WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-10

The correct answer is A) Murshidabad.

The Hazarduari Palace is a palace in Murshidabad, West Bengal, India. It was built in 1784 by Nawab Nazim Ali Khan, the fifth Nawab of Bengal. The palace is named after its 1,000 doors. It is a two-storey building with a large courtyard in the center. The palace is made of white marble and has a beautiful garden. It is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Murshidabad.

The other options are incorrect.

B) Cooch Behar is a city in West Bengal, India. It was the capital of the princely state of Cooch Behar. The city is located on the banks of the Torsa River. It is a popular tourist destination.

C) Malda is a city in West Bengal, India. It is the headquarters of Malda district. The city is located on the banks of the Mahananda River. It is a major commercial center.

D) Bishnupur is a town in West Bengal, India. It is the headquarters of Bankura district. The town is known for its terracotta temples.

The correct answer is A) Recruitment and selection of civil servants.

The West Bengal Public Service Commission (WBPSC) is a state government agency in India that is responsible for the recruitment and selection of civil servants in the state of West Bengal. It is an independent body that is not under the control of any ministry or department of the state government. The WBPSC is headed by a chairman and two members, who are appointed by the governor of West Bengal on the recommendation of the state government.

The WBPSC conducts a number of competitive examinations every year for the recruitment of civil servants to various posts in the state government. These examinations are open to all Indian citizens who are eligible to apply. The WBPSC also conducts departmental examinations for the promotion of civil servants.

The WBPSC is a very important institution in the state of West Bengal. It plays a vital role in the recruitment and selection of civil servants, who are responsible for the administration of the state. The WBPSC is also responsible for ensuring that the recruitment process is fair and transparent.

The other options are incorrect.

Option B is incorrect because the Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections in India.

Option C is incorrect because the police and the law enforcement agencies are responsible for maintaining law and order.

Option D is incorrect because the state government is responsible for providing healthcare services.

The correct answer is A) 22 billion tonnes.

West Bengal is one of the major coal-producing states in India. The state has an estimated coal reserve of 22 billion tonnes. The coal reserves are located in the Raniganj, Jharia, and Bokaro coalfields. The Raniganj coalfield is the largest coalfield in West Bengal, with an estimated reserve of 10 billion tonnes. The Jharia coalfield is the second largest coalfield in West Bengal, with an estimated reserve of 8 billion tonnes. The Bokaro coalfield is the third largest coalfield in West Bengal, with an estimated reserve of 4 billion tonnes.

The coal reserves in West Bengal are of high quality and are used to generate electricity, produce steel, and manufacture cement. The coal industry is a major source of employment in West Bengal.

Option B is incorrect because the estimated coal reserve in West Bengal is 22 billion tonnes, not 49 billion tonnes.

Option C is incorrect because the estimated coal reserve in West Bengal is 22 billion tonnes, not 62 billion tonnes.

Option D is incorrect because the estimated coal reserve in West Bengal is 22 billion tonnes, not 78 billion tonnes.

The correct answer is A. Bleat.

A dog is an animal that makes a sound called a bark. A goat is an animal that makes a sound called a bleat.

B. Crow is the sound a crow makes. C. Grunt is the sound a pig makes. D. Howl is the sound a wolf makes.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

Aurangzeb was a great patron of Classical Indian Music, but this does not explain why the largest number of Persian works on classical Indian music was written in his reign. There could be other reasons for this, such as the fact that Persian was the language of the Mughal court and that many Persian scholars were interested in Indian music.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, R is not a correct explanation of A.
• Option B: Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. This is the correct answer because, as explained above, A is true and R is true, but R is not a correct explanation of A.
• Option C: A is true but R is false. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, A is true and R is true.
• Option D: A is false but R is true. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, A is true and R is true.

The devotees of Ganga Sagar Mela visit the temple of Kapil Muni, a well-known sage of Indian Mythology.

The probability of an event is the number of outcomes favorable to the event divided by the total number of possible outcomes. In this case, the event is "the sum is neither 8 nor 9." There are 36 possible outcomes when a die is thrown twice, and 10 of those outcomes are favorable to the event (namely, (1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6), (2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6), (3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6), (4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6), (5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6), (6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)). Therefore, the probability of the event is $frac{10}{36} = boxed{frac{5}{18}}$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the probability of the sum being 8. Option B is incorrect because it is the probability of the sum being 9. Option C is incorrect because it is the probability of the sum being 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6. Option D is incorrect because it is the probability of the sum being anything other than 7.

The correct answer is: **B) Health insurance for children**.

The Shishu Sathi scheme is a health insurance scheme for children in West Bengal, India. It was launched in 2013 and provides free health insurance to all children under the age of 18. The scheme covers a wide range of medical expenses, including hospitalization, doctor's fees, and medicines. It also provides cashless treatment at government and private hospitals.

The Shishu Sathi scheme is a major initiative of the West Bengal government to improve the health of children. It has been very successful in providing free and quality healthcare to millions of children in the state.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option A is incorrect because the Shishu Sathi scheme does not provide financial assistance for child education.
* Option C is incorrect because the Shishu Sathi scheme does not provide nutrition supplements for children.
* Option D is incorrect because the Shishu Sathi scheme does not provide free vaccinations for children.

The correct answer is (c) `46,500.

The per capita income of Indians rose by 14.5% in 2009. This means that if the per capita income in 2008 was 100, then the per capita income in 2009 was114.5.

To calculate the per capita income figure in nearest hundred, we can round off 114.5 to 115.

Therefore, the per capita income figure in nearest hundred is `46,500.

Option (a) `40,600 is incorrect because it is less than the per capita income in 2008.

Option (b) `42,300 is incorrect because it is less than the per capita income in 2009.

Option (d) `47,100 is incorrect because it is more than the per capita income in 2009.

The correct answer is (c) Govind Wildlife Sanctuary.

Govind Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas, and is part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife, including snow leopards, Himalayan tahr, musk deer, and red pandas.

Sona Nadi Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas, and is part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife, including Himalayan tahr, musk deer, and red pandas. However, it is not famous for conservation of snow-leopard.

Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the Kumaon Himalayas, and is part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife, including Himalayan tahr, musk deer, and red pandas. However, it is not famous for conservation of snow-leopard.

Rajaji National Park is a national park in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the foothills of the Himalayas, and is part of the Shivalik Hills. The park is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, and deer. However, it is not famous for conservation of snow-leopard.

The correct answer is C. both (a) and (b).

The Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours, which is what causes day and night. The Earth also revolves around the Sun once every 365.25 days, which is what causes the seasons.

Option A is correct because the Earth rotates on its axis. Option B is correct because the Earth revolves around the Sun. Option C is the correct answer because both rotation and revolution are major motions of the Earth. Option D is incorrect because it is not always the case that the question under construction will require a discussion of both rotation and revolution. For example, a question about the Earth's atmosphere would not require a discussion of the Earth's rotation.

The correct answer is: B. epochs

An epoch is a geological period of time that is shorter than an era but longer than a period. Epochs are typically defined by major events in the Earth's history, such as the formation of new continents or the extinction of major groups of organisms.

The Phanerozoic eon, for example, is divided into the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic eras. The Paleozoic era is further divided into the Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, and Permian periods. The Mesozoic era is further divided into the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods. The Cenozoic era is further divided into the Paleogene, Neogene, and Quaternary periods.

The Quaternary period is the most recent epoch, and it is still ongoing. It is divided into the Pleistocene and Holocene epochs. The Pleistocene epoch is characterized by repeated glaciations, while the Holocene epoch is characterized by the current interglacial period.

Aeons are the longest units of geological time, and they are typically defined by major events in the evolution of the universe. The Phanerozoic eon, for example, is part of the Proterozoic aeon, which is part of the Archean aeon, which is part of the Hadean aeon.

Stages are the shortest units of geological time, and they are typically defined by minor events in the Earth's history. For example, the Cambrian period is divided into the Lower Cambrian, Middle Cambrian, and Upper Cambrian stages.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: B. Strong Nuclear Force

The strong nuclear force is the fourth fundamental force (not including gravity) binding quarks into hadrons. It is the strongest of the four fundamental forces, but it has a very short range. The strong force is responsible for the stability of atomic nuclei by holding the protons and neutrons together.

The weak nuclear force is responsible for radioactive decay. It is much weaker than the strong nuclear force, but it has a longer range. The weak force is responsible for the decay of neutrons into protons, electrons, and antineutrinos.

The electromagnetic force is responsible for the attraction and repulsion of charged particles. It is much weaker than the strong nuclear force, but it has a much longer range. The electromagnetic force is responsible for the chemical bonds that hold atoms together, and it is also responsible for light and electricity.

The gravitational force is the weakest of the four fundamental forces, but it has an infinite range. The gravitational force is responsible for the attraction of all objects with mass. It is the force that keeps the Earth in orbit around the Sun, and it is also the force that keeps us on the ground.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A. PRSQ

The sequence of events is as follows:

1. She said on the phone that she would report for duty next day.
2. We waited for few days then we decided to go to her place.
3. But she did not.
4. We found it locked.
5. Even after that we waited for her quite a few days.
6. Eventually we reported to the police.

Option A, PRSQ, is the only option that follows this sequence of events. Option B, QPSR, is incorrect because it places the event in which the police are reported to before the event in which the police station is visited. Option C, QPRS, is incorrect because it places the event in which the police station is visited before the event in which the police are reported to. Option D, SQPR, is incorrect because it places the event in which the police station is visited before the event in which the police are reported to.

West Bengal situated in the Eastern region of India and stretches from the Himalayas in the North to the Bay of Bengal in the South. It is the only Indian state to have a coastline as well as the Himalayas.

The correct answer is C. Business cycles.

Business cycles are the fluctuations in economic activity over time. They are characterized by alternating periods of expansion and contraction. Expansions are periods of economic growth, when businesses are investing and hiring, and unemployment is low. Contractions are periods of economic decline, when businesses are cutting back on investment and hiring, and unemployment is high.

Monetary policy is the use of interest rates and other tools to control the money supply. Fiscal policy is the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy. Neither of these policies is directly related to the study of business cycles.

The study of business cycles is important because it can help us to understand the causes of economic fluctuations and to develop policies to mitigate their effects.

The correct answer is D. All of the above are major challenges to reducing gender inequality in West Bengal.

* Low female labor force participation: The female labor force participation rate in West Bengal is 22.5%, which is lower than the national average of 23.3%. This means that fewer women in West Bengal are participating in the workforce than men. There are a number of reasons for this, including social norms that discourage women from working outside the home, lack of access to education and training, and discrimination in the workplace.
* High maternal mortality rate: The maternal mortality rate in West Bengal is 170 per 100,000 live births, which is higher than the national average of 120 per 100,000 live births. This means that for every 100,000 women who give birth in West Bengal, 170 of them will die. There are a number of reasons for this, including lack of access to quality healthcare, poor nutrition, and high rates of anemia among pregnant women.
* Limited access to education for girls: The literacy rate for girls in West Bengal is 72.3%, which is lower than the national average of 74.0%. This means that fewer girls in West Bengal are literate than boys. There are a number of reasons for this, including social norms that discourage girls from going to school, lack of access to schools, and poverty.

These are just some of the major challenges to reducing gender inequality in West Bengal. There are many other challenges, such as violence against women, discrimination in the workplace, and lack of representation in decision-making bodies. It is important to address all of these challenges in order to achieve gender equality in West Bengal.

The correctly spelt word is "veterinary". It is an adjective that means "of or relating to veterinary medicine". Veterinary medicine is the branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases and injuries in animals.

The other options are incorrect because they are not real words.

The correct answer is: **A) Geothermal energy**

Geothermal energy is a type of renewable energy that comes from heat within the Earth. The Earth's core is very hot, and this heat can be used to generate electricity. Geothermal energy is a clean and sustainable source of energy, and it has the potential to provide a significant amount of the world's electricity needs.

The Bakreshwar region in West Bengal is known for its potential for geothermal energy. The region has a number of hot springs, which are a sign that there is heat underground. Scientists have also found evidence of magma, which is molten rock, near the surface of the Earth in the Bakreshwar region. This suggests that there is a lot of heat underground, which could be used to generate geothermal energy.

Tidal energy is a type of renewable energy that comes from the tides. The tides are the rise and fall of the sea level caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun. Tidal energy can be used to generate electricity by using turbines to capture the energy of the tides.

Nuclear energy is a type of energy that comes from the splitting of atoms. Nuclear energy is a very powerful source of energy, but it is also a very dangerous source of energy. Nuclear energy can be used to generate electricity, but it is also used to make nuclear weapons.

Wave energy is a type of renewable energy that comes from the waves. The waves are caused by the wind blowing across the surface of the ocean. Wave energy can be used to generate electricity by using turbines to capture the energy of the waves.

In conclusion, the Bakreshwar region in West Bengal is known for its potential in geothermal energy. Geothermal energy is a type of renewable energy that comes from heat within the Earth. The Earth's core is very hot, and this heat can be used to generate electricity. Geothermal energy is a clean and sustainable source of energy, and it has the potential to provide a significant amount of the world's electricity needs.

The correct answer is: C. The demand curve is a downward curve.

The law of demand states that, all other things being equal, the quantity demanded of a good or service will decrease as the price of that good or service increases. This is because, as the price of a good or service increases, consumers will have less money to spend on other goods and services, so they will demand less of the good or service whose price has increased.

The demand curve is a graphical representation of the law of demand. It shows the relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity demanded of that good or service. The demand curve is always downward-sloping, which means that the quantity demanded of a good or service decreases as the price of that good or service increases.

Option A is incorrect because the demand curve is always downward-sloping, not upward-sloping.

Option B is incorrect because the demand curve is a curve, not a straight line.

Option D is incorrect because the demand curve is not a vertical line. A vertical line would mean that the quantity demanded of a good or service is not affected by the price of that good or service, which is not the case.

The correct answer is: A) The Partition of Bengal in 1905.

The Swadeshi movement was a boycott of British goods and a promotion of Indian-made goods that began in Bengal in 1905 in response to the Partition of Bengal. The Partition of Bengal was the division of the Indian province of Bengal into two new provinces, East Bengal and West Bengal. The Partition was seen by many Bengalis as an attempt by the British to divide and rule India. The Swadeshi movement was a successful movement that helped to raise Indian national consciousness and to promote Indian self-reliance.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option B, the introduction of the Permanent Settlement, was a land revenue system introduced in Bengal in 1793. The Permanent Settlement gave zamindars (landowners) permanent rights to collect revenue from their land, in exchange for a fixed annual payment to the British government. The Permanent Settlement was not a major factor in the rise of the Swadeshi movement.
* Option C, the rise of the Mughal Empire, was a historical event that took place in the 16th and 17th centuries. The Mughal Empire was a Muslim empire that ruled over much of India. The rise of the Mughal Empire was not a major factor in the rise of the Swadeshi movement.
* Option D, the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, was a major uprising against British rule in India. The Sepoy Mutiny was not a major factor in the rise of the Swadeshi movement.

The correct answer is: A. Only argument I is strong

Argument I is strong because it provides a clear and convincing reason why the government should stop spending huge amounts of money on international sports. The argument states that this money could be better used to uplift the poor, which is a noble goal that would benefit many people.

Argument II is weak because it does not provide a strong reason why the government should continue spending huge amounts of money on international sports. The argument states that sports persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure if the government stops spending money on international sports. However, this is not a strong reason to continue spending money on international sports, as there are other ways for sports persons to get international exposure.

In conclusion, only argument I is strong.

The correct answer is (c), Chamoli. Chamoli is the largest district in Uttarakhand, with an area of 9,013 square kilometers. It is located in the Garhwal region of the state. The district is home to the Nanda Devi National Park, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Chamoli is also home to the Kedarnath Temple, which is one of the most important Hindu pilgrimage sites.

(a) Dehradun is the capital of Uttarakhand and the second largest district in the state. It has an area of 2,405 square kilometers.

(b) Udhamsingh Nagar is a district in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It has an area of 3,050 square kilometers.

(d) Haridwar is a city in the Haridwar district of Uttarakhand. It is one of the most important Hindu pilgrimage sites. It has an area of 1,200 square kilometers.

The correct answer is A) Royal Bengal Tiger.

The Royal Bengal Tiger is the state animal of West Bengal. It is the largest of the four tiger subspecies and is found in the Indian subcontinent. The Royal Bengal Tiger is a solitary animal and is an apex predator. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

The Indian Elephant is the national animal of India. It is the largest land animal in Asia. The Indian Elephant is a social animal and lives in herds. It is an herbivore and its diet consists of leaves, fruits, and grasses. The Indian Elephant is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

The One-horned Rhinoceros is the national animal of Nepal. It is the largest of the five rhinoceros species. The One-horned Rhinoceros is a solitary animal and is an herbivore. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

The Asiatic Lion is the national animal of India. It is the only lion species found in Asia. The Asiatic Lion is a social animal and lives in prides. It is an apex predator and its diet consists of deer, wild boar, and cattle. The Asiatic Lion is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

The correct answer is: B) Mangrove forest.

The Sundarbans is a vast deltaic forest in the Bay of Bengal, straddling the border between India and Bangladesh. It is the world's largest mangrove forest, covering an area of over 10,000 square kilometers. The Sundarbans is home to a wide variety of plant and animal life, including tigers, crocodiles, and monkeys. It is also a popular tourist destination.

A delta is a landform that forms at the mouth of a river, where the river's sediment is deposited. Deltas are typically triangular in shape, with the apex of the triangle pointing upstream. The Sundarbans delta is formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers.

A mangrove forest is a type of wetland forest that grows in tropical and subtropical coastal areas. Mangrove forests are adapted to the salty water and muddy soil of these environments. They play an important role in protecting coastlines from erosion and storms.

A rainforest is a type of tropical forest that receives an average of at least 2,500 millimeters of rain per year. Rainforests are home to a wide variety of plant and animal life. They are also important for the Earth's climate, as they help to regulate the Earth's temperature.

A desert is a dry, arid region that receives very little rainfall. Deserts are typically characterized by hot, sunny days and cold, clear nights. They are home to a variety of plants and animals that have adapted to the harsh conditions.

The correct answer is A. Apple.

A true fruit is a seed-bearing structure that develops from the ovary of a flowering plant, whereas a false fruit is a fruit that develops from other parts of the flower, such as the receptacle or the calyx.

Apples are false fruits because they develop from the receptacle of the flower, not from the ovary. The receptacle is the part of the flower that supports the other parts, such as the petals, sepals, and stamens. In apples, the receptacle becomes enlarged and fleshy, and it is this part that we eat. The true fruit of an apple is the small, hard core inside the apple, which contains the seeds.

Dates, grapes, and plums are all true fruits because they develop from the ovary of the flower. The ovary is the part of the flower that contains the ovules, which develop into seeds. In dates, grapes, and plums, the ovary becomes enlarged and fleshy, and it is this part that we eat. The seeds of these fruits are located inside the flesh of the fruit.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Which among the following is not a true fruit?" is A. Apple.

The correct answer is (a) James Outram.

James Outram was the British Resident in Avadh at the time of its annexation into British Dominion. He was a British soldier and statesman who served in India for over 30 years. He was known for his military prowess and his administrative skills. He was also a strong advocate for the rights of the Indian people.

W.H. Sleeman was a British officer who served in India. He is best known for his work in suppressing the Thuggee cult. He was also a writer and a historian.

Bishop R. Heber was an Anglican bishop who served in India. He was a prolific writer and a keen observer of Indian culture.

General Low was a British general who served in India. He is best known for his role in the First Anglo-Maratha War.

Outram was the most likely of the four to have been the British Resident in Avadh at the time of its annexation into British Dominion. He was a senior British official who had served in India for many years. He was also a strong advocate for the annexation of Avadh.

The correct answer is A. DNA.

DNA is a molecule that contains the genetic code of an organism. It is made up of four types of nucleotides: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). The sequence of these nucleotides determines the organism's genetic makeup.

DNA is located in the nucleus of every cell. It is responsible for controlling the cell's activities and for passing on genetic information from parents to offspring.

Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions. They are essential for life, as they allow cells to function properly.

Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA. They are made up of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

RNA is a molecule that is similar to DNA. It is involved in the process of protein synthesis.

DNA is the correct answer because it is the molecule that contains the genetic code of an organism. The other options are not correct because they are not involved in the control of inherited traits.

The correct answer is: A. Alkine: CnH2n - 2, Alkyne: CnH2n, Alkane: CnH2n + 2

An alkane is a hydrocarbon that contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms and is saturated, meaning that it has all of its carbon atoms bonded to the maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible. The general formula for an alkane is CnH2n+2, where n is the number of carbon atoms in the molecule.

An alkene is a hydrocarbon that contains at least one double bond between carbon atoms. The general formula for an alkene is CnH2n, where n is the number of carbon atoms in the molecule.

An alkyne is a hydrocarbon that contains at least one triple bond between carbon atoms. The general formula for an alkyne is CnH2n-2, where n is the number of carbon atoms in the molecule.

Therefore, the correct match is:

• Alkine: CnH2n - 2
• Alkyne: CnH2n
• Alkane: CnH2n + 2

Here is a table that summarizes the general formulas for alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes:

| Hydrocarbon | General formula |
|---|---|
| Alkane | CnH2n+2 |
| Alkene | CnH2n |
| Alkyne | CnH2n-2 |

The correct answer is: B. Stimulated emission.

Stimulated emission is a process in which an atom or molecule in an excited state is stimulated by a photon of the same frequency to emit a second photon of the same frequency. This process is the basis of laser operation.

Blackbody radiation is the electromagnetic radiation emitted by a black body, an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of frequency or angle of incidence. The radiation is characterized by a continuous spectrum that peaks at a wavelength that depends on the temperature of the black body.

Planck's radiation law is a law that describes the spectral distribution of electromagnetic radiation emitted by a black body. The law was first proposed by Max Planck in 1900, and it is one of the most important laws in quantum mechanics.

Einstein oscillation is a process in which an atom or molecule in an excited state oscillates between two energy levels. The oscillation is caused by the absorption and emission of photons.

Stimulated emission is the only process that can amplify light. Blackbody radiation, Planck's radiation law, and Einstein oscillation are all processes that describe the emission of light, but they do not amplify light.

The correct answer is: C. telephone : call

A dirge is a mournful song, typically sung at a funeral. A telephone is a device used for communication over a distance, typically by voice. A call is a request for communication, typically made by telephone.

The other options do not have a similar relationship. A chain is a series of connected links, while a letter is a written message. A bell is a device that makes a ringing sound, while a church is a building for religious worship. A jingle is a short, catchy tune, while a commercial is a broadcast advertisement. A hymn is a religious song, while a concerto is a piece of music for one or more solo instruments and an orchestra.

The correct answer is D. quietly.

Secretly means in a way that is not known to other people. Openly means in a way that is known to other people. Silently means in a way that does not make any noise. Quietly means in a way that is not loud.

Scarcely means almost not at all. Impolitely means in a way that is not respectful. Noisily means in a way that makes a lot of noise.

The answer D. quietly is the best choice because it is the closest antonym of the word "silently." The other options are not as close in meaning.

The correct answer is A) Malda.

Malda is a district in West Bengal, India. It is known for its mango orchards. The mangoes grown in Malda are of excellent quality and are exported to many countries around the world. The main varieties of mangoes grown in Malda are Alphonso, Totapuri, Langra, and Dashehari.

The mango orchards in Malda are located in the banks of the Mahananda River. The climate in Malda is ideal for the growth of mangoes. The soil in Malda is also rich in nutrients, which helps in the growth of mangoes.

The mango orchards in Malda are a major source of income for the people of Malda. The mangoes grown in Malda are also a major tourist attraction. Many people visit Malda every year to enjoy the delicious mangoes.

The other options are incorrect because they are not known for their mango orchards.

Option B, Murshidabad, is known for its silk industry.

Option C, Nadia, is known for its rice fields.

Option D, Hooghly, is known for its jute mills.

The correct answer is (b).

To solve this, we first need to figure out the code that is being used. In this case, each letter is assigned a number based on its position in the alphabet. R is the 18th letter, so it is assigned the number 18. S is the 19th letter, so it is assigned the number 19. U is the 21st letter, so it is assigned the number 21. S is the 19th letter again, so it is assigned the number 19. I is the 9th letter, so it is assigned the number 9. A is the 1st letter, so it is assigned the number 1.

Now that we know the code, we can plug in the letters of "DELHI" to get 45.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• (a) 12: This is the sum of the numbers assigned to the letters D, E, L, and H. However, this is not the correct answer because the code does not assign numbers to letters in alphabetical order.
• (b) 45: This is the correct answer because it is the sum of the numbers assigned to the letters D, E, L, H, and I.
• (c) 38: This is the sum of the numbers assigned to the letters D, E, L, and I. However, this is not the correct answer because the code does not assign numbers to letters in alphabetical order.
• (d) 8: This is the sum of the numbers assigned to the letters D, E, and H. However, this is not the correct answer because the code does not assign numbers to letters in alphabetical order.

The correct answer is (a). Invisible exports are exports of services, such as tourism, banking, and insurance. They are called "invisible" because they do not involve the physical movement of goods across borders.

(b) Prohibited goods are goods that are not allowed to be exported, such as drugs and weapons.

(c) Unrecorded goods are goods that are exported but not recorded by the government. This can happen for a number of reasons, such as smuggling or under-reporting of exports.

(d) Goods through smuggling are goods that are exported illegally, without paying taxes or tariffs.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is B. Respiration.

Respiration is the process by which organisms convert food into energy. This process takes place in the cells of the body and involves the breakdown of glucose, a type of sugar, into carbon dioxide and water. The energy released during respiration is used to power the cell's activities.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This process takes place in the leaves of plants and is essential for life on Earth.

Reproduction is the process by which organisms produce offspring. This process can take place sexually or asexually. Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two gametes, or sex cells, to produce a new organism. Asexual reproduction does not involve the fusion of gametes and can occur in a variety of ways, such as budding, fragmentation, or parthenogenesis.

Excretion is the process by which organisms remove waste products from the body. This process takes place in the kidneys and involves the filtration of blood to remove waste products such as urea, creatinine, and uric acid. The waste products are then excreted in the urine.

The correct answer is A. Union.

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the Union and State governments. The Union List includes subjects such as defense, foreign affairs, currency, and railways. The State List includes subjects such as police, public order, and education. The Concurrent List includes subjects such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, and trade and commerce.

Forests are listed in the Union List. This means that the Union government has exclusive power to make laws on forests. The State government can only make laws on forests with the permission of the Union government.

The other options are incorrect. Option B, State, is incorrect because forests are listed in the Union List, not the State List. Option C, Global, is incorrect because forests are a national issue, not a global issue. Option D, Concurrent, is incorrect because forests are listed in the Union List, not the Concurrent List.

The correct answer is A. Mesophytes.

Mesophytes are plants that grow in an environment that is neither very wet nor very dry. They are adapted to a wide range of conditions, and can be found in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and deserts.

B. Sporophytes are the diploid, spore-producing phase in the life cycle of plants. They are typically larger and more complex than the haploid gametophyte phase.

C. Saprophytes are plants that obtain their nutrients from dead organic matter. They are often found in decaying logs or other areas where there is a lot of dead plant material.

D. Tracheophytes are vascular plants, which means that they have a system of tubes that transport water and nutrients throughout the plant. They are the most common type of plant on Earth, and include trees, shrubs, and grasses.

The correct answer is: A. Command Area Development (CAD)

Command Area Development (CAD) is a program launched in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving the utilization of created irrigation potential, increasing agricultural production, and ensuring the equitable distribution of benefits among farmers.

CAD is a comprehensive program that covers all aspects of irrigation development, including planning, implementation, and management. It aims to achieve its objectives by undertaking a number of activities, such as:

• Developing and implementing irrigation schemes
• Providing extension services to farmers
• Promoting the use of improved agricultural practices
• Providing credit and other financial assistance to farmers
• Organizing farmers' groups
• Promoting the use of modern technology

CAD has been implemented in a number of states in India, and has been successful in improving the utilization of irrigation potential, increasing agricultural production, and ensuring the equitable distribution of benefits among farmers.

The other options are incorrect because they are not related to irrigation development.

The correct answer is: A. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4.

Acetone is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent in many products, including nail polish remover and paint thinner. It is also used in the production of plastics and other chemicals.

Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless, non-flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and refrigerant. It is also used in the production of other chemicals, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Iodoform is a white, crystalline solid that is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant. It is also used in the production of other chemicals, such as iodine.

Ester is a compound that is formed by the reaction of an alcohol and an acid. Esters are found in many natural products, such as fruits and flowers. They are also used in the production of perfumes, cosmetics, and other products.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4. This option is correct because acetone is used in nail polish remover, carbon tetrachloride is used in fire extinguishers, iodoform is used in dressing wounds, and esters are found in fruit essence.
• Option B: a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4. This option is incorrect because acetone is not used in dressing wounds.
• Option C: a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3. This option is incorrect because carbon tetrachloride is not used in fruit essence.
• Option D: a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1. This option is incorrect because esters are not used in fire extinguishers.

The correct answer is connective tissue. Connective tissue is the most abundant tissue in the human body, making up about 50% of our body weight. It is found throughout the body, supporting and connecting other tissues and organs. Connective tissue is made up of cells, fibers, and ground substance. The cells in connective tissue are called fibroblasts. Fibroblasts produce the fibers and ground substance that make up connective tissue. The fibers in connective tissue are made of collagen and elastin. Collagen is a strong, tough fiber that provides strength and support. Elastin is a flexible fiber that allows connective tissue to stretch. The ground substance in connective tissue is a gel-like substance that helps to cushion and protect the tissues and organs.

Muscular tissue is the second most abundant tissue in the human body, making up about 40% of our body weight. It is found in the muscles that move our bones. Muscular tissue is made up of cells called muscle fibers. Muscle fibers are long, thin cells that can contract and relax. When muscle fibers contract, they pull on the bones, causing them to move.

Epithelial tissue is the third most abundant tissue in the human body, making up about 10% of our body weight. It is found on the surface of the body and in the lining of the organs and cavities. Epithelial tissue is made up of cells that are tightly packed together. The cells in epithelial tissue form a barrier that protects the body from the environment.

Nervous tissue is the least abundant tissue in the human body, making up about 1% of our body weight. It is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. Nervous tissue is made up of cells called neurons. Neurons are cells that transmit nerve impulses. Nerve impulses are electrical signals that carry information throughout the body.

In conclusion, the most abundant tissue in the human body is connective tissue. Connective tissue is found throughout the body, supporting and connecting other tissues and organs. It is made up of cells, fibers, and ground substance.

The correct answer is (c). A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in any of the two Houses of Parliament, i.e., the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. After it is passed by both Houses, it is sent to the President for his/her assent. If the President gives his/her assent, the amendment becomes a part of the Constitution.

Option (a) is incorrect because a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Option (b) is incorrect because a constitutional amendment bill does not have to be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha. Option (d) is incorrect because a constitutional amendment bill does not have to be approved by the President before it is introduced in Parliament.

The correct answer is: Only argument II is strong.

Argument I is a weak argument because it is based on the assumption that goodwill always pays dividend. This is not always the case. There are many instances where goodwill has been taken advantage of, and where countries have been harmed by their generosity.

Argument II is a strong argument because it is based on the realistic assessment of the situation. It is true that our generous behavior and goodwill may be considered as our weakness by our erring and nagging neighbors. This could lead them to take advantage of us, and to further their own interests at our expense.

Therefore, only argument II is strong.

The correct answer is C. Platyhelminthes.

Platyhelminthes are a phylum of bilaterally symmetrical, unsegmented, soft-bodied invertebrates. They are the simplest animals with a true gastrointestinal tract. Platyhelminthes are found in both marine and freshwater habitats, and some are parasitic.

Nerve cells are found in all platyhelminthes, but nerves are not. Nerve cells are individual cells that are specialized for the transmission of nerve impulses. Nerves are bundles of nerve cells that are organized to transmit nerve impulses over long distances.

In platyhelminthes, nerve cells are scattered throughout the body. They are not organized into nerves. This means that nerve impulses cannot be transmitted over long distances in platyhelminthes.

The other options are incorrect because they all have nerves.

• Porifera are sponges. They do not have true tissues or organs, and they do not have nerve cells.
• Coelenterata are cnidarians. They have a simple nervous system that is organized into a nerve net.
• Nemathelminthes are roundworms. They have a well-developed nervous system that is organized into a central nervous system and a peripheral nervous system.

The correct answer is: South Zone.

The Duleep Trophy is a first-class cricket tournament in India. It is contested by teams representing the five zonal cricket associations of India: Central Zone, East Zone, North Zone, South Zone, and West Zone.

The 2014 Duleep Trophy was played from 12 October to 2 November 2014. The South Zone team won the tournament, defeating the West Zone team in the final.

The South Zone team was captained by Dinesh Karthik. The team's leading run-scorer was Cheteshwar Pujara, who scored 464 runs in six matches. The team's leading wicket-taker was Ravichandran Ashwin, who took 22 wickets in six matches.

The West Zone team was captained by Suresh Raina. The team's leading run-scorer was Virat Kohli, who scored 442 runs in six matches. The team's leading wicket-taker was Ravindra Jadeja, who took 19 wickets in six matches.

The Duleep Trophy is one of the most prestigious first-class cricket tournaments in India. It is named after Maharaja Duleep Singh, the last Maharaja of Punjab. The tournament was first played in 1934.

The correct answer is B. 1957.

Sputnik 1 was the first artificial Earth satellite. It was launched by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957, and became the first human-made object to orbit the Earth. The satellite was a 585-kilogram (1,292 lb) polished metal sphere, 58 centimeters (23 in) in diameter, with four external radio antennas. It was launched from the Baikonur Cosmodrome in Kazakhstan, and orbited the Earth for 96.2 minutes before re-entering the atmosphere and burning up.

Sputnik 1's launch was a major milestone in the Space Race between the United States and the Soviet Union. It demonstrated that the Soviet Union had the capability to launch satellites into orbit, and it shocked the world. The launch of Sputnik 1 also led to the creation of NASA in the United States.

The other options are incorrect. Option A, 1955, is incorrect because Sputnik 1 was not launched until 1957. Option C, 1967, is incorrect because Sputnik 1 was launched in 1957, and option D, 1970, is incorrect because Sputnik 1 was launched in 1957.

The correct answer is B. Gravitational Force.

Gravitational force is the force of attraction between any two bodies by virtue of their masses. It is the weakest of the four fundamental forces of nature, but it is the most important force on a large scale. The gravitational force between two objects is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This means that the more massive two objects are, the stronger the gravitational force between them, and the closer two objects are, the stronger the gravitational force between them.

The gravitational force is responsible for the Earth's orbit around the Sun, the Moon's orbit around the Earth, and the tides. It is also responsible for the formation of stars and planets.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A, Electromagnetic Force, is the force that holds atoms together. It is a much stronger force than gravitational force.
• Option C, Centripetal Force, is the force that keeps an object moving in a circle. It is not a force of attraction.
• Option D, Nuclear Force, is the force that holds the nucleus of an atom together. It is a much stronger force than gravitational force.

The correct answer is (b). India and Japan.

Veer Guardian is a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Japan Air Self-Defense Force (JASDF). The first exercise was held in 2015, and the latest exercise was held in 2022. The exercises are designed to improve interoperability between the two air forces and to promote cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.

India and Japan are strategic partners, and the two countries have been working together to promote peace and stability in the Indo-Pacific region. The Veer Guardian exercises are a key part of this cooperation, and they have helped to improve the interoperability of the two air forces.

The exercises have also helped to promote cooperation between the two countries in other areas, such as disaster relief and humanitarian assistance. The Veer Guardian exercises are a valuable asset to the India-Japan strategic partnership, and they will continue to play an important role in promoting peace and stability in the Indo-Pacific region.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to the bilateral air exercise, ‘Veer Guardian 23’.

The correct answer is A. A single diode.

A NOT gate is a logic gate that inverts its input. This means that if the input is 1, the output will be 0, and if the input is 0, the output will be 1.

A diode is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction only. When a voltage is applied to a diode, the current will flow from the anode to the cathode. If the voltage is applied in the opposite direction, the current will not flow.

A NOT gate can be implemented by using a single diode. The diode is connected in series with a resistor. The input voltage is applied to the anode of the diode, and the output voltage is taken from the cathode of the diode. When the input voltage is high, the diode will conduct and the output voltage will be low. When the input voltage is low, the diode will not conduct and the output voltage will be high.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they cannot implement a NOT gate. A NOT gate requires a device that can invert its input, and a single resistor, a single transistor, or two diodes cannot do this.

The correct answer is D. Bats generate ultrasonic sound waves.

Bats use echolocation to navigate and find food in the dark. They emit high-pitched sounds that bounce off objects and return to the bat, allowing them to create a mental map of their surroundings. This is how bats are able to fly safely and find food in complete darkness.

Option A is incorrect because bats cannot see in the dark. They have very poor eyesight and rely on echolocation to navigate.

Option B is incorrect because bats have strong legs and are not likely to be attacked by predators. In fact, bats are very good at avoiding predators.

Option C is incorrect because bats do not generate flashes of light. They use echolocation to navigate and find food.

The correct answer is: D. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

• Expansion in demand is a rightward shift of the demand curve. This means that at any given price, consumers are willing and able to buy more of the good.
• Contraction in demand is a leftward shift of the demand curve. This means that at any given price, consumers are willing and able to buy less of the good.
• Increase in demand is a movement along the demand curve to the right. This means that at the current price, consumers are willing and able to buy more of the good.
• Decrease in demand is a movement along the demand curve to the left. This means that at the current price, consumers are willing and able to buy less of the good.

Here are some examples of factors that can cause a change in demand:

• Changes in income: If people's incomes increase, they will typically be able and willing to buy more goods and services. This will lead to an increase in demand.
• Changes in the price of related goods: If the price of a substitute good decreases, consumers will be more likely to buy that good instead of the good in question. This will lead to a decrease in demand for the good in question.
• Changes in tastes and preferences: If people's tastes and preferences change, they may be more or less willing to buy a particular good. This will lead to an increase or decrease in demand, respectively.
• Changes in expectations: If people expect the price of a good to increase in the future, they may be more likely to buy it now. This will lead to an increase in demand. Conversely, if people expect the price of a good to decrease in the future, they may be less likely to buy it now. This will lead to a decrease in demand.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is Pushyamitra Shunga.

Pushyamitra Shunga was a general in the army of the Mauryan Empire. After the assassination of Emperor Brihadratha, Pushyamitra overthrew the Mauryan dynasty and founded the Shunga dynasty. He ruled from 185 to 149 BCE.

Agnimitra Shunga was the grandson of Pushyamitra Shunga and the second king of the Shunga dynasty. He ruled from 149 to 141 BCE.

Vasumitra Shunga was the third king of the Shunga dynasty. He ruled from 141 to 135 BCE.

Devabhuti Shunga was the fourth king of the Shunga dynasty. He ruled from 135 to 127 BCE.

The Shunga dynasty was a powerful dynasty that ruled over much of India for over 100 years. They were known for their military prowess and their patronage of the arts.

The correct answer is: C. The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen

Article 31(A) of the Indian Constitution states that "No law providing for the acquisition by the State of any estate or of any rights therein or for the extinguishment or modification of any such rights shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with any of the provisions of this Part (Part III of the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Rights)".

This means that the State can acquire any property, even if it violates the fundamental rights of the owner, as long as the acquisition is done in accordance with the law.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because Article 31(A) does not deal with the State Government.
• Option B is incorrect because Article 31(A) does not deal with the Union Government.
• Option D is incorrect because Article 31(A) does not deal with the Directive Principles of State Policy.

The correct answer is C. MC=MR.

A firm is in equilibrium when it is maximizing its profits. This occurs when the marginal revenue (MR) is equal to the marginal cost (MC). If MR>MC, the firm can increase its profits by producing more output. If MC>MR, the firm can increase its profits by producing less output. When MR=MC, the firm is producing the optimal amount of output and is making the maximum profit possible.

Option A is incorrect because if MR>MC, the firm can increase its profits by producing more output.

Option B is incorrect because if MC>MR, the firm can increase its profits by producing less output.

Option D is incorrect because MC=AC is the condition for a firm to be in a long-run equilibrium position. In the short run, a firm can be in equilibrium even if MC>AC.

Limba Ram is an Indian archer. He is a former world number one in the compound archery category. He has won several medals at international competitions, including a gold medal at the 2010 Asian Games.

Marathon is a long-distance running event, typically 42.195 kilometres (26 miles and 385 yards) in length. It is the longest standard running event in the world. The marathon originated in Greece as part of the ancient Olympic Games. The modern marathon was first run in 1896 at the first modern Olympic Games in Athens.

Shooting is a group of sports that involve the use of projectiles to hit a target. The most common types of shooting sports are archery, rifle shooting, and pistol shooting. Shooting is a popular sport in many countries around the world.

Horse riding is the practice of riding horses. It is a popular recreational activity and a competitive sport. Horse riding can be done for pleasure, transportation, or competition.

The correct answer is: C. Archery.

The correct answer is C. Exaggeration.

Exclamation is the act of crying out in surprise, pain, or other strong emotion. Excellence is the quality of being outstanding or extremely good. Embroidery is the art of decorating fabric with needle and thread. Exaggeration is the act of making something seem larger, better, or worse than it really is.

In the word "exaggeration," the second "g" is unnecessary. The word can be spelled correctly without it.

The correct answer is: B. Chemistry in 1958 and 1980.

Frederick Sanger was a British biochemist who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry twice, in 1958 and 1980. He was awarded the prize in 1958 for his work on the structure of proteins, and in 1980 for his work on the sequencing of DNA.

Sanger's work on proteins was groundbreaking. He developed a method for sequencing proteins, which allowed scientists to determine the order of the amino acids in a protein. This was a major advance in the field of biochemistry, and it paved the way for the development of new drugs and treatments.

Sanger's work on DNA sequencing was also groundbreaking. He developed a method for sequencing DNA, which allowed scientists to determine the order of the nucleotides in a DNA molecule. This was a major advance in the field of genetics, and it paved the way for the development of new technologies, such as genetic engineering.

Sanger's work has had a profound impact on the fields of biochemistry, genetics, and medicine. He is considered one of the most important scientists of the 20th century.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because Sanger was not awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics. Option C is incorrect because Sanger was not awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1903 or 1911. Option D is incorrect because Sanger was not awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1954 or Peace in 1962.

The correct answer is: D. outer mantle

The mantle is the layer of Earth that lies between the crust and the outer core. It is made up of solid rock and is about 2,900 kilometers thick. The outer mantle is the layer of the mantle that is closest to the crust. It is made up of solid rock that is hot and plastic. The outer mantle is responsible for the movement of tectonic plates.

The inner mantle is the layer of the mantle that is below the outer mantle. It is made up of solid rock that is very hot and dense. The inner mantle is responsible for the generation of the Earth's magnetic field.

The outer core is the layer of the Earth that is below the inner mantle. It is made up of liquid iron and nickel. The outer core is responsible for the Earth's magnetic field.

The inner core is the layer of the Earth that is below the outer core. It is made up of solid iron and nickel. The inner core is the hottest part of the Earth.

The correct answer is: C. It must have constant speed in constant direction.

An object moves with constant velocity if it maintains a constant speed and direction. This means that the object's position changes at a constant rate, and the object's path is a straight line.

Option A is incorrect because an object can have constant speed without having constant direction. For example, a car driving in a circle at a constant speed has constant speed but not constant direction.

Option B is incorrect because an object can have constant direction without having constant speed. For example, a ball thrown straight up into the air has constant direction but not constant speed.

Option D is incorrect because the object must have both constant speed and constant direction in order to move with constant velocity.

The correct answer is: A. PQSR

The first sentence (S1) introduces the topic of the passage, which is the impact of technology on human relationships. The second sentence (P) asks a question about how we will react to this change. The third sentence (Q) provides some background information about the change, and the fourth sentence (R) asks another question about how we will react. The fifth sentence (S) provides a possible answer to the first question, and the sixth sentence (S6) provides a possible answer to the second question.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical flow of the passage. Option B (PSQR) puts the question about how we will react before the question about what we are going to do with our new awareness of our variety. Option C (QSRP) puts the background information before the question about how we will react. Option D (RQSP) puts the possible answer to the first question before the question about how we will react.

The correct answer is (d), Singapore.

An export processing zone (EPZ) is a special economic zone (SEZ) that is created to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) by offering businesses a range of incentives, such as tax breaks, duty-free imports, and streamlined customs procedures. EPZs are typically located in developing countries, and they have been credited with helping to boost economic growth and development in these countries.

The first EPZ in Asia was set up in 1965 in Singapore. The Singapore EPZ was a major success, and it helped to transform Singapore into a major economic hub. The EPZ was also a model for other EPZs that were set up in other Asian countries in the following decades.

The other options are incorrect. Al Hilai is a town in Qatar, Kandla is a port town in India, and Noida is a city in India. None of these places have EPZs.

The speed of sound is the distance that a sound wave travels in a given amount of time. It is measured in meters per second (m/s). The speed of sound depends on the medium through which it is traveling. Sound travels fastest in solids, followed by liquids, and slowest in gases.

The speed of sound in water is about 1,500 m/s. The speed of sound in air is about 343 m/s. The speed of sound in glass is about 5,000 m/s. The speed of sound in glycerine is about 1,200 m/s.

Therefore, the speed of sound is greatest in water.

• Sound travels faster in solids than in liquids because the molecules in a solid are closer together than the molecules in a liquid. This means that the sound waves can travel from one molecule to the next more easily in a solid than in a liquid.
• Sound travels faster in liquids than in gases because the molecules in a liquid are closer together than the molecules in a gas. This means that the sound waves can travel from one molecule to the next more easily in a liquid than in a gas.
• Sound travels slowest in gases because the molecules in a gas are far apart from each other. This means that the sound waves have to travel a longer distance between each molecule, which makes them travel slower.

The correct answer is A. Nabadwip.

Nabadwip is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Ganges River, about 100 kilometers north of Kolkata. Nabadwip is a holy city for Hindus, and is especially famous for its Ras festival, which is dedicated to Lord Krishna.

The Ras festival is held every year during the month of February or March. It is a week-long festival of music, dance, and feasting. The festival celebrates the love between Lord Krishna and Radha.

The festival begins with the installation of the idols of Lord Krishna and Radha in a temple. The idols are then decorated with flowers and garlands. The next day, the festival begins with a procession of the idols through the streets of Nabadwip. The procession is accompanied by music and dancing.

The festival culminates in a nightlong dance performance. The dancers, who are dressed in traditional costumes, perform a series of dances that depict the love between Lord Krishna and Radha.

The Ras festival is a major tourist attraction in West Bengal. It is a time for Hindus to celebrate their faith and to come together in community.

Option B, Mayapur, is also a city in West Bengal that is famous for its Ras festival. However, Nabadwip is the more famous of the two cities for this festival.

Option C, Krishnanagar, is a city in West Bengal that is famous for its temples. However, it is not as famous for its Ras festival as Nabadwip.

Option D, Murshidabad, is a city in West Bengal that is famous for its history. However, it is not as famous for its Ras festival as Nabadwip.

The correct answer is (a) Section 290.

Section 290 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the powers of the Appellate Court. It states that the Appellate Court may, in its discretion, direct the trial court to alter or reverse its finding or order, or pass such other order as it thinks fit.

Section 386 deals with the punishment for criminal intimidation. Section 300 deals with murder. Section 395 deals with dacoity.

The correct answer is: B. State

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the Union and State governments. The subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the State governments are listed in the State List. The State List includes subjects such as "relief of the disabled and unemployable".

The Union List includes subjects such as defence, foreign affairs, currency, and railways. The Concurrent List includes subjects such as education, forests, and trade and commerce.

The Global List does not exist in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is A. Robbins.

Lionel Robbins was a British economist who is best known for his work on the foundations of economic theory. He is also known for his views on the role of economics in society, which he argued should be neutral between ends. This means that economics should not be used to promote any particular set of values or goals, but should instead be used to provide a framework for understanding the choices that individuals and societies make.

Marshall was an English economist who is considered one of the founders of neoclassical economics. He is best known for his work on the theory of value and distribution. Marshall argued that economics should be based on the study of human behavior, and that it should be used to improve the welfare of society.

Pigou was an English economist who is best known for his work on welfare economics. He argued that the government should intervene in the economy to correct market failures and promote economic efficiency.

Adam Smith was a Scottish economist and philosopher who is considered the father of modern economics. He is best known for his work on the theory of free markets, which he argued would lead to the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

In conclusion, Robbins was the economist who expressed the view that 'Economics should be neutral between ends'. This means that economics should not be used to promote any particular set of values or goals, but should instead be used to provide a framework for understanding the choices that individuals and societies make.

The correct answer is: A) Handloom and handicraft products.

The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative is a government-run program that aims to promote the sale of handloom and handicraft products in Bangladesh. The program was launched in 2017 and has since been successful in increasing the demand for these products both domestically and internationally.

Handloom and handicraft products are a vital part of Bangladesh's culture and heritage. They are also a major source of income for many people in the country. The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative is helping to ensure that these products continue to be produced and sold, and that the people who make them are able to earn a living.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Handloom and handicraft products. The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative aims to promote the sale of handloom and handicraft products in Bangladesh. These products are a vital part of Bangladesh's culture and heritage, and they are also a major source of income for many people in the country.
* Option B: Tourism. The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative does not aim to promote tourism. Tourism is a separate industry that is not directly related to the production or sale of handloom and handicraft products.
* Option C: Agricultural exports. The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative does not aim to promote agricultural exports. Agricultural exports are a separate industry that is not directly related to the production or sale of handloom and handicraft products.
* Option D: Film industry. The 'Banglar Tanter Haat' initiative does not aim to promote the film industry. The film industry is a separate industry that is not directly related to the production or sale of handloom and handicraft products.

The correct answer is D. financially comfortable job.

A cushy job is a job that is easy and comfortable, and that pays well. It is a job that does not require a lot of work, and that allows the employee to have a lot of free time.

A luxurious job is a job that is very well-paid, and that offers a lot of perks. It is a job that is often associated with high status and prestige.

A job with no work is a job that does not require the employee to do any work. It is a job that is often associated with retirement or disability.

An everlasting job is a job that will never end. It is a job that is often associated with government or public service.

In the context of the question, the answer must be a job that allows the employee to afford to be extravagant. Of the four options, only a financially comfortable job allows the employee to do this.

The correct answer is (c) TELNET.

TELNET is a network protocol that allows a user to log in to a remote computer and interact with it as if they were sitting at the computer's console. It is a text-based protocol, which means that all communication between the client and server is in the form of text.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows users to transfer files between two computers on a network. It is a relatively simple protocol, and it is often used to transfer files between a client computer and a server computer.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that is used to send datagrams between two computers on a network. Datagrams are small packets of data, and they are not guaranteed to be delivered in order or at all.

RAR is a file archive format that is used to compress and archive files. It is a popular format for archiving large files, and it is often used to share files over the internet.

TELNET is the only protocol that is used for remote login. FTP, UDP, and RAR are not used for remote login.

The correct answer is (c).

CENVAT stands for Central Value Added Tax. It is a tax levied on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of goods and services in India. It is a central indirect tax levied by the Central Government of India.

Custom duties are taxes levied on goods imported into a country. They are designed to protect domestic industries from foreign competition and to raise revenue for the government.

Value Added Tax (VAT) is a consumption tax that is levied on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of goods and services. It is a destination-based tax, which means that the tax is levied in the country where the goods or services are consumed.

Central Sales Tax (CST) is a tax levied on the sale of goods from one state to another in India. It is a destination-based tax, which means that the tax is levied in the state where the goods are consumed.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Responsible ecotourism practices in West Bengal include minimizing waste, respecting wildlife habitats, and supporting local businesses.

Minimizing waste is important to protect the environment and the health of local communities. Ecotourists should be mindful of the amount of waste they produce and take steps to reduce it, such as bringing reusable bags and water bottles, and recycling and composting when possible.

Respecting wildlife habitats is essential to the survival of wild animals. Ecotourists should stay on designated trails, avoid feeding animals, and make noise to avoid startling them.

Supporting local businesses is a great way to give back to the community and help to ensure that ecotourism is sustainable. Ecotourists should look for opportunities to patronize local businesses, such as restaurants, shops, and tour operators.

By following these practices, ecotourists can help to ensure that their travels have a positive impact on West Bengal.

The correct answer is A. making.

The verb "avoid" takes a gerund phrase as its object. A gerund phrase is a verb phrase that ends in -ing and functions as a noun. In this case, the gerund phrase is "making mistakes."

The other options are incorrect because they are not gerund phrases. Option B, "to make," is the infinitive form of the verb "make." Option C, "doing," is the present participle form of the verb "do." Option D, "to do," is the infinitive form of the verb "do."

Here are some examples of gerund phrases:

• I enjoy swimming.
• I am looking forward to seeing you.
• She is good at cooking.
• They are tired of working.
• We are afraid of flying.

The correct answer is B. Bhalchandra.

Ajit Agarkar is a former Indian cricketer who played all formats of the game. He was a right-arm fast bowler and a right-handed lower-order batsman. He was born on 10 November 1977 in Mumbai, India.

Agarkar made his Test debut for India in 1998 against Australia. He made his One Day International (ODI) debut for India in 1999 against New Zealand. He was a member of the Indian team that won the 2011 Cricket World Cup.

Agarkar retired from international cricket in 2013. He has played for Mumbai in domestic cricket. He is currently a commentator and analyst for Indian television.

The options are as follows:

• A. Karan: Karan is not the middle name of Ajit Agarkar.
• B. Bhalchandra: Bhalchandra is the middle name of Ajit Agarkar.
• C. Dalmiya: Dalmiya is not the middle name of Ajit Agarkar.
• D. Rohan: Rohan is not the middle name of Ajit Agarkar.

The correct answer is: A. Prologue : Epilogue

A propensity is a natural tendency or inclination to do something. A tendency is a natural inclination or disposition towards a particular action or course of behavior. A prologue is an introductory section or speech that comes before the main part of a book, play, or film. An epilogue is a concluding section or speech that comes after the main part of a book, play, or film.

In both cases, the first word describes something that comes before the second word. A propensity is a tendency that comes before an action, and a prologue is an introductory section that comes before the main part of a book.

The other options do not have the same relationship. A master is someone who has control over a slave, while audacity is boldness or daring. Conduct is behavior, while immorality is wickedness or evil.

The correct answer is (a) Agra, Delhi and Jaipur.

The Golden Triangle is a popular tourist circuit in India that connects Agra, Delhi, and Jaipur. The three cities are located in the northern part of India and are all home to some of the country's most famous historical and cultural sites.

Agra is best known for the Taj Mahal, one of the Seven Wonders of the World. The Taj Mahal is a white marble mausoleum that was built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal. It is considered to be one of the most beautiful buildings in the world.

Delhi is the capital of India and is home to many historical and cultural sites, including the Red Fort, Jama Masjid, and the Qutub Minar. The Red Fort is a 17th-century Mughal palace complex that was once the residence of the Mughal emperors. Jama Masjid is the largest mosque in India and can accommodate up to 25,000 people. The Qutub Minar is a minaret that is 72.5 meters (238 feet) tall and is one of the tallest brick towers in the world.

Jaipur is the capital of the Indian state of Rajasthan and is known for its pink sandstone buildings. The city is also home to the Hawa Mahal, also known as the Palace of the Winds, which is a five-story palace that was built in the 18th century.

The Golden Triangle is a popular tourist destination for both Indian and foreign tourists. The three cities are well-connected by air and rail, and there are many hotels and restaurants to choose from.

The correct answer is (c).

A money bill is a bill that deals with the imposition, abolition, alteration, regulation, or remission of any tax; the borrowing of money by the government; the custody of the public money; the issue of currency; or the borrowing of money on the security of the consolidated fund of India.

Under the Constitution of India, a money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can only discuss a money bill and suggest amendments, but the Lok Sabha has the final say on whether or not to accept the amendments.

The Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary committee that examines the accounts of the government. It is not a legislative body and cannot introduce or pass bills.

The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are the two houses of the Parliament of India. A bill can be introduced in either house, but a money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

The answer is C. SRQP.

In each of the other options, the letters are in alphabetical order.

A. JIHG: J comes before I, I comes before H, H comes before G.
B. OPNM: O comes before P, P comes before N, N comes before M.
D. ZYXW: Z comes before Y, Y comes before X, X comes before W.

In C. SRQP, S comes before R, R comes before Q, but P comes before Q.

The correct answer is A) Manikya Dynasty.

The Manikya dynasty was a royal dynasty that ruled the princely state of Tripura in northeastern India. The dynasty was founded in the 14th century by Tripura Manikya I, and it ruled the state until it was merged with India in 1949. The Manikya dynasty was a Hindu dynasty, and its rulers were known for their patronage of art, architecture, and literature.

The Pala dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled much of eastern India from the 8th to the 12th centuries. The dynasty was founded by Gopala I, and it reached its peak under the rule of Dharmapala and Devapala. The Pala dynasty was a major patron of Buddhism, and its rulers built many Buddhist temples and monasteries.

The Sen dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled parts of eastern India from the 11th to the 13th centuries. The dynasty was founded by Vijaya Sen, and it reached its peak under the rule of Ballal Sen. The Sen dynasty was a major patron of Hinduism, and its rulers built many Hindu temples and monasteries.

The Mughal dynasty was a Muslim dynasty that ruled most of India from the 16th to the 18th centuries. The dynasty was founded by Babur, and it reached its peak under the rule of Akbar and Jahangir. The Mughal dynasty was a major patron of art, architecture, and literature.

The correct answer is: C. an upward shift of the demand curve.

When income rises, people have more money to spend on goods and services. This includes oranges. As a result, the demand for oranges will increase, and the demand curve will shift to the right.

Option A is incorrect because it describes a movement along the demand curve, not a shift in the demand curve. A movement along the demand curve occurs when the price of the good changes, while other things remain unchanged. In this case, the price of oranges is not changing, so there is no reason for the demand curve to shift.

Option B is incorrect because it describes a movement along the supply curve, not a shift in the supply curve. A movement along the supply curve occurs when the price of the good changes, while other things remain unchanged. In this case, the price of oranges is not changing, so there is no reason for the supply curve to shift.

Option D is incorrect because it describes a decrease in demand, not an increase in demand. A decrease in demand occurs when the price of the good decreases, while other things remain unchanged. In this case, the price of oranges is not changing, so there is no reason for the demand to decrease.

The correct answer is: B. Period long enough to allow firms to change plant size and capacity.

The long run is a period of time long enough for firms to change all of their inputs, including plant size and capacity. In the long run, all inputs are variable, and firms can choose the optimal combination of inputs to produce their output.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is too specific. The long run is not necessarily a period of three years or longer. It can be any period of time long enough for firms to change all of their inputs.
• Option C is too general. The long run is not simply a period of time long enough to allow firms to make economic decisions. It is a period of time long enough for firms to change all of their inputs.
• Option D is incorrect. The long run does not necessarily affect larger firms more than smaller firms. It can affect all firms equally, depending on the specific circumstances.

The correct answer is (c) Sarojini Naidu.

Sarojini Naidu was the first Governor of Uttar Pradesh. She was born on 13th February 1879 in Hyderabad, India. She was the daughter of Aghorenath Chattopadhyaya, a Sanskrit scholar, and Barada Sundari Devi, a poetess. She was educated at home by her father and mother. She was fluent in several languages, including English, Hindi, Bengali, and Urdu.

She married Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a social reformer, in 1898. They had two children, a son and a daughter.

She was a member of the Indian National Congress and was actively involved in the Indian independence movement. She was also a poet and a writer. She was known as the "Nightingale of India" for her beautiful voice and her poetry.

She was the first woman to be elected President of the Indian National Congress. She was also the first woman to be Governor of a state in India. She was the Governor of Uttar Pradesh from 1947 to 1954.

She died on 2nd March 1949 in Lucknow, India.

(a) B.G. Reddy was the Governor of Andhra Pradesh from 1956 to 1962.
(b) K.M. Munshi was the Governor of Bombay from 1948 to 1952.
(d) V.V. Giri was the Governor of Andhra Pradesh from 1957 to 1962 and the President of India from 1969 to 1974.

The correct answer is: A) Kolkata metropolitan area.

The Kolkata Metropolitan Development Authority (KMDA) is a statutory body responsible for the planned development of the Kolkata metropolitan area. It was established in 1972 by the Government of West Bengal under the Kolkata Metropolitan Development Authority Act, 1972. The KMDA is headed by a chairman, who is appointed by the Government of West Bengal. The KMDA has a board of directors, which consists of the chairman, the vice-chairman, and other members appointed by the Government of West Bengal. The KMDA is responsible for the planning, development, and management of the Kolkata metropolitan area. It has jurisdiction over the following areas:

* The city of Kolkata
* The districts of 24 Parganas North, 24 Parganas South, Howrah, Hooghly, and Nadia
* The municipalities of Bally, Howrah, Rishra, Serampore, Chandernagore, and Dum Dum
* The Cantonment Boards of Barrackpore and Alipore

The KMDA has a number of functions, including:

* Preparing and implementing master plans for the Kolkata metropolitan area
* Regulating land use and development in the Kolkata metropolitan area
* Providing infrastructure and services in the Kolkata metropolitan area
* Promoting economic development in the Kolkata metropolitan area
* Protecting the environment in the Kolkata metropolitan area

The KMDA is a major player in the development of the Kolkata metropolitan area. It has played a key role in the planning and development of the city, and it continues to work to improve the quality of life for the people of Kolkata.

The other options are incorrect because they are not part of the Kolkata metropolitan area. Howrah is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the banks of the Hooghly River, about 13 kilometers (8 miles) north of Kolkata. Howrah is the second-largest city in West Bengal after Kolkata. It is a major commercial and industrial center. Asansol is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Burdwan district, about 200 kilometers (120 miles) west of Kolkata. Asansol is a major coal mining and industrial center. Durgapur is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Durgapur district, about 250 kilometers (160 miles) west of Kolkata. Durgapur is a major steel and industrial center.

The correct answer is (c). Ethylene is a plant hormone that is mainly responsible for fruit ripening. It is produced by the fruit itself as it matures, and it triggers a number of changes that lead to the softening, color change, and flavor development of the fruit. Ethylene can also be artificially applied to fruits to speed up the ripening process.

Cytokinins are plant hormones that promote cell division and growth. They are not directly involved in fruit ripening.

Abscisic acid (ABA) is a plant hormone that is involved in a number of processes, including seed dormancy, leaf abscission, and stress responses. It is not directly involved in fruit ripening.

(d) None of the above is also not the correct answer.

West Bengal has the largest interstate boundary with Jharkhand and the smallest state boundary with Sikkim.

The correct answer is (a) Rama Bai Ranade.

Ramabai Ranade was a social reformer and educationist who founded the Arya Mahila Samaj in 1882. The Arya Mahila Samaj was a women's organization that worked to improve the status of women in India. It provided education and employment opportunities for women, and campaigned for women's rights.

Pandit Rambai was a social reformer and educationist who was also active in the women's rights movement. However, she did not found the Arya Mahila Samaj.

Sinde was a social reformer who was active in the women's rights movement. However, she did not found the Arya Mahila Samaj.

Handravarkar was a social reformer who was active in the women's rights movement. However, she did not found the Arya Mahila Samaj.

The correct answer is: A. Athletics.

Bridge is a technique used in athletics to help athletes jump higher. It is a move where the athlete bends their knees and then extends their legs quickly to propel themselves into the air. Bridge can also be used to help athletes run faster.

Wrestling is a sport where two people try to pin each other to the ground. Weightlifting is a sport where people lift heavy weights. Karate is a martial art where people use their hands and feet to attack and defend themselves.

Bridge is not a technique used in wrestling, weightlifting, or karate.

The correct answer is (b), Sukumar Sen.

Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India. He was appointed to the post on 21 March 1950 and served until 1958. He was a member of the Indian Civil Service and had served in various capacities in the government of India before being appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner.

Sen was a highly respected figure and is credited with playing a key role in the establishment of a free and fair electoral system in India. He was also instrumental in the introduction of the secret ballot and the use of electronic voting machines in India.

Sen's tenure as the Chief Election Commissioner was marked by a number of challenges, including the first general elections in India in 1951-52. However, he was able to successfully conduct the elections and ensure that they were free and fair.

Sen's legacy as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India is one of integrity, impartiality, and dedication to the cause of democracy. He is remembered as one of the most important figures in the history of Indian elections.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) S.P. Sen Verma was the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1972 to 1975.

(c) R.K. Trivedi was the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1985 to 1990.

(d) T.N. Seshan was the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1990 to 1996.

The correct answer is (b), vitamin K. Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for blood clotting. It is also involved in bone metabolism and wound healing. Vitamin K is found in green leafy vegetables, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, and liver. It is also available as a supplement.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that is important for the immune system, wound healing, and collagen production. It is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, broccoli, and strawberries.

Vitamin E is a fat-soluble vitamin that is important for the immune system, cell function, and protection against free radicals. It is found in vegetable oils, nuts, seeds, and green leafy vegetables.

Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is important for bone health, immune function, and cell growth. It is found in fatty fish, eggs, and fortified milk. It is also produced by the body when exposed to sunlight.

The correct answer is "What".

The question "What are you doing now?" is asking about the action that the person is currently doing. The other options are not relevant to the question.

• "When" is asking about the time.
• "Who" is asking about the person or people involved.
• "Whose" is asking about the ownership of something.

The answer "What" is the most likely answer because it is the most specific and relevant to the question. The other options are more general and could be interpreted in different ways.

The correct answer is: C. to

The prisoner was bound to the stake. This means that the prisoner was tied or chained to the stake. The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

• Option A: The prisoner was bound with the stake. This would mean that the prisoner was wrapped up in the stake. This is not a common way to bind someone, and it would not be very effective.
• Option B: The prisoner was bound of the stake. This does not make sense grammatically.
• Option D: The prisoner was bound at the stake. This would mean that the prisoner was standing near the stake. This is not what the sentence is trying to say.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. to.

The correct answer is (d). The Election Commission of India is an independent constitutional body responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, the State Legislative Assemblies, the offices of the President and Vice-President of India, and the Rajya Sabha seats from the States and Union Territories.

The other options are incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The Prime Minister's Office is the principal office of the Prime Minister of India. The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs is a minister in the Government of India who is responsible for the affairs of the Parliament of India.

The correct answer is: **A) Chatim Tree**

The Chatim tree (Alstonia scholaris) is a large deciduous tree native to tropical and subtropical Asia. It is the state tree of West Bengal, India. The tree is known for its medicinal properties and is also used in religious ceremonies.

The Chatim tree is a fast-growing tree that can reach a height of up to 30 meters. The bark of the tree is grayish-brown and smooth. The leaves are opposite, simple, and ovate-lanceolate in shape. The flowers are small and white and are borne in axillary cymes. The fruits are capsules that contain a number of seeds.

The Chatim tree is a valuable tree for its timber, which is used in construction and furniture making. The bark of the tree is used in traditional medicine to treat a variety of ailments, including fever, headache, and skin diseases. The leaves are also used in traditional medicine to treat a variety of ailments, including asthma, bronchitis, and diarrhea.

The Chatim tree is a sacred tree in Hinduism and is often planted near temples. The tree is also considered to be a symbol of good luck and prosperity.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The mango tree (Mangifera indica) is a large deciduous tree native to tropical Asia. It is the national fruit of India. The tree is known for its edible fruit, which is a popular fruit in many parts of the world.
* The banyan tree (Ficus benghalensis) is a large, spreading tree native to tropical Asia. It is the national tree of India. The tree is known for its aerial roots, which grow down from the branches and help to support the tree.
* The peepal tree (Ficus religiosa) is a large, deciduous tree native to tropical Asia. It is a sacred tree in Hinduism and Buddhism. The tree is known for its heart-shaped leaves and its ability to grow in a variety of habitats.

The correct answer is: grows

The sentence is in the present tense, so the correct verb form is the present simple. The other options are incorrect because they are not in the present tense.

• Is growing is in the present progressive tense, which is used to describe an action that is happening right now.
• Has grown is in the present perfect tense, which is used to describe an action that happened in the past but has an effect on the present.
• Grow is the infinitive form of the verb, which is used to make verb phrases.

The sentence is about a place where no rain falls and no vegetation grows. This means that the action of growing is happening continuously, so the present simple tense is the correct tense to use.

The correct answer is: B. rich, muddy and saturated with water.

Rice is a semiaquatic plant that grows best in flooded soils. The ideal soil for rice is a rich, muddy loam that is saturated with water. This type of soil provides the nutrients and moisture that rice plants need to thrive.

Clayey loam is a type of soil that is composed of a mixture of clay, silt, and sand. Clayey loams are typically rich in nutrients and have good drainage. However, they can be too heavy for rice plants to grow in.

Deep, loamy, well drained soil is a good type of soil for many plants, but it is not ideal for rice. Rice plants need to grow in flooded soils, so deep, loamy, well drained soil will not provide the necessary moisture.

Humus, rich in Fe and potash is a type of soil that is high in organic matter. Organic matter helps to improve soil structure and drainage. However, it does not provide the nutrients and moisture that rice plants need to thrive.

Therefore, the best type of soil for rice is a rich, muddy loam that is saturated with water.

The correct answer is: A. Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it is based on sound reasoning and evidence. High chimneys disperse pollutants over a larger area, which reduces the concentration of pollutants at ground level. This can improve air quality and reduce the health risks associated with air pollution.

Argument II is weak because it is based on a false premise. The fact that high chimneys emit pollutants into the upper atmosphere does not necessarily mean that they increase pollution. In fact, high chimneys can actually help to reduce pollution by dispersing pollutants over a larger area.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• A. Only argument I is strong. This is the correct answer because argument I is based on sound reasoning and evidence, while argument II is weak.
• B. Only argument II is strong. This is incorrect because argument II is weak.
• C. Either I or II is strong. This is incorrect because only argument I is strong.
• D. Neither I nor II is strong. This is incorrect because argument I is strong.
• E. Both I and II are strong. This is incorrect because argument II is weak.

The correct answer is (a) Trombay.

Heavy water is a form of water that contains a higher proportion of the heavier isotope of hydrogen, deuterium, than ordinary water. It is used in nuclear reactors as a moderator to slow down neutrons, and in research as a solvent.

The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in Trombay, Mumbai, is the largest nuclear research centre in India. It was established in 1954 by Homi Jehangir Bhabha, the father of the Indian nuclear program. BARC is responsible for the design, development, and construction of nuclear reactors in India. It also conducts research in nuclear physics, nuclear chemistry, and nuclear engineering.

The Heavy Water Plant at BARC is the only heavy water plant in India. It was commissioned in 1962 and has a capacity of producing 200 tonnes of heavy water per year. The plant uses the electrolysis of water to produce heavy water.

The other options are incorrect. Assam is a state in north-eastern India. Delhi is the capital of India. Bhilai is a city in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is (c) Thermal power.

Thermal power is the largest source of electricity in India, accounting for 62.7% of total generation in 2020. Coal is the primary fuel used for thermal power generation, followed by natural gas and oil.

Hydro power is the second largest source of electricity in India, accounting for 13.4% of total generation in 2020. Hydro power plants use the energy of falling water to generate electricity.

Atomic power is the third largest source of electricity in India, accounting for 3.8% of total generation in 2020. Atomic power plants use the heat from nuclear fission to generate electricity.

All above have equal shares is the wrong answer because thermal power has the largest share in power generation in India, followed by hydro power and atomic power.

The correct answer is B. Fall.

A decrease in demand means that consumers are willing and able to buy less of a good or service at any given price. This causes the demand curve to shift to the left, as shown in the diagram below.

[Diagram of a demand curve shifting to the left]

The equilibrium price is the price at which the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied. When the demand curve shifts to the left, the equilibrium price falls. This is because at the old equilibrium price, there is now excess supply of the good or service. Producers will lower their prices in order to sell their goods, and the price will continue to fall until the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

Option A is incorrect because a decrease in demand causes the equilibrium price to fall, not rise. Option C is incorrect because the equilibrium price will change, not remain constant. Option D is incorrect because the change in the equilibrium price is determinate, not indeterminate.

The correct answer is B. impracticability.

Feasibility is the ability to be done or carried out successfully. Something that is impracticable is not possible or not practical to do.

A. unsuitability is not the correct answer because it means not appropriate or fitting for a particular purpose.

C. impropriety is not the correct answer because it means not in accordance with accepted standards of behavior.

D. cheapness is not the correct answer because it means low in price.

The correct answer is D. Sister-in-law.

Namrata's father has only one son, and Ketan is the son of that son. This means that Ketan is Namrata's nephew. Namrata's nephew's mother is Namrata's sister-in-law.

Here is a diagram to illustrate the relationship:

[Diagram of Namrata, her father, her brother, Ketan, and Ketan's mother]

• Namrata's father is the only parent of Namrata's brother.
• Ketan is the son of Namrata's brother.
• Ketan's mother is the wife of Namrata's brother.
• Therefore, Ketan's mother is Namrata's sister-in-law.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationship between Namrata and Ketan's mother.

• Option A is incorrect because Namrata is not Ketan's daughter.
• Option B is incorrect because Namrata is not Ketan's aunt.
• Option C is incorrect because Namrata is not Ketan's sister.
• Option E is incorrect because Ketan's mother is related to Namrata.

Misha Grewal is a professional squash player from India. She has won the World Junior Squash Championships twice, in 2013 and 2015. She is also a two-time Asian Junior Squash Championships gold medalist. In 2017, she became the first Indian woman to reach the quarterfinals of the World Open Squash Championships.

Badminton is a racquet sport that is played using shuttlecocks that are made of cork with 16 feathers attached to it. The shuttlecock is hit back and forth over a net by two or four players. The object of the game is to hit the shuttlecock so that it lands in the opponent's court and cannot be returned.

Chess is a two-player board game played on a checkered board with 64 squares arranged in an eight-by-eight grid. The game is played by millions of people worldwide. The objective of the game is to checkmate the opponent's king, whereby the king is under immediate attack (in "check") and there is no way to remove it from attack.

Football is a team sport that involves, to the basic rules, two teams of eleven players trying to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms. The team that scores more goals by the end of the match wins. Football is the world's most popular ball game and the most popular sport in the world.

Squash is a racket sport that is played by two or four players in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball. The players alternate hitting the ball with their racquets onto the playable surfaces of the four walls of the court. The objective of the game is to hit the ball in such a way that the opponent is not able to return it.

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. It is the primary international airport serving the city of Kolkata and is the second busiest airport in India after Indira Gandhi International Airport in Delhi. The airport is named after Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose, an Indian nationalist who was the leader of the Indian National Army during World War II.

The airport is located about 17 kilometers from the city center and is connected to Kolkata by a four-lane expressway. The airport has two terminals, Terminal 1 and Terminal 2. Terminal 1 is used for domestic flights while Terminal 2 is used for international flights. The airport has a capacity of handling 25 million passengers per year.

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport is a major hub for Indian airlines such as Air India, Jet Airways, and IndiGo. The airport also serves as a hub for international airlines such as British Airways, Emirates, and Qatar Airways. The airport offers a variety of passenger amenities, including a number of restaurants and cafes, duty-free shops, and a business class lounge.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Kolkata is the correct answer. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, India.
* Option B: Durgapur is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located about 200 kilometers from Kolkata. Durgapur Airport is a domestic airport that serves the city of Durgapur.
* Option C: Siliguri is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located about 500 kilometers from Kolkata. Bagdogra Airport is a domestic airport that serves the city of Siliguri.
* Option D: Asansol is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located about 250 kilometers from Kolkata. Asansol Airport is a domestic airport that serves the city of Asansol.

The correct answer is: D. Singapore

The 2017 Men's Hockey Asia Cup was the 13th edition of the Men's Hockey Asia Cup, the quadrennial international men's field hockey championship of Asia organized by the Asian Hockey Federation. It was held at the National Stadium in Kallang, Singapore from 12 to 27 October 2017.

A total of 10 teams competed in the tournament, divided into two groups of five. The top two teams from each group advanced to the semi-finals. India won the tournament, defeating Malaysia in the final. Pakistan won the bronze medal by defeating South Korea in the third-place playoff.

The following is a brief description of each option:

• A. Dhaka is the capital and largest city of Bangladesh. It is located on the Buriganga River in the central part of the country. Dhaka is the economic, political, and cultural center of Bangladesh. It is also the seat of the government of Bangladesh.
• B. Tokyo is the capital of Japan. It is located on the southeastern side of the main island of Honshu. Tokyo is the most populous city in Japan and the world's most populous metropolitan area. It is also the seat of the Emperor of Japan and the Japanese government.
• C. Teheran is the capital of Iran. It is located in the northern part of the country, at the foot of the Alborz Mountains. Tehran is the most populous city in Iran and the second most populous city in the Middle East. It is also the seat of the government of Iran.
• D. Singapore is a city-state in Southeast Asia. It is located at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula, off the Strait of Malacca. Singapore is the most populous city-state in the world and the fifth most populous country in Asia. It is also the world's busiest port and a major financial center.

The correct answer is: A. MU is negative.

Marginal utility (MU) is the additional satisfaction or benefit that a consumer receives from consuming one more unit of a good or service. Total utility (TU) is the total satisfaction or benefit that a consumer receives from consuming all units of a good or service.

The MU curve will intersect the x-axis when MU is negative. This is because when MU is negative, the consumer is receiving less satisfaction from consuming an additional unit of the good or service. As a result, the consumer will not continue to consume the good or service, and the MU curve will intersect the x-axis.

Option B is incorrect because TU is maximum when MU is equal to zero. This is because when MU is equal to zero, the consumer is receiving the maximum amount of satisfaction from consuming the good or service. As a result, the consumer will not continue to consume the good or service, and the TU curve will reach a maximum point.

Option C is incorrect because both A and B are not always true. For example, if the consumer's MU is negative, but their TU is still increasing, then the MU curve will not intersect the x-axis.

Option D is incorrect because the MU curve will intersect the x-axis when MU is negative.

In uniform circular motion, the linear velocity is perpendicular to the radius vector. This is because the velocity is always tangent to the circle, and the radius vector is always pointing from the center of the circle to the point in question.

The radius is the distance from the center of the circle to any point on the circle. The force is the centripetal force that keeps the object moving in a circle. The momentum is the product of the mass of the object and its velocity.

The radius vector is a vector that points from the center of the circle to any point on the circle. The linear velocity is a vector that points in the direction of motion and has a magnitude equal to the distance traveled divided by the time it takes to travel that distance.

In uniform circular motion, the linear velocity is perpendicular to the radius vector because the velocity is always tangent to the circle, and the radius vector is always pointing from the center of the circle to the point in question.

The correct answer is A. Drain, Gate, Source.

An FET (field-effect transistor) is a type of transistor that uses an electric field to control the flow of current. It has three terminals: drain, gate, and source. The drain is the terminal where the current flows out of the device. The gate is the terminal where the electric field is applied. The source is the terminal where the current flows into the device.

Option B is incorrect because it does not list all three terminals of an FET. Option C is incorrect because it lists the terminals of a vacuum tube, not an FET. Option D is incorrect because it lists the terminals of a bipolar junction transistor, not an FET.

The correct answer is C. mesophytes.

Mesophytes are plants that grow in environments with average levels of moisture and temperature. They are the most common type of plant, and they can be found in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and deserts.

Halophytes are plants that grow in salty environments, such as salt marshes and coastal areas. They have special adaptations that allow them to tolerate high levels of salt, such as thick, waxy leaves that help to prevent water loss.

Hydrophytes are plants that grow in water, such as in ponds, lakes, and rivers. They have special adaptations that allow them to survive in aquatic environments, such as long, thin leaves that help them to absorb nutrients from the water.

Xerophytes are plants that grow in dry environments, such as deserts. They have special adaptations that allow them to conserve water, such as thick, waxy leaves and deep roots.

The correct answer is: B. NAM

The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of developing countries that are not formally aligned with any major power bloc. It was founded in 1961 by 25 countries, including India, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and Ghana. The NAM has since grown to include over 120 countries.

The Africa Fund (Action for Resisting Invasion, Colonialism and Apartheid) was established by the NAM in 1963 to provide financial and material assistance to African countries struggling against colonialism, apartheid, and neo-colonialism. The fund was initially administered by India, but it is now managed by a rotating group of NAM member states.

The other options are incorrect. The United Nations (UNO) is an international organization founded in 1945 after the Second World War by 51 countries committed to maintaining international peace and security, developing friendly relations among nations and promoting social progress, better living standards and human rights. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an intergovernmental organization of eight countries in South Asia: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Afghanistan. The Commonwealth of Nations is a voluntary association of 54 independent countries, most of which were formerly part of the British Empire.

The correct answer is: Steam has latent heat of vaporisation.

When water boils, it turns into steam. This process requires energy, which is called the latent heat of vaporisation. The latent heat of vaporisation is the amount of energy required to change a liquid into a gas at a constant temperature.

The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2260 kJ/kg. This means that 2260 kJ of energy is required to convert 1 kg of water into steam at 100°C.

When steam comes into contact with skin, it transfers this latent heat of vaporisation to the skin. This causes the skin to cool rapidly, which can lead to severe burns.

Water does not have a latent heat of vaporisation. This means that when water comes into contact with skin, it does not transfer as much energy to the skin as steam does. As a result, water is less likely to cause severe burns than steam.

The latent heat of fusion is the amount of energy required to melt a solid at a constant temperature. The latent heat of fusion of water is 334 kJ/kg. This means that 334 kJ of energy is required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C.

The latent heat of fusion does not play a role in the severity of burns caused by steam or water.

The correct answer is (a) Article 243 ZD.

Article 243 ZD of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of District Planning Committees in every district. The Committees are responsible for preparing a draft development plan for the district and for coordinating the implementation of the plans prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities in the district.

Article 362 deals with the power of the President to suspend the operation of the Constitution in certain areas. Article 356 deals with the President's power to proclaim President's Rule in a State. Article 368 deals with the amendment of the Constitution.

Article 243 ZD is the most relevant article for the question as it specifically deals with the establishment of District Planning Committees. The other articles are not relevant as they do not deal with the subject of the question.

The correct answer is A. 25% change in total revenue.

Unitary elastic demand means that the percentage change in quantity demanded is equal to the percentage change in price. In other words, if the price increases by 25%, the quantity demanded will decrease by 25%. This will result in a 25% change in total revenue, because the price and quantity demanded are changing by the same percentage.

Option B is incorrect because a 25% increase in price will not result in no change in quantity demanded. If demand is unitary elastic, a 25% increase in price will result in a 25% decrease in quantity demanded.

Option C is incorrect because a 25% increase in price will not result in a 1% decrease in quantity demanded. If demand is unitary elastic, a 25% increase in price will result in a 25% decrease in quantity demanded.

Option D is incorrect because a 25% increase in price will not result in a 25% decrease in quantity demanded. If demand is unitary elastic, a 25% increase in price will result in a 25% decrease in quantity demanded.

The correct answer is (a). The Indian Parliament passed the Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Act in 2006. The IPR Act is a comprehensive law that provides for the protection of intellectual property rights in India. It covers a wide range of intellectual property rights, including patents, trademarks, copyrights, and geographical indications. The IPR Act is aimed at promoting innovation and creativity, and to ensure that the benefits of intellectual property are shared fairly by all stakeholders.

Option (b) is incorrect because the IPR Act was not passed in 2010. The IPR Act was passed in 2006.

Option (c) is incorrect because the IPR Act was not passed in 2012. The IPR Act was passed in 2006.

Option (d) is incorrect because the IPR Act was not passed in 2016. The IPR Act was passed in 2006.

The correct answer is: A. Verbose.

Verbose means using more words than necessary to express an idea. It is often used to describe writing or speech that is long-winded and wordy.

Pedantic means excessively concerned with minor details or rules. It is often used to describe someone who is overly critical or demanding, especially in matters of grammar or etiquette.

Rhetorical means using language in a way that is intended to persuade or impress. It is often used to describe speech or writing that is full of exaggeration or emotional appeals.

Abundant means plentiful or copious. It is often used to describe something that is present in large quantities.

In the context of the question, the word "verbose" is the best choice because it describes a style of writing that is full of words. The other options do not accurately describe the style of writing in question.

The correct answer is (a) Judicial Magistrate.

A Judicial Magistrate is a judicial officer who has the power to try cases and pass sentences. They are appointed by the state government and are responsible for maintaining law and order in their jurisdiction.

A High Court Judge is a senior judicial officer who has the power to hear appeals against the decisions of lower courts. They are appointed by the President of India and are responsible for ensuring that the law is applied fairly and justly.

A Session Judge is a judicial officer who has the power to try serious criminal cases. They are appointed by the state government and are responsible for ensuring that justice is served in criminal cases.

An Executive Magistrate is a government official who has the power to enforce the law. They are appointed by the state government and are responsible for maintaining law and order in their jurisdiction.

Under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property is decided by a Judicial Magistrate. This is because Judicial Magistrates have the power to try civil cases, which includes cases relating to the possession of property. High Court Judges and Session Judges only have the power to try criminal cases, and Executive Magistrates do not have the power to try any type of case.

The correct answer is: C. Vehicle

A needle is a thin, pointed piece of metal or plastic that is used to point to the time on a clock. A wheel is a circular object that is used to move something. A vehicle is a machine that is used to transport people or things.

In the original pair of words, "needle" and "clock," the needle is used to point to the time on the clock. In the answer pair, "wheel" and "vehicle," the wheel is used to move the vehicle.

The other options are not correct because they do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words.

• Option A, "walk," is not correct because a walk is not used to point to something.
• Option B, "road," is not correct because a road is not used to move something.
• Option D, "driving," is not correct because driving is not used to point to something.

The Indian National Army (INA) was formed by Subhas Chandra Bose.

A. Mahatma Gandhi was a leader of the Indian independence movement who employed nonviolent civil disobedience to lead India to independence from British rule. He is internationally honored for his philosophy of nonviolence and his leadership of the Indian independence movement.

B. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India and a leading figure in the Indian independence movement. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.

C. Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist who was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. However, he later broke with Gandhi and formed the Forward Bloc, a left-wing nationalist party. In 1943, Bose traveled to Germany and Japan, where he formed the Indian National Army (INA), a military force that fought against the British in World War II.

D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was an Indian politician who played a leading role in the Indian independence movement. He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru. After India's independence, Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India and the Minister of Home Affairs. He is known as the "Iron Man of India" for his role in unifying the princely states into the Indian Union.

The correct answer is: D. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

List-I | List-II
------- | --------
a. Non-price quantity relationships of demand | 1. Extension and contraction of demand
b. Income effect of a price rise greater than its substitution effect | 2. Giffen goods
c. Transitivity and consistency of choices | 3. Ordinal utility approach
d. Price quantity relationships of demand | 4. Increase and decrease in demand

Explanation:

a. Non-price quantity relationships of demand: This refers to the factors other than price that can affect the demand for a good or service. These factors include income, taste, and expectations.

b. Income effect of a price rise greater than its substitution effect: This refers to the situation where the income effect of a price rise is greater than the substitution effect, resulting in a decrease in demand.

c. Transitivity and consistency of choices: This refers to the principle that if a consumer prefers good A to good B, and good B to good C, then they must also prefer good A to good C.

d. Price quantity relationships of demand: This refers to the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded of that good. The law of demand states that, ceteris paribus, the quantity demanded of a good will decrease as the price of that good increases.

Giffen goods are a type of good that is an exception to the law of demand. In the case of a Giffen good, the demand for the good actually increases as the price of the good increases. This is because the good is a necessity for the consumer, and the consumer is willing to pay more for the good even though it is now more expensive.

The correct answer is D. ungracious.

Uncouth manners are rude, impolite, or unmannerly. They are often characterized by a lack of respect for others, a disregard for social conventions, or a coarse or vulgar way of speaking or behaving.

Wasteful manners are characterized by a lack of care or concern for the resources that are available. They often involve using more than is necessary or taking more than is one's share.

Dirty manners are characterized by a lack of cleanliness or hygiene. They often involve being unkempt or untidy, or failing to wash one's hands or body properly.

Undesirable manners are characterized by a lack of attractiveness or appeal. They often involve being unpleasant or disagreeable, or behaving in a way that is not socially acceptable.

In the given question, the guests were offended by the man's uncouth manners. This suggests that the man's manners were rude, impolite, or unmannerly. He may have been disrespectful to the guests, disregarded social conventions, or spoken or behaved in a coarse or vulgar way.

The correct answer is (d). The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is a member of the World Bank Group and is dedicated to private sector development in developing countries. It comprises of a Board of Governors, a Board of Directors, a President and Staff.

The Board of Governors is the highest decision-making body of the IFC. It is composed of one governor from each member country. The Board of Governors meets once a year to review the IFC's activities and approve its budget.

The Board of Directors is responsible for the day-to-day management of the IFC. It is composed of 25 directors, who are appointed by the Board of Governors. The Board of Directors meets regularly to discuss the IFC's operations and approve its lending and investment decisions.

The President is the chief executive officer of the IFC. He or she is appointed by the Board of Directors and reports to the Board of Governors. The President is responsible for the overall management of the IFC and for implementing the policies and decisions of the Board of Directors.

The Staff of the IFC is composed of professionals who work in the IFC's headquarters in Washington, D.C., and in its field offices around the world. The Staff is responsible for carrying out the IFC's programs and projects.

West Bengal Vidhan Sabha comprises 295 members of Legislative Assembly. It includes 294 members directly elected from single-seat constituencies and one nominated from the Anglo-Indian community.

The correct answer is (c) 1936.

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru visited Dugadda in 1936 on the invitation of the Garhwal Congress Committee. He was accompanied by his daughter Indira Gandhi. The purpose of the visit was to address a public meeting and to assess the political situation in the region.

Nehru's visit was significant because it was the first time that a national leader had visited Dugadda. It was also a sign of the growing importance of the Garhwal region in the national political scene.

The meeting was attended by a large crowd of people from all over the Garhwal region. Nehru spoke about the importance of independence and the need for unity among the people of India. He also spoke about the need for social and economic reforms.

Nehru's visit was a major boost for the Garhwal Congress Committee. It helped to raise the profile of the party in the region and to increase its support base. It also helped to create a sense of unity and purpose among the people of Garhwal.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the years in which Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru visited Dugadda.

The correct answer is A) Durgapur.

The Alloy Steels Plant is a steel plant located in Durgapur, India. It was established in 1956 and is one of the largest steel plants in India. The plant has a capacity of producing 2.5 million tonnes of steel per annum. It is a part of Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), a government-owned steel company.

Asansol is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Durgapur district. Asansol is the second largest city in West Bengal after Kolkata. It is a major industrial city and is home to a number of steel plants, including the Durgapur Steel Plant.

Haldia is a port city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the Hooghly River, about 120 kilometers from Kolkata. Haldia is a major port city and is home to a number of industries, including the Haldia Petrochemicals Limited.

Kharagpur is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Paschim Medinipur district. Kharagpur is a major educational hub and is home to the Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur.

The correct answer is C. impossible.

An ultra is a person who is extremely enthusiastic about a particular activity or cause. They are often passionate and vocal about their beliefs, and they may be seen as being over the top or even fanatical.

It would be very difficult for one person to have a quiet meal with a set of ultras around them. The ultras would likely be talking loudly and excitedly about their cause, and they may even be chanting or singing. This would make it very difficult for the person to have a conversation or enjoy their meal.

The other options are not as accurate. Option A, "unthinkable," is too strong. It is possible, though difficult, for one person to have a quiet meal with a set of ultras around them. Option B, "undesirable," is also too strong. It is not necessarily undesirable for one person to have a quiet meal with a set of ultras around them. It may be difficult, but it could also be an interesting or even enjoyable experience. Option D, "unbecoming," is not accurate because there is nothing wrong with one person having a quiet meal with a set of ultras around them.

The correct answer is A. 1.

A pyrenoid is a small, round or oval organelle found in some algae and cyanobacteria. It is involved in the storage and synthesis of starch. In Spirogyra, a pyrenoid is located in the center of each cell, and is surrounded by a starch sheath.

Option B is incorrect because there are usually only one pyrenoid per cell in Spirogyra.

Option C is incorrect because there are usually only one pyrenoid per cell in Spirogyra, and not 3-5.

Option D is incorrect because there are usually only one pyrenoid per cell in Spirogyra, and not numerous.

The correct answer is: A) Blocks cold northerly winds.

The Himalayas act as a barrier to cold northerly winds from Central Asia, which helps to keep the climate of West Bengal relatively warm and humid. The Himalayas also cause a rain shadow effect, which means that the eastern side of the mountains receives much more rainfall than the western side. This is because the moisture-laden air from the Indian Ocean is forced to rise up over the Himalayas, causing it to cool and condense. The resulting rain falls on the eastern side of the mountains, while the western side is left relatively dry.

Option B is incorrect because the Himalayas do not create a rain shadow effect on the western side of the mountains. Option C is incorrect because the Himalayas help to keep the climate of West Bengal relatively warm and humid. Option D is incorrect because the Himalayas do not reduce humidity levels.

The correct answer is **B) 1912**.

The capital of British India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1912. This was done by the British government in order to consolidate its power in India and to make Delhi the center of the British Raj. The decision to move the capital was made by King George V and Queen Mary during their visit to India in 1911. The new capital was named New Delhi and was designed by the British architect Edwin Lutyens.

Option A is incorrect because the capital of British India was not shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. The capital was actually shifted in 1912.

Option C is incorrect because the capital of British India was not shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1921. The capital was actually shifted in 1912.

Option D is incorrect because the capital of British India was not shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1931. The capital was actually shifted in 1912.

The correct answer is: C. India Aces

Rafael Nadal played for the India Aces in the International Tennis Premier League (ITPL) 2015. The ITPL was a professional tennis league that was founded in 2014 and held its first season in 2015. The league consisted of six teams, each representing a different country: India, UAE, Japan, Philippines, Singapore, and Hong Kong. The teams competed in a round-robin format, with the top two teams from each group advancing to the playoffs.

Nadal was one of the star players in the ITPL 2015. He won all of his matches in the regular season and helped the India Aces reach the finals. In the finals, the India Aces lost to the UAE Royals. However, Nadal was named the MVP of the ITPL 2015.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: The UAE Royals were represented by Roger Federer in the ITPL 2015.
• Option B: The Japan Warriors were represented by Kei Nishikori in the ITPL 2015.
• Option D: The Philippine Mavericks were represented by David Ferrer in the ITPL 2015.

The correct answer is (b).

During the second reading of a Bill, the Lok Sabha discusses the general principles of the Bill. The Minister in charge of the Bill introduces the Bill and explains its objectives. Members of the Lok Sabha then discuss the Bill and may propose amendments to it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether to accept or reject the amendments.

During the first reading of a Bill, the Lok Sabha is only concerned with the formal introduction of the Bill. The Minister in charge of the Bill introduces the Bill and explains its objectives. The Bill is then referred to a Standing Committee for detailed scrutiny.

During the report stage, the Standing Committee considers the amendments that have been proposed to the Bill and reports its recommendations to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha then considers the recommendations of the Standing Committee and may further amend the Bill.

During the third reading, the Lok Sabha takes a final vote on the Bill. If the Bill is passed, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration.

The correct answer is (b) Patwadangar.

The State Vaccine Institute was set up by the British administration in Patwadangar, Uttarakhand, India in 1890. It was the first vaccine institute in India and was established to provide a safe and effective vaccine against smallpox. The institute was initially located in a small house in Patwadangar, but it was later moved to a larger building in the same area. The institute has been instrumental in the eradication of smallpox in India and has also played a role in the development of other vaccines.

The other options are incorrect because they are not places where the State Vaccine Institute was set up. Mukteshwar is a town in Uttarakhand, India. Dharamghar is a village in Uttarakhand, India. Dhanaulti is a town in Uttarakhand, India.

The correct answer is: C. RPSQ

The first sentence (S1) introduces the topic of the passage, which is the art of growing old. The second sentence (P) states one of the dangers of old age, which is undue absorption in the past. The third sentence (Q) provides a solution to this danger, which is to direct one's thoughts to the future. The fourth sentence (R) provides a more general statement about the dangers of old age. The fifth sentence (S) provides an example of one of these dangers, which is living in memories of the past. The sixth sentence (S6) provides a qualification to the solution, which is that it is not always easy to direct one's thoughts to the future.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical order of the sentences. Option A (QPRS) puts the solution before the problem. Option B (RPQS) puts the general statement before the specific example. Option D (QSRP) puts the qualification before the solution.

The correct answer is: C. Saj

Saj won the 'Best Child Artist' award for the film 'Noor Islam' at the 64th National Film Award 2017.

The film is about a young boy named Noor Islam who lives in a small village in Bangladesh. He is a bright and curious child, but he is also very poor. One day, Noor's father dies, and he is forced to work to support his family. He starts working in a factory, where he is exposed to dangerous chemicals and long hours. Noor's health begins to suffer, and he eventually becomes very sick. The film follows Noor's journey as he tries to overcome his poverty and illness.

Saj gave a powerful performance in the film, and he was praised by critics for his naturalism and emotional range. He was also praised for his ability to convey the character's inner strength and resilience. Saj's performance in 'Noor Islam' was a breakthrough role for him, and it helped to launch his career as an actor.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. Munni is a character in the film 'Noor Islam', but she is not the child who won the 'Best Child Artist' award.
• B. Matin Ray is a Bengali actor, but he did not win the 'Best Child Artist' award for the film 'Noor Islam'.
• D. Teena is a Hindi actress, but she did not win the 'Best Child Artist' award for the film 'Noor Islam'.

The correct answer is Metaphase.

In metaphase, the chromosomes are aligned at the center of the cell. This is the best time to see the shape of the chromosomes because they are condensed and easy to see.

In prophase, the chromosomes are still long and thin, and they are not easy to see.

In anaphase, the chromosomes are pulled apart by the spindle fibers. This is a very dynamic process, and it is difficult to see the individual chromosomes.

In telophase, the chromosomes decondense and become long and thin again. This is not a good time to see the shape of the chromosomes.

The correct answer is C. towards.

The preposition "towards" is used to indicate the direction or position of something in relation to something else. In this case, the treatment is being given "towards" the subordinates. This means that the treatment is being directed at the subordinates, and it is having an effect on them.

The other options are not as appropriate in this context. The preposition "of" is used to indicate possession or ownership. The preposition "for" is used to indicate a purpose or destination. The preposition "to" is used to indicate a destination or recipient. The preposition "about" is used to indicate a topic or subject.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. towards.

The Mahakali River originates in Nepal and is a source for hydroelectric power generation in West Bengal. The correct answer is D.

Sikkim is a state in northeastern India. It is bordered by Bhutan to the north, China to the east, Nepal to the west, and West Bengal to the south. The Mahakali River does not originate in Sikkim.

Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India. It is bordered by Bhutan to the west, China to the north and east, Nagaland to the south, and Assam to the southwest. The Mahakali River does not originate in Arunachal Pradesh.

Bhutan is a landlocked country in the Eastern Himalayas. It is bordered by China to the north and India to the south, east, and west. The Mahakali River does not originate in Bhutan.

Nepal is a landlocked country in South Asia. It is bordered by China to the north and India to the south, east, and west. The Mahakali River originates in Nepal.

The Mahakali River is a transboundary river that flows through Nepal and India. It is the largest tributary of the Ganges River. The Mahakali River is a source of hydroelectric power generation in West Bengal.

The correct answer is D. To stop talking and start doing something.

To cut the cackle means to stop talking and start doing something. It is often used in a humorous way to tell someone to stop talking and get to work. It can also be used in a more serious way to tell someone to stop talking and listen.

The other options are incorrect. To humiliate someone means to make them feel ashamed or embarrassed. To annoy someone means to make them feel irritated or frustrated. To act in a friendly way means to be kind and welcoming.

Bipin Chandra Pal is popularly known as the Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India.

The correct answer is: A) Tropical deciduous and mangrove forests.

West Bengal is a state in eastern India. It is located in the Ganges Delta, which is a large river delta formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. The state has a tropical climate with a monsoon season that lasts from June to September.

The major forest types found in West Bengal are tropical deciduous forests and mangrove forests. Tropical deciduous forests are found in the drier parts of the state, while mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas.

Tropical deciduous forests are characterized by a seasonal rainfall pattern. During the monsoon season, the forests are lush and green. However, during the dry season, the trees shed their leaves and the forests become brown and dry.

Mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas of West Bengal. These forests are adapted to the salty water and muddy soil of the coastal environment. Mangrove forests are important for protecting the coastline from erosion and for providing a habitat for a variety of wildlife.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe the major forest types found in West Bengal. Coniferous and temperate forests are found in the cooler parts of the world, while tropical evergreen forests are found in the wettest parts of the world. Thorn forests and scrublands are found in the drier parts of the world.

The correct answer is: C. MR = 0.

Marginal revenue (MR) is the additional revenue that a firm earns from selling one more unit of its product. It is calculated by taking the derivative of total revenue (TR) with respect to quantity (Q).

Price elasticity of demand (e) is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. It is calculated by taking the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.

When e = 1, demand is unit elastic. This means that a 1% increase in price will lead to a 1% decrease in quantity demanded. In this case, marginal revenue will be equal to zero.

Here is a diagram that illustrates the relationship between price, marginal revenue, and elasticity of demand:

[Diagram of a demand curve with a price elasticity of demand of 1]

As you can see, when the price elasticity of demand is equal to 1, the demand curve is a straight line. This means that the percentage change in quantity demanded is equal to the percentage change in price. In this case, marginal revenue will be equal to zero.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: MR > 0. This is not possible when e = 1. When e = 1, demand is unit elastic. This means that a 1% increase in price will lead to a 1% decrease in quantity demanded. In this case, marginal revenue will be equal to zero.
• Option B: MR < 0. This is possible when e < 1. When e < 1, demand is inelastic. This means that a 1% increase in price will lead to a less than 1% decrease in quantity demanded. In this case, marginal revenue will be negative.
• Option C: MR = 0. This is possible when e = 1. When e = 1, demand is unit elastic. This means that a 1% increase in price will lead to a 1% decrease in quantity demanded. In this case, marginal revenue will be equal to zero.
• Option D: MR = 1. This is not possible. Marginal revenue can never be greater than price.

The correct answer is C. for.

• In is used to indicate a location or position inside something. For example, "The bracelet is in the box."
• On is used to indicate a location or position on top of something. For example, "The bracelet is on my wrist."
• For is used to indicate a purpose or goal. For example, "I am keen for the bracelet."
• With is used to indicate a relationship or association. For example, "I am keen with the bracelet."

In this case, the speaker is asking if the listener is interested in the bracelet. The correct answer is "for" because the listener is interested in the bracelet for a specific purpose, which is to wear it.

The correct answer is (b), 1998.

The Biological Diversity Act was enacted on December 28, 1998. It is a law that protects the biological diversity of the United States. The law sets forth a national policy for the conservation, use, and sustainable development of biological diversity. It also establishes a system of national biological diversity goals and objectives.

The law has several key provisions. One provision requires the Secretary of the Interior to develop a national strategy for the conservation of biological diversity. Another provision requires the Secretary of the Interior to establish a system of national biological diversity reserves. The law also provides for the establishment of a national biological diversity information system.

The Biological Diversity Act is an important law that helps to protect the natural resources of the United States. It is a key part of the nation's efforts to conserve biological diversity.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a), 2000, is incorrect because the Biological Diversity Act was enacted in 1998. Option (c), 2006, is incorrect because the Biological Diversity Act was enacted in 1998. Option (d), 2002, is incorrect because the Biological Diversity Act was enacted in 1998.

The correct answer is: C. in

The preposition "in" is used to indicate a location inside a place. In this case, the hospital is a place, and the man is inside the hospital.

The other options are incorrect because they do not indicate a location inside a place.

• "With" is used to indicate a relationship between two people or things. In this case, the man is not in a relationship with the hospital.
• "At" is used to indicate a location at a specific point in time. In this case, the man is not at a specific point in time in the hospital.
• "To" is used to indicate a movement towards a place. In this case, the man is not moving towards the hospital.

The correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.

The statement "Adversity makes a man wise" does not necessarily mean that the poor are wise. It is possible for someone to experience adversity and not become wise, and it is also possible for someone to become wise without experiencing adversity.

The statement does, however, suggest that man learns from bitter experience. This is because adversity can be a source of learning and growth. When we experience adversity, we are forced to confront our weaknesses and limitations. We may also be forced to make difficult choices. These experiences can help us to develop wisdom and resilience.

Therefore, only conclusion II follows.

The correct answer is: A) Pala.

The Deopara inscription is a 7th-century stone inscription found in Deopara, Bihar, India. It is written in Sanskrit and records the construction of a Buddhist monastery by the Pala king Dharmapala. The inscription provides valuable insights into the history of the Pala dynasty, including their military campaigns, religious patronage, and administrative policies.

The Pala dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over much of eastern India from the 8th to the 12th centuries. They were originally from Bengal, and their capital was at Pataliputra (modern-day Patna). The Palas were patrons of Buddhism, and they built many Buddhist temples and monasteries. They were also patrons of art and literature.

The Pala dynasty was a powerful and influential dynasty that played a major role in the history of India. The Deopara inscription is an important source of information about the Pala dynasty.

The other options are incorrect because they are not dynasties that ruled over eastern India in the 8th to 12th centuries. The Sena dynasty ruled over eastern India from the 11th to the 13th centuries, the Gauda dynasty ruled over eastern India from the 7th to the 10th centuries, and the Gupta dynasty ruled over northern India from the 4th to the 6th centuries.

The correct answer is: **C) Social security**

The Banglar Manush scheme is a social security scheme launched by the Government of West Bengal in 2016. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to the poor and vulnerable sections of the society. The scheme covers a wide range of benefits, including old age pension, widow pension, disability pension, and maternity allowance.

The scheme is funded by the state government and is implemented by the Department of Social Welfare. The scheme is open to all citizens of West Bengal who are below the poverty line. To avail the benefits of the scheme, applicants need to submit an application form to the local social welfare office. The application form can be obtained from the social welfare office or from the website of the Department of Social Welfare.

The benefits of the scheme are provided on a monthly basis. The amount of the benefit depends on the type of benefit and the applicant's income. The benefits are paid through the post office or through a bank account.

The Banglar Manush scheme is a very important scheme for the poor and vulnerable sections of the society. The scheme provides them with financial assistance to meet their basic needs. The scheme has helped to improve the lives of many people in West Bengal.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Healthcare. The Banglar Manush scheme is not a healthcare scheme. It is a social security scheme.
* Option B: Education. The Banglar Manush scheme is not an education scheme. It is a social security scheme.
* Option C: Social security. The Banglar Manush scheme is a social security scheme. It provides financial assistance to the poor and vulnerable sections of the society.
* Option D: Housing. The Banglar Manush scheme is not a housing scheme. It is a social security scheme.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of the five main organs of the United Nations. It is responsible for promoting international economic and social cooperation and development. ECOSOC has five regional commissions:

• The Economic Commission for Europe (ECE) was established in 1947 to promote economic cooperation and development in Europe.
• The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) was established in 1947 to promote economic and social development in Asia and the Pacific.
• The Economic Commission for Latin America and the Caribbean (ECLAC) was established in 1948 to promote economic and social development in Latin America and the Caribbean.
• The Economic Commission for Africa (ECA) was established in 1958 to promote economic and social development in Africa.
• The Economic and Social Commission for Western Asia (ESCWA) was established in 1973 to promote economic and social development in Western Asia.

These commissions provide a forum for governments to discuss economic and social issues, and to develop and implement policies to address these issues. They also provide technical assistance to governments and other organizations.

The correct answer is B. 8080.

The Intel 8080 is a 8-bit microprocessor chip that was first released in 1974. It was the first microprocessor to be widely used in personal computers, and it was used in the Altair 8800, which is considered to be the first real personal computer.

The 6502 is a 8-bit microprocessor chip that was first released in 1975. It was used in the Apple II, Commodore 64, and many other popular home computers.

The 6400 is a family of microprocessor chips that was released by Intel in 1972. It was the first microprocessor chip to be used in a commercial product, the Datapoint 2200.

The 8286 is a 16-bit microprocessor chip that was released by Intel in 1982. It was used in the IBM PC and many other personal computers.

The correct answer is (b).

The day of the week repeats itself every 7 days. So, if January 12, 1979 was Friday, then January 12, 1984 will be Monday.

Option (a), Sunday, is incorrect because January 12, 1979 was Friday, and 7 days after Friday is Monday.

Option (c), Tuesday, is incorrect because January 12, 1979 was Friday, and 14 days after Friday is Tuesday.

Option (d), Wednesday, is incorrect because January 12, 1979 was Friday, and 21 days after Friday is Wednesday.

The answer is D. Siachen.

A. Sambhar is a type of lake.
B. Dal is a type of lentil.
C. Baikal is the world's deepest lake.
E. Chilka is the largest lagoon in India.

Siachen is a glacier, not a lake, lentil, or lagoon.

The correct answer is B. Beats.

Beats are a phenomenon that occurs when two sound waves of slightly different frequencies are heard at the same time. The waves interfere with each other, causing the loudness of the sound to alternate between louder and softer. The frequency of the beats is equal to the difference between the frequencies of the two waves.

Doppler effect is the change in frequency of a wave for an observer moving relative to the wave source. The Doppler effect is commonly heard as the change in pitch of a train whistle as it passes by.

Resonance is the phenomenon of a system oscillating with greater amplitude at some frequencies than at others. When an external force is applied at a resonant frequency, the system will oscillate with a larger amplitude than if the same force were applied at a different frequency.

Echo is the repetition of a sound caused by the reflection of sound waves from a surface. Echoes are often used to determine the distance to an object.

The correct answer is C.

Economic goods are all commodities that are limited in quantity as compared to their demand. This means that there is not enough of the good to satisfy everyone who wants it. As a result, people have to make choices about how they will allocate their limited resources to acquire the goods they want.

Option A is incorrect because it refers to commodities that are available according to their demand. This would mean that there is always enough of the good to satisfy everyone who wants it. However, this is not the case for most goods, as they are limited in quantity.

Option B is incorrect because it refers to commodities that are available more as compared to demand. This would mean that there is more of the good than people want. However, this is not the case for most goods, as they are limited in quantity.

Option D is incorrect because it is not a valid option.

The correct answer is (b), 1.

Mayawati was the first and only woman to serve as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. She was elected to the position in 1995, 2002, and 2007. She is a member of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) and is known for her strong support for the Dalit community.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the number of women who have served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh.

The answer is C. Winds.

A lake is a large body of water that is surrounded by land. A river is a natural stream of water that flows in a channel on the surface of the land. A current is a stream of water or air that flows in a particular direction. Winds are air currents that flow horizontally.

Lakes, rivers, and currents are all bodies of water that move. However, winds are not bodies of water. They are air currents that flow horizontally.

The correct answer is C. Methane and Air.

Methane is a colorless, odorless, and flammable gas that is found in natural gas and coal mines. When methane is mixed with air, it can form an explosive mixture. If a spark or flame ignites the mixture, it can cause a mine explosion.

Oxygen is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas that is essential for combustion. When oxygen is mixed with methane, it can increase the risk of a mine explosion.

Acetylene is a colorless, flammable gas that is used in welding and cutting. When acetylene is mixed with oxygen, it can form a highly explosive mixture. However, acetylene is not typically found in mines, so it is not a major cause of mine explosions.

Carbon dioxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas that is heavier than air. It is not flammable, but it can displace oxygen in the air, which can make it difficult to breathe. Carbon dioxide is not a major cause of mine explosions.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. Methane and Air.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Akbar was the third Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1556 to 1605. He was a great conqueror and a wise ruler. He was also a religious reformer who issued the Mahzarnama in 1579. The Mahzarnama was a document in which Akbar declared himself to be the supreme authority in religious matters. He also declared that all religions were equal and that his subjects were free to practice their own religion.

Iltutmish was the second ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who ruled from 1211 to 1236. He was a great military commander who expanded the Delhi Sultanate. He was also a devout Muslim who built many mosques and madrasas.

Nadir Shah was the ruler of Persia who invaded India in 1739. He was a great conqueror who looted Delhi and took away many treasures. He was not a religious ruler and did not issue any religious decrees.

Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal emperor who ruled from 1628 to 1658. He was a great builder who built the Taj Mahal. He was also a religious ruler who issued many religious decrees. However, he did not issue the Mahzarnama.

In conclusion, the correct answer is Akbar. He was the third Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1556 to 1605. He was a great conqueror and a wise ruler. He was also a religious reformer who issued the Mahzarnama in 1579. The Mahzarnama was a document in which Akbar declared himself to be the supreme authority in religious matters. He also declared that all religions were equal and that his subjects were free to practice their own religion.

The correct answer is C. Sravanabelagola, Karnataka.

The statue of Gomateswara is a monolithic statue of the Jain saint Bahubali, also known as Gomateshwara. It is located in the town of Sravanabelagola in the Indian state of Karnataka. The statue is 58.8 feet (17.95 meters) tall and is carved out of a single block of granite. It is the tallest monolithic statue in the world.

The statue was built in the 10th century by the Chalukya dynasty. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The statue is a popular pilgrimage site for Jains. It is also a popular tourist destination.

Option A is incorrect because New Delhi is the capital of India. It is not a city in Karnataka.

Option B is incorrect because Mandu is a city in Madhya Pradesh. It is not a city in Karnataka.

Option D is incorrect because Mysore is a city in Karnataka. However, the statue of Gomateswara is not located in Mysore. It is located in the town of Sravanabelagola.

The correct answer is D. Relative density has no unit. It is a dimensionless quantity. It is defined as the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a reference substance. The reference substance is usually water, which has a density of 1 g/cm3 or 1000 kg/m3. Relative density is often used to compare the densities of different substances. For example, the relative density of gold is 19.3, which means that gold is 19.3 times denser than water.

Option A is incorrect because kilograms per meter (kg/m) is the unit of mass per unit length. Option B is incorrect because kilograms per square meter (kg/m2) is the unit of mass per unit area. Option C is incorrect because kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m3) is the unit of mass per unit volume.

The correct answer is D. The rent earned by a factor of production is equal to the difference between what this factor is currently earning and what this factor can obtain in its next best use.

Option A is incorrect because the rent earned by a factor of production is not equal to what this product can earn in its next best use. For example, if a farmer is currently earning $100 per acre for growing corn, and the next best use for that land is to grow soybeans, and the farmer could earn $90 per acre for growing soybeans, then the rent earned by the land is $10 per acre.

Option B is incorrect because the rent earned by a factor of production is not equal to the sum of this output accrues in its present use and what it can earn in its next best use. For example, if a farmer is currently earning $100 per acre for growing corn, and the next best use for that land is to grow soybeans, and the farmer could earn $90 per acre for growing soybeans, then the rent earned by the land is $10 per acre, not $190 per acre.

Option C is incorrect because the rent earned by a factor of production is not equal to his present earnings. For example, if a farmer is currently earning $100 per acre for growing corn, and the next best use for that land is to grow soybeans, and the farmer could earn $90 per acre for growing soybeans, then the rent earned by the land is $10 per acre, not $100 per acre.

The correct answer is: A) Partition of Bengal and influx of refugees.

The partition of Bengal in 1947 led to the mass migration of people from one side of the border to the other. This influx of refugees, combined with the high birth rate in West Bengal, led to a rapid increase in population.

Large-scale industrialization did not begin in West Bengal until the late 20th century, and it did not have a significant impact on population growth until the 1990s.

Out-migration to other states has been a major factor in population decline in West Bengal in recent years.

Decline in agricultural productivity has not been a major factor in population growth in West Bengal.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

* Option A: Partition of Bengal and influx of refugees. The partition of Bengal in 1947 led to the mass migration of people from one side of the border to the other. This influx of refugees, combined with the high birth rate in West Bengal, led to a rapid increase in population.
* Option B: Large-scale industrialization. Large-scale industrialization did not begin in West Bengal until the late 20th century, and it did not have a significant impact on population growth until the 1990s.
* Option C: Out-migration to other states. Out-migration to other states has been a major factor in population decline in West Bengal in recent years.
* Option D: Decline in agricultural productivity. Decline in agricultural productivity has not been a major factor in population growth in West Bengal.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "If he had money, he will buy a house" is in the simple present conditional tense. This tense is used to talk about hypothetical situations that are not likely to happen. In this case, the speaker is saying that if the man had money, he would buy a house.

The other options are all incorrect. Option A, "he is buying a house," is in the present continuous tense. This tense is used to talk about actions that are happening right now. In this case, the speaker is saying that the man is buying a house, which is not what they are trying to say.

Option B, "he were buying a house," is in the past subjunctive tense. This tense is used to talk about hypothetical situations that are not likely to have happened. In this case, the speaker is saying that if the man had money, he would have bought a house. However, the speaker is not saying that the man did not have money, so the past subjunctive tense is not appropriate.

Option C, "he did buy a house," is in the simple past tense. This tense is used to talk about actions that happened in the past. In this case, the speaker is saying that the man bought a house, which is not what they are trying to say.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. No improvement.

The correct answer is (d). Finger millet is known as Mandua in Uttarakhand. It is a type of millet that is grown in the Himalayas. It is a staple food in the region and is used to make a variety of dishes, including roti, bhaat, and khichdi. Mandua is a good source of protein, fiber, and minerals. It is also gluten-free and can be a good alternative for people with celiac disease or gluten intolerance.

(a) Jhandla is a type of millet that is grown in the plains of India. It is not as common in Uttarakhand as Mandua.

(b) Bajra is a type of millet that is grown in the arid regions of India. It is not as common in Uttarakhand as Mandua.

(c) Cheena is a type of rice that is grown in the Himalayas. It is not as common in Uttarakhand as Mandua.

The correct answer is (a) Kalahari.

The Kalahari is a semi-arid savanna in Southern Africa. It covers an area of 900,000 square kilometers (350,000 sq mi), making it the third-largest hot desert in the world, after the Sahara and the Arabian Desert. The Kalahari is located in Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa.

The Gobi is a desert in Northern Asia. It covers an area of 1,300,000 square kilometers (500,000 sq mi), making it the fifth-largest desert in the world. The Gobi is located in Mongolia and China.

The Chihuahuan Desert is a desert in North America. It covers an area of 450,000 square kilometers (170,000 sq mi), making it the largest desert in North America. The Chihuahuan Desert is located in Mexico and the United States.

The Sahara is a desert in North Africa. It covers an area of 9,200,000 square kilometers (3,500,000 sq mi), making it the largest hot desert in the world. The Sahara is located in Algeria, Chad, Egypt, Libya, Mali, Mauritania, Morocco, Niger, Western Sahara, and Sudan.

Bardhaman has the highest availibility of Milk while South Dinajpur has the lowest.

The correct answer is: Ordinal utility.

Ordinal utility is a concept in economics that states that consumers can rank their preferences for different goods and services, but they cannot assign specific numerical values to those preferences. This means that consumers can say that they prefer A to B, or that they are indifferent between A and B, but they cannot say that they prefer A to B by a factor of 2.

Ordinal utility is the basis for indifference curve analysis, which is a tool used to analyze consumer behavior. Indifference curves are curves that show all the combinations of goods and services that a consumer would be equally happy with. The slope of an indifference curve indicates the marginal rate of substitution, which is the rate at which a consumer is willing to trade one good for another.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Independent utility is the concept that the utility a consumer derives from one good is not affected by the consumption of another good. This is not a necessary assumption for indifference curve analysis.
• Cardinal utility is the concept that consumers can assign specific numerical values to their preferences for different goods and services. This is not a necessary assumption for indifference curve analysis.
• Diminishing marginal utility is the concept that the additional utility a consumer derives from consuming one more unit of a good declines as the consumer consumes more of that good. This is a concept that is often used in indifference curve analysis, but it is not a necessary assumption.

The correct answer is (a) Section 83.

The M'Naghten Rules are a set of rules used by English and other common law jurisdictions to determine whether the defendant was insane at the time of the crime and therefore not criminally responsible. The rules were established in 1843 by the House of Lords in the case of Daniel M'Naghten, who had shot and killed Edward Drummond, the private secretary of Prime Minister Robert Peel, believing that Drummond was the prime minister.

The M'Naghten Rules state that a person is not responsible for criminal conduct if at the time of such conduct, as a result of a defect of reason from disease of the mind, he did not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing; or, if he did know it, that he did not know that what he was doing was wrong.

Section 83 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is titled "Insanity". It states that "Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature and quality of the act he is doing, or of knowing that he is doing what is wrong".

The M'Naghten Rules are similar to Section 83 of the IPC in that they both require the defendant to be suffering from a defect of reason from disease of the mind. However, the M'Naghten Rules are more restrictive than Section 83 in that they require the defendant to not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing, or to not know that what he was doing was wrong. Section 83, on the other hand, only requires the defendant to be incapable of knowing the nature and quality of the act he was doing, or of knowing that he is doing what is wrong.

The M'Naghten Rules have been criticized for being too narrow and for not taking into account the defendant's mental state at the time of the crime. Section 83 of the IPC has also been criticized for being too narrow, but it has been amended to include a provision that allows for the consideration of the defendant's mental state at the time of the crime.

The correct answer is A) Murshidabad.

Murshidabad is a district in West Bengal, India. It is known for its historical association with the Hazarduari Palace. The palace was built in the 18th century by Nawab Siraj ud-Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal. It is a large palace complex with a number of buildings, including a mosque, a library, and a treasury. The palace is now a museum and is open to the public.

Malda is a district in West Bengal, India. It is known for its production of jute and tea. The district is also home to a number of historical sites, including the Malda Fort and the Kantajew Temple.

Nadia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is known for its production of rice and sugarcane. The district is also home to a number of historical sites, including the Krishnanagar Palace and the Nabadwip Kali Temple.

Hooghly is a district in West Bengal, India. It is known for its industrial development. The district is also home to a number of historical sites, including the Howrah Bridge and the Dakshineswar Kali Temple.

Singalila National Park is located in Darjeeling district of West Bengal. It is located at a very high altitude of more than 7000 ft from sea level and is also the highest national park of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (b).

The Charter of 1753 was granted by the British East India Company to the Governor and Council of Fort William in Bengal. It established a Supreme Court in Calcutta, with jurisdiction over all civil and criminal cases involving Europeans. The Charter also established a Mayor's Court in Calcutta, with jurisdiction over all civil and criminal cases involving Indians.

The Charter of 1661 was granted by King Charles II to the British East India Company. It gave the Company the right to trade in India and to establish factories and trading posts there. The Charter did not establish any courts in India.

The Charter of 1726 was granted by King George I to the British East India Company. It gave the Company the right to establish a mint in India and to issue its own currency. The Charter did not establish any courts in India.

(d) is incorrect because the Charter of 1753 was the one that established the Civil and Criminal Courts in Presidency towns.

The correct answer is: A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

• Time preference theory is a theory of interest that states that people prefer to have goods and services now rather than in the future. This is because people have a positive time preference, which means that they value goods and services more highly when they are received sooner rather than later. This theory was developed by Austrian economist Eugen von Böhm-Bawerk.
• Classical theory of interest is a theory of interest that states that interest is determined by the supply and demand for loanable funds. The supply of loanable funds is determined by savings, while the demand for loanable funds is determined by investment. This theory was developed by classical economists such as David Ricardo and Adam Smith.
• Loanable fund theory is a theory of interest that states that interest is determined by the supply and demand for loanable funds. The supply of loanable funds is determined by savings, while the demand for loanable funds is determined by investment. This theory was developed by Swedish economist Knut Wicksell.
• Liquidity preference theory is a theory of interest that states that interest is determined by the demand for money. The demand for money is determined by the transactions motive, the precautionary motive, and the speculative motive. This theory was developed by British economist John Maynard Keynes.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1.

The correct answer is B) Xuanzang.

Xuanzang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India in the 7th century CE. He left behind a detailed account of his travels, which includes descriptions of the people, places, and customs he encountered. His writings are an important source of information about India during the Gupta period.

Fa Xian was another Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India in the 5th century CE. He also left behind a detailed account of his travels, but his writings are not as comprehensive as Xuanzang's.

Yijing was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India in the 7th century CE. He was a contemporary of Xuanzang, but his travels took him to different parts of India. His writings are also an important source of information about India during the Gupta period.

However, Xuanzang's writings are considered to be more reliable than Fa Xian's and Yijing's, as he spent more time in India and traveled to more places. He also had a better command of the local language, which allowed him to interact with the people more easily.

Xuanzang's writings provide a valuable glimpse into the life and culture of India during the Gupta period. They are an important source of information for historians and scholars alike.

The correct answer is: D. Continue to operate as long as it covers its variable cost.

A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker, which means that it has no control over the market price of its product. If the market price is below the firm's average variable cost, then the firm will shut down in the short run. This is because the firm will lose more money by producing and selling its product than it would by simply shutting down and paying its fixed costs. However, if the market price is above the firm's average variable cost, then the firm will continue to operate in the short run. This is because the firm will make a profit by producing and selling its product, even though it will still be incurring some losses.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Reduce the size of its plant to lower fixed costs. This option is not correct because a perfectly competitive firm has no control over its fixed costs. Fixed costs are costs that do not change in the short run, regardless of the level of output. For example, a firm's rent is a fixed cost. If the firm reduces the size of its plant, it will still have to pay its rent, even if it is not producing any output.
• Raise the price of its product. This option is not correct because a perfectly competitive firm is a price taker. This means that the firm has no control over the market price of its product. The market price is determined by the interaction of supply and demand in the market.
• Shut down. This option is correct if the market price is below the firm's average variable cost. This is because the firm will lose more money by producing and selling its product than it would by simply shutting down and paying its fixed costs.
• Continue to operate as long as it covers its variable cost. This option is correct if the market price is above the firm's average variable cost. This is because the firm will make a profit by producing and selling its product, even though it will still be incurring some losses.

The correct answer is: A. 26 April

World Intellectual Property Day is celebrated on April 26 every year. It is a day to raise awareness of the importance of intellectual property (IP) rights. IP rights are the rights granted to creators of intellectual property, such as inventions, literary and artistic works, and designs. These rights help to encourage innovation and creativity, and they play an important role in the global economy.

The day was established by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) in 2001. The date was chosen to commemorate the signing of the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works in 1886. The Berne Convention is one of the oldest and most important international treaties on intellectual property.

Each year, WIPO organizes a series of events to celebrate World Intellectual Property Day. These events include conferences, workshops, and exhibitions. The goal of these events is to raise awareness of the importance of IP rights and to promote their use and protection.

In addition to the events organized by WIPO, many other organizations and individuals around the world celebrate World Intellectual Property Day. These celebrations often include activities such as lectures, workshops, and exhibitions. The goal of these activities is to educate the public about IP rights and to encourage their use and protection.

World Intellectual Property Day is an important opportunity to raise awareness of the importance of IP rights. These rights play a vital role in the global economy, and they help to encourage innovation and creativity. By celebrating World Intellectual Property Day, we can help to ensure that these rights are respected and protected around the world.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 26 April is the correct answer.
• Option B: 29 November is the World Television Day.
• Option C: 26 April is the World Intellectual Property Day.
• Option D: The 2nd Wednesday of October is the World Food Day.

The correct answer is: A. International Volunteers Day

International Volunteers Day is a United Nations observance held annually on 5 December. It was established in 1985 by the United Nations General Assembly to recognize the efforts of volunteers in promoting peace and development.

World Soil Day is an international observance held annually on 5 December to raise awareness of the importance of soil and to promote sustainable soil management. It was established by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations in 2002.

Therefore, 5 December is celebrated as International Volunteers Day, not World Soil Day.

The correct answer is: D. None of Above

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent constitutional authority of India, responsible for auditing the accounts of the central and state governments, as well as of public sector undertakings. The CAG is appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a select committee of the Parliament. The CAG can only be removed from office on the recommendation of a joint parliamentary committee, after an impeachment process.

A High Court Judge can be removed from office on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity, on the recommendation of the President of India, after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

A Prime Minister can be removed from office by a vote of no confidence in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament. If the Prime Minister loses a vote of no confidence, the President of India can either dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for fresh elections, or appoint a new Prime Minister.

A Supreme Court Judge can be removed from office on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity, on the recommendation of the President of India, after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

The CAG is not removable in the same manner as a High Court Judge, a Prime Minister, or a Supreme Court Judge. The CAG is a more independent authority, and its removal is more difficult. This is because the CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the government, and it is important that the CAG be able to do its job without fear or favor.

The correct answer is: B. Pangurian : Porcupine

A colubrine is a snake, and a pangurian is a porcupine. Both colubrine and pangurian are names of animals that belong to a specific group. Colubrine snakes are all members of the family Colubridae, while pangurians are all members of the family Hystricidae.

A lupine is a plant, and a wolf is an animal. Lupines and wolves are not members of the same group. Lupines are plants, while wolves are animals.

A psittacine is a parrot, and ophiolatry is the worship of snakes. Psittacines and ophiolatry are not members of the same group. Psittacines are birds, while ophiolatry is a religious practice.

The correct answer is A) Land reform and social justice.

The Zamindari system was a system of land tenure in India in which the Zamindars, or landlords, held large tracts of land and collected revenue from the peasants who worked the land. The system was abolished in 1950 by the Land Reforms Act, which redistributed land to the peasants and gave them greater control over their own lives.

The abolition of the Zamindari system was a significant step towards land reform and social justice. It helped to break the power of the landlords and gave the peasants a greater say in how their land was used. It also helped to improve the lives of the peasants by giving them more control over their own resources and by providing them with a greater opportunity to improve their economic status.

The other options are incorrect. Option B, Promoting industrialization, is incorrect because the abolition of the Zamindari system did not have a significant impact on industrialization. Option C, Strengthening the power of landlords, is incorrect because the abolition of the Zamindari system weakened the power of the landlords. Option D, Increasing agricultural productivity, is incorrect because the abolition of the Zamindari system did not have a significant impact on agricultural productivity.

Buxa National Park is situated in Alipurduar district of West Bengal. Gorumara National Park is situated in Duars region of Jalpaiguri district in West Bengal. Singalila National Park is situated in Darjeeling district of West Bengal. Sundarbans National Park is situated in South 24 Parganas district of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (c). A pyrometer is used to measure high temperature.

A pyrometer is a non-contact thermometer used to measure the temperature of a surface. It does this by measuring the amount of infrared radiation emitted by the surface. Pyrometers are used in a variety of industries, including manufacturing, metalworking, and glassmaking.

Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted by the weight of the air above a given point on Earth's surface. It is measured in units of pascals (Pa). Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air. It is measured in percent relative humidity. Density is the mass of a substance per unit volume. It is measured in grams per cubic centimeter (g/cm3).

The correct answer is: C. Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

The Governor's discretionary powers are limited in the following ways:

• The Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in certain matters such as the appointment of the Chief Minister, the dismissal of the Ministry, and the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.
• The Governor can be removed from office by the President on the advice of the Central Government.
• The Governor's decisions can be challenged in the courts.

The Governor's power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly is limited by the following factors:

• The Governor can only dissolve the Assembly if the Ministry has lost the confidence of the Assembly.
• The Governor must consult the Chief Minister before dissolving the Assembly.
• The Governor must also consult the leaders of the other political parties in the Assembly before dissolving it.

The Governor's power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly is an important power, but it is not an absolute power. The Governor must act in accordance with the Constitution and the laws of the state.

The correct answer is: A. Jim Kiick

Jim Kiick was a running back in the National Football League (NFL) for the Miami Dolphins and the New York Jets. He was nicknamed "The Sundance Kid" because of his resemblance to Robert Redford's character in the 1969 film of the same name.

Kiick was born in 1946 in Warren, Ohio. He attended the University of Miami, where he played college football. After graduating from college, Kiick was drafted by the Dolphins in the first round of the 1968 NFL Draft.

Kiick played for the Dolphins for nine seasons, from 1968 to 1976. He was a member of the Dolphins' undefeated 1972 team that won Super Bowl VII. Kiick also played for the Jets in 1977 and 1978.

Kiick retired from the NFL after the 1978 season. He was inducted into the Miami Dolphins Honor Roll in 1991.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. Troy Aikman was a quarterback in the NFL for the Dallas Cowboys. He was not nicknamed "The Sundance Kid."
• C. Brett Favre was a quarterback in the NFL for the Green Bay Packers, Atlanta Falcons, and New York Jets. He was not nicknamed "The Sundance Kid."
• D. Joe Montana was a quarterback in the NFL for the San Francisco 49ers and Kansas City Chiefs. He was not nicknamed "The Sundance Kid."

The odd one out is B. Good : Bad.

All the other options are opposites of each other.

• Valley : Depth - A valley is a low-lying area between hills or mountains, while depth is the distance from the top of something to the bottom.
• High : Low - High is the opposite of low, meaning above or at a great distance from the ground, while low is the opposite of high, meaning below or at a short distance from the ground.
• Black : White - Black is the opposite of white, meaning the darkest color of all, while white is the opposite of black, meaning the lightest color of all.

However, good and bad are not opposites. Good is a positive quality, while bad is a negative quality. They are not mutually exclusive, meaning that something can be both good and bad at the same time. For example, a person might be a good friend but a bad driver.

The correct answer is: C. increase its electrical conductivity.

Suitable impurities are added to a semiconductor depending on its use. This is done in order to increase its electrical conductivity. The impurities are called dopants, and they can either increase or decrease the conductivity of the semiconductor.

Dopants that increase the conductivity are called donors. They donate electrons to the semiconductor, which makes it more conductive. Dopants that decrease the conductivity are called acceptors. They accept electrons from the semiconductor, which makes it less conductive.

The type of dopant that is used depends on the desired application of the semiconductor. For example, semiconductors that are used in transistors need to have a high conductivity, so they are doped with donors. Semiconductors that are used in solar cells need to have a low conductivity, so they are doped with acceptors.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. increase its life: This is not the main reason why impurities are added to semiconductors. The main reason is to increase their electrical conductivity. However, impurities can also affect the life of a semiconductor. For example, impurities can cause the semiconductor to degrade over time.
• B. enable it to withstand higher voltages: This is not the main reason why impurities are added to semiconductors. The main reason is to increase their electrical conductivity. However, impurities can also affect the ability of a semiconductor to withstand high voltages. For example, impurities can make a semiconductor more susceptible to breakdown.
• D. increase its electrical resistivity: This is not the main reason why impurities are added to semiconductors. The main reason is to increase their electrical conductivity. However, impurities can also affect the electrical resistivity of a semiconductor. For example, impurities can make a semiconductor more resistant to current flow.

The correct answer is: A. Marginal productivity theory of wages.

John Stuart Mill was an English philosopher, economist, and civil servant. He was an influential contributor to social theory, political theory, and political economy. He is widely considered one of the most influential thinkers in the history of classical liberalism.

The marginal productivity theory of wages is a theory of wages that states that the wage rate for any type of labor is determined by the marginal productivity of that labor. In other words, the wage rate is equal to the value of the additional output that a worker produces.

Mill was one of the first economists to develop the marginal productivity theory of wages. He argued that the wage rate is determined by the marginal productivity of labor because employers are only willing to pay workers as much as they are worth. If workers are paid more than their marginal productivity, then employers will lose money and will eventually go out of business. On the other hand, if workers are paid less than their marginal productivity, then employers will be able to make more money by hiring more workers. This will drive up the wage rate until it reaches the point where the marginal productivity of labor is equal to the wage rate.

The marginal productivity theory of wages is a widely accepted theory of wages. It is used to explain the wages of workers in a variety of industries and occupations. It is also used to explain the differences in wages between different workers.

The other options are incorrect because they are not theories of wages that are associated with John Stuart Mill.

• The wages-fund theory is a theory of wages that states that the wage rate is determined by the amount of capital that is available to pay wages. This theory was popular in the 19th century, but it is no longer widely accepted.
• The subsistence theory of wages is a theory of wages that states that the wage rate is determined by the cost of living. This theory was popular in the 18th century, but it is no longer widely accepted.
• The iron law of wages is a theory of wages that states that the wage rate will always tend to fall to the subsistence level. This theory was popular in the 19th century, but it is no longer widely accepted.

The correct answer is: B. 95.6% alcohol + 4.4% water

Methylated spirit is a denatured alcohol that is made by adding methanol to ethyl alcohol. It is used as a fuel, solvent, and antiseptic.

Ethyl alcohol is a colorless, flammable liquid that is produced by the fermentation of sugars. It is the main ingredient in alcoholic beverages.

Methanol is a colorless, flammable liquid that is poisonous. It is used as a solvent and fuel.

Pyridine is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals.

Power alcohol is a mixture of ethanol and gasoline. It is used as a fuel in some vehicles.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A is incorrect because methylated spirit is not 100% alcohol. It contains 95.6% alcohol and 4.4% water.
• Option B is correct because methylated spirit is made by adding methanol to ethyl alcohol.
• Option C is incorrect because methylated spirit does not contain pyridine.
• Option D is incorrect because methylated spirit is not power alcohol.

The correct answer is D. The law of conservation of energy.

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, only transferred from one form to another. This means that the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant.

Charles's law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, if pressure is kept constant.

Newton's law of cooling states that the rate of heat transfer between two objects is proportional to the difference in their temperatures.

The law of heat exchange states that heat always flows from a hotter object to a colder object.

All of these laws are related to the first law of thermodynamics, but they are not the same thing. The first law of thermodynamics is a more general law that encompasses all of these other laws.

The correct answer is: Novak Djokovic.

Novak Djokovic won the 2016 US Open Men's Singles title, defeating Stan Wawrinka in the final. Djokovic won in four sets, 6-2, 6-3, 6-4. This was Djokovic's third US Open title, and his 13th Grand Slam title overall.

Rafael Nadal was the defending champion, but he lost in the quarterfinals to Juan Martín del Potro. Andy Murray was the second seed, but he lost in the third round to Sam Querrey. Stan Wawrinka was the third seed, and he reached the final before losing to Djokovic.

The 2016 US Open was the 138th edition of the tournament. It was held at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center in Flushing Meadows–Corona Park, Queens, New York City, from August 29 to September 11, 2016.

The district with highest sex ratio in the state is Darjeeling i.e 970 and with lowest sex ratio is kolkata i.e.908.

The correct answer is (d) Veneral disease.

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage can be dissolved on the ground of cruelty, desertion for a continuous period of two years, conversion to another religion, unsoundness of mind, venereal disease, and adultery. However, venereal disease is not a ground for divorce if the disease was contracted after the marriage.

Insanity is a mental disorder that renders a person incapable of managing his or her affairs or of understanding the nature and consequences of his or her acts. Leprosy is a chronic disease that affects the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that causes seizures.

All of these conditions can be grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if they are of such a nature that they make it impossible for the spouses to live together. However, venereal disease is not a ground for divorce if the disease was contracted after the marriage.

The correct answer is: **A) Rice**.

West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India, accounting for about 25% of the country's total production. The state also exports a significant amount of rice, mainly to Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and the Middle East.

Jute is another important agricultural commodity for West Bengal. The state is the world's largest producer of jute, accounting for about 50% of global production. Jute is used to make a variety of products, including textiles, carpets, and bags.

Tea is also a major agricultural commodity for West Bengal. The state is the second largest producer of tea in India, after Assam. Tea is grown in the Darjeeling, Dooars, and Terai regions of West Bengal.

Sugarcane is not a major agricultural commodity for West Bengal. The state produces a small amount of sugarcane, but it is not a major export.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "What major agricultural commodity does West Bengal export in large quantities?" is **A) Rice**.