. The West Bengal Panchayat Act was not enacted in 2003.

The correct answer is C. Rationality.

Revealed preference analysis is a method of economic analysis that uses observed market data to infer the preferences of consumers. The basic idea is that if a consumer chooses to buy good A instead of good B, then they must prefer good A to good B. This assumption is known as weak ordering.

The other three assumptions are all necessary for revealed preference analysis to be valid. Consistency means that if a consumer chooses to buy good A instead of good B, and then chooses to buy good B instead of good C, then they must also prefer good A to good C. Transitivity means that if a consumer prefers good A to good B, and they also prefer good B to good C, then they must prefer good A to good C. Rationality means that a consumer will always choose the option that they prefer the most.

However, it is possible for a consumer to violate the rationality assumption without violating the other assumptions. For example, a consumer might choose to buy a good that they know is not the best option for them, simply because they are in a hurry or they do not have all the information. In this case, the consumer is still behaving in a consistent and transitive way, but they are not behaving rationally.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Rationality.

The correct answer is: A. a

The word "a" is used before singular nouns that do not begin with a vowel sound. In this case, the noun is "beaver," which begins with a consonant sound. Therefore, the correct article to use is "a."

The word "an" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound. In this case, the noun is "beaver," which does not begin with a vowel sound. Therefore, the correct article to use is not "an."

The word "the" is used before singular nouns that are specific or unique. In this case, the noun is "beaver," which is not specific or unique. Therefore, the correct article to use is not "the."

The answer "None of these" is incorrect because it does not include the correct article, which is "a."

Jalpesh Mela is held in the month of February-March on the occasion of Shivratri in Maniaguri town of Jalpaiguri district.

The correct answer is (b), The English.

The English East India Company was the first European trading company to establish a factory at Surat in 1612. The company was founded in 1600 by a group of London merchants who were granted a royal charter by Queen Elizabeth I. The company's goal was to trade with India and other parts of Asia.

The English East India Company established its first factory at Surat in 1612. Surat was a major port city on the west coast of India. The company's factory at Surat was a success, and the company soon established other factories in other parts of India.

The English East India Company played a major role in the development of British India. The company's factories became centers of trade and commerce, and the company's employees helped to spread British culture and values in India.

The English East India Company was dissolved in 1874. However, its legacy continues to be felt in India today. The company's factories were the foundation of many of India's modern cities, and the company's employees helped to shape the country's culture and history.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) The Dutch East India Company was founded in 1602. The company established its first factory in India at Pulicat in 1610.

(c) The French East India Company was founded in 1664. The company established its first factory in India at Surat in 1668.

(d) The Portuguese East India Company was founded in 1500. The company established its first factory in India at Cochin in 1502.

The correct answer is (b), Sonara-64.

Sonara-64 is a high-yielding semi-dwarf wheat variety that was developed in India in the 1960s. It was the first wheat variety to be developed through induced mutation, a process in which a plant's genetic material is altered using radiation or chemicals. Sonara-64 was a major breakthrough in the Green Revolution, which helped to increase agricultural production in India and other developing countries.

Kalyan Sona is another high-yielding wheat variety that was developed in India in the 1960s. However, it was not developed through induced mutation. Sharbati Sonara is a hybrid wheat variety that was developed in India in the 1980s. It is a cross between Sonara-64 and another wheat variety called Sharbati Sonora. Sonalika is a high-yielding wheat variety that was developed in India in the 1990s. It is not a hybrid variety.

Induced mutation is a process in which a plant's genetic material is altered using radiation or chemicals. This can be done to create new varieties of plants with desirable traits, such as resistance to pests or diseases. Induced mutation is a powerful tool that has been used to develop many important crops, including wheat.

The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural development that began in the 1940s and 1950s. It was a time of rapid technological and scientific advancement in agriculture, which led to increased crop yields and improved food security. The Green Revolution was a major success, and it helped to lift millions of people out of poverty.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is A. Remain in the car.

If you are caught in a thunderstorm while driving, the safest place to be is in your car. The metal frame of the car will act as a Faraday cage, protecting you from the lightning strike. If you can, pull over to the side of the road and stop. If you cannot pull over, stay in the car and keep your hands off of the steering wheel and any metal objects.

Option B is incorrect because getting out of the car will put you at risk of being struck by lightning. Lightning is attracted to tall objects, and you will be the tallest object if you are standing outside of the car.

Option C is incorrect because taking shelter under a nearby tree will also put you at risk of being struck by lightning. Trees are tall objects that are easily attracted to lightning.

Option D is incorrect because touching an electric pole will also put you at risk of being struck by lightning. Electric poles are made of metal, which is a conductor of electricity. If you touch an electric pole during a thunderstorm, you will be a path for the lightning to travel to the ground.

The correct answer is A) Lalon Geeti.

Lalon Geeti is a genre of Bengali folk songs composed by the mystic poet Lalon Fakir. The songs are characterized by their simple language, directness, and spiritual themes. They often deal with issues of social justice, equality, and religious tolerance.

Shyama Sangeet is a genre of Bengali devotional music that is sung in praise of the Hindu goddess Kali. The songs are typically very emotional and often feature complex melodies and rhythms.

Tusu is a folk song tradition that is popular in the Indian state of West Bengal. The songs are sung during the Tusu festival, which is a time to celebrate the harvest and to pray for a good harvest in the coming year. The songs are often about the hardships of rural life and the importance of community.

Bhatiali is a folk song tradition that is popular in the Indian state of Assam. The songs are typically sung in a call-and-response style and often deal with themes of love, loss, and separation.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D. Abundant food production.

The other options are all major challenges to food security in West Bengal.

* Climate change and natural disasters can damage crops and infrastructure, making it difficult to produce and distribute food.
* Land fragmentation can make it difficult to farm efficiently and can lead to soil erosion.
* Low agricultural productivity can mean that there is not enough food to meet the needs of the population.

Abundant food production is not a major challenge to food security in West Bengal. In fact, West Bengal is a net exporter of food. However, the other challenges mentioned above can still make it difficult for people in West Bengal to access food.

The correct answer is (c) 60%.

Road transport is the most important mode of transport in India, accounting for 60% of the total transport. This is due to a number of factors, including the country's large population, its vast geographical area, and the relatively low cost of road transport.

Road transport is also the most convenient mode of transport in India, as it provides access to even the remotest parts of the country. It is also the most flexible mode of transport, as it can be used to carry both passengers and goods.

However, road transport also has a number of disadvantages. It is a major source of air pollution, and it is also a major contributor to traffic congestion. In addition, road accidents are a major cause of death and injury in India.

Despite its disadvantages, road transport is likely to remain the most important mode of transport in India for the foreseeable future. This is due to the country's rapid economic growth, which is leading to an increase in the demand for transportation services. In addition, the government is investing heavily in road infrastructure, which is making road transport more efficient and affordable.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the actual share of road transport in total transport of India. Option (a) is incorrect because it is too high. Option (b) is incorrect because it is too low. Option (d) is incorrect because it is not a realistic estimate.

The correct answer is: C. Reciprocating.

A reciprocating compressor is a type of compressor that uses pistons to move a fluid. It is the most common type of compressor used in air conditioners. Reciprocating compressors are typically used in small to medium-sized air conditioners. They are also used in some large air conditioners, but they are not as common as centrifugal compressors in large air conditioners.

A centrifugal compressor is a type of compressor that uses a rotating impeller to move a fluid. It is the most common type of compressor used in large air conditioners. Centrifugal compressors are also used in some small to medium-sized air conditioners, but they are not as common as reciprocating compressors in small to medium-sized air conditioners.

A rotary compressor is a type of compressor that uses a rotating screw or scroll to move a fluid. It is a relatively new type of compressor that is becoming more popular in air conditioners. Rotary compressors are typically used in small to medium-sized air conditioners.

An axial compressor is a type of compressor that uses a rotating fan to move a fluid. It is not commonly used in air conditioners. Axial compressors are typically used in large industrial applications.

Here is a table that summarizes the key differences between the four types of compressors:

| Compressor type | Working principle | Applications |
| --- | --- | --- |
| Reciprocating | Uses pistons to move a fluid | Small to medium-sized air conditioners |
| Centrifugal | Uses a rotating impeller to move a fluid | Large air conditioners |
| Rotary | Uses a rotating screw or scroll to move a fluid | Small to medium-sized air conditioners |
| Axial | Uses a rotating fan to move a fluid | Large industrial applications |

The correct answer is C. The moon's gravity is about 1/6th of the Earth's gravity. This means that if you weigh 100 pounds on Earth, you would weigh about 16.6 pounds on the moon. The moon's gravity is weaker because it is smaller than the Earth. The force of gravity is proportional to the mass of the object and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the objects. The moon is much smaller than the Earth, so its mass is much less. The distance between the Earth and the moon is also much greater than the distance between the Earth and any point on its surface. This means that the force of gravity from the moon is much weaker than the force of gravity from the Earth.

Option A is incorrect because the moon's gravity is not 1/4th of the Earth's gravity. Option B is incorrect because the moon's gravity is not 1/5th of the Earth's gravity. Option D is incorrect because the moon's gravity is not 1/8th of the Earth's gravity.

The correct answer is: B. Andal was a woman Nayanar, she incorporated the prevailing caste system in the society.

Andal was a woman Alvar, a Tamil poet-saint who lived in the 7th century CE. She is one of the 12 Alvars, a group of Tamil saints who were devoted to Vishnu. Andal's compositions are widely sung and continue to be sung to date. She is considered to be one of the most important figures in Tamil literature and religion.

Andal was born into a Brahmin family in Srivilliputhur, Tamil Nadu, India. She is said to have been a precocious child who showed an early interest in religion. When she was seven years old, she is said to have had a vision of Vishnu, who told her that she was his bride. Andal then renounced her worldly life and became a devotee of Vishnu.

Andal's compositions are known for their beauty and their expression of love for Vishnu. She is often referred to as the "Embodiment of Love" or the "Mother of Love." Her most famous composition is the Tiruppavai, a 300-verse poem that is recited by devotees of Vishnu during the month of Margazhi.

Andal is an important figure in Tamil literature and religion. She is considered to be one of the 12 Alvars, a group of Tamil saints who were devoted to Vishnu. Her compositions are widely sung and continue to be sung to date. She is also considered to be a role model for women in Hinduism.

The statement "Andal was a woman Nayanar, she incorporated the prevailing caste system in the society" is not correct. Andal was a woman Alvar, not a Nayanar. The Nayanars were a group of Tamil saints who were devoted to Shiva. The Alvars were a group of Tamil saints who were devoted to Vishnu. Andal's compositions do not reflect the prevailing caste system in the society. In fact, her compositions often express her love for all people, regardless of their caste.

The correct answer is: Only I is implicit.

The statement says that the session on 'Management of Service Sector in India' surprisingly attracted a large number of participants and also received a very good media coverage. This suggests that people were not expecting such an encouraging response for the service sector. This is supported by the fact that the session was "surprising".

The statement does not provide any information about whether the service sector is managed properly in India or whether the media is always very positive towards the service sector. Therefore, assumptions II and III are not implicit.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: None is implicit. This is not the correct answer because assumption I is implicit.
• Option B: Only I is implicit. This is the correct answer.
• Option C: All are implicit. This is not the correct answer because assumptions II and III are not implicit.
• Option D: Only II and III are implicit. This is not the correct answer because assumption I is implicit.
• Option E: Only either I or III is implicit. This is not the correct answer because assumption I is implicit.

The correct answer is: A. Concave mirror

A concave mirror is a curved mirror that bulges inward at the center. The reflecting surface is on the inside of the curve. Concave mirrors can be used to create real or virtual images, and they can also be used to magnify or reduce objects.

When you look into a concave mirror, you will see an image of yourself that is smaller than you are. This is because the concave mirror reflects light rays in such a way that they converge in front of the mirror. The image is virtual, upright, and smaller than the object.

A convex mirror is a curved mirror that bulges outward at the center. The reflecting surface is on the outside of the curve. Convex mirrors always produce virtual images that are upright and smaller than the object.

A plano-concave mirror is a combination of a flat mirror and a concave mirror. The flat mirror is on one side of the mirror, and the concave mirror is on the other side. The reflecting surface of the concave mirror is on the inside of the curve. Plano-concave mirrors always produce virtual images that are upright and smaller than the object.

A plane mirror is a flat mirror. Plane mirrors always produce virtual images that are upright and the same size as the object.

The correct answer is (b).

The Gaura Devi Yojana is a scheme started by the Uttarakhand government in 2013 for women empowerment. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to women for setting up their own businesses. The scheme also provides training and support to women entrepreneurs.

The Ananya Yojana is a scheme started by the Uttarakhand government in 2011 for the welfare of girls. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to girls for their education and marriage. The scheme also provides free medical care and other benefits to girls.

The Nirbhaya Yojana is a scheme started by the central government in 2012 for the safety of women. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to women who are victims of violence. The scheme also provides training and support to women to help them fight against violence.

The Gaura Devi Yojana is the most relevant scheme to the question as it is a scheme specifically for women empowerment. The Ananya Yojana and the Nirbhaya Yojana are also important schemes, but they are not specifically for women empowerment.

The correct answer is: He goes to school at 7:30 and comes back at 2 o'clock.

The hint "It happens regularly" tells us that this is a habitual action, which means that it happens on a regular basis. The only option that expresses a habitual action is "goes/comes back."

The other options are not correct because they do not express a habitual action.

• "Went/is coming back" expresses a past action that is still happening in the present. This is not the case in the given sentence, which tells us that the person goes to school and comes back at a specific time every day.
• "Go/come back" expresses a general action that can happen at any time. This is not the case in the given sentence, which tells us that the person goes to school and comes back at a specific time every day.
• "Was going/has come back" expresses a past action that has been completed. This is not the case in the given sentence, which tells us that the person goes to school and comes back at a specific time every day.

The odd word in the given list is "again". The other words, "before", "now", "after", and "then", are all words that can be used to describe time. "Again" is not a word that can be used to describe time. It is a word that means "once more" or "repeatedly".

Here are some examples of how the other words can be used to describe time:

• Before: I went to the store before I went home.
• Now: I am at home now.
• After: I will go to the park after I eat dinner.
• Then: I went to the store, and then I went home.

The correct answer is: B. The employer told the workman that he could not pay him higher wages.

The employer is the one who is paying the workman, so it makes sense that he would be the one to tell the workman whether or not he can be paid higher wages. The employer is also the one who has the authority to make this decision, so his word is final.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationship between the employer and the workman. Option A is incorrect because it implies that the workman is the one who is deciding whether or not he can be paid higher wages. Option C is incorrect because it implies that the employer is forbidding the workman from paying higher wages. Option D is incorrect because it implies that the employer is warning the workman that he cannot pay him higher wages.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. The employer told the workman that he could not pay him higher wages.

The correct answer is A. V.A. Smith.

V.A. Smith was a British historian who specialized in Indian history. He was the author of several books on the subject, including "Early History of India" (1904).

Rakhal Das Banerjee was an Indian historian who specialized in the history of Bengal. He was the author of several books on the subject, including "The History of Bengal" (1881).

R. K. Mehta was an Indian historian who specialized in the history of Gujarat. He was the author of several books on the subject, including "The History of Gujarat" (1963).

None of these historians wrote a book titled "Early History of India" in 1904.

The correct answer is A. a.

An LLB (Legum Baccalaureus) is a first professional law degree that is awarded by universities in many common law jurisdictions. It is the first of two degrees required to become a lawyer in most jurisdictions. The second degree is a postgraduate law degree, such as a Juris Doctor (JD) or Bachelor of Civil Law (BCL).

The word "a" is used before a singular noun that is not specific. In this case, the noun is "LLB degree". The LLB degree is a general degree that can be awarded by any university that offers a law program. Therefore, it is not specific to any particular university or program.

The words "an" and "the" are used before singular nouns that are specific. For example, if the question was "She graduated with an LLB degree from Harvard University", then the answer would be "an". This is because the LLB degree from Harvard University is a specific degree that is awarded by a specific university.

The word "none of these" is not the correct answer because it does not refer to any of the options.

The correct answer is D. Abundant rainfall is not a major agricultural problem in West Bengal. In fact, it is one of the factors that makes West Bengal a major agricultural producer. The state receives an average rainfall of 1,500 mm per year, which is more than enough for most crops. However, the state does face some challenges in terms of agricultural production, such as fragmentation of landholdings, lack of irrigation facilities, and soil erosion.

Fragmentation of landholdings refers to the division of land into small, often non-contiguous plots. This can make it difficult to farm efficiently, as it can be time-consuming and expensive to move equipment and supplies from one plot to another. It can also make it difficult to get access to credit and other forms of support from the government or banks.

Lack of irrigation facilities can be a major problem in areas that receive low rainfall. In West Bengal, about 60% of the land is irrigated, but this varies from district to district. In some districts, such as Purulia and Bankura, less than 20% of the land is irrigated. This can limit the types of crops that can be grown and the yields that can be obtained.

Soil erosion is the removal of soil from the land by wind or water. It can be a major problem in areas with steep slopes or heavy rainfall. In West Bengal, about 15% of the land is affected by soil erosion. This can reduce the productivity of the land and make it more difficult to grow crops.

Despite these challenges, West Bengal is a major agricultural producer. The state is the second largest producer of rice in India, and it also produces significant amounts of wheat, pulses, and vegetables. The state's agricultural sector employs about 40% of the workforce, and it contributes about 20% to the state's GDP.

The correct answer is (a) Sugar.

The sugar sector has seen a high rate of growth in its cooperative units in recent years. This is due to a number of factors, including the government's focus on promoting cooperatives, the increasing demand for sugar, and the relatively low cost of production in the sugar sector.

Cooperatives are owned and run by their members, and they are often more efficient than traditional businesses. This is because they are able to pool resources and share costs. Cooperatives are also more responsive to the needs of their members, and they are often more willing to take risks.

The demand for sugar is increasing due to the growing population and the increasing popularity of sweet foods. The cost of production in the sugar sector is relatively low, which makes it an attractive investment for cooperatives.

The government has been promoting cooperatives in recent years, and this has helped to boost the growth of the sugar sector. The government has provided financial assistance to cooperatives, and it has also provided training and support.

The sugar sector is a major contributor to the Indian economy. It employs millions of people, and it generates billions of dollars in revenue each year. The growth of the sugar sector is good news for the Indian economy, and it is also good news for the millions of people who depend on the sugar sector for their livelihoods.

The other options are not correct because they have not seen the same level of growth as the sugar sector. The cotton textile sector has been struggling in recent years due to the competition from China. The jute sector has also been struggling due to the competition from other countries, such as Bangladesh. The cement sector has seen some growth, but it has not been as high as the growth in the sugar sector.

The correct answer is C. Review of constitutional validity of laws.

Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional. This power is not explicitly granted to the courts in the Constitution, but it has been inferred from the Supreme Court's power to decide cases that come before it.

The Supreme Court first exercised its power of judicial review in the case of Marbury v. Madison (1803). In that case, the Court declared that a law passed by Congress was unconstitutional. This decision established the principle that the Supreme Court has the power to strike down laws that it deems to be in violation of the Constitution.

Judicial review is an important power that helps to ensure that the government does not violate the rights of the people. It is also a power that can be abused, and it is important for the courts to exercise this power with caution.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Review of its own verdict. This is not what judicial review means. Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional, not to review their own verdicts.
• Option B: Review of the functioning of judiciary in country. This is also not what judicial review means. Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional, not to review the functioning of the judiciary.
• Option C: Review of constitutional validity of laws. This is what judicial review means. Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional.
• Option D: Timely review of constitution. This is not what judicial review means. Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional, not to review the constitution.

The correct answer is: A) Princely state.

Cooch Behar was a princely state in British India. It was founded in the 16th century by Koch Rajbongshi king Nara Narayan. The state was ruled by the Koch dynasty until 1949, when it merged with India.

The other options are incorrect. British colony is incorrect because Cooch Behar was never a British colony. Mughal province is incorrect because Cooch Behar was never a Mughal province. Independent kingdom is incorrect because Cooch Behar was a princely state, which is a type of state that was subordinate to the British Crown.

The correct answer is: B. Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual workers

The Consumers Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. The CPI is used to track inflation and to adjust wages, salaries, and pensions.

The CPI for urban non-manual workers is the most widely used measure of inflation in India. It is compiled by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and is based on a survey of prices of goods and services purchased by urban households.

The CPI for agricultural workers is a measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by agricultural households for a market basket of consumer goods and services. The CPI for agricultural workers is compiled by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and is based on a survey of prices of goods and services purchased by agricultural households.

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the average change over time in the prices received by domestic producers for their output. The WPI is compiled by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is based on a survey of prices of goods and services sold by domestic producers.

The National Income Deflation is a measure of the rate of decrease in the prices of goods and services produced in the economy. The National Income Deflation is calculated by the Central Statistical Organisation and is based on a survey of prices of goods and services produced in the economy.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual workers.

The correct answer is (c) Nigeria.

Nigeria is the most populous country in Africa, with a population of over 200 million people. It is a federal republic consisting of 36 states and the Federal Capital Territory. The capital city is Abuja.

Egypt is the second most populous country in Africa, with a population of over 100 million people. It is a republic with a presidential system of government. The capital city is Cairo.

Ethiopia is the third most populous country in Africa, with a population of over 100 million people. It is a federal republic consisting of 9 states and 2 city administrations. The capital city is Addis Ababa.

South Africa is the fourth most populous country in Africa, with a population of over 50 million people. It is a constitutional republic consisting of 9 provinces. The capital city is Pretoria.

The correct answer is D. dispersion of light.

When sunlight reaches the Earth's atmosphere, it is scattered in all directions by all the gases and particles in the air. Blue light is scattered more than the other colors because it travels as shorter, smaller waves. This is why we see a blue sky most of the time.

Reflection is the bouncing of light off a surface. Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another. Diffraction is the bending of light as it passes through a narrow opening or around an object.

The other options are incorrect because they do not explain why the sky looks blue.

The correct answer is B. Melting point.

A fuse wire is a safety device that is used to protect electrical appliances from damage caused by an overload of current. The fuse wire is made of a metal with a low melting point, so that it will melt and break the circuit if the current becomes too high. This prevents the appliance from overheating and catching fire.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Resistance: A metal with a low resistance would allow more current to flow, which would increase the risk of an overload.
• Specific gravity: The specific gravity of a metal is its density relative to water. This has no effect on its melting point.
• Conductance: The conductance of a metal is its ability to conduct electricity. This has no effect on its melting point.

The correct answer is B. Frank.

An ingenuous person is honest and straightforward, without trying to deceive or manipulate others. They are often seen as naive or innocent, but they are also genuine and trustworthy.

A cunning person is clever and resourceful, but they may also be deceitful and manipulative. They are often good at getting what they want, but they may not always be honest or fair in their methods.

A courteous person is polite and respectful, even to people they do not know or like. They are often good at making others feel comfortable and at ease.

A clever person is intelligent and quick-witted, and they may be good at solving problems or coming up with new ideas. However, they may not always be honest or straightforward in their methods.

In conclusion, the correct answer is B. Frank. An ingenuous person is honest and straightforward, without trying to deceive or manipulate others.

The answer is B, quay. A quay is a structure alongside a body of water, such as a river or harbor, that is used for loading and unloading ships. The other options are all parts of a ship.

• A deck is the main horizontal surface of a ship.
• The stern is the rear end of a ship.
• The bow is the front end of a ship.
• A mast is a tall, vertical pole that supports the sails of a ship.

The correct answer is B. democracy.

A totalitarian regime is a form of government in which the state holds total authority over the society and seeks to control all aspects of public and private life. This is often achieved through the use of violence, censorship, and propaganda.

Democracy, on the other hand, is a form of government in which the people hold power. This is typically achieved through a system of elected representatives who make decisions on behalf of the people.

The overthrow of a totalitarian regime by the people is truly the triumph of democracy because it represents the people taking back control of their own lives. It is a victory for freedom and human rights.

Imperialism is a policy of extending a country's power and influence through colonization, use of military force, or other means. Dictatorship is a form of government in which one person or a small group holds absolute power. Communism is a political and economic system that seeks to create a classless society in which the major means of production, such as mines and factories, are owned and controlled by the public.

While imperialism, dictatorship, and communism may all be forms of government that are opposed to democracy, they are not the same as democracy. Democracy is a specific form of government that is based on the principle of popular sovereignty, or the idea that the people are the source of all political power.

The answer is C. Epigraphy.

Archaeology is the study of human history through the excavation of material remains. Ecology is the study of the relationship between organisms and their environment. Palaeontology is the study of fossils. Epigraphy is the study of inscriptions.

The other three options are all sciences that study the natural world, while epigraphy is a humanities discipline that studies human history.

The correct answer is: A. Decade to Roll Back Malaria in Developing Countries, Particularly in Africa

The United Nations declared 2003-2012 as the International Decade to Roll Back Malaria in Developing Countries, Particularly in Africa. The goal of the decade was to reduce malaria deaths by 50% and malaria cases by 75% by 2015. The decade was a success, with malaria deaths declining by 60% and malaria cases declining by 50% between 2000 and 2015.

The other options are incorrect. Option B is incorrect because the First International Decade of the World's Indigenous People was 1995-2004. Option C is incorrect because the First United Nations Decade for the Eradication of Poverty was 1990-1999. Option D is incorrect because the United Nations Literacy Decade was 1990-1999.

The correct answer is (b), Pithoragarh.

The Van Raji are a tribal people found in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. They are a small community, with a population of around 10,000 people. The Van Raji are a forest-dwelling people, and their traditional way of life is based on hunting, gathering, and shifting cultivation. They are a very traditional people, and their culture is closely tied to the forest.

The Van Raji are found in the districts of Pithoragarh, Champawat, and Bageshwar. The largest concentration of Van Raji is in the Pithoragarh district. The Van Raji are a very shy and reclusive people, and they have traditionally avoided contact with outsiders. However, in recent years, they have become more open to contact with outsiders, and there has been a growing interest in their culture and way of life.

The Van Raji are a very interesting and unique people, and their culture is a valuable part of the Kumaon region. It is important to respect their traditional way of life, and to help them to preserve their culture.

Option (a), Champawat, is incorrect because the Van Raji are not found in the Champawat district. The Champawat district is located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. The population of the Champawat district is around 400,000 people. The main languages spoken in the Champawat district are Kumaoni and Hindi. The main religion practiced in the Champawat district is Hinduism.

Option (c), Bageshwar, is incorrect because the Van Raji are not found in the Bageshwar district. The Bageshwar district is located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. The population of the Bageshwar district is around 200,000 people. The main languages spoken in the Bageshwar district are Kumaoni and Hindi. The main religion practiced in the Bageshwar district is Hinduism.

Option (d), Uttarkashi, is incorrect because the Van Raji are not found in the Uttarkashi district. The Uttarkashi district is located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. The population of the Uttarkashi district is around 500,000 people. The main languages spoken in the Uttarkashi district are Garhwali and Hindi. The main religion practiced in the Uttarkashi district is Hinduism.

The correct answer is C. 7.35-7.45.

The pH scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. A pH of 7 is considered neutral, a pH below 7 is acidic, and a pH above 7 is alkaline. The pH of human blood is slightly alkaline, with a normal range of 7.35-7.45. This pH is important for maintaining the proper function of cells and tissues. If the pH of blood falls outside of this range, it can lead to serious health problems, such as acidosis or alkalosis.

Option A is incorrect because it is too acidic. A pH of 7.1-7.15 is considered acidic, and can lead to health problems such as acidosis.

Option B is incorrect because it is too alkaline. A pH of 7.45-7.55 is considered alkaline, and can lead to health problems such as alkalosis.

Option D is incorrect because it is too narrow. The normal range of pH for human blood is 7.35-7.45, so option D does not include the entire range.

The correct answer is: C. 11,000

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. A price elasticity of demand of -1.5 indicates that a 1% decrease in price will lead to a 1.5% increase in demand.

In this case, the business is planning to reduce the price of its product from Rs. 1 to Rs. 0.90. This is a 10% decrease in price. Assuming that the price elasticity of demand remains constant, we can expect demand to increase by 15%. This means that the business can now expect to sell 11,000 units of its product per month, up from 10,000 units per month before the price reduction.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 8,500. This is the number of units that the business would expect to sell if the price elasticity of demand were -2. A price elasticity of demand of -2 indicates that a 1% decrease in price will lead to a 2% increase in demand. In this case, the business would expect to sell 8,500 units of its product per month, down from 10,000 units per month before the price reduction.
• Option B: 10,500. This is the number of units that the business would expect to sell if the price elasticity of demand were -1. A price elasticity of demand of -1 indicates that a 1% decrease in price will lead to a 1% increase in demand. In this case, the business would expect to sell 10,500 units of its product per month, up from 10,000 units per month before the price reduction.
• Option C: 11,000. This is the correct answer. As explained above, the business can now expect to sell 11,000 units of its product per month, up from 10,000 units per month before the price reduction.
• Option D: 11,500. This is the number of units that the business would expect to sell if the price elasticity of demand were -0.5. A price elasticity of demand of -0.5 indicates that a 1% decrease in price will lead to a 0.5% increase in demand. In this case, the business would expect to sell 11,500 units of its product per month, up from 10,000 units per month before the price reduction.

The correct answer is: A. occasion.

An occasion is a special event or happening. In this case, the occasion is the carnival. The people attending the carnival looked gay and happy because they were enjoying themselves at the event.

The other options are:

• B. fair: a public gathering where entertainment, food, and goods are sold.
• C. function: a formal or official meeting or event.
• D. revelry: noisy and lively celebration.

None of these options are as specific as "occasion" in describing the event that the people are attending.

The correct answer is A) Steadily increasing.

West Bengal's HDI has been steadily increasing in recent years. In 2018, West Bengal's HDI was 0.644, which is higher than the national average of 0.632. This means that West Bengal is a medium human development country. West Bengal's HDI has been increasing steadily since 1990, when it was 0.452. This increase is due to a number of factors, including economic growth, improvements in education and health, and reductions in poverty.

The following are the brief descriptions of each option:

A) Steadily increasing: West Bengal's HDI has been steadily increasing in recent years.
B) Steadily decreasing: West Bengal's HDI has been steadily decreasing in recent years.
C) Fluctuating: West Bengal's HDI has been fluctuating in recent years.
D) Stagnant: West Bengal's HDI has been stagnant in recent years.

The correct answer is: D) Birbhum.

The Gambhira dance is a folk dance from the Indian state of West Bengal. It is often performed with masks and is associated with the worship of the goddess Kali. The dance is believed to have originated in the Birbhum district of West Bengal.

The dance is performed by a group of men and women who wear masks and costumes. The masks are usually made of wood or papier-mâché and depict various characters from Hindu mythology. The costumes are often colorful and elaborate.

The dance is performed in a circle, with the dancers moving in a clockwise direction. The dancers sing and clap their hands as they move. The dance is accompanied by music from drums, cymbals, and other instruments.

The Gambhira dance is a popular form of entertainment in West Bengal. It is performed at festivals and other special occasions. The dance is also performed as a form of worship.

Malda, Dinajpur, and Murshidabad are all districts in West Bengal. However, the Gambhira dance is not associated with any of these districts. It is only associated with the Birbhum district.

The first Bengali talkie Jamai Shashthi (a short film) was released on 11th April, 1931 at Crown Cinema Hall in Kolkata.

The correct answer is: D. the south-east asian region.

The south-east asian region is the largest fish exporting region in the world, accounting for 20% of global fish exports in 2020. The top five fish exporting countries in the region are Vietnam, Thailand, Indonesia, the Philippines, and Malaysia. These countries export a variety of fish products, including tuna, shrimp, tilapia, and catfish.

The north-east atlantic region is the second largest fish exporting region in the world, accounting for 15% of global fish exports in 2020. The top five fish exporting countries in the region are Norway, Iceland, Denmark, the Netherlands, and the United Kingdom. These countries export a variety of fish products, including salmon, cod, haddock, and herring.

The north-east pacific region is the third largest fish exporting region in the world, accounting for 13% of global fish exports in 2020. The top five fish exporting countries in the region are China, Japan, the United States, Canada, and South Korea. These countries export a variety of fish products, including tuna, salmon, shrimp, and crab.

The north-west pacific region is the fourth largest fish exporting region in the world, accounting for 12% of global fish exports in 2020. The top five fish exporting countries in the region are China, Japan, the United States, Canada, and South Korea. These countries export a variety of fish products, including tuna, salmon, shrimp, and crab.

The south-east asian region is the largest fish exporting region in the world because it has a long coastline and a large population. The region is also home to a number of important fish producing countries, such as Vietnam, Thailand, Indonesia, the Philippines, and Malaysia. These countries have developed strong fish processing and exporting industries.

The correct answer is: D. The Saluva, Tuluva and Aravidu

The Saluva dynasty was the first dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire. They ruled from 1336 to 1485. The founder of the Saluva dynasty was Harihara I. He was succeeded by his son Bukka Raya I. Bukka Raya I was succeeded by his son Harihara II. Harihara II was succeeded by his son Deva Raya I. Deva Raya I was succeeded by his son Krishna Deva Raya. Krishna Deva Raya was the most famous ruler of the Saluva dynasty. He was succeeded by his son Achyuta Raya. Achyuta Raya was succeeded by his son Sadasiva Raya. Sadasiva Raya was succeeded by his son Rama Raya. Rama Raya was the last ruler of the Saluva dynasty.

The Tuluva dynasty was the second dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire. They ruled from 1485 to 1505. The founder of the Tuluva dynasty was Narasimha Raya I. Narasimha Raya I was succeeded by his son Vira Narasimha Raya. Vira Narasimha Raya was succeeded by his son Krishnadeva Raya. Krishnadeva Raya was the most famous ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He was succeeded by his son Achyuta Raya. Achyuta Raya was succeeded by his son Sadasiva Raya. Sadasiva Raya was succeeded by his son Rama Raya. Rama Raya was the last ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.

The Aravidu dynasty was the third and last dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire. They ruled from 1505 to 1646. The founder of the Aravidu dynasty was Krishnadeva Raya's brother, Achyuta Raya. Achyuta Raya was succeeded by his son Sadasiva Raya. Sadasiva Raya was succeeded by his son Rama Raya. Rama Raya was the last ruler of the Aravidu dynasty.

The Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu dynasties were all important dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara Empire. They were all responsible for the empire's rise to power and its eventual decline.

The correct answer is C) Finance Minister.

The Finance Minister is the head of the finance ministry and is responsible for the preparation and presentation of the budget. The budget is a financial statement that outlines the government's revenue and expenditure for the coming year. It is presented to the Legislative Assembly by the Finance Minister, who is then responsible for defending it against any questions or criticisms from the members of the assembly.

The Chief Minister is the head of the government and is responsible for the overall policy direction of the state. The Governor is the head of state and is responsible for ensuring that the government acts in accordance with the Constitution. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is responsible for presiding over the proceedings of the assembly and ensuring that they are conducted in an orderly manner.

The Finance Minister is the most appropriate person to present the budget as they are the most knowledgeable about the state's finances and are able to explain the budget in a clear and concise manner. The Chief Minister and the Governor are also involved in the preparation of the budget, but they are not as directly involved in the day-to-day management of the state's finances as the Finance Minister. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is not involved in the preparation of the budget at all.

The correct answer is (a) Sattal, Nainital.

The Himalayan Spice Garden is a botanical garden located in Sattal, Nainital district, Uttarakhand, India. It was established in 1998 by the Forest Research Centre, Haldwani. The garden is spread over an area of 10 hectares and houses a collection of over 100 species of spices, herbs, and medicinal plants. The garden is open to the public and is a popular tourist destination.

The other options are incorrect because:

(b) Pathri, Haridwar is a village in Haridwar district, Uttarakhand, India. It is located on the banks of the Ganges River. The village is known for its temples and shrines.

(c) Sauni, Ranikhet is a village in Almora district, Uttarakhand, India. It is located in the Kumaon Himalayas. The village is known for its scenic beauty and its apple orchards.

(d) Vikasnagar, Dehradun is a town in Dehradun district, Uttarakhand, India. It is located on the banks of the Yamuna River. The town is known for its educational institutions and its industries.

The correct answer is D. financial institution.

ICICI is the name of a financial institution that is headquartered in Mumbai, India. It is one of the largest private sector banks in India and has a presence in over 18 countries. The bank offers a wide range of financial products and services, including retail banking, corporate banking, investment banking, and treasury services.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A chemical industry is a type of industry that produces chemicals.
• A bureau is a government office or department.
• A corporation is a legal entity that is separate from its owners.

The correct answer is (a) M.S. Swaminathan.

M.S. Swaminathan is an Indian agricultural scientist who is considered the father of modern agriculture in India. He is known for his work on the Green Revolution, which helped to increase agricultural production in India and other developing countries. He has also worked on issues such as food security, sustainable agriculture, and climate change.

Salim Ali was an Indian ornithologist who is considered the father of Indian ornithology. He is known for his work on the birds of India, and he is the author of several books on the subject. He also founded the Bombay Natural History Society, which is one of the leading ornithological organizations in India.

B.V. Rao was an Indian economist who is known for his work on agricultural economics. He is the author of several books on the subject, and he has also served as the chairman of the Agricultural Prices Commission of India.

N.S. Randhawa was an Indian civil servant who is known for his work on agriculture. He served as the first director of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, and he is also the author of several books on agriculture.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is (d).

A word is said to be symmetrical if it looks the same when reflected in a mirror. In other words, if you write the word on a piece of paper and then fold the paper in half so that the word lines up with itself, the two halves should be identical.

Of the four words given, only AMUMA is symmetrical. This is because all of the letters in AMUMA are the same, and they are all in the same order. When you reflect AMUMA in a mirror, the two halves of the word are identical.

The other three words are not symmetrical. In AXNXA, the X's are not in the same order on either side of the mirror. In CLOLC, the C's are not in the same order on either side of the mirror. And in AOMDE, the O's are not in the same order on either side of the mirror.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Per capita availibility of milk in West Bengal is 161 grams per day which is lower than the national availibility of 337 grams per day per person.

The correct answer is C. Outstanding performance in sports.

The Arjuna Award is the second highest sporting honour of India, awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize "outstanding performance in National and International sports". It is named after Arjuna, the Pandava prince from the Mahabharata who was a skilled archer.

The award was instituted in 1961 and is given annually to sportspersons who have excelled in their respective fields. The award consists of a bronze statuette of Arjuna, a scroll of honour, and a cash prize.

Some of the notable recipients of the Arjuna Award include Sachin Tendulkar, P. V. Sindhu, and Milkha Singh.

Option A is incorrect because the Kirti Chakra is awarded for exceptional service in emergency.

Option B is incorrect because the Ashoka Chakra is awarded for bravery on battlefield.

Option D is incorrect because the Magsaysay Award is awarded for exceptional service in slum dwellers.

The correct answer is (c) Narmada.

A rift valley is a long, narrow depression in the Earth's crust that is formed when two tectonic plates move apart. The Narmada River flows through a rift valley in central India. The rift valley is about 1,000 kilometers long and 50 kilometers wide. The Narmada River is the fifth-longest river in India. It originates in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh and flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. The Narmada River is a major source of irrigation and drinking water for millions of people in India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not flow through a rift valley. The Ganga River flows through the Ganges Plain, which is a floodplain. The Brahmaputra River flows through the Brahmaputra Valley, which is a valley formed by the Brahmaputra River. The Krishna River flows through the Deccan Plateau, which is a plateau in southern India.

The correct answer is: Only conclusion I follows.

The statement says that the government will review the present policy of the diesel price in view of further spurt in the international oil prices. This does not necessarily mean that the government will increase the price of the diesel. The government may also decide to keep the price unchanged or even reduce it. However, the statement does suggest that the government is considering the possibility of increasing the price of the diesel. Therefore, conclusion I follows. Conclusion II does not follow because the statement does not say anything about the government's decision.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: Only conclusion I follows. This is the correct answer. As explained above, conclusion I follows from the statement, but conclusion II does not.
• Option B: Only conclusion II follows. This is incorrect. Conclusion II does not follow from the statement.
• Option C: Either I or II follows. This is incorrect. Only conclusion I follows from the statement.
• Option D: Neither I nor II follows. This is incorrect. Conclusion I follows from the statement.
• Option E: Both I and II follow. This is incorrect. Only conclusion I follows from the statement.

The correct answer is (c) 2007.

RESIDEX is an index of residential prices in India. It was launched by the National Housing Bank (NHB) in 2007. The index is based on data collected from a sample of residential properties across the country. It is used to track the movement of residential prices and to provide a benchmark for the real estate sector.

The index is calculated on a monthly basis and is published on the NHB website. The index is a weighted average of the prices of residential properties in different cities and towns. The weights are based on the population of the city or town and the number of residential properties in the city or town.

The index is a useful tool for tracking the movement of residential prices in India. It can be used by home buyers, real estate developers, and investors to make informed decisions about the real estate market.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) 2001: This is incorrect because RESIDEX was launched in 2007.
(b) 2004: This is incorrect because RESIDEX was launched in 2007.
(d) 2008: This is incorrect because RESIDEX was launched in 2007.

The correct answer is (c) Twenty.

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 languages that have been given official status by the government of India. These languages are:

• Assamese
• Bengali
• Bodo
• Dogri
• Gujarati
• Hindi
• Kannada
• Kashmiri
• Konkani
• Maithili
• Malayalam
• Manipuri
• Marathi
• Nepali
• Oriya
• Punjabi
• Sanskrit
• Sindhi
• Tamil
• Telugu
• Urdu

The Eighth Schedule was added to the Constitution in 1950, and the list of languages has been amended several times since then. The most recent amendment was in 2004, when Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added to the list.

The Eighth Schedule languages are used in government and education in India, and they are also used in the media and in literature. The government of India provides financial assistance to the development of these languages, and it also provides training for teachers and other professionals who work with these languages.

The Eighth Schedule languages are an important part of the Indian cultural heritage, and they play a vital role in the lives of millions of Indians.

The correct answer is (c).

The average production of scooters by the company is 1000 scooters per year. In 2017, the company produced 1100 scooters, which is 100 more than the average. In 2015, the company produced 900 scooters, which is 100 less than the average. In 2016, the company produced 1200 scooters, which is 200 more than the average. In 2018, the company produced 800 scooters, which is 200 less than the average. Therefore, the production of Type-Q scooters in 2017 is closest to the average production of scooters by the company.

Here is a table showing the production of Type-Q scooters in each year:

Year | Production of Type-Q scooters
------- | --------
2015 | 900
2016 | 1200
2017 | 1100
2018 | 800

The answer is C. Kidnap.

The other four words (A. Assassinate, B. Kill, D. Stab, and E. Murder) all refer to the act of intentionally taking a human life. Kidnapping, on the other hand, is the act of taking someone away against their will, without their consent. It is a crime that can be committed for a variety of reasons, such as ransom, sexual assault, or forced labor.

Assassination is the act of killing a person, especially a public figure, for political or religious reasons. Murder is the unlawful killing of another human being with malice aforethought. Stab is a verb meaning to pierce or wound with a sharp object, such as a knife.

The correct answer is (c), Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).

SGSY was a self-employment program launched by the Government of India in 1999. It was aimed at providing employment opportunities to rural poor by promoting self-employment through the formation of self-help groups (SHGs). The scheme was reconstructed as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) in June 2011.

Grameen Rozgar Yojana (GRY) was a rural employment program launched by the Government of India in 1993. It was aimed at providing employment opportunities to rural poor through the creation of temporary manual work opportunities. The scheme was discontinued in 2007.

Prime Minister's Yojana (PM's Yojana) is a generic term used for a number of schemes launched by the Government of India. There is no specific scheme with this name that has been reconstructed as NRLM.

Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) was a training program launched by the Government of India in 1978. It was aimed at providing training to rural youth in various trades and skills so that they could become self-employed. The scheme was discontinued in 2000.

The correct answer is D. Ultra-violet radiation.

X-rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength shorter than that of visible light. They are used in medicine for imaging and in industry for welding and other applications. X-rays can damage DNA, which can lead to cancer.

Infrared rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength longer than that of visible light. They are used in heating, cooking, and remote sensing. Infrared rays can cause heat damage to skin and eyes.

Microwave radiation is a type of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength longer than that of infrared light. It is used in cooking, radar, and telecommunications. Microwave radiation can cause heating of tissues.

Ultraviolet radiation is a type of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength shorter than that of visible light. It is used in tanning beds, germicidal lamps, and lasers. Ultraviolet radiation can cause sunburn, skin cancer, and eye damage.

Of the options given, only ultraviolet radiation has the energy to damage DNA and kill bacteria.

The correct answer is: D. 31 May.

World No Tobacco Day is observed on 31 May every year. It is an annual observance that encourages a 24-hour cessation of tobacco use. The day is intended to draw attention to the harmful and deadly effects of tobacco use and to discourage the use of tobacco in any form.

The day was first observed in 1987, following the adoption of the World Health Organization's Framework Convention on Tobacco Control in 2003. The convention calls on all member states to implement a comprehensive tobacco control program, including measures to reduce tobacco use, protect people from secondhand smoke, and raise taxes on tobacco products.

Tobacco use is the leading cause of preventable death in the world. It is responsible for more than 7 million deaths each year, including more than 890,000 deaths from secondhand smoke exposure. Tobacco use is a major risk factor for a number of chronic diseases, including cancer, heart disease, stroke, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

World No Tobacco Day is an opportunity to raise awareness about the dangers of tobacco use and to encourage people to quit smoking. It is also a time to call on governments to take action to reduce tobacco use and protect people from secondhand smoke.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the dates on which World No Tobacco Day is observed.

The correct answer is (a) Council of State.

The Vice-President is the second-highest constitutional office in India, after the President. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament and the legislative assemblies of all the states. The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years.

The Vice-President can be removed from office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the members of that House and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. The resolution must be moved by a member of the Council of States and seconded by a member of the Lok Sabha.

The Council of State is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. It consists of 250 members, 12 nominated by the President and 238 elected by the members of the legislative assemblies of the states and the Union Territories.

The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. It consists of 543 members, directly elected by the people of India.

The Cabinet is the supreme decision-making body of the Government of India. It consists of the Prime Minister and the Ministers of the Union Government.

The Council of Ministers is the body of Ministers who are responsible to the Lok Sabha. It consists of the Prime Minister and the Ministers of the Union Government.

The Vice-President is not a member of the Cabinet or the Council of Ministers.

The odd word from the given alternatives is C. Stem.

• Deck is the main horizontal surface of a ship or boat, on which the crew live and work.
• Quay is a structure alongside a body of water, where ships can load and unload cargo.
• Bow is the front part of a ship or boat.

The stem is the vertical structure at the front of a ship or boat, which supports the masts and rigging. It is not a common word in everyday language, and is not as well-known as the other three words.

The correct answer is (b). Armed forces are not an essential element of a state in international law.

The Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States, which is a multilateral treaty adopted in 1933, sets out the four essential elements of a state in international law:

• a permanent population;
• a defined territory;
• a government;
• and the capacity to enter into relations with other states.

Armed forces are not explicitly mentioned in the Montevideo Convention, and there is no consensus among international lawyers on whether they are an essential element of statehood. Some argue that armed forces are necessary to protect a state's territory and population, while others argue that they are not essential if a state can otherwise defend itself.

In practice, there are a number of states that do not have armed forces, including Costa Rica, Iceland, and Mauritius. These states have been able to maintain their independence and sovereignty without armed forces, and they have been recognized as states by other states.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question "Which one of the following is not an essential elements of a State in international law?" is (b). Armed forces.

The correct answer is: C. 30000 deg Cent.

Lightning heats the surrounding air to temperatures of up to 30,000 degrees Celsius. This is hotter than the surface of the sun, which is about 5500 degrees Celsius. The high temperature of lightning causes the air to expand rapidly, which creates a shockwave that we hear as thunder.

Option A is incorrect because it is too low. The temperature of lightning is much higher than 300 degrees Celsius.

Option B is incorrect because it is too high. The temperature of lightning is not as high as 30,000 degrees Celsius.

Option D is incorrect because it is too high. The temperature of lightning is not as high as 300,000 degrees Celsius.

The correct answer is B. Diatomic.

Sulfur is a chemical element with the symbol S and atomic number 16. It is a non-metallic, multivalent, and lustrous pale yellow, odorless, tasteless, and very brittle chemical element. It occurs naturally in elemental form as the mineral sulfur, or as an impurity in other minerals, such as pyrite and cinnabar. Elemental sulfur is a bright yellow, crystalline solid at standard temperature and pressure. It is odorless and has a slightly bitter taste. Sulfur is a non-metal and is not very reactive. It is insoluble in water, but soluble in carbon disulfide. Sulfur is an important element in many compounds, including sulfuric acid, sulfur dioxide, and sulfurous acid. It is also used in the production of gunpowder, matches, and fireworks.

The atomicity of an element is the number of atoms that make up a molecule of that element. The atomicity of sulfur is 2, which means that a molecule of sulfur contains 2 atoms of sulfur. Sulfur is a diatomic element because it forms molecules with two atoms of sulfur. The two atoms of sulfur are held together by covalent bonds. Covalent bonds are strong bonds that form when atoms share electrons.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the atomicity of sulfur. Option A, polyatomic, is incorrect because sulfur is not a polyatomic element. A polyatomic element is an element that forms molecules with more than two atoms. Option C, monoatomic, is incorrect because sulfur is not a monoatomic element. A monoatomic element is an element that forms molecules with only one atom. Option D, triatomic, is incorrect because sulfur is not a triatomic element. A triatomic element is an element that forms molecules with three atoms.

The correct answer is (d) Wular.

Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. It is located in the Kashmir Valley, Jammu and Kashmir. The lake is a popular tourist destination and is known for its scenic beauty. It is also an important habitat for a variety of birds and animals.

Sambhar Lake is a saline lake located in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is the largest inland saline lake in India and the second largest in Asia. The lake is a popular tourist destination and is known for its salt production.

Puskar Lake is a sacred lake located in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is one of the five most sacred lakes in Hinduism. The lake is a popular tourist destination and is known for its religious significance.

Chilka Lake is a brackish lagoon located in the Indian state of Odisha. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second largest in Asia. The lake is a popular tourist destination and is known for its birdlife.

The correct answer is A) 1.6.

The total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates throughout her life. It is a more direct measure of the level of fertility than the crude birth rate, which is the number of births per 1,000 population in a given year.

The TFR in West Bengal as per the 2011 Census is 1.6. This means that, on average, a woman in West Bengal would have 1.6 children in her lifetime. This is below the replacement level of 2.1 children per woman, which is necessary to maintain a stable population. The low TFR in West Bengal is due to a number of factors, including increasing female education and employment, access to family planning services, and changing social norms about family size.

Option B, 1.8, is incorrect because the TFR in West Bengal is actually lower than this. Option C, 2.0, is incorrect because the TFR in West Bengal is actually lower than this. Option D, 2.2, is incorrect because the TFR in West Bengal is actually lower than this.

The correct answer is: C. Only II is implicit.

The statement "As our business is expanding, we need to appoint more staff" does not imply that the present staff is not competent. It is possible that the present staff is competent, but the company needs to expand its operations and therefore needs to hire more staff.

The statement also does not imply that suitable persons to be taken as staff will be available. It is possible that the company will not be able to find suitable persons to hire, in which case it may need to reconsider its expansion plans.

The only assumption that is implicit in the statement is that more staff will further expand the business. This is because the company is only planning to hire more staff if it believes that this will help it to expand its operations.

The other two assumptions are not implicit in the statement. The statement does not say anything about the competence of the present staff, and it does not say anything about the availability of suitable persons to be hired.

The correct answer is B. went.

The sentence is in the past tense, so the verb must be in the past tense as well. A, has gone, is in the present perfect tense, which is used to talk about actions that happened in the past but have a connection to the present. B, went, is in the simple past tense, which is used to talk about actions that happened at a specific time in the past. C, is going, is in the present progressive tense, which is used to talk about actions that are happening now or that will happen in the near future. D, will go, is in the future tense, which is used to talk about actions that will happen in the future.

In this case, the speaker is talking about an action that happened in the past, so the correct verb tense is the simple past tense.

The correct answer is: C. 1972

Pakistan joined the Commonwealth of Nations in 1947, shortly after its independence from British rule. However, in 1972, Pakistan withdrew from the Commonwealth in protest of the organization's recognition of Bangladesh, which had seceded from Pakistan in 1971. Pakistan rejoined the Commonwealth in 1989.

Option A is incorrect because Pakistan did not withdraw from the Commonwealth in 1978.

Option B is incorrect because Pakistan did not withdraw from the Commonwealth in 1975.

Option D is incorrect because Pakistan did not withdraw from the Commonwealth in 1982.

The correct answer is (a) Geneva.

The International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) is an independent non-governmental organization that promotes the rule of law and human rights. It was founded in Geneva, Switzerland, in 1952. The ICJ has a membership of over 60,000 lawyers and judges from over 100 countries. The ICJ's headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

The ICJ works to promote the rule of law and human rights through a variety of activities, including:

• Research and analysis of legal issues
• Advocacy and lobbying for legal reform
• Capacity building for lawyers and judges
• Education and outreach on legal issues

The ICJ is a leading voice for the rule of law and human rights. It has played a significant role in promoting these values around the world.

The other options are incorrect because the ICJ's headquarters is not located in those cities.

(b) Rome is the capital of Italy and the seat of the Catholic Church.

(c) Paris is the capital of France and a major center of culture, fashion, and tourism.

(d) London is the capital of the United Kingdom and a major financial center.

The correct answer is (c) Wheat.

Kalyana Sona is a variety of wheat that was developed in India in the 1960s. It is a high-yielding variety that is resistant to pests and diseases. It is a popular variety of wheat in India and is grown in many parts of the country.

Rice is a cereal grain that is widely grown and consumed in Asia. It is the staple food for over half of the world's population. Rice is a member of the grass family and is closely related to other cereals such as wheat and barley.

Maize is a cereal grain that is native to Central America. It is the second most important cereal crop in the world, after rice. Maize is a versatile crop that can be used to make a variety of products, including food, feed, and fuel.

Jowar is a cereal grain that is native to India. It is a member of the millet family and is closely related to other millets such as sorghum and pearl millet. Jowar is a staple food in many parts of India and is used to make a variety of dishes, including roti, chapati, and bhakri.

The correct answer is: A. Cinema projectors.

Carbon arc lamps are a type of electric arc lamp that uses two carbon electrodes to produce a bright light. They are commonly used in cinema projectors, where they provide a high-intensity light that is needed to project images onto a screen. Carbon arc lamps are also used in photography, welding, and other applications where a bright, intense light is needed.

Option B, photography, is incorrect because carbon arc lamps are not commonly used in photography. Modern photography uses electronic flash or continuous lighting sources that are more efficient and produce less heat than carbon arc lamps.

Option C, vehicles, is incorrect because carbon arc lamps are not commonly used in vehicles. Modern vehicles use headlights that are powered by incandescent bulbs, halogen bulbs, or light-emitting diodes (LEDs). These light sources are more efficient and produce less heat than carbon arc lamps.

Option D, domestic lighting, is incorrect because carbon arc lamps are not commonly used in domestic lighting. Modern domestic lighting uses incandescent bulbs, halogen bulbs, or LEDs. These light sources are more efficient and produce less heat than carbon arc lamps.

The Kangabati Reservoir Project was started in 1956 as a part of India's Second Five Year Plan. It provides water to 348,477 hectares of land in the districts of West and East Midnapore, Bakura and Hooghly. It is a 38 m high dam at Khatra town.

The Teesta river originates from the Zemu glacier of the Himalayas and is joined by the Lachin river at Tibet, Lochang river at Sikkim and Great Rangeet river at Darjeeling then it flows Southwards through Jalpaiguri and Coochbehar. Torsa river originates from the Chumbi valley in Tibet and flows into Bhutan. It enters India in Coochbehar district of West Bengal.

The correct answer is B. Talent: Education.

Water is necessary to quench thirst, food is necessary to satisfy hunger, and air is necessary to prevent suffocation. However, talent does not require education to be developed. Some people are born with natural talent in certain areas, such as music, art, or sports. While education can help to improve these talents, it is not necessary for them to exist in the first place.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Water: Thirst. Water is necessary to survive. When we are thirsty, our bodies send us signals that we need to drink something. Drinking water helps to replenish the fluids that we have lost through sweating, urination, and other bodily functions.
• Food: Hunger. Food is also necessary to survive. When we are hungry, our bodies send us signals that we need to eat something. Eating food provides our bodies with the energy that we need to function.
• Air: Suffocation. Air is also necessary to survive. When we are deprived of air, our bodies begin to suffocate. Suffocation can lead to brain damage and death.
• Talent: Education. Talent is a natural ability or aptitude for something. Education is the process of learning and acquiring knowledge. While education can help to improve talent, it is not necessary for talent to exist in the first place. Some people are born with natural talent in certain areas, such as music, art, or sports. While education can help to develop these talents, it is not necessary for them to exist in the first place.

The correct answer is D. Advisory Jurisdiction.

The President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice. This is called the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is the power to hear cases at the first instance. The Writ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is the power to issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, quo warranto, and prohibition. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is the power to hear appeals from the High Courts.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (a) 2005.

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) is a social security program in India that guarantees employment to rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work. It was launched in 2005 by the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government.

The act provides for 100 days of guaranteed employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The wages are paid at the minimum wage rate fixed by the government.

The act has been successful in providing employment to millions of rural people and has helped to reduce poverty and improve the quality of life in rural areas.

Option (b), 2000, is incorrect because the NREGA was launched in 2005.

Option (c), 1996, is incorrect because the NREGA was launched in 2005.

Option (d), 1992, is incorrect because the NREGA was launched in 2005.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

OPEC is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, founded in Baghdad on September 14, 1960, by the five founding members: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. The organization has since grown to include 13 member countries: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela.

OPEC's mission is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries and ensure the stabilization of oil markets in order to secure an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a fair return on the investment of its members and a steady income to the producing countries.

OPEC's headquarters are located in Vienna, Austria.

The correct answer is C. forever.

Option A is incorrect because it is possible to leave a country for better opportunities and then return. Option B is incorrect because it is possible to be on an important mission and then return. Option D is incorrect because it is possible to leave a country and then return.

The sentence "Govind has left his country for good" means that Govind has left his country and does not intend to return. This could be for a number of reasons, such as finding better opportunities in another country, or wanting to start a new life.

The correct answer is (a) Tabla.

Tabla is a pair of Indian drums that are played with the hands. It is one of the most important instruments in Indian classical music. The tabla is made up of two drums, the dayan and the bayan. The dayan is the smaller of the two drums and is played with the right hand. The bayan is the larger of the two drums and is played with the left hand. The tabla is played by striking the drumheads with the fingers and the palms of the hands. The tabla is a very versatile instrument and can be used to play a variety of music, from classical to folk to popular.

Sitar is a long-necked lute that is played with a plectrum. It is one of the most popular instruments in Indian classical music. The sitar is made up of a long neck, a gourd body, and a fretboard. The strings of the sitar are made of metal and are tuned to a variety of pitches. The sitar is played by plucking the strings with a plectrum. The sitar is a very versatile instrument and can be used to play a variety of music, from classical to folk to popular.

Veena is a stringed instrument that is played with the fingers. It is one of the oldest instruments in India. The veena is made up of a long neck, a gourd body, and a fretboard. The strings of the veena are made of metal and are tuned to a variety of pitches. The veena is played by plucking the strings with the fingers. The veena is a very versatile instrument and can be used to play a variety of music, from classical to folk to popular.

Banjo is a stringed instrument that is played with a plectrum. It is one of the most popular instruments in American folk music. The banjo is made up of a round body, a neck, and a fretboard. The strings of the banjo are made of metal and are tuned to a variety of pitches. The banjo is played by plucking the strings with a plectrum. The banjo is a very versatile instrument and can be used to play a variety of music, from folk to country to pop.

Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1658 to 1707. He was a devout Muslim and was known for his religious intolerance. He was also a skilled military commander and expanded the Mughal empire to its greatest extent. However, he was also a ruthless ruler who was responsible for the deaths of millions of people.

Aurangzeb was not known to be proficient in playing any musical instruments.

The correct answer is (d).

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers. A number that remains unchanged if its digits are reversed is called a palindromic number.

The only palindromic prime number between 10 and 40 is 111. However, the square of 111 is 12321, which is not a prime number.

Therefore, the square of a prime number between 10 and 40 that remains unchanged if its digits are reversed is not a prime number.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Women migrants from West Bengal may face vulnerabilities such as exploitation and low wages, limited access to social services, and gender-based discrimination.

* Exploitation and low wages: Women migrants are often vulnerable to exploitation and low wages. They may be forced to work in dangerous or unhealthy conditions, and they may not be paid the same as men for the same work.
* Limited access to social services: Women migrants may also have limited access to social services, such as healthcare, education, and housing. This can make it difficult for them to meet their basic needs and to support their families.
* Gender-based discrimination: Women migrants may also face gender-based discrimination. They may be subjected to violence, harassment, and abuse. They may also be denied equal opportunities in education, employment, and housing.

These vulnerabilities can have a significant impact on the lives of women migrants. They can make it difficult for them to earn a living, to care for their families, and to live in safety and security. It is important to address these vulnerabilities and to ensure that women migrants have the same rights and opportunities as men.

The correct answer is: C. Roger Federer.

Rafael Nadal won the French Open in 2007 by defeating Roger Federer in the final. Nadal won the match in four sets, 6-3, 4-6, 6-3, 6-4. This was Nadal's first French Open title, and it was also his first Grand Slam title.

Federer was the defending champion at the French Open, and he was the top seed in the tournament. Federer had won the French Open in 2006, and he had also won the Australian Open and Wimbledon in 2006. Federer was considered to be the best tennis player in the world at the time.

Nadal was the second seed in the French Open, and he was considered to be Federer's biggest rival. Nadal had won the French Open in 2005, and he had also won the French Open in 2006. Nadal was considered to be the best clay-court player in the world.

The match between Nadal and Federer was considered to be one of the greatest tennis matches of all time. The match was close, and both players played at a high level. Nadal won the match in four sets, but Federer gave him a tough fight.

Nadal's victory at the French Open in 2007 was a major accomplishment. It was his first Grand Slam title, and it showed that he was one of the best tennis players in the world. Nadal went on to win the French Open again in 2008, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2017, 2018, and 2019. He is the most successful player in the history of the French Open.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the players who Nadal defeated in the final of the French Open in 2007. Stegan Edberg, Andy Roddick, and Fred Alexander were not in the French Open in 2007.

Cauliflower is the correct answer. It is a cool-weather crop that is best grown in the spring or fall. It can be grown in the winter in some areas, but it is more susceptible to disease and pests in the cold weather. Okra, brinjal, and cucumber are all warm-weather crops that are best grown in the summer.

Cauliflower is a member of the Brassica family, which also includes broccoli, Brussels sprouts, and kale. It is a nutrient-rich vegetable that is low in calories and high in fiber. Cauliflower is a good source of vitamins C and K, as well as folate and potassium. It also contains compounds that have been shown to have anticancer properties.

Cauliflower can be eaten raw or cooked. It is a versatile vegetable that can be used in a variety of dishes, such as soups, stews, casseroles, and stir-fries. It can also be roasted, grilled, or steamed.

To grow cauliflower, you will need to start with seeds or seedlings. The seeds should be planted in the spring or fall, about six weeks before the last frost. The seedlings should be planted about two weeks before the last frost.

Cauliflower plants need full sun and well-drained soil. They should be watered regularly, especially during dry weather. The plants should be fertilized every two weeks with a balanced fertilizer.

Cauliflower is ready to harvest when the heads are firm and white. The heads should be cut off with a sharp knife. The leaves can be left on the head or removed.

Cauliflower can be stored in the refrigerator for up to two weeks. It can also be frozen for up to six months.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Land acquisition for industrial projects can sometimes be a contentious issue due to a number of factors, including:

* Concerns of displacement: When land is acquired for industrial projects, it can often lead to the displacement of people who live or work on that land. This can be a major issue, as it can disrupt people's lives and livelihoods.
* Environmental impacts: Industrial projects can have a significant impact on the environment. This can include air and water pollution, as well as the destruction of habitats.
* Compensation disputes: When land is acquired for industrial projects, the compensation that is offered to landowners is often not considered to be fair. This can lead to disputes between landowners and the government.

All of these factors can contribute to land acquisition being a contentious issue. It is important to consider all of these factors when planning and implementing industrial projects.

The correct answer is: **C) Shawwal**

Eid al-Fitr marks the end of the holy month of Ramadan and the beginning of the month of Shawwal. It is a time of celebration and feasting, and is considered to be one of the most important holidays in Islam.

Ramadan is the ninth month of the Islamic calendar, and is a time of fasting, prayer, and charity. Muslims are expected to abstain from food, drink, smoking, and sexual activity from dawn to dusk during this month. The fast is intended to teach Muslims self-discipline, self-control, sacrifice, and empathy for those who are less fortunate.

Eid al-Fitr is a time to celebrate the completion of Ramadan and to thank Allah for His blessings. It is also a time to show gratitude to family and friends, and to help those in need. The holiday is typically celebrated with a large feast, prayers, and gift-giving.

A) Ramadan is the ninth month of the Islamic calendar. It is a time of fasting, prayer, and charity. Muslims are expected to abstain from food, drink, smoking, and sexual activity from dawn to dusk during this month. The fast is intended to teach Muslims self-discipline, self-control, sacrifice, and empathy for those who are less fortunate.

B) Muharram is the first month of the Islamic calendar. It is a time of mourning for the death of Imam Hussein, the grandson of the Prophet Muhammad. Muslims commemorate this event by fasting, giving charity, and visiting mosques.

C) Shawwal is the tenth month of the Islamic calendar. It is a time of celebration and feasting, and is considered to be one of the most important holidays in Islam. Eid al-Fitr, which marks the end of Ramadan, is celebrated during this month.

D) Dhul-Hijjah is the twelfth and final month of the Islamic calendar. It is a time of pilgrimage to Mecca, Saudi Arabia. Muslims who are able to make the pilgrimage, known as the hajj, are required to do so at least once in their lifetime.

The correct answer is A) Communist Party of India (Marxist).

The Left Front government was a coalition of communist and left-wing political parties in West Bengal, India. It was formed in 1977 and ruled the state for 34 years, until 2011. The Left Front was led by the Communist Party of India (Marxist), which was the largest party in the coalition. The other major parties in the Left Front were the Communist Party of India, the Revolutionary Socialist Party, and the Forward Bloc.

The Left Front government was known for its pro-poor policies and its focus on education and healthcare. It also implemented land reforms and promoted industrialization. However, the Left Front was also criticized for its authoritarian style of governance and its failure to address corruption.

In 2011, the Left Front was defeated by the Trinamool Congress in the West Bengal state elections. The Trinamool Congress is a regional political party that is led by Mamata Banerjee. The Trinamool Congress has a more populist and pro-business agenda than the Left Front.

The Left Front's defeat in 2011 was a major setback for the communist movement in India. It also marked the end of an era in West Bengal, where the Left Front had been in power for nearly three decades.

The correct answer is A. 1952, 67.

Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award, instituted in 1954. It is awarded by the President of India to citizens of India in recognition of exceptional service to the nation. The award is a five-pointed star made of pure gold, set with a diamond in the centre. It is worn on a yellow ribbon around the neck.

As of 2022, 67 people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna. The first recipients were C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and Jawaharlal Nehru in 1954. The most recent recipient is Bhupen Hazarika in 2019.

The following are the options for the question:

A. 1952, 67
B. 1954, 48
C. 1969, 45
D. 1972, 41

Option A is the correct answer. The Bharat Ratna was instituted in 1954 and 67 people have been awarded the award so far.

Option B is incorrect. The Bharat Ratna was not instituted in 1954. It was instituted in 1952.

Option C is incorrect. 45 people have not been awarded the Bharat Ratna so far. 67 people have been awarded the award so far.

Option D is incorrect. The Bharat Ratna was not instituted in 1972. It was instituted in 1952.

The correct answer is: A. Right to Equality.

The Right to Equality is the first of the six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. It includes the following provisions:

• Article 14: Equality before the law.
• Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 17: Abolition of untouchability.
• Article 18: Abolition of titles.

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states that "The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India." This means that all persons are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the law. The State cannot discriminate against any person on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any other ground.

Article 15 of the Indian Constitution states that "The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them." This means that the State cannot discriminate against any citizen in any matter, such as employment, education, housing, etc., on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any other ground.

Article 16 of the Indian Constitution states that "There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State." This means that all citizens are entitled to equal opportunity in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State. The State cannot discriminate against any citizen in matters of employment or appointment to any office on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any other ground.

Article 17 of the Indian Constitution states that "Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law." This means that the practice of untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The State cannot enforce any disability arising out of untouchability.

Article 18 of the Indian Constitution states that "No title shall be conferred by the State except for military and academic distinctions." This means that the State cannot confer any title on any person except for military and academic distinctions.

The Right to Equality is a fundamental right that is guaranteed to all citizens of India. It is a very important right that ensures that all citizens are treated equally before the law. The Right to Equality is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution and it is one of the most important rights that Indian citizens enjoy.

The correct answer is A. 20.

The G20 is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors of 19 of the world's largest economies and the European Union. It was established in 1999 to discuss major issues related to the global economy. The G20 members are:

• Argentina
• Australia
• Brazil
• Canada
• China
• France
• Germany
• India
• Indonesia
• Italy
• Japan
• Mexico
• Russia
• Saudi Arabia
• South Africa
• South Korea
• Turkey
• United Kingdom
• United States
• European Union

The G20 meets annually at the level of heads of state and government, and more frequently at the level of finance ministers and central bank governors. The G20 has been instrumental in coordinating international economic policy responses to the global financial crisis of 2008-2009, and in addressing other global challenges such as climate change, food security, and inequality.

Option B is incorrect because the G20 has 20 members, not 8.

Option C is incorrect because the G20 has 20 members, not 12.

Option D is incorrect because the G20 has 20 members, not 16.

The correct answer is (a).

The Hindi version of the National Anthem, Jana-Gana-Mana, was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November, 1949. The song was originally written in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore in 1905. It was first sung at the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress in 1906. The song became popular as a national anthem during the Indian independence movement. After India's independence in 1947, the Constituent Assembly adopted the Hindi version of the song as the national anthem of India.

The other options are incorrect. Option (b) is the date on which the Constitution of India was adopted. Option (c) is the date on which India became a republic. Option (d) is the date on which the Constituent Assembly was formed.

The correct answer is D. vacuum.

Light travels at the fastest speed in a vacuum, which is 299,792,458 meters per second. This is the speed of light in a vacuum, and it is the fastest speed at which any information can travel in the universe.

Light travels slower in other materials, such as glass, water, and hydrogen. This is because the light waves interact with the atoms and molecules in the material, which slows them down.

The speed of light in a material is given by the equation $v = frac{c}{n}$, where $c$ is the speed of light in a vacuum and $n$ is the refractive index of the material. The refractive index is a measure of how much light slows down in the material.

The refractive index of glass is 1.52, the refractive index of water is 1.33, and the refractive index of hydrogen is 1.41. This means that light travels 1.52 times slower in glass than in a vacuum, 1.33 times slower in water than in a vacuum, and 1.41 times slower in hydrogen than in a vacuum.

The correct answer is B. Frequency.

Frequency is the number of waves that pass a given point in a given amount of time. It is measured in Hertz (Hz), which is equal to one wave per second. The higher the frequency, the higher the pitch of the sound.

Velocity is the speed of a wave. It is measured in meters per second (m/s). The velocity of a sound wave depends on the medium through which it is traveling. For example, sound travels faster through air than through water.

Displacement is the distance from a point's rest position to its current position. It is measured in meters (m). Displacement is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude and direction.

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. It is measured in meters per second squared (m/s^2). The acceleration of a sound wave is zero, because the velocity of a sound wave does not change.

Nija Griha Nija Bhumi is a multi-purpose project which provides the landless agricultural labourers five decimals of land to make house and do farming. This ensures food security.

The correct answer is (a).

The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress was held in December 1929. At this session, the Congress declared 'Poorna Swaraj' or complete independence as its goal. This was a major turning point in the history of the Indian independence movement, as it marked the shift from a policy of seeking dominion status to one of demanding complete independence.

The other options are incorrect. The Karachi session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1931. The Delhi session was held in 1919, and the Bombay session was held in 1934. At none of these sessions was 'Poorna Swaraj' declared the goal of the Congress.

The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress was a watershed moment in the history of the Indian independence movement. It marked the shift from a policy of seeking dominion status to one of demanding complete independence. This was a major turning point, and it led to the intensification of the independence struggle.

The correct answer is A) Kolkata.

The South Bengal State Transport Corporation (SBSTC) is a government-owned transport corporation in West Bengal, India. It was established in 1961 and is headquartered in Kolkata. The SBSTC operates a fleet of over 10,000 buses and employs over 50,000 people. It provides bus services in Kolkata and the surrounding districts of Howrah, Hooghly, North 24 Parganas, South 24 Parganas, Nadia, and Murshidabad.

The SBSTC is a major public transport provider in West Bengal. It plays a vital role in the transportation of people and goods in the state. The corporation has been facing financial difficulties in recent years. However, it has taken steps to improve its financial situation and is committed to providing quality public transport services to the people of West Bengal.

Option B, Siliguri, is the headquarters of the North Bengal State Transport Corporation (NBSTC). Option C, Durgapur, is the headquarters of the Durgapur Durgapur Transport Corporation (DTDC). Option D, Asansol, is the headquarters of the Asansol Durgapur Transport Corporation (ADC).

The correct answer is B. Abhay.

Abhay was appointed as the Director General of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) on 31 May 2018. He is a 1986-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Gujarat cadre. He has served in various capacities in the Gujarat Police, including as the Commissioner of Police, Ahmedabad. He has also served as the Director General of the Border Security Force (BSF).

H. P. Kumar is a 1985-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the AGMUT cadre. He has served in various capacities in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), including as the Director of the CBI. He has also served as the Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA).

S. C. Rohatgi is a 1978-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Gujarat cadre. He has served in various capacities in the Gujarat Police, including as the Director General of Police. He has also served as the Governor of Punjab.

Rakesh Goyal is a 1982-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Rajasthan cadre. He has served in various capacities in the Rajasthan Police, including as the Director General of Police. He has also served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

The correct answer is: C. Forced vibrations

When a vibrating tuning fork is placed on a table, the table vibrates at the same frequency as the tuning fork. This is because the table is forced to vibrate by the tuning fork. The forced vibrations of the table cause the air molecules around the table to vibrate, which produces sound waves. The sound waves travel through the air and reach our ears, where they are converted into electrical signals that are sent to our brains. Our brains interpret these electrical signals as sound.

Reflection, refraction, and damped vibrations are not the correct answers because they do not explain why a loud sound is heard when a vibrating tuning fork is placed on a table.

Reflection is the bouncing of a wave off of a surface. Refraction is the bending of a wave as it passes from one medium to another. Damped vibrations are vibrations that gradually decrease in amplitude over time.

In the case of a vibrating tuning fork placed on a table, the sound is not caused by reflection, refraction, or damped vibrations. The sound is caused by forced vibrations.

The correct answer is C. A ruby rod.

A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. The first working laser was built in 1960 by Theodore Maiman at Hughes Research Laboratories. The active medium in Maiman's laser was a ruby rod.

A ruby rod is a cylindrical rod of synthetic ruby, a mineral composed of aluminum oxide with trace chromium impurities. The chromium impurities give ruby its red color. When a ruby rod is placed in a high-energy environment, such as a flash lamp, the chromium atoms are excited to a higher energy state. When these excited atoms decay back to their ground state, they emit light of a specific wavelength. This light is amplified by the other chromium atoms in the rod, and is emitted as a laser beam.

The other options are incorrect. A diamond block is not a suitable material for a laser because it does not have the necessary optical properties. Helium-neon gas and carbon dioxide gas are both used in lasers, but they were not the active medium in the first working laser.

The correct answer is D. breakthrough.

A breakthrough is a significant and important advance in a particular area of knowledge or technology. In the context of the question, the new education policy provides a useful breakthrough for the planners to remove illiteracy. This is because the policy includes a number of innovative and effective measures to address the problem of illiteracy, such as providing free education to all children, training teachers in new methods of teaching, and establishing special schools for children with learning disabilities. These measures have the potential to make a significant difference in the lives of millions of children and adults who are currently illiterate.

The other options are not as relevant to the question. A break-in is an illegal entry into a building or other structure. A breakaway is a sudden and unexpected separation from something larger or more powerful. A break up is the act of separating or dividing something into smaller parts.

I hope this explanation is helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: D. diamond

A diamond is a solid form of carbon with a diamond cubic crystal structure. It is the hardest natural substance known and is the most valuable gemstone. Diamonds are formed when carbon is subjected to high pressure and temperature, such as those found deep within the Earth's crust.

The structure of a diamond is similar to that of a geological globe. Both are made up of a network of carbon atoms that are arranged in a tetrahedral structure. This structure gives both diamonds and geological globes their strength and durability.

Carbon nanotubes are long, thin tubes of carbon atoms that are arranged in a cylindrical shape. They are much stronger than steel and have a wide range of potential applications, including in the fields of electronics, medicine, and energy.

Lead is a heavy, dense metal that is soft and malleable. It is used in a variety of applications, including batteries, ammunition, and plumbing.

Fullerenes are a class of carbon molecules that are composed of multiple carbon atoms that are arranged in a spherical or ellipsoidal shape. They were first discovered in 1985 and have since been found to have a wide range of potential applications, including in the fields of medicine, materials science, and nanotechnology.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Which of the following forms of carbon have similar structure to geological globe?" is D. diamond.

The correct answer is C. Source.

The frequency of a sound wave is the number of waves that pass a given point in a given amount of time. It is measured in hertz (Hz), which is equal to one wave per second. The frequency of a sound wave is determined by the source of the sound. For example, a high-pitched sound has a higher frequency than a low-pitched sound.

Amplitude is the height of a wave. It is measured in meters. The amplitude of a sound wave does not affect its frequency.

Speed is the distance a wave travels in a given amount of time. It is measured in meters per second. The speed of a sound wave depends on the medium through which it is traveling. For example, sound travels faster through air than through water.

Medium is the substance through which a wave travels. Sound waves can travel through solids, liquids, and gases. The medium does not affect the frequency of a sound wave.

The correct answer is: B. Different elasticity of demand.

Price discrimination is a pricing strategy in which a company charges different prices for the same product or service to different groups of consumers. This is possible when the demand for the product or service is different in different markets.

If the demand for the product or service is the same in all markets, then the company will not be able to charge different prices without losing customers. This is because customers will simply buy the product or service from the market where it is being sold at the lower price.

However, if the demand for the product or service is different in different markets, then the company can charge different prices without losing customers. This is because customers in the market with the higher demand will be willing to pay a higher price for the product or service.

For example, a company that sells airline tickets may charge different prices for tickets to the same destination depending on when the ticket is purchased. Tickets purchased closer to the date of travel are likely to be more expensive than tickets purchased further in advance. This is because the demand for airline tickets is higher closer to the date of travel.

Price discrimination can be a profitable strategy for companies. However, it is important to note that price discrimination can also lead to consumer dissatisfaction. This is because consumers in the market with the higher price may feel that they are being treated unfairly.

In conclusion, price discrimination is possible and profitable when the two markets have different elasticity of demand. This is because the demand for the product or service is different in different markets, and customers in the market with the higher demand are willing to pay a higher price for the product or service.

The correct answer is: C. Nucleoid

The nucleoid is a region of a prokaryotic cell that contains all of the genetic material. It is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane, as is the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. The nucleoid is typically a dense, irregularly shaped mass of DNA and associated proteins.

The nucleolus is a small, dense organelle found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It is involved in the synthesis of ribosomes, which are the protein-synthesizing organelles of the cell.

The centrosome is a small, non-membranous organelle found in animal cells. It is involved in cell division, and contains the centrioles, which are the microtubule-organizing centers of the cell.

The nucleus is a large, membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It contains the cell's DNA, which is organized into chromosomes. The nucleus is also involved in the regulation of gene expression, and in the synthesis of proteins.

The correct answer is D. no article.

A pacifist is somebody who is against war. The word "pacifist" is a noun, and nouns do not usually take articles. In this case, the word "war" is also a noun, so it does not need an article either.

The other options are incorrect because they are all articles. The article "a" is used before singular nouns that refer to a specific person or thing. The article "an" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound. The article "the" is used before singular nouns that refer to a specific person or thing that has already been mentioned.

In this case, the word "war" is a general noun that refers to any war. It is not referring to a specific war, so it does not need an article.

The correct answer is (c).

Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines a "living person" as "a human being or a company or association or body of individuals capable of holding property." This means that a company or association or body of individuals can be a "living person" for the purposes of the Transfer of Property Act.

Option (a) is incorrect because it does not include companies or associations. Option (b) is incorrect because it does not include bodies of individuals. Option (d) is incorrect because it is not one of the options provided.

Here are some examples of companies or associations that can be "living persons" for the purposes of the Transfer of Property Act:

• A limited company
• A partnership
• A trust
• A co-operative society
• A trade union
• A religious body

The correct answer is: C. Third World Nations.

The G-15 is a group of developing countries that was founded in 1989. The group's goal is to promote economic cooperation and development among its members. The G-15 currently consists of 15 countries: Algeria, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Iran, Jamaica, Kenya, Malaysia, Mexico, Nigeria, Peru, and Venezuela.

The term "Third World" was first used during the Cold War to refer to countries that were not aligned with either the United States or the Soviet Union. The term is now often used to refer to developing countries.

The G-15 has been criticized for its lack of effectiveness. Some critics argue that the group is too large and diverse to be able to achieve its goals. Others argue that the group is too focused on economic issues and does not do enough to address social and political issues.

Despite these criticisms, the G-15 remains an important forum for developing countries to discuss their common concerns and to work together to promote their economic development.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. First World Nations refers to the countries that were aligned with the United States during the Cold War.
• B. Second World Nations refers to the countries that were aligned with the Soviet Union during the Cold War.
• D. Fourth World Nations is a term that is sometimes used to refer to the poorest countries in the world.

The correct answer is (d), Limulus. Limulus is a horseshoe crab, a marine arthropod that has existed for over 450 million years. It is one of the few living members of the group Xiphosura, which also includes extinct species such as the giant sea scorpions. Limulus is often referred to as a "living fossil" because it has changed very little in appearance over millions of years. It is an important part of the marine ecosystem, and its blood is used in medical research.

Balanus is a genus of barnacles, which are crustaceans that attach themselves to hard surfaces. They have a hard outer shell and a soft inner body. Barnacles are found in all oceans, and they can live in a variety of habitats, including on rocks, ships, and whales.

Daphnia is a genus of water fleas, which are small crustaceans that live in freshwater. They are filter feeders, and they eat algae and other small organisms. Daphnia are an important part of the food web in freshwater ecosystems.

Sarcoptes is a genus of mites, which are small arachnids. They are parasites, and they feed on the skin of mammals, birds, and reptiles. Sarcoptes mites can cause a skin condition called scabies.

Limulus is the correct answer because it is a "living fossil". It has changed very little in appearance over millions of years, and it is an important part of the marine ecosystem.

The correct answer is: A. Arvind Panagariya.

Arvind Panagariya was the first Vice-Chairman of the NITI Aayog, a government think tank in India. He was appointed to the position in January 2015 and served until May 2017. Panagariya is an Indian-American economist who is currently a professor at Columbia University. He is a former Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India.

Raghuram Rajan is an Indian-American economist who is currently the Katherine Dusak Miller Distinguished Service Professor of Finance at the University of Chicago Booth School of Business. He was the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 4 September 2013 to 4 September 2016.

Chandrashekhara Subramanyam is an Indian economist who is currently the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India. He was the Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India from 2014 to 2017.

Rajiv Kumar is an Indian economist who is currently the Vice-Chairman of the NITI Aayog. He was the Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance of India from 2015 to 2017.

Netaji Museum is owned and managed by Netaji Research Bureau. It is the ancestral house of Subhash Chandra Bose where he had lived in Kolkata.

The correct answer is (a) 8 years.

Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a child to be adopted should not have, in the absence of a valid custom, completed the age of 8 years. This means that the child must be under the age of 8 at the time of the adoption.

There are a few exceptions to this rule. For example, if the child is a Hindu by religion and has been abandoned by his or her parents, he or she may be adopted even if he or she is over the age of 8. Additionally, if the child is a Hindu by religion and has been orphaned, he or she may be adopted even if he or she is over the age of 8.

The purpose of this rule is to protect the rights of children. By limiting the age of adoption to 8 years, the law ensures that children are not adopted by people who may not have their best interests at heart. Additionally, the law helps to ensure that children are adopted into families that can provide them with the love and support they need.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the maximum age limit for adoption under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.

The correct answer is (a) Almora.

Almora is a district in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. It is the northernmost district of the state, bordering the state of Himachal Pradesh to the north and the state of Uttar Pradesh to the east. The district has a population of over 1.2 million people, of which over 80% live in rural areas.

The poverty ratio in Almora district is 31.7%, which is higher than the state average of 19.9%. The main reasons for poverty in Almora district are low levels of education, lack of employment opportunities, and poor infrastructure.

The government of Uttarakhand has implemented a number of schemes to reduce poverty in Almora district. These schemes include the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), and the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

The PMJDY is a financial inclusion scheme that aims to provide financial services to the poor and vulnerable sections of society. The PMKVY is a skill development scheme that aims to provide training to the youth in order to make them employable. The MGNREGA is a rural employment guarantee scheme that aims to provide employment to the rural poor.

These schemes have helped to reduce poverty in Almora district, but there is still a long way to go. The government needs to continue to implement these schemes and also focus on improving the quality of education, providing employment opportunities, and improving infrastructure in order to reduce poverty in Almora district.

The other options are incorrect because they have a lower poverty ratio than Almora district. Champawat district has a poverty ratio of 28.8%, Chamoli district has a poverty ratio of 27.3%, and Tehri-Garhwal district has a poverty ratio of 26.2%.

The correct answer is (d), Pakistan.

The Radcliffe Line is a demarcation line that was drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe to divide British India into the independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The line was drawn in a hurry and without much consultation with the local people, and it resulted in the displacement of millions of people. The Radcliffe Line forms the boundary between India and Pakistan in the states of Punjab and Bengal.

China is a neighboring country of India to the north. Myanmar is a neighboring country of India to the east. Nepal is a neighboring country of India to the north.

The correct answer is (d). The North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current that flows northward along the eastern coast of the United States and Canada, then across the Atlantic Ocean to Europe. It is a continuation of the Gulf Stream, which originates in the Gulf of Mexico. The North Atlantic Drift is a major factor in the climate of Europe, as it brings warm water from the tropics to the region.

The Canaries Current is a cold ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of Africa. It is a branch of the North Atlantic Current. The Canaries Current is important for the climate of the Canary Islands, as it brings cool water to the region.

The Guinea Current is a warm ocean current that flows southward along the coast of West Africa. It is a branch of the Atlantic Equatorial Current. The Guinea Current is important for the climate of West Africa, as it brings warm water to the region.

The Labrador Current is a cold ocean current that flows northward along the eastern coast of Canada. It is a branch of the North Atlantic Current. The Labrador Current is important for the climate of Canada, as it brings cold water to the region.

The correct answer is: A. Population increases arithmetically.

Thomas Malthus was an English economist and demographer who proposed the theory of population in his 1798 book An Essay on the Principle of Population. Malthus argued that population growth is exponential, while the growth of food production is linear. This means that population will eventually outstrip food production, leading to famine and disease.

Malthus's theory has been criticized for being too simplistic and for not taking into account technological advances in agriculture. However, it remains a influential theory in economics and demography.

Option B is incorrect because food production does not increase geometrically. Food production does increase, but it does so at a slower rate than population growth. This is because it takes time to develop new agricultural technologies and to bring them into widespread use.

Option C is incorrect because population does not increase geometrically. Population growth is exponential, but it does not increase at a constant rate. This is because the rate of population growth is affected by a number of factors, including birth rates, death rates, and migration.

Option D is incorrect because both A and B are incorrect.

The correct answer is: B. President of India

The President of India appoints the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on the advice of the Prime Minister. The UPSC is an independent body that is responsible for conducting the civil services examination in India. The Chairman of the UPSC is a member of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and is the head of the UPSC. The Chairman of the UPSC is appointed for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government of India and is not responsible for appointing the Chairman of the UPSC.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority in India and is not responsible for appointing the Chairman of the UPSC.
• A Judge of the High Court is a senior judge in the Indian judiciary and is not responsible for appointing the Chairman of the UPSC.

The correct answer is A. He said, "Welcome to my house."

Option B is incorrect because "Welcome home" is typically said to someone who has just returned home, not to someone who is visiting for the first time.

Option C is incorrect because "Please come in" is a request, not a welcome.

Option D is incorrect because "You are welcomed here!" is a statement of fact, not a welcome.

A welcome is a greeting or expression of hospitality. It is typically used to greet someone who is visiting for the first time. In the context of the question, the speaker is welcoming the listener to his house. The most likely way for him to do this would be to say, "Welcome to my house."

The correct answer is: C. Buckle : Belt

A clasp is a device that fastens or closes something, such as a bracelet. A buckle is a device that fastens or closes something, such as a belt. Both a clasp and a buckle are used to fasten or close something, and they are both typically made of metal.

A wrist is the part of the human body where the hand and arm meet. A watch is a device that tells the time. A wristwatch is a type of watch that is worn on the wrist.

A cuff is the part of a sleeve that is turned back or folded down. Trousers are a type of pants that are worn by men. A trouser cuff is the part of a trouser leg that is turned back or folded down.

A hook is a curved piece of metal or other material that is used to catch or hold something. A coat is a piece of clothing that is worn over the body. A coat hook is a device that is used to hang coats on.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. Buckle : Belt because both a clasp and a buckle are used to fasten or close something, and they are both typically made of metal.

The correct answer is A. G. V. Mavalankar.

G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. He was elected to the position on 15 August 1950, the day India became a republic. He served as Speaker until his death in 1956.

Mavalankar was born in 1887 in a village in Gujarat, India. He studied law and became a lawyer. He entered politics in the early 1920s and joined the Indian National Congress. He was a member of the Constituent Assembly, which drafted the Constitution of India.

Mavalankar was a respected leader and a strong advocate for parliamentary democracy. He was known for his impartiality and his commitment to the rule of law. He was a key figure in the development of the Indian Parliament.

The other options are incorrect.

• B. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of India. He was also the second President of India.
• C. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was a lawyer and politician. He served as the Minister of Law and Justice in the first cabinet of independent India.
• D. Dr. P.V. Cherian was a politician and trade union leader. He served as the Chief Minister of Kerala from 1977 to 1979.

The correct answer is: D. caused

The stratospheric ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. It contains high concentrations of ozone (O3) relative to other parts of the atmosphere, although still small in relation to other gases in the stratosphere. The ozone layer contains less than 10 parts per million of ozone, while the average ozone concentration in Earth's atmosphere as a whole is about 0.3 parts per million. The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere, from approximately 20 to 30 kilometers (12 to 19 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies seasonally and geographically.

The ozone layer is important because it protects life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation. Ultraviolet radiation can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems. It can also damage plants and animals. The ozone layer is also important for the Earth's climate. It helps to regulate the Earth's temperature by absorbing ultraviolet radiation.

The ozone layer is being depleted by human activities, mainly the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into the atmosphere. CFCs are chemicals that were once used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and other products. They are now banned in most countries, but they remain in the atmosphere for many years. CFCs break down in the stratosphere and release chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms react with ozone molecules, destroying them.

The depletion of the ozone layer is a serious problem. It is causing an increase in the amount of ultraviolet radiation reaching the Earth's surface. This is increasing the risk of skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems. It is also damaging plants and animals.

There are a number of things that can be done to protect the ozone layer. One is to reduce the use of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances. Another is to use products that are ozone-friendly. We can also help to protect the ozone layer by reducing our energy consumption. This will help to reduce the amount of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances that are released into the atmosphere.

The disruption of the ozone layer is obviously fraught with dangerous consequences. The ozone layer is essential for life on Earth, and its depletion is a serious threat to our health and well-being. We must take action to protect the ozone layer and ensure its continued protection for future generations.

The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the relationship between the disruption of the ozone layer and dangerous consequences. Option A, "involving," does not accurately describe the relationship because the disruption of the ozone layer is not simply a matter of involving dangerous consequences. Option B, "concerned," does not accurately describe the relationship because the disruption of the ozone layer is not simply a matter of being concerned about dangerous consequences. Option C, "followed," does not accurately describe the relationship because the disruption of the ozone layer does not simply follow dangerous consequences.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{{{{text{e}}^4}}}{{4!}}}$.

The Taylor series expansion of $f(x)$ about $x=a$ is given by

$$f(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{{{f}^{(n)}}(a){{(x - a)}^n}}{{n!}}$$

where $f^{(n)}(x)$ is the $n$th derivative of $f(x)$.

In this case, $f(x) = {e^x}$ and $a=2$. Therefore, the Taylor series expansion of $e^x$ about $x=2$ is given by

$$e^x = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{{e^{(n)}}(2){{(x - 2)}^n}}{{n!}}$$

The fourth derivative of $e^x$ is $e^x$. Therefore, the coefficient of $(x-2)^4$ is $frac{{e^4}}{{4!}} = boxed{frac{{{{text{e}}^4}}}{{4!}}}$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the coefficient of $(x-2)^4$ in the Taylor series expansion of $e^x$ about $x=2$.

The correct answer is D. Melanin.

Melanin is a pigment that gives color to skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by cells called melanocytes. There are two types of melanin: eumelanin and pheomelanin. Eumelanin is responsible for dark hair and skin color, while pheomelanin is responsible for lighter hair and skin color. The amount of melanin produced by melanocytes is determined by genetics and environmental factors, such as sun exposure.

Luciferin is a chemical that is found in fireflies and other bioluminescent organisms. It is responsible for the production of light in these organisms. Haemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. It is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Flavonoids are a type of plant pigment that is responsible for the color of fruits and vegetables. They also have antioxidant properties.

Melanin is the most important pigment in human skin. It protects the skin from the sun's harmful ultraviolet rays. Melanin also helps to regulate body temperature. People with darker skin have more melanin than people with lighter skin. This is why people with darker skin are less likely to get sunburned or develop skin cancer.

The correct answer is C. Helium.

An alpha particle is a positively charged particle that is emitted from the nucleus of an atom during radioactive decay. It is composed of two protons and two neutrons, and has a mass of 4 atomic mass units (AMU). The nucleus of a helium atom is also composed of two protons and two neutrons, so an alpha particle is essentially the same as a helium nucleus.

The other options are incorrect because they are not composed of two protons and two neutrons. Lithium has three protons and four neutrons, hydrogen has one proton and no neutrons, oxygen has eight protons and eight neutrons.

The correct answer is: A) Financial assistance to widows.

The Anandadhara scheme is a social security scheme for widows in Andhra Pradesh, India. It provides financial assistance to widows who are below the poverty line. The scheme was launched in 2013 and is funded by the state government.

The scheme provides a monthly pension of Rs. 1,000 to eligible widows. The pension is payable for life. To be eligible for the scheme, a widow must be a resident of Andhra Pradesh and below the poverty line. She must also be a widow of a government employee or a farmer.

The scheme is implemented by the Women and Child Welfare Department of the Andhra Pradesh government. Applications for the scheme can be made at any village secretariat or mandal office.

The Anandadhara scheme is a valuable social security scheme that provides financial assistance to widows in Andhra Pradesh. The scheme helps to improve the lives of widows and their families.

Option B, Old age pension, is not the correct answer because the Anandadhara scheme is specifically for widows. Old age pension schemes are available to all senior citizens, regardless of their marital status.

Option C, Maternity benefits, is not the correct answer because the Anandadhara scheme is not a maternity benefits scheme. Maternity benefits schemes provide financial assistance to women who have recently given birth.

Option D, Child care support, is not the correct answer because the Anandadhara scheme is not a child care support scheme. Child care support schemes provide financial assistance to families with young children.

The correct answer is (b), Mumbai.

Mumbai is an open sea port because it is located on the Arabian Sea. It is the largest port in India and one of the busiest ports in the world. The port handles a wide range of cargo, including containers, oil, and coal.

Hadia is a port city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the Hooghly River, which is a tributary of the Ganges River. Haidia is a major port for the export of tea and other agricultural products.

Chennai is a port city in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is located on the Bay of Bengal. Chennai is a major port for the export of textiles and other manufactured goods.

Visakhapatnam is a port city in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is located on the Bay of Bengal. Visakhapatnam is a major port for the export of iron ore and other minerals.

The correct answer is D. Attempting to stop entry of other firms in the market.