WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-11

The correct answer is D. Regional vernacular languages.

The Bhakti movement was a Hindu devotional movement that originated in South India in the 7th century CE and spread to North India in the 12th century CE. The Bhakti saints were poets and mystics who used the vernacular languages of the people to preach their ideas of love and devotion to God. They rejected the caste system and the authority of the Brahmin priests, and they emphasized the importance of personal experience of God.

The Bhakti movement had a profound impact on Indian society and culture. It helped to spread the message of Hinduism to the masses, and it also led to the development of new forms of literature, music, and art.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Hindi: Hindi is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by about 500 million people in India and Nepal. It is the official language of India and is also spoken in Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka. Hindi is a descendant of Sanskrit, and it is closely related to other Indo-Aryan languages such as Punjabi, Bengali, and Marathi.
• Sanskrit: Sanskrit is an ancient Indo-Aryan language that is considered to be the sacred language of Hinduism. It is the language of the Vedas, the oldest scriptures of Hinduism. Sanskrit is also the language of many Hindu philosophical texts, such as the Upanishads.
• Ardh-Magadhi: Ardh-Magadhi is a Prakrit language that was spoken in ancient India. It is the language of the Jataka tales, a collection of stories about the Buddha's previous lives. Ardh-Magadhi is also the language of some of the earliest Buddhist texts.
• Regional vernacular languages: Regional vernacular languages are the languages spoken in different regions of India. These languages are not mutually intelligible, and they are often very different from Sanskrit and Hindi. The Bhakti saints used the regional vernacular languages to preach their ideas to the masses because these languages were more accessible to the people.

Sachin Tendulkar hit his 100th century in world cricket on 12 March, 2012 in Asia cup against Bangladesh.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Bangladesh. Bangladesh is a country in South Asia. It is the eighth-most populous country in the world, with a population of over 160 million people. Bangladesh is a former British colony, and it gained independence in 1971. The official language of Bangladesh is Bengali.
• Option B: Sri Lanka. Sri Lanka is an island country in South Asia. It is the second-most populous country in the Indian subcontinent, after India. Sri Lanka is a former British colony, and it gained independence in 1948. The official language of Sri Lanka is Sinhala.
• Option C: Pakistan. Pakistan is a country in South Asia. It is the sixth-most populous country in the world, with a population of over 220 million people. Pakistan is a former British colony, and it gained independence in 1947. The official language of Pakistan is Urdu.
• Option D: Indonesia. Indonesia is a country in Southeast Asia. It is the world's fourth-most populous country, with a population of over 270 million people. Indonesia is a former Dutch colony, and it gained independence in 1949. The official language of Indonesia is Indonesian.

The correct answer is A. the greater Himalayas.

The Himalayas are a mountain range in Asia that separates the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau. The Himalayas are the highest mountain range in the world, and they include Mount Everest, the highest mountain on Earth.

The Himalayas are divided into three main ranges: the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas. The Greater Himalayas are the highest range, and they include Mount Everest and other major peaks such as K2 and Kanchenjunga. The Lesser Himalayas are a lower range that lies to the south of the Greater Himalayas. The Outer Himalayas are the lowest range, and they lie to the south of the Lesser Himalayas.

The Himalayas are a major mountain range that has a significant impact on the climate of Asia. The Himalayas block the flow of moisture from the Indian Ocean, which causes the Tibetan Plateau to be very dry. The Himalayas also cause the Indian subcontinent to be much warmer than it would otherwise be.

The Himalayas are a popular destination for mountaineering and trekking. The mountains are home to a variety of wildlife, including snow leopards, tigers, and elephants. The Himalayas are also a sacred place for many Hindus and Buddhists.

The correct answer is (a) 414.

The arithmetic mean of a set of numbers is the sum of the numbers divided by the number of numbers. In this case, the arithmetic mean is 41, and there are 15 numbers. Therefore, the sum of the numbers is $41 times 15 = 414$.

Option (b) is incorrect because it is the sum of 14 numbers, not 15 numbers. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the sum of 16 numbers, not 15 numbers. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the sum of 15 numbers that are all equal to 41, which is not a realistic scenario.

The correct answer is: D. Prof. Marshall

Perfect competition is a market structure in which there are many buyers and sellers of a homogeneous good or service, and no single buyer or seller has a large enough share of the market to influence the market price. In a perfectly competitive market, firms are price-takers, meaning that they must accept the market price for their goods or services.

The concept of perfect competition was first developed by Alfred Marshall in his book "Principles of Economics" (1890). Marshall argued that perfect competition was the ideal market structure, as it would lead to the most efficient allocation of resources.

However, perfect competition is rarely found in the real world. In most markets, there are some firms that have a larger share of the market than others. These firms are known as "oligopolists". Oligopolists have some power to influence the market price, but they are not able to set the price completely arbitrarily.

There are a number of reasons why perfect competition is rarely found in the real world. One reason is that it is difficult to find a market with a large number of buyers and sellers. Another reason is that it is difficult to find a market in which the goods or services being sold are homogeneous. Finally, it is difficult to find a market in which there are no barriers to entry or exit.

Despite the fact that perfect competition is rarely found in the real world, it is still an important concept in economics. The concept of perfect competition helps us to understand how markets work and how prices are determined. It also helps us to understand the effects of government intervention in markets.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Mrs. Robinson was an economist who developed the theory of imperfect competition.
• Prof. Leftwitch was an economist who developed the theory of oligopoly.
• Prof. Adam Smith was an economist who developed the theory of laissez-faire economics.

The correct answer is: B. in

The word "in" is used to indicate a location or position. In this case, the results are located in the graph.

The other options are incorrect because they do not indicate a location or position.

• The word "below" indicates a position that is lower than another position. In this case, the results are not lower than the graph.
• The word "about" indicates a rough estimate or approximation. In this case, the results are not an estimate or approximation.
• The word "of" indicates possession or association. In this case, the results are not possessed by or associated with the graph.

The answer is 162.

The sequence is $3^2, 4^2, 5^2, 6^2, 7^2, 8^2$. Therefore, the next term is $9^2 = 162$.

Option A, 147, is not a perfect square.

Option B, 162, is a perfect square.

Option C, 183, is not a perfect square.

Option D, 192, is not a perfect square.

The correct answer is C. mixture of atomic oxygen (O), ordinary oxygen (O2) and Ozone (O3).

The ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. It contains high concentrations of ozone (O3) relative to other parts of the atmosphere, although still small in relation to other gases in the stratosphere. The ozone layer contains less than 10 parts per million of ozone, while the average ozone concentration in Earth's atmosphere as a whole is about 0.3 parts per million. The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere, from approximately 20 to 30 kilometers (12 to 19 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies seasonally and geographically.

The ozone layer was discovered in 1913 by French physicists Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson. They found that the stratosphere contained a layer of ozone that absorbed ultraviolet radiation. The ozone layer is important because it protects life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation. Ultraviolet radiation can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems. It can also damage plants and animals.

The ozone layer is constantly being created and destroyed. Ozone is created when ultraviolet radiation splits oxygen molecules (O2) into two oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms then combine with oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3). Ozone is destroyed when it reacts with other chemicals, such as chlorine and bromine.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are chemicals that were once widely used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosol cans. CFCs are very stable and do not break down easily. When they reach the stratosphere, they are broken down by ultraviolet radiation and release chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms react with ozone, destroying it.

The use of CFCs has been banned since the 1980s, and the ozone layer is slowly recovering. However, it is important to continue to protect the ozone layer by reducing our use of ozone-depleting substances.

The correct answer is A. capsid.

A capsid is the protein shell of a virus. It is made up of subunits called capsomeres, which are arranged in a specific way to form a geometric shape. The capsid protects the virus's genetic material and helps it to attach to and infect host cells.

A coat is a layer of protein or glycoprotein that surrounds the capsid of some viruses. The coat helps the virus to attach to and infect host cells.

A virion is a complete virus particle, consisting of a capsid and its genetic material.

A viroid is a non-cellular infectious agent that consists of a single molecule of RNA. It does not have a capsid or a coat.

The correct answer is: B. 22

There are 22 High Courts in India. Each state has a High Court, except for the states of Sikkim and Nagaland, which share a High Court. The High Courts are the highest courts in the states and territories of India. They have original jurisdiction in civil and criminal cases, and they also have appellate jurisdiction from the lower courts. The High Courts are headed by a Chief Justice, who is appointed by the President of India. The other judges of the High Courts are also appointed by the President.

The High Courts play an important role in the Indian judicial system. They are responsible for upholding the Constitution and the laws of India. They also provide a forum for the resolution of disputes between individuals and between the government and individuals. The High Courts are an important part of the checks and balances that are essential to a healthy democracy.

Here is a brief description of each option:

• Option A: 21. This is incorrect because there are 22 High Courts in India.
• Option B: 22. This is the correct answer because there are 22 High Courts in India.
• Option C: 25. This is incorrect because there are 22 High Courts in India.
• Option D: 24. This is incorrect because there are 22 High Courts in India.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "The reason why he wrote the letter was because he could not contact him over the phone" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly. The other options are either grammatically incorrect or do not convey the intended meaning as clearly.

Option A, "why he wrote the letter was since", is grammatically incorrect. The word "since" is used to introduce a reason or cause, but in this sentence it is used to introduce a time. The correct word to use here is "because".

Option B, "for which he wrote the letter because", is also grammatically incorrect. The word "for which" is used to introduce a purpose or goal, but in this sentence it is used to introduce a reason or cause. The correct word to use here is "because".

Option C, "why he wrote the letter was that", is grammatically correct, but it does not convey the intended meaning as clearly as the original sentence. The word "that" is used to introduce a clause that provides additional information, but in this sentence it is used to introduce the reason why the letter was written. The original sentence is more concise and easier to understand.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. No improvement.

The correct answer is: A. 1987

MIDI (Musical Instrument Digital Interface) is a standard way to connect electronic musical instruments, computers, and other devices that make or control sound. It was introduced in 1983, but the MIDI dress was not introduced until 1987.

The MIDI dress is a wearable electronic device that allows the wearer to control music with their body movements. It was created by fashion designer Anouk Wipprecht in collaboration with musician Jori Hulkkonen. The dress is made up of sensors that track the wearer's movements and send signals to a computer, which then triggers sounds.

The MIDI dress has been used in a number of performances and music videos, and it has been featured in exhibitions at museums and galleries around the world. It is a unique and innovative example of how technology can be used to create wearable art.

Option A: 1987 is the correct answer.

Option B: 1983 is the year that MIDI was introduced, but the MIDI dress was not introduced until 1987.

Option C: 1973 is the year that the first microprocessor was invented, but it was not until 1983 that MIDI was introduced.

Option D: 1977 is the year that the first home computer was introduced, but it was not until 1983 that MIDI was introduced.

The correct answer is: A. Less than

The velocity required to place a vehicle in orbit around the moon is less than that required to place it in orbit around the earth. This is because the moon's gravity is weaker than the earth's gravity. A vehicle in orbit around the moon will have a lower velocity than a vehicle in orbit around the earth.

Option B is incorrect because the velocity required to place a vehicle in orbit around the moon is less than the velocity required to place it in orbit around the earth.

Option C is incorrect because the velocity required to place a vehicle in orbit around the moon is not equal to the velocity required to place it in orbit around the earth.

Option D is incorrect because the velocity required to place a vehicle in orbit around the moon is not greater than or equal to the velocity required to place it in orbit around the earth.

The correct answer is D. Article-352.

Article 352 of the Constitution of India deals with the Proclamation of Emergency. It states that if the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect.

The Emergency was declared in India on 25 June 1975 by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The Emergency was declared under Article 352 of the Constitution of India. The Emergency was lifted on 21 March 1977.

The Emergency was a period of great political and social upheaval in India. During the Emergency, many fundamental rights of the citizens were suspended. The press was censored and many political opponents of Indira Gandhi were arrested. The Emergency is often considered to be a dark chapter in Indian history.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Article-1 is the first article of the Constitution of India. It deals with the name and territory of India.
• Option B: Article-152 is the 152nd article of the Constitution of India. It deals with the establishment of the Union Territories.
• Option C: Article-286 is the 286th article of the Constitution of India. It deals with the imposition of taxes on income other than agricultural income.
• Option D: Article-352 is the 352nd article of the Constitution of India. It deals with the Proclamation of Emergency.

The correct answer is: C. often cooked

The sentence is in the past tense, so we need to use a past tense verb. The other options are all in the present tense, which is not correct.

The word "often" indicates that the action happened more than once. The other options do not indicate that the action happened more than once.

The word "cooked" is the past tense of the verb "cook." The other options are not the past tense of the verb "cook."

Therefore, the correct answer is: C. often cooked

The correct answer is (c). Erasmus wrote the book "The Praise of Folly".

Martin Luther was a German monk, theologian, university professor and church reformer whose ideas inspired the Protestant Reformation and changed the course of Western civilization.

John Calvin was a French theologian and pastor during the Protestant Reformation. He was a principal figure in the development of the Reformed church, and he remains influential in the theology of the Reformed and Presbyterian churches of the world.

Voltaire was a French Enlightenment writer, historian, and philosopher famous for his wit, his attacks on the established Catholic Church and his advocacy of freedom of religion, freedom of speech, and separation of church and state.

"The Praise of Folly" is an essay by the Dutch Renaissance humanist Desiderius Erasmus, first published in 1509. It is a satirical work that mocks the follies of the world, including the clergy, the nobility, and the common people. The book was a huge success and made Erasmus one of the most famous writers of his time.

The correct answer is page.

A window is a frame with a pane of glass that lets in light and allows people to see outside. A book is a collection of pages bound together between covers. The pages of a book are what contain the text and images that make up the book.

The other options are not as good matches for the analogy. A novel is a long story that is written in book form. Glass is a hard, brittle material that is often used to make windows. A cover is the outer part of a book that protects the pages.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Window is to pane as book is to" is page.

The correct answer is (d).

Let $l$ be the length of the shorter side of the rectangle and $3l$ be the length of the longer side. The area of the rectangle is $l(3l) = 3l^2$.

The perpendiculars drawn from the point inside the rectangle to the sides form four right triangles. The hypotenuses of these triangles are all equal to the length of the diagonal of the rectangle, which is $sqrt{l^2 + (3l)^2} = 2sqrt{10}l$.

The sum of the lengths of the perpendiculars is $40$ cm. This means that the sum of the lengths of the legs of the four right triangles is $40$ cm.

The legs of a right triangle can be any two numbers that add up to $2sqrt{10}l$. There are infinitely many such pairs of numbers, so there are infinitely many possible rectangles that satisfy the given conditions.

The area of any of these rectangles is $3l^2$. Therefore, the area of the rectangle could be any number greater than or equal to $0$.

The options (a), (b), and (c) are all specific values for the area of the rectangle. However, as we have seen, the area of the rectangle could be any number greater than or equal to $0$, so none of these options is correct.

The correct answer is: B. Law of Equi-MU.

The law of substitution states that, as consumers consume more of one good, they will be willing to substitute other goods for it, and vice versa. This is because the marginal utility of a good decreases as consumers consume more of it. In other words, the more of a good a consumer has, the less satisfaction they will get from consuming an additional unit of that good.

The law of equi-marginal utility states that consumers will maximize their satisfaction by consuming goods in such a way that the marginal utility of each good is equal. This means that consumers will consume more of goods that have a high marginal utility and less of goods that have a low marginal utility.

The law of demand states that, as the price of a good decreases, consumers will demand more of it. This is because consumers are willing to purchase more of a good when it is cheaper.

The law of satisfaction states that consumers will always be trying to maximize their satisfaction. This means that they will always be trying to consume goods in such a way that they get the most satisfaction possible.

In conclusion, the law of substitution is another name for the law of equi-marginal utility. This law states that consumers will maximize their satisfaction by consuming goods in such a way that the marginal utility of each good is equal.

The correct answer is: **A) Agricultural development**

The Shilpa Sathi scheme is a government scheme that aims to provide financial assistance and training to women in rural areas to help them start their own businesses in the agricultural sector. The scheme is designed to help women improve their livelihoods and contribute to the economic development of their communities.

The scheme provides women with loans, grants, and training in areas such as business planning, marketing, and accounting. It also provides access to technical support and market linkages. The scheme has been successful in helping women start and grow their businesses, and it has had a positive impact on the lives of many women in rural areas.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* **A) Agricultural development:** The Shilpa Sathi scheme aims to facilitate agricultural development by providing financial assistance and training to women in rural areas to help them start their own businesses in the agricultural sector.
* **B) Industrial investment:** The Shilpa Sathi scheme does not aim to facilitate industrial investment.
* **C) Tourism promotion:** The Shilpa Sathi scheme does not aim to promote tourism.
* **D) Infrastructure development:** The Shilpa Sathi scheme does not aim to develop infrastructure.

The Governor is the Chairman/President of some organisations like Victoria Memorial Hall, Indian Museum, Ramkrishna Mission Institute of Culture, Easter Zone Cultural Centre, etc.

The correct answer is: A. Has high specific heat.

Water has a high specific heat, which means that it takes a lot of heat to raise its temperature. This is why water is often used as a coolant in engines and other machines. However, it also means that water is not a very good choice for a calorimetric substance, which is a substance that is used to measure the heat of a reaction. This is because the high specific heat of water will make it difficult to accurately measure the amount of heat that is being absorbed or released by the reaction.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. Is a good conductor. This is actually a desirable property for a calorimetric substance, as it allows the heat from the reaction to be transferred quickly and evenly to the water.
• C. Has high boiling point. This is also a desirable property for a calorimetric substance, as it means that the water will not evaporate easily during the reaction.
• D. Low latent heat of vaporization. This is the amount of heat that is required to vaporize a unit mass of a substance. A low latent heat of vaporization means that the water will evaporate easily, which is not desirable for a calorimetric substance.

The correct answer is: B) Temperate and pleasant

Darjeeling is a hill station in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Himalayas, at an altitude of 2,205 meters (7,234 feet). The climate of Darjeeling is temperate, with cool summers and mild winters. The average temperature in Darjeeling is 15 degrees Celsius (59 degrees Fahrenheit). The city receives an average of 3,000 mm (118 inches) of rainfall per year.

The climate of Darjeeling is ideal for tea cultivation. The city is home to several tea gardens, which produce some of the finest tea in the world. Darjeeling tea is known for its strong flavor and aroma.

Darjeeling is also a popular tourist destination. The city is surrounded by mountains and forests, and there are many hiking trails and scenic viewpoints. Darjeeling is also home to several monasteries and temples.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Tropical and humid. This is not the correct answer because Darjeeling is not located in a tropical climate. The city is located in the Himalayas, which are a mountain range in the temperate zone.
* Option B: Temperate and pleasant. This is the correct answer because Darjeeling has a temperate climate with cool summers and mild winters.
* Option C: Arid and hot. This is not the correct answer because Darjeeling does not have an arid climate. The city receives an average of 3,000 mm (118 inches) of rainfall per year.
* Option D: Continental and extreme. This is not the correct answer because Darjeeling does not have a continental climate. The city is located in the Himalayas, which are a mountain range in the temperate zone.

Chapal Bhaduri is the last living imitator in Bengali theatre. He did female impersonation in Jatra. In 1955, he performed in Bengali theatre named Ali Baba where he played the female character Marjina. In the 1960s, he was the highest paid actor of Bengali theatre. he played the role of Goddess Maa Shitala.

The correct answer is (b) 03.

The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India. It is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. The Rajya Sabha has 245 members, of which 233 are elected by the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President of India.

The number of seats allotted to each state in the Rajya Sabha is based on its population. Uttarakhand has a population of 10,077,968 as per the 2011 census. Therefore, it is allotted 3 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct number of seats allotted to Uttarakhand in the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is (c).

A minor is a person who has not attained the age of majority, which is 18 years in India. A minor cannot enter into a contract, including a contract for the sale of immovable property. However, a minor's natural guardian, such as a parent or a guardian appointed by the court, can enter into a contract on behalf of the minor.

If a natural guardian disposes of a minor's immovable property, the contract is voidable at the option of the transferee. This means that the transferee can either choose to enforce the contract or to rescind it. If the transferee chooses to rescind the contract, the minor's property will be returned to the minor.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because a contract entered into by a minor is void. Option (b) is incorrect because a contract entered into by a minor's natural guardian is not void. Option (d) is incorrect because a contract entered into by a minor's natural guardian is not voidable at the option of the minor.

The correct answer is (b). Ultrasonics is a recently developed technique for monitoring foetal growth. It is a non-invasive technique that uses sound waves to create images of the foetus. This technique is safe for both the mother and the foetus, and it can be used to monitor the foetus's growth, development, and position in the womb.

Microwave technique is a non-invasive technique that uses microwaves to create images of the foetus. However, this technique is not as safe as ultrasonics, and it is not as widely used.

Ultra-violet rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation that is harmful to both the mother and the foetus. They can cause birth defects and other health problems.

X-rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation that is also harmful to both the mother and the foetus. They can cause cancer and other health problems.

The correct answer is: **A) High yield and disease resistance**.

Muktoshree is a high-yielding rice variety that is resistant to a number of diseases, including rice blast, brown spot, and sheath blight. It was developed by the Bangladesh Rice Research Institute (BRRI) and released in 2001. Muktoshree is a popular variety among farmers in Bangladesh because of its high yield and disease resistance. It is also a good choice for farmers who want to grow rice in areas with low rainfall, as it is drought-tolerant.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* **A) High yield and disease resistance:** Muktoshree is a high-yielding rice variety that is resistant to a number of diseases, including rice blast, brown spot, and sheath blight.
* **B) Aroma and taste:** Muktoshree has a good aroma and taste.
* **C) Drought tolerance:** Muktoshree is drought-tolerant.
* **D) Early maturity:** Muktoshree is an early-maturing rice variety.

The correct answer is: C. The law of diminishing returns.

The law of diminishing returns states that in all productive processes, adding more of one input, while holding all others constant (ceteris paribus), will at some point yield lower incremental per-unit returns. The law of diminishing returns does not imply that adding more of an input will always decrease the production, a situation that is referred to as negative returns to scale. Instead, diminishing returns implies that in all productive processes, adding more of an input will at some point yield lower incremental per-unit returns.

In the context of the question, the marginal cost curve eventually increases as output increases because as a firm produces more output, it must use more inputs. However, the law of diminishing returns states that as more and more inputs are used, the marginal product of each additional input will eventually decrease. This means that the firm will have to use more and more inputs to produce each additional unit of output, and the marginal cost of producing each additional unit of output will eventually increase.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• A. Diseconomies of scale are a situation in which a firm's long-run average costs increase as output increases. This can happen for a variety of reasons, such as when a firm becomes too large and bureaucratic, or when it has difficulty coordinating its activities. However, diseconomies of scale are not the reason why the marginal cost curve eventually increases as output increases.
• B. Minimum efficient scale is the smallest output level at which a firm can produce at the lowest possible average cost. Once a firm reaches its minimum efficient scale, its marginal cost curve will be horizontal.
• D. Normal profit is the amount of profit that a firm must earn in order to stay in business. Economic profit is the amount of profit that a firm earns above and beyond normal profit. The law of diminishing returns does not have any direct impact on normal profit or economic profit.

WBSEB was formed on 1st May, 1955 and dissolved on 31st March 2007. It has now been reconstructed and split into two companies namely West Bengal State Electricity Transmission Company Limited (WBSETCL) and West Bengal State Electricity Distribution Company Limited (WBSEDCL).

The correct answer is: D. 1990 - 2000

The International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction (IDNDR) was a 10-year period from 1990 to 2000, designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. The goal of the IDNDR was to reduce the loss of life, property, and economic disruption caused by natural disasters.

The IDNDR was a success in many ways. It raised awareness of the importance of disaster reduction, and it led to the development of new technologies and strategies for reducing the impact of natural disasters. However, the IDNDR also had some limitations. For example, it did not achieve its goal of reducing the number of deaths caused by natural disasters by 25%.

Despite its limitations, the IDNDR was a significant step forward in the fight against natural disasters. It helped to put disaster reduction on the international agenda, and it led to the development of new tools and strategies that are still being used today.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the correct decade for the International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction.

The correct answer is C. Fullerene.

Charcoal is a solid form of carbon that is produced by heating wood or other organic materials in the absence of air. It is a black, porous material that is used in a variety of applications, including fuel, water purification, and medicine.

Coke is a solid form of carbon that is produced by heating coal in the absence of air. It is a black, hard material that is used in a variety of applications, including iron and steel production, and as a fuel.

Fullerene is a type of carbon molecule that is composed of 60 carbon atoms arranged in a spherical shape. It is a relatively new material that has been studied for its potential applications in a variety of fields, including electronics, medicine, and materials science.

Carbon black is a fine, black powder that is produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials. It is used in a variety of applications, including rubber, plastics, and inks.

Fullerene is the purest form of carbon because it is composed of only carbon atoms. It is also the most stable form of carbon, and it has a number of unique properties that make it a promising material for a variety of applications.

The correct answer is: Both I and II are implicit.

Shalini has applied for a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 and has mortgaged her house to the bank. This means that she is willing to give up her house if she does not repay the loan. This suggests that the bank is willing to give loans of this amount and that it accepts houses as collateral security. Therefore, both assumptions I and II are implicit in the statement.

Assumption I is implicit because the bank would not have given Shalini a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 if it did not have a practice of granting loans for this amount. Assumption II is implicit because the bank would not have accepted Shalini's house as collateral security if it did not accept houses as collateral security against such loans.

The other options are incorrect because they do not take into account all of the information in the statement. Option A is incorrect because assumption II is also implicit. Option B is incorrect because assumption I is also implicit. Option C is incorrect because both assumptions are implicit. Option D is incorrect because both assumptions are implicit.

Michael Ferraria is a professional tennis player from the United States. He has won 1 ATP Tour title and has reached a career-high ATP singles ranking of world No. 43.

Billiards is a family of cue sports that includes carom billiards, pool, and snooker. The game is played on a cloth-covered table with six pockets, and the object is to use a cue stick to strike the balls and pocket them.

Karate is a Japanese martial art developed in the Ryukyu Islands in the 14th century. It is characterized by its empty-handed fighting style, emphasis on self-defense, and philosophy.

Hockey is a family of team sports in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball or puck into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. The game is played on a field or ice rink, and the team that scores more goals by the end of the game wins.

Tennis is a racket sport that can be played individually against a single opponent (singles) or between two teams of two players each (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket that is strung with cord to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt over or around a net and into the opponent's court. The object of the game is to play the ball in such a way that the opponent is not able to play a good return.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Michael Ferraria is associated with which games/sports?" is tennis.

The correct answer is D. substitutes.

Substitutes are goods that can be used in place of each other. When the price of one substitute good decreases, the demand for the other substitute good will decrease. For example, if the price of coffee decreases, the demand for tea will decrease. This is because people will be more likely to buy coffee instead of tea.

Complements are goods that are used together. When the price of one complement good decreases, the demand for the other complement good will increase. For example, if the price of cars decreases, the demand for gasoline will increase. This is because people will be more likely to buy cars if they are less expensive, and they will need gasoline to drive their cars.

Normal goods are goods that people demand more of when their income increases. Inferior goods are goods that people demand less of when their income increases.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A. this can damage the appliances due to overloading.

When you connect too many appliances to the same power socket, the current flowing through the socket can exceed its rated value. This can cause the appliances to overheat and malfunction, or even catch fire. In some cases, it can also damage the domestic wiring.

The amount of current that a power socket can safely handle is usually indicated on its label. It is important to make sure that the total current drawn by the appliances you are connecting does not exceed this value.

If you need to connect more appliances than can be safely powered by a single socket, you can use a power strip or extension cord. However, it is important to choose a power strip or extension cord that is rated for the total current that you will be drawing.

It is also important to make sure that the power strip or extension cord is in good condition and does not have any damage to the cord or plugs. Damaged power strips and extension cords can pose a fire hazard.

If you are not sure how to safely connect multiple appliances to a power socket, it is best to consult with an electrician.

The correct answer is: C) Sabhadhipati

The Zilla Parishad is a local government body in India that is responsible for the development of rural areas. The head of the Zilla Parishad is called the Sabhadhipati. The Sabhadhipati is elected by the members of the Zilla Parishad. The Sabhadhipati is responsible for the overall administration of the Zilla Parishad and for ensuring that the development schemes of the government are implemented in the district.

The other options are incorrect because:

* A) Sabhapati is the head of the Gram Panchayat.
* B) Pradhan is the head of the Panchayat Samiti.
* D) Adhyaksha is the head of the Nagar Panchayat.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Khadya Sathi scheme is a food security scheme launched by the Government of India in 2013. It aims to provide subsidized food grains to the poor, mid-day meals to school children, and take-home rations to pregnant and lactating women.

The scheme is implemented through the Public Distribution System (PDS). Under the PDS, food grains are distributed to eligible households at subsidized prices. The scheme also provides mid-day meals to school children in government and government-aided schools. The meals are cooked in schools and provided to children free of cost.

The scheme also provides take-home rations to pregnant and lactating women. These rations are provided to women who are not covered by the PDS. The rations are given in the form of cooked food or raw food grains.

The Khadya Sathi scheme is a major initiative of the Government of India to ensure food security for all. The scheme has been successful in providing food grains to the poor, mid-day meals to school children, and take-home rations to pregnant and lactating women.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

* Subsidized food grains to the poor: The PDS provides food grains to eligible households at subsidized prices. The prices of food grains under the PDS are lower than the market prices. This helps to reduce the burden on the poor and ensures that they have access to affordable food.
* Mid-day meals to school children: The mid-day meal scheme provides cooked meals to school children in government and government-aided schools. The meals are cooked in schools and provided to children free of cost. This helps to improve the nutritional status of children and reduce their dropout rates from schools.
* Take-home rations to pregnant and lactating women: The take-home ration scheme provides cooked food or raw food grains to pregnant and lactating women who are not covered by the PDS. This helps to improve the nutritional status of these women and their babies.

The correct answer is (c). Mahatma Gandhi was at Chaurichaura when the Charuichaura episode took place.

The Charuichaura episode was a major turning point in the Indian independence movement. It took place on February 4, 1922, in the village of Chaurichaura in the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh). A group of peasants, led by Gandhi, were protesting against the high taxes imposed by the British government. The protest turned violent, and the police opened fire on the peasants, killing 22 people.

Gandhi was deeply shocked by the violence, and he called off the non-cooperation movement. He realized that the movement was not yet ready for a mass uprising, and that more work needed to be done to educate and prepare the people for independence.

The Charuichaura episode was a major setback for the Indian independence movement, but it also served as a wake-up call for Gandhi and his followers. It made them realize that they needed to be more careful in planning and executing their protests, and that they needed to do more to win the support of the people.

The Charuichaura episode is a reminder of the sacrifices that were made in the struggle for Indian independence. It is also a reminder of the importance of non-violence and peaceful protest.

The correct answer is (c) Football.

Pele is a Brazilian retired professional footballer who played as a forward. He is the all-time leading scorer for Brazil at the international stage. He won three FIFA World Cups with Brazil, in 1958, 1962, and 1970. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest players of all time.

Badminton is a racquet sport that involves players using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net. The shuttlecock is a feathered or plastic projectile that is much lighter than a tennis ball. Badminton is played on a rectangular court that is divided by a net. The object of the game is to hit the shuttlecock so that it passes over the net and lands in the opponent's court. The player who wins the point is the player who scores the most points by the end of the game.

Hockey is a family of team sports in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball or puck into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. The game is played on a field or ice rink with a goal at each end. The team that scores more goals by the end of the game wins.

Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps. The game proceeds when a player on the fielding team, called the bowler, "bowls" (propels) the ball from one end of the pitch towards the wicket at the other end. The batting side has one player at each end of the pitch, with the player at the opposite end of the pitch from the bowler aiming to strike the ball with a bat. The batting side scores runs when either the bowler unfairly bowls the ball to either side of the wicket (unfairly throwing the ball is called a "wide"), when either the ball reaches the boundary of the field, or when the fielding side is unable to prevent either of the batsmen from running between the wickets.

Khamak is similar to the Ektara.

The correct answer is (a) Focus.

The focus is the point within the Earth where an earthquake originates. It is also known as the hypocenter. The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus.

The generation point is the point where the energy released by an earthquake is first generated. The earthquake point is the point where the earthquake is first felt.

The focus is always located below the surface of the Earth, while the epicenter is always located on the surface of the Earth. The generation point and the earthquake point can be located either below or on the surface of the Earth.

The correct answer is: **Banga Ratna Award**.

The Banga Ratna Award is the highest civilian award in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions in the fields of art, literature, education, science, social service, and public life. The award was instituted in 1972 by the Government of West Bengal.

The Banga Bibhushan Award is the second-highest civilian award in West Bengal. It is awarded to individuals who have made significant contributions in the fields of art, literature, education, science, social service, and public life. The award was instituted in 1962 by the Government of West Bengal.

The Banga Bhushan Award is the third-highest civilian award in West Bengal. It is awarded to individuals who have made notable contributions in the fields of art, literature, education, science, social service, and public life. The award was instituted in 1958 by the Government of West Bengal.

The Vidyasagar Award is a state award given by the Government of West Bengal to individuals who have made outstanding contributions in the field of education. The award was instituted in 1961 in memory of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, a Bengali polymath who is considered the father of modern education in India.

The Banga Ratna Award is considered to be the most prestigious award in West Bengal. It is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions in the fields of art, literature, education, science, social service, and public life. The award is a recognition of the recipient's lifetime achievements and is a source of great pride for the recipient and their family.

The correct answer is D. Only 1.

The condition of marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue, the average cost is equal to average revenue, average revenue is equal to marginal revenue, and the average cost is equal to marginal cost is the condition of long-period equilibrium for a firm under perfect competition.

In perfect competition, there are a large number of firms producing identical products. This means that each firm has a small share of the market and cannot affect the market price. As a result, each firm faces a perfectly elastic demand curve.

The long-run equilibrium for a firm under perfect competition occurs when the firm produces at the point where marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue. At this point, the firm is producing at the minimum point of its average cost curve. This means that the firm is producing at the most efficient level of output and is earning zero economic profit.

In the short run, a firm under perfect competition may produce at a point where marginal cost is not equal to marginal revenue. This is because the firm may have fixed costs that it must pay even if it produces no output. In the short run, the firm will produce at the point where marginal cost is equal to average variable cost. At this point, the firm is covering its variable costs but not its fixed costs.

The following diagram shows the long-run equilibrium for a firm under perfect competition. The firm produces at the point where MC = MR, which is also the minimum point of the AC curve. The firm earns zero economic profit at this point.

[Diagram of a firm under perfect competition]

The following diagram shows the short-run equilibrium for a firm under perfect competition. The firm produces at the point where MC = AVC, which is not the minimum point of the AC curve. The firm covers its variable costs but not its fixed costs at this point.

[Diagram of a firm under perfect competition in the short run]

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The law of demand states that, all other things being equal, the higher the price of a good, the less people will demand that good. Conversely, the lower the price of a good, the more people will demand that good.

In other words, there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded. This means that as price increases, quantity demanded decreases, and vice versa.

The law of demand is a fundamental economic principle that has been observed in many different markets. It is a useful tool for understanding how consumers behave and for making predictions about how changes in price will affect demand.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Price of commodity is an independent variable. This means that the price of a good is determined by factors other than the quantity demanded, such as the cost of production, the availability of substitutes, and consumer preferences.
• Option B: Quantity demanded is a dependent variable. This means that the quantity demanded of a good is determined by the price of the good, as well as other factors such as the cost of production, the availability of substitutes, and consumer preferences.
• Option C: Reciprocal relationship is found between price and quantity demanded. This means that there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded, as explained above.

I hope this explanation is helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A) Music.

The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, also known as the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship, is the highest Indian award in the field of performing arts. It is awarded by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's national academy for music, dance, drama, and puppetry. The award is given to individuals who have made "outstanding contribution to the field of performing arts."

The award was instituted in 1952, and the first awards were presented in 1954. The award consists of a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize.

The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is considered to be one of the most prestigious awards in India. It is awarded to individuals who have made a significant contribution to the field of performing arts. The award is a recognition of the recipient's talent, dedication, and commitment to the arts.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* A) Music: Music is the art of arranging sounds in time through the elements of melody, harmony, rhythm, and timbre to produce a composition of beauty or emotional expression. Music may be produced by a variety of instruments and voices, or by the human voice alone.
* B) Dance: Dance is a form of human expression through bodily movement. It is a universal phenomenon, found in every culture throughout history. Dance can be performed solo, in pairs, or in groups, and it can be either improvised or choreographed.
* C) Theatre: Theatre is a collaborative form of art that uses live performers to present stories in front of an audience. The performers may use words, music, movement, and other elements to create a performance that is both entertaining and thought-provoking.
* D) Literature: Literature is a broad term that encompasses all forms of written communication, including fiction, non-fiction, poetry, and drama. Literature can be used to entertain, inform, educate, and inspire.

The correct answer is B. DNA.

DNA is a molecule that contains the genetic information of an organism. It is made up of two strands that are twisted together in a double helix shape. The information in DNA is encoded in the sequence of four different types of nucleotides: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). The order of these nucleotides determines the genetic code, which is used to build proteins.

DNA is passed down from parents to offspring through the process of reproduction. When a cell divides, its DNA is copied so that each new cell has a complete set of genetic information. This is how the genetic information of an organism is passed on from generation to generation.

RNA is another molecule that is involved in gene expression. RNA is similar to DNA in that it is made up of nucleotides, but it has a single strand instead of a double helix. RNA is used to create proteins by reading the genetic code in DNA.

Chromosomes are structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain DNA. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes. Each chromosome contains a large amount of DNA, which is organized into genes. Genes are the basic units of heredity, and they determine an organism's physical characteristics.

Carbohydrates are molecules that are made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are the main source of energy for the body. Carbohydrates are found in foods such as bread, pasta, rice, and potatoes.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "It is a heredity material and contains the genetic information which is passed on from one generation to another" is B. DNA.

The correct answer is: **C) June**

The monsoon season in West Bengal begins in June and lasts until September. It is a time of heavy rain and thunderstorms, which are essential for the region's agriculture. The monsoon also brings cooler temperatures and relief from the heat of the summer.

Option A: November is the month of winter in West Bengal. The weather is cold and dry during this time.

Option B: December is also a winter month in West Bengal. The weather is cold and dry, with occasional snowfall in the hills.

Option D: July is the middle of the monsoon season in West Bengal. The weather is hot and humid, with heavy rain and thunderstorms.

The correct answer is: about.

The preposition "about" is used to indicate that someone is thinking about something. For example, "I have thought a lot about you recently."

The preposition "on" is used to indicate that someone is working on something. For example, "I have been working on my project all day."

The preposition "of" is used to indicate that someone is talking about something. For example, "We talked about our plans for the weekend."

The preposition "in" is used to indicate that someone is located in something. For example, "I am in the kitchen."

In this case, the speaker is saying that they have been thinking about someone recently. The preposition "about" is the most natural choice to use in this context.

The correct answer is: A) Rolling lateritic uplands.

Rarh is a region in West Bengal, India, that is characterized by rolling lateritic uplands. Laterite is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of rocks rich in iron and aluminum. It is a reddish-brown soil that is rich in nutrients and is well-drained. The lateritic uplands of Rarh are ideal for agriculture, and the region is home to a number of important crops, including rice, wheat, and sugarcane.

The other options are incorrect. Coastal plains are found along the coast of an ocean or sea. They are typically flat and low-lying, and they are often covered in sand or mud. Alluvial plains are formed by the deposition of sediment from rivers. They are typically flat and fertile, and they are often used for agriculture. Dense forests are found in areas with high rainfall and humidity. They are typically characterized by tall trees and a dense understory.

The correct answer is: October 1.

Haryana Day is a public holiday in the Indian state of Haryana. It is celebrated on October 1 to commemorate the formation of the state on October 1, 1966. The day is marked with a variety of events, including cultural programs, parades, and speeches.

Option A: September 1 is not Haryana Day. Haryana Day is celebrated on October 1, not September 1.

Option B: October 1 is Haryana Day. Haryana Day is celebrated on October 1 to commemorate the formation of the state on October 1, 1966.

Option C: November 1 is not Haryana Day. Haryana Day is celebrated on October 1, not November 1.

Option D: December 1 is not Haryana Day. Haryana Day is celebrated on October 1, not December 1.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State List only if a national emergency is declared. This is because the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the Union and the States. The subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the Union are listed in the Union List, while the subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the States are listed in the State List. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List only if a national emergency is declared. This is because Article 249 of the Indian Constitution states that "During a period of national emergency, Parliament may make laws with respect to any matter in the State List."

The other options are incorrect because they do not provide a valid reason for the Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List. Option A is incorrect because the President does not have the power to authorize the Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List. Option B is incorrect because the Supreme Court of India does not have the power to give authority to the Parliament of India to legislate on a subject in the State List. Option C is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha does not have the power to pass a resolution by two-thirds of its members to legislate on a state matter in the national interest.

The correct answer is A. greater than one.

If price decreases and total expenditures increase, then demand is elastic. Elastic demand means that consumers are very responsive to changes in price. When the price of a good decreases, consumers buy more of it. This causes total expenditures to increase.

If price decreases and total expenditures remain the same, then demand is unit elastic. Unit elastic demand means that consumers are not very responsive to changes in price. When the price of a good decreases, consumers buy more of it, but not enough to offset the decrease in price. This causes total expenditures to remain the same.

If price decreases and total expenditures decrease, then demand is inelastic. Inelastic demand means that consumers are not very responsive to changes in price. When the price of a good decreases, consumers do not buy much more of it. This causes total expenditures to decrease.

In conclusion, if price decreases and total expenditures increase, then demand is elastic.

The Southern region of West Bengal experiences tropical Savannah and the Northern region witnesses humid sub-tropical type of climate. Overall the state experiences Tropical Monsoon type of climate.

The correct answer is: B. mirror

Large astronomical telescopes always use a mirror as the objective because it is more efficient than a lens. A mirror can reflect all of the light that hits it, while a lens can only transmit a fraction of the light that hits it. This is because a mirror is a solid object, while a lens is made up of two pieces of glass that are separated by air. The air between the two pieces of glass causes some of the light to be lost.

In addition, a mirror can be made much larger than a lens of the same weight. This is because a mirror is supported by its back, while a lens is supported by its edges. The edges of a lens are more likely to break than the back of a mirror.

Finally, a mirror is less expensive to make than a lens of the same size. This is because a mirror can be made out of a single piece of glass, while a lens must be made out of two pieces of glass that are ground and polished to a precise shape.

Option A is incorrect because a lens is not as efficient as a mirror. Option C is incorrect because a combination of lenses is not as efficient as a single mirror. Option D is incorrect because large astronomical telescopes always use a mirror as the objective.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{alkanes}}$.

Alkanes are a type of hydrocarbon that is made up of carbon and hydrogen atoms that are only connected by single bonds. They are the simplest type of hydrocarbon and are often referred to as "paraffins". Alkanes are nonpolar and have a low melting point and boiling point. They are also very stable and are not easily reactive.

Alkanes are found in petroleum and natural gas. They are also used as solvents, lubricants, and fuels.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe a compound with only single bonds between carbon atoms.

• Alkenes are hydrocarbons that have at least one double bond between carbon atoms.
• Alkynes are hydrocarbons that have at least one triple bond between carbon atoms.
• Benzene is a hydrocarbon that has a ring of six carbon atoms with alternating single and double bonds.

The correct answer is A. Vitamin C.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, while vitamins A, D, and K are fat-soluble vitamins.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the growth and repair of tissues throughout the body. It is also involved in the production of collagen, a protein that is found in skin, bones, and connective tissue. Vitamin C is also a powerful antioxidant that can help protect cells from damage.

Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for vision, skin, and immune function. It is also involved in the growth and development of bones and teeth. Vitamin A can be found in animal products such as liver, eggs, and milk, as well as in plant-based foods such as carrots, sweet potatoes, and dark leafy greens.

Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for bone health. It is also involved in the regulation of blood calcium levels and immune function. Vitamin D can be obtained from sunlight exposure, as well as from food sources such as fatty fish, egg yolks, and fortified milk.

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for blood clotting and bone health. It is also involved in the regulation of blood calcium levels. Vitamin K can be obtained from food sources such as green leafy vegetables, broccoli, and Brussels sprouts, as well as from supplements.

The correct answer is (a) Pakistan. Gwadar port is a deep-water port located in the Balochistan province of Pakistan. It is situated on the Arabian Sea, at the mouth of the Persian Gulf. The port is strategically important, as it provides a gateway to Central Asia and the Middle East. It is also a major economic hub, and is expected to play a significant role in the development of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).

Option (b), Iran, is incorrect because Gwadar port is not located in Iran. Iran is a country located in the Middle East, bordering Pakistan to the east.

Option (c), India, is incorrect because Gwadar port is not located in India. India is a country located in South Asia, bordering Pakistan to the west.

Option (d), Sri Lanka, is incorrect because Gwadar port is not located in Sri Lanka. Sri Lanka is an island country located in the Indian Ocean, off the coast of India.

The correct answer is: D. International Day for Biological Diversity, recognized by the UN

2 April is observed as the International Day for Biological Diversity, recognized by the United Nations. It was established in 1993 by the United Nations General Assembly to increase understanding and awareness of the importance of biodiversity. The day also celebrates the signing of the Convention on Biological Diversity in 1992.

Biological diversity is the variety of life on Earth. It includes the variety of plants, animals, and microorganisms, as well as the variety of ecosystems in which they live. Biodiversity is essential for human health and well-being. It provides us with food, water, medicine, and other resources. It also helps to regulate the climate and protect us from natural disasters.

The loss of biodiversity is a serious threat to our planet. It is caused by human activities such as habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change. The loss of biodiversity can lead to the extinction of species, the disruption of ecosystems, and the decline of human health.

We can all help to protect biodiversity. We can do this by reducing our consumption of resources, supporting sustainable agriculture, and conserving natural habitats. We can also educate others about the importance of biodiversity and encourage them to take action to protect it.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. World day for War Orphans is observed on 6 June. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2002 to raise awareness of the plight of war orphans and to promote their rights.
• B. United Nations Day for South-South Cooperation is observed on 12 September. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2005 to promote South-South cooperation, which is the cooperation between developing countries.
• C. World Austim Awareness Day, recognized by the UN is observed on 2 April. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2007 to raise awareness of autism spectrum disorder and to promote the rights of people with autism.

The correct answer is: A. Electrons

In a metal wire, electric current is due to the flow of electrons. Electrons are negatively charged particles that are free to move around in the metal. When a voltage is applied to the wire, the electrons are attracted to the positive terminal and repelled by the negative terminal. This causes them to move through the wire, creating an electric current.

Protons are positively charged particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom. Ions are atoms or molecules that have a net electrical charge, either positive or negative. Holes are regions in a semiconductor that have a positive charge, due to the absence of an electron.

Protons, ions, and holes can all carry charge, but they are not the main carriers of electric current in a metal wire. Electrons are the only particles that are free to move around in a metal, and they are the ones that create the electric current.

The correct answer is: **B) Samachar Darpan**

Samachar Darpan is the oldest surviving newspaper in Bengali, established in 1818. It was founded by Harihar Ghose and Gangadhar Bhattacharya. The newspaper was originally published in Kolkata, British India. It is now published from Kolkata, India.

Samachar Darpan was one of the first newspapers to be published in India. It was also one of the first newspapers to be published in Bengali. The newspaper played a significant role in the development of Bengali literature and journalism.

Samachar Darpan has been published continuously since its inception in 1818. It is one of the oldest newspapers in the world. The newspaper has been through many changes over the years, but it has always remained true to its original mission of providing accurate and unbiased news coverage.

Samachar Darpan is a valuable resource for anyone interested in Bengali history, literature, or journalism. It is a must-read for anyone who wants to understand the development of modern India.

The other options are:

A) Sambad Pratidin is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1986 by Ajit Kumar Dutta. The newspaper is owned by the Sambad Pratidin Group.

C) Ananda Bazar Patrika is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1878 by Sisir Kumar Ghose. The newspaper is owned by the ABP Group.

D) Bartaman is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1988 by Subrata Ghosh. The newspaper is owned by the Bartaman Group.

The correct answer is A. symphony.

A play is a dramatic work that is performed by actors on a stage. A concert is a musical performance that is given by musicians. A symphony is a large-scale musical composition that is typically performed by an orchestra.

The relationship between a play and an actor is similar to the relationship between a concert and a musician. In both cases, the performer is responsible for bringing the work to life. The actor interprets the playwright's words and actions, while the musician interprets the composer's notes.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationship between a play and an actor. A piano is a musical instrument, not a performer. Percussion is a type of musical instrument, not a performer.

The correct answer is: B. MC = AC

When marginal cost equals average cost, the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve and so there will be productive efficiency.

Marginal cost (MC) is the additional cost incurred by producing one more unit of output. Average cost (AC) is the total cost of production divided by the number of units produced.

When MC equals AC, the firm is producing at the point where the additional cost of producing one more unit of output is equal to the average cost of producing all units of output. This is the point where the firm is producing at the lowest possible cost per unit of output.

Productive efficiency is the condition in which a firm is producing the maximum output possible with the given level of inputs. This occurs when the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve.

The other options are incorrect because they do not necessarily indicate that the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve.

Option A: AC = AR. This condition indicates that the firm is earning a normal profit. It does not necessarily mean that the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve.

Option C: MC = MR. This condition indicates that the firm is maximizing profits. It does not necessarily mean that the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve.

Option D: AR = MR. This condition indicates that the firm is in a perfectly competitive market. It does not necessarily mean that the firm is producing at the minimum point of the average cost curve.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{B) 0.1937}}$.

To calculate the probability of exactly 2 defective items in a sample of 10 items, we can use the binomial distribution. The binomial distribution is a probability distribution that describes the number of successes in a sequence of independent experiments each of which yields success with probability $p$. In this case, the experiment is choosing an item from the lot, and the success is choosing a defective item. The probability of success is $p=0.1$, since 10% of the items in the lot are defective. We want to know the probability of getting 2 successes in 10 trials, so $n=10$.

The probability of exactly 2 defective items is given by the following formula:

$$P(X=2)=binom{n}{2}p^2(1-p)^{n-2}$$

where $binom{n}{2}$ is the binomial coefficient, which is the number of ways to choose 2 items from a set of 10 items. In this case, $binom{10}{2}=45$.

Plugging in $p=0.1$ and $n=10$, we get:

$$P(X=2)=binom{10}{2}(0.1)^2(0.9)^{10-2}=0.1937$$

Therefore, the probability of exactly 2 defective items in a sample of 10 items is $boxed{text{B) 0.1937}}$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the probability of exactly 2 defective items in a sample of 10 items.

The correct answer is D. undesirable.

The word "congenial" means "agreeable or pleasant." In this context, it means that reading poetry is not something that this person enjoys or finds pleasurable. The other options are all words that describe something that is positive or beneficial.

• A. suited: appropriate or fitting
• B. beneficial: providing benefits or advantages
• C. helpful: providing assistance or support

It is possible that this person does not find poetry to be beneficial or helpful, but it is more likely that they simply do not enjoy it.

The correct answer is D. K. Karuna Nautial.

K. Karuna Nautial was the first Indian woman to reach Antarctica. She was part of the Indian National Antarctic Expedition (INAE) XXXIII team that reached Antarctica in 2018. She is a scientist at the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) in Goa.

A. Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian to go to space. He was part of the Soviet Union's Soyuz T-11 mission in 1984.

B. Ram Charan is an Indian actor. He has starred in many popular films, including "Magadheera" and "Rangasthalam".

C. B. K. Dutta is a retired Indian Army officer. He served as the Chief of Army Staff from 1993 to 1995.

The answer is E, kilometres. The other options are all units of mass, while kilometres is a unit of length.

• A tonne is a unit of mass equal to 1000 kilograms.
• A quintal is a unit of mass equal to 100 kilograms.
• A gram is a unit of mass equal to 0.001 kilograms.
• A kilogram is a unit of mass equal to 1000 grams.

The answer is C. 85 - 60.

In each of the other options, the difference between the two numbers is 27. This is because each of the numbers is a multiple of 3, and 27 is the product of 3 and 9. However, 85 is not a multiple of 3, so the difference between 85 and 60 is not 27.

The correct answer is: A. 1951

The First Five Year Plan (FYP) was the first of five five-year plans implemented by India's Planning Commission. It was launched in 1951 and covered the period from 1951 to 1956. The main objectives of the FYP were to increase agricultural production, expand industrial capacity, and improve infrastructure.

The FYP was a success in many ways. Agricultural production increased by 20%, industrial production increased by 30%, and infrastructure was improved significantly. However, the FYP also had some shortcomings. For example, it did not do enough to address the problem of poverty.

Overall, the FYP was a positive step for India. It helped to lay the foundation for the country's economic development in the years to come.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. 1951: The First Five Year Plan was launched in 1951.
• B. 1950: The First Five Year Plan was not launched in 1950.
• C. 1952: The First Five Year Plan was not launched in 1952.
• D. 1949: The First Five Year Plan was not launched in 1949.

The answer is A. 5FU.

The series is a simple addition of 4 to the previous number, except for 5FU. The correct sequence should be 1CC, 5FU, 9IT, 13LU, 17OR.

1CC + 4 = 5FU
5FU + 4 = 9IT
9IT + 4 = 13LU
13LU + 4 = 17OR

Therefore, 5FU is the odd one out.

The correct answer is C. by.

The preposition "by" is used to indicate a deadline or a point in time by which something must be done. In this case, Ram must be back home by 10 o'clock. This means that he must arrive home no later than 10 o'clock.

The preposition "for" is used to indicate a period of time during which something happens. For example, "Ram went to the store for an hour."

The preposition "to" is used to indicate a destination or goal. For example, "Ram went to the store to buy some milk."

The preposition "till" is used to indicate a point in time until which something happens. For example, "Ram stayed up till midnight."

In this case, the preposition "by" is the most appropriate choice because it indicates a deadline or a point in time by which something must be done.

The correct answer is (c), Intranet.

An intranet is a private network that uses Internet technologies and protocols to share information, applications, and computing services within a limited group of users. Intranets are typically used by businesses, government agencies, and educational institutions to share information and collaborate on projects.

Video conferencing, email, and browsing the web are all applications of the internet. Video conferencing allows users to communicate with each other in real time using video and audio. Email is a way to send and receive messages electronically. Browsing the web is the process of accessing and viewing information on the World Wide Web.

Intranets are not applications of the internet because they are not accessible to the public. Intranets are private networks that are only accessible to authorized users.

The correct answer is: **B) Dhol**

The dhol is a double-headed drum that is used in a variety of Indian folk music and dance forms, including the jhumur dance. It is made from a wooden frame with two goatskin heads, and is played with the hands. The dhol is a very loud instrument, and is often used to accompany processions and other public gatherings.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The madal is a small hand drum that is used in classical Indian music.
* The tabla is a pair of small drums that are used in classical Indian music.
* The sitar is a long-necked lute that is used in classical Indian music.

The answer is B. Tree.

A trunk is the main stem of a tree. It supports the branches and leaves, and transports water and nutrients from the roots to the leaves.

A fruit is the seed-bearing structure that develops from the ovary of a flowering plant, after fertilization. Fruits are the means by which these plants disperse their seeds.

A leaf is an organ of a vascular plant, primarily of higher plants, that functions primarily in photosynthesis and gas exchange. Leaves are the primary organs of food production in most plants.

A flower is the reproductive structure found in flowering plants (angiosperms). Flowers are the means by which these plants sexually reproduce.

The correct answer is C. both (A) and (B).

The Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) is the professional head of the Indian Army. The COAS is the senior-most officer in the Indian Army and is responsible for the overall command, control, and administration of the Army. The COAS is appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

The COAS is assisted by the Vice-Chief of the Army Staff (VCOAS), who is the second-in-command of the Army. The VCOAS is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the Army.

The COAS is also assisted by a number of principal staff officers (PSOs), who are responsible for different aspects of the Army's operations and administration. The PSOs include the Deputy Chief of the Army Staff (DCAS), the Adjutant General (AG), the Quartermaster General (QMG), the Master General of Ordnance (MGO), the Engineer-in-Chief (E-in-C), the Director General of Military Operations (DGMO), and the Director General of Military Intelligence (DDMI).

The PSOs are responsible for providing advice and assistance to the COAS on all matters relating to their respective areas of responsibility. They also play a key role in the planning and execution of the Army's operations.

The correct answer is: B. Foreigner

Fundamental rights are the basic rights and freedoms that are guaranteed to all citizens of a country. They are enshrined in the constitution and cannot be taken away by the government.

Some of the fundamental rights in India include the right to equality, the right to freedom, the right against exploitation, the right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, the right to constitutional remedies, and the right to life and personal liberty.

Foreigners are not entitled to all of the fundamental rights that are available to citizens of India. For example, foreigners do not have the right to vote or to hold public office. They also do not have the right to freedom of speech and expression, or the right to assemble peacefully.

However, foreigners do have some fundamental rights, such as the right to life and liberty, the right to equality before the law, and the right to protection against discrimination.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Insolvent persons are still entitled to fundamental rights, although they may be subject to certain restrictions on their rights.
• Deceased persons do not have any rights, as they are no longer alive.
• Political victims are entitled to fundamental rights, although they may be subject to certain restrictions on their rights if they are convicted of a crime.

The correct answer is (d), Hampi.

Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the Indian state of Karnataka. It was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire from 1336 to 1565. The city was abandoned after it was sacked by the Deccan sultanates in 1565.

The ruins of Hampi are spread over an area of 40 square kilometers. The most important monuments in Hampi are the Virupaksha Temple, the Hampi Bazaar, the Lotus Mahal, and the Royal Enclosure.

The Virupaksha Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the god Virupaksha. It is one of the largest temples in India. The Hampi Bazaar is a market place that was once the center of trade in the Vijayanagara Empire. The Lotus Mahal is a palace that was once used by the royal family of the Vijayanagara Empire. The Royal Enclosure is a complex of buildings that was once the residence of the royal family of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Hampi is a popular tourist destination. It is known for its beautiful architecture, its historical significance, and its natural beauty.

The correct answer is (c), Rudradaman.

Rudradaman was the ruler of the Western Satraps from 130 to 150 CE. He was a great conqueror and expanded his kingdom to include much of present-day Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. He was also a patron of the arts and literature, and is credited with building many temples and other monuments.

One of Rudradaman's most important achievements was the construction of a dam on the Girnar River. This dam was built to provide water for irrigation and drinking water for the people of the region. It is one of the oldest dams in India and is still in use today.

The other options are incorrect. Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Mauryan Empire in the 4th century BCE. Asoka was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya and the greatest ruler of the Mauryan Empire. Skandagupta was the grandson of Asoka and the last great ruler of the Mauryan Empire.

Chandra Gupta Maurya did not take any initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region. Asoka did take some initiatives for water resource management, but they were not as significant as those of Rudradaman. Skandagupta did not take any initiatives for water resource management in the Girnar region.

The correct answer is A. 80.

A gandhara is a disciple of a Tirthankar. Ajitnath Tirthankar had 80 gandharas.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the number of gandharas that Ajitnath Tirthankar had.

The correct answer is (b) Egan Bernal.

Egan Bernal is a Colombian professional road bicycle racer who rides for UCI WorldTeam Ineos Grenadiers. He is the 2019 Tour de France champion, the youngest rider to win the race since Laurent Fignon in 1983, and the first Colombian to win the race.

Nairo Quintana is a Colombian professional road bicycle racer who rides for UCI WorldTeam Arkéa–Samsic. He is a former Vuelta a España champion (2016), Giro d'Italia runner-up (2014, 2015), and Tour de France runner-up (2013).

Andreas Seppi is an Italian professional tennis player. He has a career-high ATP singles ranking of world No. 8, achieved on 12 September 2017. He has won 4 ATP singles titles and 1 ATP doubles title.

Andy Murray is a British professional tennis player. He is a former world No. 1 in men's singles, and has held the top ranking for a total of 41 weeks. He is the 2013 Wimbledon champion, the 2012 US Open champion, and the 2016 Olympic gold medalist in men's singles.

The correct answer is: A. Coin : Mint

Money is stored in a bank, and coins are made in a mint. Both money and coins are forms of currency, and both banks and mints are institutions that deal with currency.

Sound is produced by music, and arrows are stored in a quiver. However, sound and music are not the same thing, and arrows and quivers are not the same thing. Sound is a physical phenomenon that is produced by the vibration of objects, while music is an art form that uses sound to create pleasing or meaningful experiences. Arrows are projectiles that are shot from bows, while quivers are containers that hold arrows.

Fear is a feeling of anxiety or dread, and trembling is a physical reaction that can be caused by fear. However, fear and trembling are not the same thing, and they are not always related. Fear can be caused by a variety of things, including real or perceived danger, while trembling can be caused by a variety of things, including fear, cold, or excitement.

Therefore, the only lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words is A. Coin : Mint.

The correct answer is: C. with

A manager should establish a feeling of confidence with his clients. This means that the manager should create an environment where clients feel comfortable and confident in the manager's abilities. The manager can do this by being knowledgeable, professional, and trustworthy.

Option A, "in," is incorrect because it suggests that the manager should establish a feeling of confidence within his clients. This is not possible, as the manager cannot control how his clients feel.

Option B, "among," is incorrect because it suggests that the manager should establish a feeling of confidence among his clients. This is also not possible, as the manager cannot control how his clients feel about each other.

Option D, "to," is incorrect because it suggests that the manager should establish a feeling of confidence to his clients. This is not the most effective way to build trust, as it can come across as arrogant or condescending.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: C. with. A manager should establish a feeling of confidence with his clients. This means that the manager should create an environment where clients feel comfortable and confident in the manager's abilities. The manager can do this by being knowledgeable, professional, and trustworthy.

The correct answer is: Golgi bodies.

Golgi bodies are double membrane structures that are commonly oval or disc shaped. They are found in most eukaryotic cells and are involved in the processing, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids. Golgi bodies are also involved in the synthesis of lysosomes and secretory vesicles.

Ribosomes are small, round organelles that are found in the cytoplasm of all cells. They are responsible for the synthesis of proteins. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits, a large subunit and a small subunit. The large subunit contains the ribosomal RNA (rRNA), while the small subunit contains the transfer RNA (tRNA). The rRNA and tRNA are responsible for the translation of the genetic code into proteins.

Lysosomes are small, spherical organelles that are found in the cytoplasm of all cells. They contain hydrolytic enzymes that are capable of digesting proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. Lysosomes are involved in the process of autophagy, which is the breakdown of damaged or unwanted cells.

The nucleus is a large, oval organelle that is found in the center of most eukaryotic cells. It contains the cell's DNA, which is organized into chromosomes. The nucleus is also responsible for the regulation of gene expression.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "They are double membrane structures that are commonly oval or disc shaped" is Golgi bodies.

The correct answer is (a) Agriculture field.

According to the 2011 Census of India, 53.1% of the workforce in Uttar Pradesh was engaged in agriculture, followed by 17.2% in industry and 29.7% in services.

Agriculture is the primary occupation of the people of Uttar Pradesh. The state is one of the largest producers of food grains in India. The main crops grown in Uttar Pradesh are rice, wheat, sugarcane, and maize.

The industrial sector in Uttar Pradesh is not as developed as the agricultural sector. However, there are some major industries in the state, such as sugar mills, textile mills, and engineering industries.

The service sector is the fastest growing sector in Uttar Pradesh. The main services provided in the state are education, health care, and tourism.

In conclusion, the maximum percentage of workers in Uttar Pradesh are engaged in agriculture.

The correct answer is C. Near Patna, Bihar.

Nalanda was a Buddhist Mahavihara (university) in the Indian subcontinent. It was one of the most famous educational institutions in the world, and was patronized by the Gupta Empire. The university was destroyed by the Muslim invaders in the 12th century.

The ruins of Nalanda are located in the Nalanda district of Bihar, India. The site is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The other options are incorrect. Gujarat is a state in western India. Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh, India. Bhopal is a city in Madhya Pradesh, India.

The correct answer is C. Cabinet Secretary.

The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat, which is the highest policy making body in the Indian government. The Cabinet Secretary is appointed by the Prime Minister and is responsible for providing administrative support to the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretary also acts as the Secretary to the Cabinet Committees and is responsible for coordinating the work of the various ministries and departments of the government.

The Cabinet Minister is a member of the Cabinet, which is the highest decision-making body in the Indian government. The Cabinet Minister is appointed by the Prime Minister and is responsible for a particular ministry or department of the government. The Cabinet Minister is not the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.

The Prime Minister is the head of the government of India. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is responsible for the day-to-day running of the government. The Prime Minister is not the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.

The President is the head of state of India. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of Parliament and the legislative assemblies of the states. The President is not the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.

The correct answer is: D. Himachal Pradesh.

The 2015 Paragliding World Cup was held in Bir Billing, Himachal Pradesh, India from 24 to 31 October 2015. It was the 16th edition of the Paragliding World Cup, and the first time it had been held in India. The competition was held in the Bir-Billing Valley, which is known for its excellent paragliding conditions.

The competition was divided into two parts: a cross-country race and a accuracy task. The cross-country race was held over a course of 150 kilometers, and the accuracy task was held over a course of 5 kilometers. The winners of the competition were:

• Men's: Sebastiano Tonoli (Italy)
• Women's: Sandra Broll (Germany)
• Mixed: Sebastiano Tonoli and Sandra Broll (Italy and Germany)

The 2015 Paragliding World Cup was a major success, and it helped to promote the sport of paragliding in India. The competition was well-attended by spectators, and it was also broadcast live on television. The competition also helped to boost the local economy, as it attracted visitors from all over the world.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the states of India where the Paragliding World Cup 2015 was held.

The correct answer is: C. main phase

The magnetosphere is the region of space around Earth that is dominated by Earth's magnetic field. The magnetosphere protects Earth from harmful radiation from the sun and other sources.

Magnetic storms are disturbances in the magnetosphere that can cause problems with satellites, power grids, and other technology. Magnetic storms are caused by changes in the sun's magnetic field.

The main phase of a magnetic storm is the period when the magnetosphere is most unstable. During the main phase, the magnetosphere can expand and contract, and the magnetic field can become very disturbed.

The initial phase of a magnetic storm is the period when the magnetosphere begins to respond to changes in the sun's magnetic field. During the initial phase, the magnetosphere may expand or contract slightly, and the magnetic field may become slightly disturbed.

The storm sudden commencement phase is the period when the magnetosphere is suddenly disturbed by a change in the sun's magnetic field. During the storm sudden commencement phase, the magnetosphere can expand rapidly, and the magnetic field can become very disturbed.

None of the above is not the correct answer because it does not describe a period during which the magnetosphere becomes unstable.

The correct answer is: 1982-83.

India's Integrated Missiles Development Programme (IMD) was started in 1982-83 under the chairmanship of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. The IMD was a major initiative to develop a range of indigenous missiles for the Indian Armed Forces. The programme was successful in developing a number of missiles, including the Prithvi, Agni, and Trishul. The IMD was a major milestone in India's defence development and helped to improve the country's strategic capabilities.

Option A: 1979-80 is incorrect because the IMD was not started in this year.
Option B: 1980-81 is incorrect because the IMD was not started in this year.
Option C: 1981-82 is incorrect because the IMD was not started in this year.
Option D: 1982-83 is correct because the IMD was started in this year.

The correct answer is (c). The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 came into effect on 5th September, 1937.

The Act provides for the application of Muslim personal law to Muslims in British India. It covers matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and succession. The Act was passed by the Indian Legislative Assembly on 17 September 1937 and received the assent of the Governor-General on 23 September 1937. It came into effect on 5th September, 1937.

The Act was a major step in the codification of Muslim personal law in India. It was also a significant step in the recognition of Muslim personal law as a valid system of law in India. The Act has been amended several times since its enactment. The most recent amendment was made in 2005.

The Act has been controversial since its enactment. Some people have argued that it is discriminatory against women. Others have argued that it is a necessary safeguard for the religious freedom of Muslims. The Act continues to be debated in India today.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the Act came into effect on 5th September, 1937, not 7th October, 1937. Option (b) is incorrect because the Act came into effect on 5th September, 1937, not 7th October, 1938. Option (d) is incorrect because the Act came into effect on 5th September, 1937, not 4th September, 1937.

The correct answer is C. Running a marathon.

Slow oxidative muscle fibers are also known as type I muscle fibers. They are slow-twitch fibers that are fatigue-resistant and have a high oxidative capacity. This means that they are able to produce energy aerobically, which is a process that requires oxygen. Slow oxidative muscle fibers are best suited for activities that require endurance, such as running a marathon.

Option A is incorrect because hitting a football requires fast-twitch fibers, which are also known as type II muscle fibers. Fast-twitch fibers are quick-twitch fibers that are not as fatigue-resistant as slow oxidative fibers. They are best suited for activities that require power and speed, such as hitting a football.

Option B is incorrect because heavy workouts in the gym require a mix of both slow oxidative and fast-twitch fibers. The type of fibers that are used depends on the specific exercise that is being performed. For example, exercises that require power and speed, such as weightlifting, will use more fast-twitch fibers. Exercises that require endurance, such as running, will use more slow oxidative fibers.

Option D is incorrect because slow oxidative muscle fibers are best suited for activities that require endurance, such as running a marathon.

The correct answer is (a) Endohedral Fullerene.

Endohedral fullerenes are a type of fullerene that contains atoms of other elements inside its carbon cage. They are extremely rare and difficult to produce, which makes them very expensive. The most expensive endohedral fullerene is $C_{60}@^{136}Xe$, which contains a single xenon atom inside a carbon cage. It is estimated to cost over $100 million per gram.

Californium 252 is a radioactive element that is used in medical research and industrial applications. It is not a metal, and it is not particularly expensive. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen that is used in glow-in-the-dark watches and other applications. It is also not a metal, and it is not particularly expensive. Rhodium is a metal that is used in catalytic converters and other applications. It is more expensive than gold, but it is not the most expensive metal in the world.

Here is a brief description of each option:

• Endohedral fullerenes are a type of fullerene that contains atoms of other elements inside its carbon cage. They are extremely rare and difficult to produce, which makes them very expensive. The most expensive endohedral fullerene is $C_{60}@^{136}Xe$, which contains a single xenon atom inside a carbon cage. It is estimated to cost over $100 million per gram.
• Californium 252 is a radioactive element that is used in medical research and industrial applications. It is not a metal, and it is not particularly expensive.
• Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen that is used in glow-in-the-dark watches and other applications. It is also not a metal, and it is not particularly expensive.
• Rhodium is a metal that is used in catalytic converters and other applications. It is more expensive than gold, but it is not the most expensive metal in the world.

The correct answer is (a) Finland. Finland is called the "Garden of Lakes" because it has over 187,888 lakes, which is more than any other country in the world. The lakes are a popular tourist destination, and they are also important for the country's economy. The lakes provide a habitat for a variety of plants and animals, and they are also used for fishing, swimming, and boating.

(b) Sweden is also a beautiful country with many lakes, but it is not known as the "Garden of Lakes." Sweden is known for its forests, mountains, and coastline.

(c) New Zealand is a beautiful country with many lakes, but it is not known as the "Garden of Lakes." New Zealand is known for its mountains, glaciers, and volcanoes.

(d) Greenland is a large island in the Arctic Ocean. It is covered in ice and snow, and it does not have many lakes. Greenland is not known as the "Garden of Lakes."

The correct answer is (a).

Initially, the adulterated rice has 5 kg * 2% = 0.1 kg of stones. After half of the stones are removed, the adulterated rice has 0.1 kg / 2 = 0.05 kg of stones. The percentage of stones in the adulterated rice is 0.05 kg / 5 kg * 100% = 1%.

Option (b) is incorrect because it is the percentage of stones in the original adulterated rice. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the percentage of stones in the adulterated rice after all of the stones are removed. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the percentage of stones in the adulterated rice after half of the stones are removed.

A crescograph is a device for measuring growth in plants. Jagadish Chandra Bose invented crescograph in the 20th century.

The correct answer is D. Guttation.

Guttation is the exudation of drops of water from hydathodes, which are specialized pores on the undersides of leaves. It occurs when the water pressure in the xylem exceeds the atmospheric pressure, and is most common in plants that are growing rapidly or in humid conditions.

Root pressure is the upward movement of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves. It is caused by the active transport of ions out of the root cells, which creates a negative pressure gradient that draws water up from the soil.

Transpiration is the loss of water vapor from the leaves of plants. It is a necessary process for plants, as it helps to cool them and to transport nutrients from the roots to the leaves. Transpiration is driven by the difference in water vapor pressure between the air and the leaf surfaces.

Osmotic pressure is the pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane. It is caused by the difference in the concentration of solutes on either side of the membrane.

Dinabandhu Mitra published his first and most famous play Nil Darpan in 1860 about the plight of Indigo farmers. It was an emotionally motivating play which played a significant role in Indigo revolt (Nilbidroha).

The correct answer is C. A person unsuited to the position he fills.

A square peg in a round hole is an idiom that means something that does not fit or belong. It is often used to describe a person who is not suited to the job they are doing. For example, if someone is a very creative person who is put in a job that requires a lot of attention to detail, they might be considered a square peg in a round hole.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the meaning of the idiom. An impossible task is something that cannot be done, while a scheme that never works is a plan that is doomed to fail. None of these things are necessarily related to being unsuited to a position.

The correct answer is C. Right to strike.

The fundamental rights are the basic rights and freedoms that are guaranteed to all citizens of India by the Constitution of India. These rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution and are enforceable by the courts.

The fundamental rights are:

• Right to equality
• Right to freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of religion
• Cultural and educational rights
• Right to constitutional remedies

The right to strike is not a fundamental right. It is a statutory right that is available to certain categories of employees under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

The right to strike is not absolute and can be restricted by the government in the interest of public order, morality, or national security.

The right to strike is an important right that helps to protect the interests of workers. However, it is important to use this right responsibly and in a way that does not harm the interests of the public.

The correct answer is: (iii), (iv), (v).

The first phase of bank nationalisation in India took place in 1969, when 14 major commercial banks were nationalised. The second phase took place in 1980, when six more commercial banks were nationalised.

The main objectives of bank nationalisation were to:

• Promote economic development and social justice
• Ensure greater credit flow to agriculture and small-scale industries
• Provide a sound and stable banking system
• Promote financial inclusion

Bank nationalisation has had a significant impact on the Indian economy. It has helped to promote economic development and social justice by providing greater credit flow to agriculture and small-scale industries. It has also helped to provide a sound and stable banking system. Additionally, bank nationalisation has helped to promote financial inclusion by making banking services more accessible to the poor and marginalized.

However, bank nationalisation has also faced some challenges. One challenge is that it has led to a concentration of power in the hands of the government. Another challenge is that it has led to a lack of innovation in the banking sector.

Despite these challenges, bank nationalisation has been a success story in India. It has helped to promote economic development and social justice, and it has provided a sound and stable banking system.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

The Africa Fund Committee was established in 1960 by the Indian government to provide financial assistance to African countries. The first chairman of the committee was Krishna Menon. He was a prominent Indian politician and diplomat who served as the Minister of External Affairs from 1956 to 1967. Menon was a strong advocate for African independence and played a key role in the Non-Aligned Movement.

Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India from 1984 to 1989. He was the son of Indira Gandhi, who was the Prime Minister of India from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 to 1984. Indira Gandhi was assassinated in 1984, and Rajiv Gandhi was elected Prime Minister in her place. He was assassinated in 1991.

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India from 1947 to 1964. He was a leading figure in the Indian independence movement and a founding member of the Indian National Congress. Nehru was a secularist and a socialist, and he played a key role in shaping the modern Indian state.

The answer is A. UYW.

In the sequence JLN : SQO, each letter is three places forward in the alphabet. So, J becomes S, L becomes Q, and N becomes O. Following this pattern, P becomes U, R becomes Y, and T becomes W. Therefore, the answer is UYW.

Option B, UTV, is incorrect because V is not three places forward from T. Option C, YWU, is incorrect because W is not three places forward from U. Option D, VUT, is incorrect because T is not three places forward from V.

The correct answer is (b). The Tropic of Cancer is a circle of latitude that runs 23.5 degrees north of the Equator. It passes through 16 countries, including Chad. The other options are incorrect because they are not countries that the Tropic of Cancer passes through.

North Sudan is a country in Africa that is located north of the Tropic of Cancer. Chad is a country in Africa that is located on the Tropic of Cancer. Mali is a country in Africa that is located south of the Tropic of Cancer. Yemen is a country in Asia that is located south of the Tropic of Cancer.

The correct answer is (d) Lakshadweep.

Lakshadweep is the smallest union territory of India in terms of area. It is a group of islands in the Arabian Sea, off the coast of Kerala. The total area of Lakshadweep is 32 sq km.

Puducherry is the second smallest union territory of India, with an area of 492 sq km. Daman and Diu is the third smallest union territory, with an area of 112 sq km. Dadra and Nagar Haveli is the fourth smallest union territory, with an area of 492 sq km.

Lakshadweep is a group of 36 islands, of which only 10 are inhabited. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti. The main language spoken in Lakshadweep is Malayalam. The economy of Lakshadweep is based on tourism, fishing, and agriculture.

The correct answer is: D. tell

To tell is to give an account of something in words, either spoken or written. It can also mean to give orders or instructions.

The other options are:

• A. instruct: to teach or direct someone how to do something.
• B. recount: to tell the story of something that happened.
• C. recollect: to remember something.

In the context of the question, "I am afraid I cannot relate the details now," the speaker is saying that they are unable to give an account of something in words. This means that the correct answer is "tell."

The correct answer is: A. A decrease in total revenue.

When demand is perfectly inelastic, the quantity demanded does not change at all when the price changes. This means that if the price goes up, people will still buy the same amount of the product, and if the price goes down, people will still buy the same amount of the product.

Total revenue is equal to price times quantity demanded. So, if the quantity demanded does not change, then an increase in price will lead to a decrease in total revenue.

For example, let's say that the demand for a product is perfectly inelastic, and the current price is $10 and the quantity demanded is 100 units. If the price goes up to $11, the quantity demanded will still be 100 units. So, total revenue will be $1100. However, if the price goes down to $9, the quantity demanded will still be 100 units. So, total revenue will be $900.

In conclusion, when demand is perfectly inelastic, an increase in price will result in a decrease in total revenue.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it is based on the evidence that young entrepreneurs are more likely to start new businesses than older entrepreneurs. New businesses are important for economic growth because they create new jobs and products.

Argument II is weak because it is based on the assumption that young entrepreneurs will create jobs for themselves and others. However, there is no guarantee that this will happen. In fact, many new businesses fail, and the entrepreneurs who start them may end up unemployed.

In conclusion, only argument I is strong. Argument II is weak because it is based on an assumption that is not necessarily true.

The correct answer is: C. yield management pricing.

Yield management pricing is a pricing strategy used by airlines, hotels, and other service providers to maximize revenue by adjusting prices according to demand. This strategy is often used in conjunction with electronic markets, which allow prices to be changed quickly and easily.

Competitive pricing is a pricing strategy in which businesses set prices based on the prices of their competitors. This strategy is often used in markets with a large number of competitors.

E-marketing pricing is a pricing strategy that takes into account the unique characteristics of the online environment. This strategy often involves using dynamic pricing, which allows prices to be changed based on factors such as demand, time of day, and customer behavior.

None of the above is not the correct answer because it does not describe the pricing strategy in question.

The correct answer is: A. Attorney General.

The Attorney General is the chief legal officer of the state. He or she is appointed by the governor and confirmed by the state legislature. The Attorney General is responsible for representing the state in court, giving legal advice to state officials, and enforcing state laws.

The Advocate General is the chief legal officer of the state government. He or she is appointed by the state government and confirmed by the state legislature. The Advocate General is responsible for representing the state government in court, giving legal advice to state government officials, and enforcing state government laws.

The Additional General is a senior lawyer in the state government. He or she is appointed by the state government and confirmed by the state legislature. The Additional General is responsible for providing legal advice to state government officials and for representing the state government in court.

None of the above is the correct answer.

The correct answer is (d), all the above. Jatropha, Pongamia, and Aak are all petro plants.

A petro plant is a plant that can be used to produce biodiesel, a renewable fuel that can be used to power vehicles. Biodiesel is made from vegetable oils or animal fats, and it is a cleaner-burning fuel than petroleum diesel.

Jatropha is a shrub or small tree that is native to Central and South America. It is a fast-growing plant that can tolerate drought and poor soil conditions. Jatropha oil can be used to produce biodiesel, and the plant's seeds can also be used to make soap and other products.

Pongamia is a tree that is native to India and Southeast Asia. It is a fast-growing plant that can tolerate drought and poor soil conditions. Pongamia oil can be used to produce biodiesel, and the tree's wood can be used to make paper and other products.

Aak is a tree that is native to India and Southeast Asia. It is a fast-growing plant that can tolerate drought and poor soil conditions. Aak oil can be used to produce biodiesel, and the tree's wood can be used to make paper and other products.

Petro plants are a valuable resource because they can be used to produce a renewable fuel that can help to reduce our reliance on petroleum.

The management of the tea industry in West Bengal is done by the Tea Board of India. This industry plays an important role in the economy of West Bengal.

The correct answer is A) Durga Puja.

Gariahat paintings are a genre of Indian painting that originated in the Gariahat area of Kolkata, India. The paintings are characterized by their depiction of the Durga Puja festival, which is one of the most important festivals in the Hindu calendar. The paintings typically show scenes from the festival, such as the preparation of the pandals (temporary shrines), the worship of the goddess Durga, and the immersion of the idols in the Ganges River.

Gariahat paintings are typically done in a naive style, with bright colors and simple compositions. The paintings are often done on paper or cloth, and they are sometimes framed and hung on walls. Gariahat paintings are popular souvenirs for tourists visiting Kolkata, and they are also collected by art lovers around the world.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option B: Social life in Calcutta. Gariahat paintings do not typically depict social life in Calcutta. Instead, they focus on the Durga Puja festival.
* Option C: Historical events. Gariahat paintings do not typically depict historical events. Instead, they focus on the Durga Puja festival.
* Option D: Landscapes. Gariahat paintings do not typically depict landscapes. Instead, they focus on the Durga Puja festival.

The West Bengal Colour Film and Sound Laboratory Corporation Limited was set-up for the development of film industry in West Bengal. It came into existence on 5th July, 1980. Subsequently, the name was changed to West Bengal Film Development Corporation Limited (WBFDC) on 1st July, 1983. WBFDC was re-established in the year 1986 and was named Rupayan by Satyajit Ray.

The correct answer is B.

The conductor said that if the person wanted to smoke, they would have to go out. This is a conditional statement, which means that the conductor is not ordering the person to go out and smoke, but is simply stating that this is what they would have to do if they wanted to smoke.

Option A is incorrect because the conductor is not ordering the person to go out and smoke. They are simply stating that this is what they would have to do if they wanted to smoke.

Option C is incorrect because the conductor is not telling the person that smoking is not permitted in the bus. They are simply stating that if the person wants to smoke, they would have to go out.

Option D is incorrect because the conductor is not telling the person that they will have to go out and smoke. They are simply stating that this is what they would have to do if they wanted to smoke.

The answer is A. A pair of scissors is not a simple machine.

A simple machine is a device that changes the direction or magnitude of a force. There are six simple machines: the lever, the pulley, the inclined plane, the wedge, the screw, and the wheel and axle.

A pair of scissors is a compound machine, which is a machine that is made up of two or more simple machines. In the case of a pair of scissors, the two simple machines are levers. The blades of the scissors are levers that are pivoted at the hinge. When you apply force to the handles of the scissors, the blades move in opposite directions and cut through the material that you are cutting.

The other options are all simple machines.

A lever is a simple machine that consists of a beam or rod that pivots on a fulcrum. A lever can be used to lift heavy objects or to move objects over a distance.

A pulley is a simple machine that consists of a grooved wheel with a rope or cable that runs around it. A pulley can be used to lift heavy objects or to change the direction of a force.

An inclined plane is a simple machine that consists of a flat surface that is at an angle to the ground. An inclined plane can be used to move objects over a distance or to lift heavy objects.

A wedge is a simple machine that consists of a thin piece of metal or wood that is tapered at one end. A wedge can be used to split wood or to lift heavy objects.

A screw is a simple machine that consists of a cylindrical shaft with a helical groove cut into it. A screw can be used to hold two objects together or to lift heavy objects.

A wheel and axle is a simple machine that consists of a wheel that is attached to an axle. A wheel and axle can be used to move objects over a distance or to lift heavy objects.

The correct answer is (b) 5.5.

The arithmetic mean of a set of numbers is the sum of the numbers divided by the number of numbers. In this case, the set of numbers is the first eleven natural numbers, which are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, and 11. The sum of these numbers is 55. The number of numbers in the set is 11. Therefore, the arithmetic mean is 55 / 11 = 5.5.

Option (a) is incorrect because 5 is not the arithmetic mean of the first eleven natural numbers. Option (c) is incorrect because 8 is not the arithmetic mean of the first eleven natural numbers. Option (d) is incorrect because 6 is not the arithmetic mean of the first eleven natural numbers.

Brazil has won the World Cup Football Championship five times, more than any other country. They won in 1958, 1962, 1970, 1994, and 2002.

Option A is incorrect because Brazil has won the World Cup more than once.
Option B is incorrect because Brazil has won the World Cup more than twice.
Option C is incorrect because Brazil has won the World Cup more than four times.
Option D is correct because Brazil has won the World Cup five times.

The correct answer is D. Presidency.

Presidency is a former administrative division of British India. It was created in 1772 and included the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of present-day Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. The Presidency was abolished in 1912 and its territory was divided into the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

Malda, Medinipur, and Cooch Behar are all administrative divisions of West Bengal. Malda is a district in the northern part of the state. Medinipur is a district in the western part of the state. Cooch Behar is a district in the northern part of the state.

The correct answer is D. Darjeeling.

Darjeeling is a town in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the eastern Himalayas, at an altitude of 2,205 meters (7,234 feet). Darjeeling is known for its tea gardens, its views of Mount Everest, and its colonial architecture. The town is also a popular tourist destination.

The Neora Valley National Park is a national park in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Darjeeling district, at an altitude of 1,800 to 3,000 meters (5,906 to 9,843 feet). The park is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, and deer. It is also home to a variety of plant life, including rhododendrons, orchids, and bamboo.

The tea gardens in Darjeeling are some of the most famous in the world. The tea is grown in the foothills of the Himalayas, and it is known for its unique flavor. The tea gardens are a popular tourist destination, and they offer a variety of activities, including hiking, biking, and horseback riding.

The colonial architecture in Darjeeling is a result of the town's history as a British hill station. The town was founded in the 1830s, and it was a popular destination for British colonial officials. The town is home to a number of colonial-era buildings, including the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, the Victoria Memorial, and the St. Andrew's Church.

The correct answer is (d). Oman is not bordered by the Persian Gulf. The Persian Gulf is an extension of the Indian Ocean located between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. It is bordered by Iran to the north, Kuwait, Iraq, and Saudi Arabia to the west, Bahrain, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates to the east, and Oman to the southeast.

The correct answer is (a). Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of rice in India, accounting for 24% of the country's total rice production. The state has a cultivated area of over 10 million hectares, and produces over 30 million tonnes of rice each year. The main rice-growing areas in Uttar Pradesh are the Gangetic plain and the Terai region. The state's rice production is supported by a number of factors, including a favorable climate, a large and skilled workforce, and a well-developed infrastructure.

Option (b) is incorrect because West Bengal is the second largest producer of rice in India, accounting for 18% of the country's total rice production.

Option (c) is incorrect because Punjab is the third largest producer of rice in India, accounting for 16% of the country's total rice production.

Option (d) is incorrect because Andhra Pradesh is the fourth largest producer of rice in India, accounting for 14% of the country's total rice production.

The correct answer is: captions.

A caption is a brief explanation or description that appears below an image or illustration. It is often used to provide additional information or context about the image. In the case of cartoons, captions can be used to explain the joke or to provide a humorous commentary on the subject matter.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Topics are the general subjects that cartoons are about. For example, a cartoon about politics might be about the current election, while a cartoon about sports might be about a recent game.
• Headlines are the large, bold words that appear at the top of a newspaper article or website. They are used to grab the reader's attention and to give a brief overview of the article.
• Titles are the words that appear at the top of a book, movie, or other work of art. They are used to identify the work and to give a brief indication of its content.

The correct answer is: C. Archery.

Choi Misun is a South Korean archer who won the gold medal in the women's individual event at the 2008 Summer Olympics in Beijing. She is also a two-time world champion, having won the title in 2007 and 2011.

Shooting is a sport in which participants use a variety of firearms to fire projectiles at targets. Badminton is a racquet sport in which two or four players use racquets to hit a shuttlecock, a feathered or plastic projectile, back and forth over a net. Squash is a racket sport that is played by two or four players in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball.

Choi Misun is not related to any of these sports.

The answer is A. Root.

A mango is a fruit, while a potato is a root vegetable. Fruits are the sweet, fleshy part of a plant that contains the seeds. Root vegetables are the edible parts of a plant that grow underground, such as potatoes, carrots, and beets.

The other options are not correct because:

• A potato is not a fruit.
• A potato is not a stem.
• A potato is not a flower.

Rabindranath Tagore became the first non-European and first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature for his book Gitanjali in 1913.

The correct answer is (d), all of the above.

The rules against perpetuity are a set of legal restrictions that limit the length of time that a trust or other property interest can be held. The rules are designed to prevent the indefinite accumulation of property and to ensure that property is used for its intended purpose.

The rules against perpetuity do not apply to movable properties, charities, or immovable properties. This is because these types of property are not considered to be subject to the same risks of indefinite accumulation or misuse as other types of property.

Movable property is property that can be moved from one place to another, such as furniture, cars, and jewelry. Charities are organizations that are established for a public purpose, such as education, religion, or charity. Immovable property is property that cannot be moved from one place to another, such as land and buildings.

The rules against perpetuity do not apply to these types of property because they are not considered to be subject to the same risks of indefinite accumulation or misuse as other types of property. Movable property can be easily sold or transferred, so there is no risk that it will be held indefinitely. Charities are subject to strict rules and regulations, so there is no risk that they will misuse property. Immovable property is typically held for a long period of time, so there is no risk that it will be sold or transferred quickly.

The correct answer is: Only assumption II is implicit.

The supervisor's statement "You should not grant him leave in this week due to exigency of work" implies that the supervisor believes that the work that needs to be done during the week is important and cannot be done without the employee. This implies that the supervisor has reviewed the work required to be done during the said period. However, the statement does not imply that the supervisor has the authority to turn down the employee's request for leave. It is possible that the supervisor is simply making a recommendation to the administrative officer, who has the final say on whether or not to grant the leave.

Assumption I: Request for leave can be turned down also.

This assumption is not necessarily implicit in the supervisor's statement. The supervisor may believe that the employee's request for leave should be turned down, but this does not mean that the supervisor has the authority to do so. It is possible that the administrative officer has the final say on whether or not to grant the leave.

Assumption II: The supervisor has reviewed the work required to be done during the said period.

This assumption is implicit in the supervisor's statement. The supervisor's statement "You should not grant him leave in this week due to exigency of work" implies that the supervisor believes that the work that needs to be done during the week is important and cannot be done without the employee. This implies that the supervisor has reviewed the work required to be done during the said period.

Sajnekhali Wildlife Sanctuary is located in South 24 Parganas of West Bengal. It is considered as a part of Sundarbans ecosystem. It lies on the confluence of Matla and Gumdi rivers.

The correct answer is C. Brain.

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for higher functions such as thought, memory, language, and consciousness. It is also involved in voluntary movement, emotion, and perception.

The liver is the largest organ in the body and is responsible for many important functions, including digestion, metabolism, and detoxification.

The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.

The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs that filter waste products from the blood and produce urine.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: E. outrage : consideration.

Umbrage is a feeling of displeasure or resentment, while offense is a cause of displeasure or resentment. Outrage is a feeling of extreme anger or indignation, while consideration is the act of thinking about someone or something carefully.

In the original pair of words, umbrage is a feeling that is caused by offense. In the answer pair, outrage is a feeling that is caused by consideration. Therefore, the two pairs of words have a similar relationship.

A. confusion : penance is not a good pair because confusion is not caused by penance. Penance is a punishment or act of atonement for a sin or wrongdoing. Confusion is a state of being bewildered or puzzled.

B. infinity : meaning is not a good pair because infinity is not caused by meaning. Meaning is the significance or importance of something. Infinity is the state of being infinite or endless.

C. decorum : decoration is not a good pair because decorum is not caused by decoration. Decorum is the quality of being polite and respectful. Decoration is the act of making something look more attractive by adding ornaments or designs.

D. elation : jubilance is not a good pair because elation is not caused by jubilance. Elation is a feeling of great happiness or excitement. Jubilance is a feeling of great joy or happiness.

Therefore, the correct answer is E. outrage : consideration.

The correct answer is: B. Ionosphere

The ionosphere is a region of Earth's atmosphere that is ionized by solar radiation. It extends from about 50 to 1,000 kilometers above the Earth's surface. The ionosphere is important for radio communications because it reflects radio waves back to Earth. This allows radio signals to travel over long distances.

The ozonosphere is a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. It is located between 10 and 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface. The ozonosphere is important for life on Earth because it protects us from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation.

The stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere. It extends from the troposphere to the mesosphere. The stratosphere is characterized by increasing temperature with altitude. This is due to the presence of ozone, which absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

The mesosphere is the third layer of Earth's atmosphere. It extends from the stratosphere to the thermosphere. The mesosphere is characterized by decreasing temperature with altitude. This is due to the lack of ozone and other greenhouse gases.

The correct answer is: B. Elastic.

A monopolistically competitive firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve, but it is more elastic than the demand curve faced by a monopoly. This is because there are other firms in the market that produce similar products, so if a monopolistically competitive firm raises its price, consumers will have more options to choose from and will be more likely to switch to a competitor.

A perfectly elastic demand curve is a theoretical concept that describes a situation in which a firm can sell as much or as little of its product as it wants at the same price. This is because there are an infinite number of firms in the market that produce identical products, so if a firm raises its price, consumers will simply buy from one of the other firms.

A unit elastic demand curve is a demand curve with a price elasticity of demand equal to 1. This means that if a firm raises its price by 1%, it will sell 1% less of its product.

An inelastic demand curve is a demand curve with a price elasticity of demand less than 1. This means that if a firm raises its price by 1%, it will sell less than 1% less of its product.

The correct answer is D. All of these factors.

The polar regions of Earth are characterized by short growing seasons, frozen or snow-covered ground, and low rainfall. These factors make it difficult for trees to grow in these regions.

The growing season is the period of time each year when the weather is warm enough for plants to grow. In the polar regions, the growing season is very short. This is because the sun does not rise above the horizon for several months each year. During this time, the ground is frozen and there is no light for plants to grow.

The ground in the polar regions is often frozen or snow-covered. This makes it difficult for trees to grow roots and absorb water and nutrients. The ground is also very dry in the polar regions. This is because there is very little rainfall in these regions.

The combination of these factors makes it difficult for trees to grow in the polar regions.

The correct answer is (a). Alfred Park at Allahabad has been renamed after Bhagat Singh.

Bhagat Singh was an Indian revolutionary who was hanged by the British government in 1931 for his role in the assassination of a British police officer. He is considered a martyr in India and is one of the most popular freedom fighters in the country.

The park was renamed in his honor in 1992. The renaming was part of a larger effort to commemorate the contributions of Indian freedom fighters.

The other options are incorrect. Chandra Shekhar Azad was another Indian revolutionary who was also hanged by the British government. Subhash Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist who led the Indian National Army against the British. Motilal Nehru was a prominent Indian lawyer and politician who was the father of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.

Utpal Dutt staged plays like Tiner Toloar, Dushwapner Hagari, Surya Shikar and Maha Bidroha. Some of the other famous plays of him were Lall Durgo and Janatar Aphim in 1990.

The correct answer is (c), Cuba.

Cuba is the world's largest producer of sugar cane, accounting for about 20% of global production. The country has a long history of sugar production, dating back to the 16th century. Sugar cane is grown in most parts of Cuba, but the main producing areas are in the provinces of Camagüey, Las Tunas, and Holguín.

The sugar industry is a major contributor to the Cuban economy. It employs about 200,000 people and accounts for about 10% of the country's GDP. Sugar is also Cuba's main export, accounting for about 25% of total exports.

The sugar industry in Cuba has been facing challenges in recent years, due to falling prices and competition from other producers. However, the government has taken steps to support the industry, including providing subsidies and investing in research and development.

The other options are incorrect. India is the world's second largest producer of sugar, after Brazil. Hawaii Island is a US state that is not a major producer of sugar. The Philippines is a Southeast Asian country that is a major producer of sugar, but it is not as large a producer as Cuba.

The correct answer is (b), Ginkgo biloba.

A living fossil is a species that has remained relatively unchanged over a long period of time, often millions of years. Ginkgo biloba is a living fossil because it has been around for over 200 million years and has changed very little in that time. It is the only surviving member of its genus and family, and it is one of the oldest living tree species.

Cedrus deodara, Gnetum gnemon, and Ephedra foliata are all living plants, but they are not considered to be living fossils. Cedrus deodara is a species of cedar tree that is native to the Himalayas. Gnetum gnemon is a tropical plant that is native to Southeast Asia. Ephedra foliata is a shrub that is native to North America.

All of these plants are important members of their ecosystems, but they are not as old as Ginkgo biloba and have not changed as little over time.

The correct answer is (a).

According to the Census 2011, the districts of Uttar Pradesh having highest literacy rate are:

1. Ghaziabad - 82.09%
2. Gautam Buddh Nagar - 80.05%
3. Kanpur City - 78.25%
4. Auraiya - 69.37%

Therefore, the correct descending order is:

1. Ghaziabad
2. Gautam Buddh Nagar
3. Kanpur City
4. Auraiya

The correct answer is (a) Uttarkashi.

Uttarkashi district has the largest forest cover out of total geographical area in Uttarakhand. The forest cover in Uttarkashi district is about 70% of the total geographical area. The main reason for this is that the district is located in the Himalayas, which is a mountainous region with a lot of forest cover. The forest cover in Uttarkashi district is important for a number of reasons. It helps to protect the environment, it provides a habitat for wildlife, and it helps to regulate the climate.

The other options are incorrect because they do not have the largest forest cover out of total geographical area in Uttarakhand. Chamoli district has a forest cover of about 60% of the total geographical area, Tehri Garhwal district has a forest cover of about 50% of the total geographical area, and Almora district has a forest cover of about 40% of the total geographical area.

The correct answer is C. Welfare Economics.

Welfare economics is a branch of economics that studies the efficiency and equity of economic outcomes. It is concerned with the optimal allocation of resources and the distribution of income. The Bergson criteria are a set of conditions that must be satisfied for an economic outcome to be considered efficient.

The first Bergson criterion states that an economic outcome is efficient if it is impossible to make any one person better off without making someone else worse off. This is known as the Pareto principle.

The second Bergson criterion states that an economic outcome is efficient if it is impossible to make everyone better off without making someone else worse off. This is known as the Kaldor-Hicks principle.

The third Bergson criterion states that an economic outcome is efficient if it is impossible to make everyone better off without making someone else worse off, and if the distribution of income is fair. This is known as the Rawlsian principle.

Labour economics is the study of the supply and demand for labour and the determination of wages. Industrial economics is the study of the structure, conduct, and performance of industries. Agricultural economics is the study of the production, processing, and marketing of agricultural products.

The Bergson criteria are not related to labour economics, industrial economics, or agricultural economics. They are related to welfare economics, which is a branch of economics that studies the efficiency and equity of economic outcomes.

The correct answer is (a). The Pala dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal and Bihar in eastern India from the 8th to the 12th centuries. The Pratihara dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Malwa and Gujarat in northwestern India from the 7th to the 10th centuries. The Rashtrakuta dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Deccan in southern India from the 8th to the 10th centuries. The Chola dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Tamil Nadu in southern India from the 9th to the 13th centuries.

The tripartite struggle in South India was a conflict between the Chola, Pandya, and Chera dynasties that lasted from the 9th to the 13th centuries. The Chola dynasty emerged victorious from the conflict and became the dominant power in South India.

The Pala dynasty was not a part of the tripartite struggle in South India because it was located in eastern India, far from the Deccan region where the conflict took place. The Pala dynasty was also a Buddhist dynasty, while the Chola, Pandya, and Chera dynasties were Hindu dynasties.

The correct answer is C. 3900 - 7600 angstrom.

The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye. It is made up of light with wavelengths between 390 and 760 nanometers. The visible spectrum is divided into seven colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet. The colors of the visible spectrum are arranged in order of increasing wavelength, with red having the longest wavelength and violet having the shortest wavelength.

Option A is incorrect because it includes wavelengths that are too long to be visible to the human eye. Option B is incorrect because it includes wavelengths that are too short to be visible to the human eye. Option D is incorrect because it includes wavelengths that are both too long and too short to be visible to the human eye.

The Bengali theatre historically can be traced out with the establishment of The Hindu Rangamanch at Calcutta by Prasanna Kumar Tagore. In 1831, Prasanna Kumar established the Rangmanch and staged the Wilson's English translation of Bhavabhuti's Sanskrit drama Uttar Ramacharitam.

The correct answer is D. Pascal.

Pascal (Pa) is the International System of Units (SI) derived unit of pressure, stress, Young's modulus, and energy per unit volume, defined as one newton per square meter. It is named after Blaise Pascal, a French mathematician, physicist, and philosopher.

Steradian (sr) is the SI unit of solid angle. It is defined as the solid angle subtended at the center of a sphere by a spherical cap with an area equal to that of a square with sides of length equal to the radius of the sphere.

Kilogram per meter squared (kg/m2) is a unit of mass per unit area. It is not a unit of pressure.

Newton (N) is the SI unit of force. It is defined as the force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at a rate of one meter per second squared.

Air pressure is the force exerted by the air molecules on a surface. It is measured in pascals (Pa). The average air pressure at sea level is 101.325 Pa.

The correct answer is (d), Right to Information.

Directive Principles of State Policy are principles that are laid down in the Constitution of India and are fundamental in the governance of the country. They are not enforceable by any court, but the state is supposed to apply them while making laws and policies.

The Right to Information is not a Directive Principle of State Policy. It is a fundamental right that was added to the Constitution in 2005. It gives citizens the right to access information held by the government.

The other options are all Directive Principles of State Policy. Prohibition of Liquor is a principle that states should try to prohibit the consumption of liquor. Equal pay for equal work is a principle that states should ensure that men and women are paid equally for the same work.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is C. The librarian said that you had not returned your book yesterday.

The librarian is addressing the reader directly, using the second person pronoun "you." This means that the librarian is saying that the reader did not return the book, not that the librarian did not return the book.

A is incorrect because the librarian is not talking about himself, but about the reader.

B is incorrect because the librarian is not saying that the book has not been returned, but that the reader has not returned the book.

D is incorrect because the librarian is not talking about himself, but about the reader.

Shantiniketan is a small town near Bolpur in the Birbhum district of West Bengal. Rabindranath Tagore founded 'Patha Bhavan', the school of his ideas, here.

The correct answer is: A) One-horned rhinoceros.

Jaldapara National Park is a national park in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the Jalpaiguri district, about 200 km north of Kolkata. The park is known for its population of one-horned rhinoceroses, which are the largest land mammals in India. Other animals found in the park include elephants, tigers, deer, and wild boars.

Option B is incorrect because elephants are not the most famous animal in Jaldapara National Park. Option C is incorrect because tigers are not the most famous animal in Jaldapara National Park. Option D is incorrect because snow leopards are not found in Jaldapara National Park.

The correct answer is: B. Pakistan

Rahul Dravid made his ODI debut for India against Pakistan on 16 November 1996 in Sharjah. He scored 11 runs in the match, which India won by 6 wickets.

Kenya is a cricket team that represents Kenya in international cricket. They are a full member of the International Cricket Council (ICC) and have competed in all ten editions of the Cricket World Cup. Kenya's best performance in the World Cup was in 2003, when they reached the semi-finals.

Pakistan is a cricket team that represents Pakistan in international cricket. They are a full member of the International Cricket Council (ICC) and have competed in all ten editions of the Cricket World Cup. Pakistan's best performance in the World Cup was in 1992, when they won the tournament.

Sri Lanka is a cricket team that represents Sri Lanka in international cricket. They are a full member of the International Cricket Council (ICC) and have competed in all ten editions of the Cricket World Cup. Sri Lanka's best performance in the World Cup was in 1996, when they won the tournament.

Australia is a cricket team that represents Australia in international cricket. They are a full member of the International Cricket Council (ICC) and have competed in all ten editions of the Cricket World Cup. Australia's best performance in the World Cup was in 1999, when they won the tournament.

The correct answer is D. Data inadequate.

We do not have enough information to determine how Sarita is related to the girl in the picture. Sarita could be the girl's mother, aunt, cousin, or even grandmother. It is also possible that Sarita is not related to the girl at all.

Option A: Mother. This is one possibility, but it is not the only one. Sarita could be the girl's aunt, cousin, or even grandmother.

Option B: Aunt. This is another possibility, but it is not the only one. Sarita could be the girl's mother, cousin, or even grandmother.

Option C: Cousin. This is another possibility, but it is not the only one. Sarita could be the girl's mother, aunt, or even grandmother.

Option D: Data inadequate. This is the correct answer because we do not have enough information to determine how Sarita is related to the girl in the picture.

Option E: None of these. This is not the correct answer because it is possible that Sarita is related to the girl in the picture.

The correct answer is: A. 24 October

UN Day is celebrated on 24 October each year. It is the day on which the United Nations was founded in 1945. The UN is an international organization that works to promote peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, and achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character, and in promoting and encouraging respect for human rights and for fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to race, sex, language, or religion.

Option B is incorrect because 24 September is the day on which the UN General Assembly was established in 1945.

Option C is incorrect because 26 June is the day on which the UN Charter was signed in 1945.

Option D is incorrect because there is no option that is none of the above.

The correct answer is A) Sabuj Sathi.

Sabuj Sathi is an initiative of the West Bengal government to provide free bicycles to secondary school students. The scheme was launched in 2015 and aims to provide bicycles to all students in the state who are enrolled in Class IX and above. The bicycles are provided to students on a loan basis, which they can repay after they complete their education.

The scheme has been very successful and has helped to reduce the dropout rate in schools. It has also helped to improve the attendance of students and has made it easier for them to travel to school.

The other options are incorrect.

* Utkarsh Bangla is an initiative of the West Bengal government to improve the quality of education in the state.
* Kanyashree Prakalpa is an initiative of the West Bengal government to provide financial assistance to girls to continue their education.
* Siksha Sathi is an initiative of the West Bengal government to provide free textbooks to students in government schools.

The correct answer is: A. Equal slopes and equal point elasticities.

A rectangular hyperbola-shaped demand curve is a type of demand curve that has a constant slope and a constant elasticity. This means that the demand curve is linear and that the price elasticity of demand is the same at all points on the curve.

The price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. A demand curve with a constant elasticity means that consumers are equally responsive to changes in price at all points on the curve. This is in contrast to a demand curve with a non-constant elasticity, where consumers are more responsive to changes in price at some points on the curve than at others.

A rectangular hyperbola-shaped demand curve is a theoretical concept that is not often observed in the real world. However, it can be a useful tool for understanding the relationship between price and demand.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option B: Unequal slopes and unequal point elasticities. This is not the correct answer because a rectangular hyperbola-shaped demand curve has a constant slope and a constant elasticity.
• Option C: Unequal slopes and equal point elasticities. This is also not the correct answer because a rectangular hyperbola-shaped demand curve has a constant slope and a constant elasticity.
• Option D: None of the above. This is the correct answer because the only option that is consistent with the characteristics of a rectangular hyperbola-shaped demand curve is option A.

The correct answer is: A. positive.

Elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. When elasticity of demand is equal to unity, it means that a 1% change in price will lead to a 1% change in quantity demanded. This is known as unitary elasticity.

When elasticity of demand is unitary, marginal revenue is positive. This is because when a firm increases its price, it will lose some customers, but it will also make more money from the customers who remain. The increase in revenue from the remaining customers will outweigh the decrease in revenue from the lost customers.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option B: zero. When elasticity of demand is zero, it means that consumers are not responsive to changes in price. A 1% change in price will lead to no change in quantity demanded. In this case, marginal revenue will also be zero. This is because the firm will not make any additional revenue from increasing its price, as it will not lose any customers.
• Option C: negative. When elasticity of demand is negative, it means that consumers are responsive to changes in price, but in the opposite direction of what we would expect. A 1% increase in price will lead to a decrease in quantity demanded of more than 1%. In this case, marginal revenue will be negative. This is because the firm will lose more revenue from the lost customers than it will make from the remaining customers.
• Option D: indeterminate. When elasticity of demand is indeterminate, it means that we cannot determine the value of marginal revenue. This can happen when there is not enough information to calculate elasticity of demand.

The correct answer is A. H2O.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create oxygen and energy in the form of sugar. The chemical equation for photosynthesis is:

6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2

As you can see from the equation, the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from water (H2O). The carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to create glucose (C6H12O6), which is a type of sugar. The light energy is used to power the process.

Option B, CO2, is incorrect because CO2 is used as a reactant in photosynthesis, not as a product. Option C, NO2, is incorrect because NO2 is not a reactant or product in photosynthesis. Option D, glucose, is incorrect because glucose is a product of photosynthesis, not a reactant.

The correct answer is C. Tulsidas.

Tulsidas was a 16th-century Indian poet and philosopher who is considered one of the greatest writers in the Hindi language. He is best known for his epic poem Ramacharitamanasa, which is a retelling of the Ramayana from a devotional perspective. Tulsidas was also a devout Hindu and his writings reflect his deep faith in God.

Surdas was a 16th-century Indian poet who is considered one of the greatest composers of devotional songs in the Braj Bhasha dialect. He is best known for his hymns to Krishna, which are characterized by their simple language and deep emotional appeal.

Kabirdas was a 15th-century Indian poet and philosopher who is considered one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement. He was a critic of both Hinduism and Islam and his teachings emphasized the importance of individual faith and devotion to God.

Kalidasa was a 5th-century Indian poet and dramatist who is considered one of the greatest writers in Sanskrit literature. He is best known for his plays Shakuntala and Abhijnanasakuntalam, as well as his poems Meghaduta and Kumarasambhava.

Tulsidas' Ramacharitamanasa is a much more devotional work than Surdas' hymns or Kabirdas' teachings. It is a retelling of the Ramayana from a perspective that emphasizes the love between Rama and Sita. Tulsidas' poem is also much longer than Surdas' hymns or Kabirdas' teachings. It is over 24,000 verses long, while Surdas' hymns are typically only a few verses long and Kabirdas' teachings are often only a few lines long.

Tulsidas' Ramacharitamanasa is also much more influential than Surdas' hymns or Kabirdas' teachings. It is one of the most popular works of literature in the Hindi language and has been translated into many different languages. It is also one of the most important texts in the Hindu religion and is widely read by Hindus all over the world.

The correct answer is: C. 26th amendment.

The 42nd amendment was passed in 1976 by the Indira Gandhi government. It was a controversial amendment that gave the President of India extensive powers, including the power to declare an emergency and suspend fundamental rights. The amendment also made it difficult to remove the President from office.

The 26th amendment was passed in 1976, just a few months after the 42nd amendment. It was a major amendment that repealed the controversial provisions of the 42nd amendment, including the President's power to declare an emergency and suspend fundamental rights. The amendment also made it easier to remove the President from office.

The 44th amendment was passed in 1978, after the Janata Party came to power. It was a minor amendment that made some changes to the provisions of the 42nd amendment.

The 45th amendment was passed in 1980, after the Indira Gandhi government came back to power. It was a minor amendment that made some changes to the provisions of the 44th amendment.

Therefore, the position of the president which was undermined by the 42nd amendment was subsequently somewhat retrieved by the 26th amendment.

The correct answer is (a) Chandra Shekhar Azad.

Chandra Shekhar Azad was a revolutionary who was involved in the Kakori Conspiracy Case. He was the only one of the conspirators who escaped arrest by the police. He continued to fight for Indian independence until his death in 1931.

Sachindra Nath Sanyal was also involved in the Kakori Conspiracy Case, but he was arrested and sentenced to life imprisonment. He was released from prison in 1920.

Roshanlal was also involved in the Kakori Conspiracy Case, but he was arrested and sentenced to death. He was executed in 1927.

Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was not involved in the Kakori Conspiracy Case. He was a freedom fighter who was involved in the Non-Cooperation Movement. He was arrested and sentenced to two years in prison.

The Kakori Conspiracy Case was a case in which a group of revolutionaries robbed a train in Kakori, Uttar Pradesh, India, on 9 August 1925. The money from the robbery was to be used to fund the Indian independence movement. The conspirators were arrested and tried, and many of them were sentenced to death. However, Chandra Shekhar Azad escaped arrest and continued to fight for Indian independence until his death in 1931.

The correct answer is (a) Yash Bharti Award.

The Yash Bharti Award is the highest civilian award given by the Government of Uttar Pradesh to recognize outstanding achievements in the fields of art, literature, music, dance, theatre, social service, science, and technology. It was instituted in 1972 by the then Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Chaudhary Charan Singh.

The Arjun Award is a national sports award of India instituted in 1961. It is awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to recognize outstanding performance in national and international sports.

The Lakshman Award is a state-level sports award of Uttar Pradesh instituted in 1972. It is awarded by the Government of Uttar Pradesh to recognize outstanding performance in sports at the state and national level.

The Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honour of India. It is awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to recognize outstanding performance in sports at the international level.

The correct answer is C. 1988.

Norton Antivirus was first released in 1988 by Peter Norton, an American computer programmer and software developer. It was one of the first commercial antivirus software programs available. Norton Antivirus is a computer program that scans files and memory for viruses and other malware. It can also remove these threats from your computer.

Norton Antivirus is a popular choice for antivirus software because it is effective and easy to use. It is also available for a variety of platforms, including Windows, Mac, and Android.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 1990 is incorrect because Norton Antivirus was not released until 1988.
• Option B: 1995 is incorrect because Norton Antivirus was not released until 1988.
• Option C: 1988 is the correct answer because Norton Antivirus was first released in 1988.
• Option D: 1997 is incorrect because Norton Antivirus was not released until 1988.

The correct answer is C. opened.

Science has opened up the mysteries of nature to man. This means that science has made it possible for us to understand the natural world in a way that was not possible before. Science has revealed the secrets of the universe, from the smallest particles to the largest galaxies. It has also given us insights into the workings of the human body and mind.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the sentence. Option A, released, suggests that science has somehow freed the mysteries of nature from captivity. Option B, disclosed, suggests that science has made the mysteries of nature known to us. Option D, cleared, suggests that science has removed any obstacles that were preventing us from understanding the mysteries of nature.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. opened. Science has opened up the mysteries of nature to man, making it possible for us to understand the natural world in a way that was not possible before.

The odd one out is D. Pen : Pencil.

In all the other options, the first item is a tool that is used to work on the second item. For example, a shovel is used to work on mud, a screwdriver is used to work on screws, and a hammer is used to work on nails. However, a pen and a pencil are both writing instruments. They can be used to write on paper, but they are not used to work on each other.

The correct answer is (b), Ellora.

Ajanta and Ellora are both UNESCO World Heritage Sites located in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Ajanta is famous for its Buddhist caves, while Ellora is known for its Hindu and Jain caves. The caves at Ajanta were built between the 2nd century BCE and the 6th century CE, while the caves at Ellora were built between the 6th and 10th centuries CE.

The Buddhist caves at Ajanta are some of the finest examples of Buddhist art in the world. The caves are decorated with paintings and sculptures depicting scenes from the life of the Buddha. The Hindu caves at Ellora are also very impressive, and they include some of the largest rock-cut temples in the world. The Jain caves at Ellora are smaller than the Buddhist and Hindu caves, but they are still very beautiful.

Nashik is a city in the Indian state of Maharashtra. It is located on the banks of the Godavari River. Nasik is a holy city for Hindus, and it is home to many temples and shrines. The city is also known for its wine production.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Buddhist, Hindu and Jain rock-cut caves exist in:" is (b), Ellora.

The correct answer is: D. Horizontal component of its velocity remains constant.

The vertical component of the projectile's velocity changes due to the force of gravity, while the horizontal component of the velocity does not change due to the absence of any horizontal forces.

The horizontal component of the projectile's velocity is constant because the only force acting on it in the horizontal direction is the initial horizontal velocity of the projectile. This force is constant because there is no friction or air resistance in the horizontal direction.

The vertical component of the projectile's velocity changes due to the force of gravity. The force of gravity is always acting downwards, so the vertical component of the velocity always decreases.

The following is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Its kinetic energy remains constant. This is not true because the kinetic energy of the projectile changes due to the change in its velocity. The velocity of the projectile changes because of the force of gravity.
• Option B: Its momentum remains constant. This is not true because the momentum of the projectile changes due to the change in its velocity. The velocity of the projectile changes because of the force of gravity.
• Option C: Vertical component of its velocity remains constant. This is not true because the vertical component of the velocity changes due to the force of gravity. The force of gravity is always acting downwards, so the vertical component of the velocity always decreases.
• Option D: Horizontal component of its velocity remains constant. This is true because the only force acting on it in the horizontal direction is the initial horizontal velocity of the projectile. This force is constant because there is no friction or air resistance in the horizontal direction.

The correct answer is: **A) Kolkata**

Kolkata is the capital of the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the largest city in eastern India and the seventh largest city in India. Kolkata is also the second most populous metropolitan area in India after Mumbai.

Kolkata is a major center for education, culture, and industry. It is home to several universities, including the University of Calcutta, the Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur, and the Indian Institute of Management Calcutta. Kolkata is also home to several museums, including the Victoria Memorial, the National Museum of India, and the Birla Industrial and Technological Museum.

Kolkata is a major center for tea trade. The city is home to the Kolkata Tea Auction Centre, which is the largest tea auction center in the world. The Kolkata Tea Auction Centre handles over 200 million kilograms of tea each year.

Siliguri, Darjeeling, and Jalpaiguri are all cities in West Bengal. However, they are not home to major tea auction centers.

The correct answer is (d).

The missing numbers and letters in D 4 W - G - T20I-R18-10Q- are respectively given by (d) 20, 6, 5, P, 18.

The pattern is as follows:

• The first number is the number of letters in the previous word.
• The second number is the number of letters in the previous letter.
• The third number is the number of letters in the previous word.
• The fourth number is the number of letters in the previous letter.
• The fifth number is the number of letters in the previous word.
• The sixth number is the number of letters in the previous letter.

Therefore, the missing numbers and letters are 20, 6, 5, P, 18.

Here is a breakdown of each option:

• (a) 26, 8, 9, P, 18: This option is incorrect because the first number (26) is not the number of letters in the previous word (D).
• (b) 22, 7, 9, K, 17: This option is incorrect because the second number (7) is not the number of letters in the previous letter (W).
• (c) 23, 7, 9, J, 17: This option is incorrect because the third number (7) is not the number of letters in the previous word (G).
• (d) 20, 6, 5, P, 18: This option is correct because all of the numbers and letters follow the pattern.

The correct answer is D. Adoption of a semester system at the higher secondary level.

The West Bengal government has decided to implement the NEP 2020 with some modifications. The following are the modifications proposed by the state government:

* Retention of the 5+4+2+2 structure of school education.
* Introduction of a three-language formula from classes V to VIII.
* Introduction of 'Bangla' as a subject from Class I to Class XII.
* Introduction of vocational education from Class IX to XII.
* Introduction of multiple entry and exit points in the education system.
* Introduction of a common entrance test for admission to higher education.
* Establishment of world-class universities and institutions of higher learning.
* Promotion of research and innovation in education.
* Strengthening of the teacher education system.
* Improvement of the infrastructure of schools and colleges.
* Making education more affordable and accessible to all.

The adoption of a semester system at the higher secondary level is not a modification proposed by the state government. The state government has decided to retain the existing annual examination system at the higher secondary level.

The Singalila range is located along the border of Darjeeling and Nepal. The four important peaks in this range are Sandakphu, Phalut, Sabargram and Tonglu.

The correct answer is C. condemnation.

Adulation is excessive praise or admiration. Condemnation is the act of expressing disapproval of someone or something. In this case, the speaker is saying that the usual praise of the officers must end. This suggests that the speaker believes that the officers are not worthy of praise, or that they are being praised too much.

The other options are not as likely to be the correct answer. Back-biting is the act of speaking ill of someone behind their back. Flattery is the act of praising someone insincerely. Praise is the act of expressing approval of someone or something.

In this case, the speaker is not likely to be back-biting the officers, as this would suggest that they are speaking ill of them behind their back. The speaker is also not likely to be flattering the officers, as this would suggest that they are praising them insincerely. The speaker is most likely to be condemning the officers, as this would suggest that they believe that the officers are not worthy of praise.

The correct answer is (d) Mumbai.

The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India. It was constituted on 27 October 1986 to develop, maintain, and promote inland waterways in India. The IWAI's headquarters is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

The IWAI has jurisdiction over all inland waterways in India, including rivers, canals, and backwaters. It is responsible for planning, development, operation, and maintenance of these waterways. The IWAI also promotes inland waterways transportation and provides navigation services.

The IWAI has played a significant role in the development of inland waterways in India. It has constructed a number of new waterways and improved existing ones. The IWAI has also promoted inland waterways transportation by providing subsidies and other incentives to users. As a result of the IWAI's efforts, inland waterways transportation has become a viable alternative to road and rail transportation in India.

The IWAI is a well-run organization with a dedicated staff. It has made significant progress in the development of inland waterways in India. The IWAI is well-positioned to play a major role in the development of inland waterways transportation in India in the future.

The other options are incorrect because:

(a) Noida is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the National Capital Region (NCR) of Delhi.
(b) Gurugram is a city in the Indian state of Haryana. It is located in the NCR of Delhi.
(c) Udaipur is a city in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is located in the Mewar region of Rajasthan.

The correct answer is (d). The Election Commission of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for administering all elections to the Parliament of India, the legislatures of the states and union territories of India, and the offices of President and Vice President of India. It is also responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls and for ensuring that elections are conducted in a free, fair, and impartial manner.

Option (a) is correct because the Election Commission is responsible for the direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls.

Option (b) is correct because the Election Commission is responsible for conducting all elections to the Parliament and Legislatures of every State.

Option (c) is correct because the Election Commission is responsible for conducting the election of the offices of President and Vice President.

Option (d) is incorrect because the Election Commission is not responsible for making provision with respect to elections to Legislatures. This is the responsibility of the Parliament.

The correct answer is A. a straight line.

An isoquant is a curve that shows all the combinations of two inputs that will produce the same level of output. If two factors are perfect substitutes, then the isoquant will be a straight line. This is because the firm can use any combination of the two factors to produce the same level of output, and the marginal rate of substitution between the two factors will be constant.

A parabola is a curve that is symmetrical around its axis of symmetry. A rectangular hyperbola is a curve that has two branches that are symmetrical around its axis of symmetry. An L-shaped curve is a curve that has two straight lines that intersect at a right angle.

In the case of perfect substitutes, the firm can use any combination of the two factors to produce the same level of output. This means that the firm will always choose the combination of factors that minimizes the cost of production. The marginal rate of substitution between the two factors will be constant, because the firm will always be willing to trade one factor for the other at the same rate. This means that the isoquant will be a straight line.

The correct answer is C. to.

The preposition "to" is used to indicate that the speaker has spoken directly to the person in question. The other options are not as appropriate in this context.

• The preposition "about" is used to indicate that the speaker has spoken about the person in question, but not directly to them.
• The preposition "in" is used to indicate that the speaker has spoken about the person in question in a particular place.
• The preposition "of" is used to indicate that the speaker has spoken about the person in question in a general way.

Chhokra dance featured youths playing the roles of women on alkap songs. Young boys dresses as girls take part in this dance as in the Ghatu dance.

The correct answer is (b), Mahatma Gandhi.

The theory of trusteeship of the business assets was pronounced by Mahatma Gandhi. He believed that the rich had a moral obligation to use their wealth for the benefit of the poor. He argued that businesses should be run as trusts, with the owners acting as trustees for the benefit of the workers and the community.

Henry Fayol was a French engineer and management theorist who developed the 14 principles of management. He did not believe in the theory of trusteeship.

Jawahar Lai Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. He was a socialist who believed in the state ownership of industry. He did not believe in the theory of trusteeship.

Karl Marx was a German philosopher and economist who developed the theory of communism. He believed that the rich exploited the poor and that the only way to end this exploitation was to overthrow capitalism and establish a communist society. He did not believe in the theory of trusteeship.

The correct answer is D. Thyroid.

The thyroid is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the front of the neck, just below the Adam's apple. It produces hormones that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. The thyroid is one of the most important glands in the body, and its function is essential for good health.

The pancreas is a gland located in the abdomen, behind the stomach. It produces digestive enzymes and hormones that help regulate blood sugar levels. The liver is a large organ located in the upper right abdomen. It performs many important functions, including filtering toxins from the blood, producing bile, and storing energy. The adrenal glands are two small glands located on top of the kidneys. They produce hormones that help regulate the body's response to stress.

The thyroid is the only gland listed that is located close to the trachea. The pancreas, liver, and adrenal glands are all located in different parts of the body.

The main purpose of cattle rearing in most parts of West Bengal is for milk production. West Bengal is the second-largest milk producer in India, after Uttar Pradesh. In 2019-20, the state produced 16.5 million tonnes of milk. The main breeds of cattle reared in West Bengal are Sahiwal, Gir, and Karan Friesian. These breeds are known for their high milk production.

Draught power is the use of animals to pull carts, plows, and other heavy loads. In the past, cattle were used extensively for draught power in West Bengal. However, the use of tractors and other machines has reduced the need for draught power.

Meat production is the raising of animals for their meat. In West Bengal, cattle are not raised for meat on a large scale. This is because the Hindu religion prohibits the slaughter of cows.

Export purposes is the raising of animals for their products, such as meat, milk, and leather, to be sold in other countries. In West Bengal, there is no significant export of cattle products.

In conclusion, the main purpose of cattle rearing in most parts of West Bengal is for milk production.

The correct answer is B. taut.

Flaccid means "not firm or stiff; limp." Taut means "tightened or stretched so as to be firm or rigid." Upright means "standing straight up." Uneven means "not level or smooth." Tough means "strong and not easily damaged."

Of the above options, only taut is the opposite of flaccid. A taut object is firm and stiff, while a flaccid object is not. The other options do not describe the opposite of flaccid.

The correct answer is: C. each part

The banana tree is a very versatile plant. Every part of the banana tree can be used by humans. The fruit is eaten fresh or cooked, the leaves are used to make food wraps, the trunk is used to make furniture, and the fibers from the trunk are used to make rope and paper.

Option A, "most part," is incorrect because it implies that not all parts of the banana tree are used by humans. In fact, every part of the banana tree is used by humans in some way.

Option B, "any part," is incorrect because it implies that any part of the banana tree can be used by humans. In reality, some parts of the banana tree are more useful than others. For example, the fruit is the most commonly used part of the banana tree, while the trunk is less commonly used.

Option D, "No improvement," is incorrect because the original sentence is grammatically correct and does not need to be improved.

Municipal elections are conducted at a regular interval of 5 years under the direct supervision of the State Election Commission, which is a statutory body.

The correct answer is: with.

The preposition "with" is used to indicate the means or instrument by which something is done. In this case, the speaker is indicating that the man paid the bill using a credit card.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

• "For" is used to indicate the purpose or reason for something. In this case, the speaker is not indicating the purpose for which the man paid the bill.
• "In" is used to indicate a location or position. In this case, the speaker is not indicating the location where the man paid the bill.
• "By" is used to indicate the agent or cause of something. In this case, the speaker is not indicating the agent who caused the man to pay the bill.

The correct answer is: B. (A) is true but (R) is false

Assertion (A) is true. Utility is the want-satisfying power of a commodity. It is a measure of the satisfaction that a consumer derives from consuming a good or service.

Reason (R) is false. Utility can have the characteristic of morality codes. For example, a person may derive utility from donating to charity, which is a moral act.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true

This option is incorrect because (R) is false. Utility can have the characteristic of morality codes. For example, a person may derive utility from donating to charity, which is a moral act.

B. (A) is true but (R) is false

This option is correct because (A) is true and (R) is false. Utility is the want-satisfying power of a commodity, but it does not have to be a moral act.

C. Both (A) and (R) are false

This option is incorrect because (A) is true. Utility is the want-satisfying power of a commodity.

D. (R) is true but (A) is false

This option is incorrect because (A) is true and (R) is false. Utility is the want-satisfying power of a commodity, but it does not have to be a moral act.

The correct answer is: C. no article, no article

The Damodar river is a river in eastern India. It flows through the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. The river is known for its destructive floods, which have caused widespread damage and loss of life. The river is also known for its industrial pollution.

The phrase "Sorrow of Bengal" is a reference to the river's destructive floods. The phrase was first used in the 19th century by British officials who were trying to describe the impact of the river's floods on the people of Bengal.

The phrase "Sorrow of Bengal" is often used in the media to describe the river's destructive floods. The phrase is also used by environmental activists to raise awareness about the river's pollution.

The options A, B, and D are incorrect because they use articles. Articles are words that are used to modify nouns. In this case, the articles "the" and "a" are not necessary because the river is not being referred to as a specific river. The river is simply being referred to as a river.

Sadhak Ramprasad Sen composed a huge number of Shyama sangeet

National Waterway 1 i.e., the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system stretches from Allahabad to Haldia. The waterway on the Hooghly river from Nabadwip to Haldia is tidal while from Nabadwip to Allahabad is inland river waterway system.

The correct answer is C. Negative.

Income elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the demand for a good or service changes in response to a change in income. A good or service is considered an inferior good if its demand decreases as income increases. This is because consumers tend to substitute away from inferior goods as they become wealthier. For example, as people earn more money, they may choose to eat out at restaurants more often instead of cooking at home. This would lead to a decrease in the demand for groceries, which is an inferior good.

The income elasticity of demand for an inferior good is always negative. This means that the demand for an inferior good will decrease as income increases. The magnitude of the negative income elasticity of demand will depend on the specific good or service. Some inferior goods have a very high negative income elasticity of demand, while others have a relatively low negative income elasticity of demand.

Here are some examples of inferior goods:

• Cheap food
• Public transportation
• Used cars
• Discount stores

It is important to note that not all goods are inferior goods. Some goods, such as luxury goods, have a positive income elasticity of demand. This means that the demand for luxury goods will increase as income increases.

The correct answer is: B. Two centriole

Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles found in animal cells. They are located near the nucleus and are involved in cell division. Centrioles are made up of nine triplets of microtubules, which are long, thin protein filaments. The microtubules are arranged in a ring around the centriole, and they help to organize the mitotic spindle during cell division.

Centrioles are also involved in the formation of cilia and flagella. Cilia are short, hair-like projections that are used for movement, while flagella are longer, whip-like projections that are used for propulsion.

In some microorganisms and lower plants, centrioles are absent. In these organisms, cell division is mediated by other structures, such as the spindle apparatus.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. One centriole. This is incorrect because centrioles are always found in pairs.
• B. Two centriole. This is the correct answer because centrioles are always found in pairs.
• C. Three centriole. This is incorrect because centrioles are always found in pairs.
• D. Four centriole. This is incorrect because centrioles are always found in pairs.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The healthcare sector in West Bengal receives significant funding for:

* Upgrading hospitals and infrastructure. The West Bengal government has been investing heavily in upgrading hospitals and infrastructure in the state. In 2016, the government announced a plan to spend Rs. 10,000 crore on upgrading hospitals and infrastructure in the state. This includes the construction of new hospitals, upgrading existing hospitals, and providing better facilities for patients.
* Providing free medicines and diagnostics. The West Bengal government also provides free medicines and diagnostics to all patients in government hospitals. This is a major initiative that has helped to improve access to healthcare for the poor and marginalized sections of society.
* Implementing health insurance schemes. The West Bengal government has also implemented several health insurance schemes to provide financial assistance to the poor and marginalized sections of society for accessing healthcare. These schemes include the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY), the Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY), and the Swasthya Sathi Scheme.

These initiatives have helped to improve the healthcare sector in West Bengal and have made it more accessible to the poor and marginalized sections of society.

The correct answer is C. Homogeneous and transparent.

Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear propagation of light) only if the medium of travel for light is homogeneous and transparent. This means that the medium must have the same refractive index throughout and must not absorb or scatter light.

If the medium is inhomogeneous, meaning that the refractive index is not the same throughout, then light will bend as it travels through the medium. This is called refraction.

If the medium is opaque, meaning that it absorbs or scatters light, then light will not travel in a straight line. This is because the light will be absorbed or scattered by the medium before it can reach its destination.

Therefore, the only option that satisfies both of these conditions is C. Homogeneous and transparent.

The correct answer is (a) Agriculture Department.

The PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-KISAN) is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Government of India on 24 February 2019. The scheme aims to provide income support to all landholding farmers' families across the country, irrespective of their landholding size, to help them meet their financial needs and improve their livelihood.

The nodal department for the operation of PM-KISAN in Uttarakhand is the Agriculture Department. The department is responsible for implementing the scheme, including disbursal of benefits to eligible farmers. The department has set up a dedicated helpline for farmers to register their grievances and get assistance in availing the benefits of the scheme.

The other options are incorrect. The Labour Department is responsible for implementing labour laws and ensuring the welfare of workers. The Planning Department is responsible for formulating and implementing the state's development plans.