WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-17

The correct answer is: Sapling : Tree

A hillock is a small hill, while a mountain is a large hill. A sapling is a young tree, while a tree is an adult tree. An ant is a small insect, while an elephant is a large mammal. A day is a unit of time, while a year is a longer unit of time. An ocean is a large body of water, while a river is a smaller body of water.

The relationship between hillock and mountain is that a hillock is a smaller version of a mountain. The relationship between sapling and tree is that a sapling is a younger version of a tree. The relationship between ant and elephant is that an ant is a smaller version of an elephant. The relationship between day and year is that a day is a shorter version of a year. The relationship between ocean and river is that an ocean is a larger version of a river.

Of the five options, only sapling and tree have the same relationship as hillock and mountain. A sapling is a smaller version of a tree, just as a hillock is a smaller version of a mountain.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{D}}$. Ethyne has the largest distance between two adjacent carbon atoms.

In ethane, the two carbon atoms are bonded by a single bond, which is a sigma bond. A sigma bond is a covalent bond that is formed by the overlap of two atomic orbitals along the internuclear axis. The overlap of the two atomic orbitals in ethane is relatively small, which results in a short bond length.

In ethene, the two carbon atoms are bonded by a double bond, which is a sigma bond and a pi bond. A pi bond is a covalent bond that is formed by the overlap of two parallel atomic orbitals above and below the internuclear axis. The overlap of the two atomic orbitals in ethene is greater than the overlap of the two atomic orbitals in ethane, which results in a longer bond length.

In ethyne, the two carbon atoms are bonded by a triple bond, which is a sigma bond and two pi bonds. The overlap of the two atomic orbitals in ethyne is greater than the overlap of the two atomic orbitals in ethene, which results in a longer bond length.

Therefore, the distance between two adjacent carbon atoms is largest in ethyne.

The correct answer is C) Shunga-Kushana.

The Shunga dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled the Magadha region in eastern India from 185 BCE to 73 BCE. The Shungas were founded by Pushyamitra Shunga, who assassinated the last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha. The Shungas were overthrown by the Kushanas, a Central Asian people who invaded India in the 1st century BCE.

The Kushanas were a powerful empire that ruled over much of northern India and Central Asia from the 1st to the 3rd centuries CE. The Kushanas were patrons of Buddhism and Hinduism, and their empire was a major center of trade and culture.

Chandraketugarh is an archaeological site in West Bengal, India. The site is believed to have been a major city during the Shunga-Kushana period. Chandraketugarh is known for its terracotta sculptures, which depict a variety of subjects, including gods, goddesses, animals, and people.

The other options are incorrect. The Mauryan dynasty ruled India from the 4th to the 2nd centuries BCE. The Gupta dynasty ruled India from the 4th to the 6th centuries CE. The Pala dynasty ruled India from the 8th to the 12th centuries CE.

The correct answer is (d), Indore in Madhya Pradesh.

Indore has been ranked as the cleanest city in India for the fourth consecutive year in 2021 by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The city has consistently improved its air quality over the past few years, thanks to a number of initiatives taken by the government and the local administration.

Some of the key initiatives taken by the Indore Municipal Corporation (IMC) to improve air quality include:

• Planting trees: The IMC has planted over 3 million trees in the city in the past few years. Trees help to improve air quality by absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen.
• Promoting public transport: The IMC has also promoted the use of public transport in the city by providing subsidies on bus fares and introducing new bus routes. This has helped to reduce the number of private vehicles on the road, which in turn has improved air quality.
• Cracking down on pollution: The IMC has also cracked down on pollution from industries and vehicles. It has imposed fines on polluting industries and has also impounded vehicles that are emitting excessive smoke.

These initiatives have helped to improve air quality in Indore significantly. The city's air quality index (AQI) has consistently been below 100 in recent years, which is considered to be good air quality.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the cleanest cities in India. Haridwar in Uttarakhand, Gadag in Karnataka, and Amaravati in Maharashtra all have higher AQIs than Indore.

The correct answer is B. Send e-mail to the list manager.

To subscribe to an Internet mailing list, you need to send an email to the list manager. The list manager is the person who is responsible for managing the list. They will add you to the list and you will start receiving emails from the list.

To find the list manager's email address, you can usually find it on the mailing list's website. If you can't find it on the website, you can try searching for it on Google.

Once you have the list manager's email address, you can send them an email with the following subject line: "Subscribe to [list name]". In the body of the email, you should include your name and email address.

The list manager will then add you to the list and you will start receiving emails from the list.

Here are some additional details about each option:

• Option A: Contact your Internet service provider. This is not the correct answer because your Internet service provider does not manage mailing lists.
• Option B: Send e-mail to the list manager. This is the correct answer because the list manager is the person who is responsible for managing the list.
• Option C: Telephone the mailing list webmaster. This is not the correct answer because the mailing list webmaster is not responsible for managing the list.
• Option D: Send a letter to the list. This is not the correct answer because mailing lists are not usually managed by letters.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The speed of a falling object is only affected by gravity, and the acceleration due to gravity is the same for all objects regardless of their mass. Therefore, the two stones will hit the ground with the same speed.

Option A is incorrect because the two stones will hit the ground with the same speed.

Option B is incorrect because the two stones will hit the ground with the same speed.

Option C is incorrect because the two stones will hit the ground with the same speed.

Option D is correct because the ratio of the speeds of the two stones when they hit the ground cannot be determined from the given information.

The correct answer is: Only argument II is strong.

Argument I is weak because it does not provide any evidence to support its claim that having more than one High Court in each state would be a waste of taxpayers' money. It is possible that having more High Courts would actually save money in the long run, by reducing the backlog of cases and the time it takes to resolve them.

Argument II is strong because it provides evidence to support its claim that having more than one High Court in each state would help reduce the backlog of cases. The backlog of cases is a serious problem in India, and it is likely that having more High Courts would help to reduce it.

Therefore, only argument II is strong.

The correct answer is B. Retaliation.

Reprisal is an act of retaliation, especially in response to an injury or wrong. It is a form of punishment or revenge.

Appreciation is a feeling of gratitude or warm regard. It is a positive emotion that is felt towards someone or something that is valued or esteemed.

Assessment is the act of evaluating or estimating the value, quality, or importance of something. It is a process of determining the worth or significance of something.

Compensation is the act of making amends for a wrong or injury. It is a form of payment or restitution that is made to compensate for loss or damage.

In the context of the question, the word "reprisal" is most closely synonymous with the word "retaliation." Both words refer to an act of revenge or punishment in response to an injury or wrong.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

Let's take a look at each option:

• A. $ln 2$

$ln 2$ is the natural logarithm of 2, which is approximately equal to 0.6931471805599453. As $x$ approaches infinity, $left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x$ approaches $ln 2$. However, it does not equal $ln 2$.

• B. 1.0

1.0 is the value of $left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x$ when $x=1$. However, as $x$ approaches infinity, $left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x$ approaches $ln 2$, which is greater than 1.0.

• C. $e$

$e$ is an irrational and transcendental constant approximately equal to 2.71828. It is the base of the natural logarithm and the exponential function. As $x$ approaches infinity, $left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x$ approaches $e$.

• D. $infty$

$infty$ is an indeterminate form that represents an infinite number. As $x$ approaches infinity, $left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x$ approaches $infty$. However, it does not equal $infty$.

Therefore, the correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

The correct answer is A) Tusu.

Tusu is a folk song that is typically sung during the Tusu festival, which celebrates the harvest season. The song is about a young woman who is waiting for her husband to return from war. The song is often sung in a group, and it is accompanied by music and dancing.

Jhumur is a folk song that is typically sung in the eastern Indian state of Jharkhand. The song is about love and loss, and it is often sung in a group, accompanied by music and dancing.

Gambhira is a folk song that is typically sung in the western Indian state of Gujarat. The song is about the struggles of farmers, and it is often sung in a group, accompanied by music and dancing.

Baul is a folk song that is typically sung in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. The song is about the spiritual journey of the Baul singers, and it is often sung in a solo performance, accompanied by music.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

India's industrial development has slowed down in recent years due to a number of factors, including:

• Shortage of electricity: India is facing a severe shortage of electricity, which has hampered industrial production. The country's power plants are operating at below capacity, and there are frequent power outages. This has led to production losses and higher costs for businesses.
• Labour unrest: India has been experiencing a wave of labour unrest in recent years. This has led to strikes and lockouts, which have disrupted production and caused losses for businesses.
• Lack of capital: India's capital markets are underdeveloped, and businesses have difficulty raising capital. This has made it difficult for businesses to invest in new projects and expand their operations.

These factors have contributed to the slowdown in India's industrial development. The government has taken some steps to address these issues, but more needs to be done to improve the investment climate and boost industrial growth.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Shortage of electricity: India is facing a severe shortage of electricity. The country's power plants are operating at below capacity, and there are frequent power outages. This has led to production losses and higher costs for businesses.
• Labour unrest: India has been experiencing a wave of labour unrest in recent years. This has led to strikes and lockouts, which have disrupted production and caused losses for businesses.
• Lack of capital: India's capital markets are underdeveloped, and businesses have difficulty raising capital. This has made it difficult for businesses to invest in new projects and expand their operations.

HIMUL (Himalayan Cooperative Milk Producer's Union Limited) is located at Matigara near Siliguri in North Bengal.

The correct answer is: A. at

A phone booth is a small enclosed structure with a telephone inside, typically located in a public place. It is usually found on the corner of a street, which is the point where two streets meet.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. above is not a place where a phone booth is typically found.
• C. in is not a specific enough location. A phone booth could be found in many different places, such as a building, a park, or a shopping mall.
• D. along is also not a specific enough location. A phone booth could be found along many different streets.

The correct answer is: A) Catalyst for further uprisings across India.

The mutiny at Barrackpore was a major turning point in the history of India. It was the first time that Indian soldiers had openly rebelled against British rule, and it sent shockwaves throughout the country. The mutiny was quickly suppressed by the British, but it had a profound impact on the course of Indian history.

One of the most significant effects of the mutiny was that it served as a catalyst for further uprisings across India. In the years following the mutiny, there were a number of other major rebellions against British rule, including the Indian Rebellion of 1857. These rebellions were all inspired by the example of the mutiny at Barrackpore, and they helped to pave the way for India's eventual independence from Britain.

The mutiny also had a significant impact on the British government's policy towards India. In the aftermath of the mutiny, the British government became increasingly concerned about the loyalty of its Indian subjects. This led to a number of reforms, including the introduction of a new education system and the creation of a new Indian Civil Service. These reforms were designed to win the support of the Indian people and to prevent further uprisings.

The mutiny at Barrackpore was a complex event with far-reaching consequences. It was a major turning point in the history of India, and it had a profound impact on the course of the country's development.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Option B: The mutiny at Barrackpore did not deter other soldiers from rebelling against British rule. In fact, it had the opposite effect, and it served as a catalyst for further uprisings across India.
* Option C: The mutiny at Barrackpore was not the reason for the British to leave India. The British left India in 1947 after a long and complex process of decolonization.
* Option D: The mutiny at Barrackpore did not have a significant impact on the Bengal Renaissance. The Bengal Renaissance was a period of intellectual and cultural revival in Bengal that began in the late 18th century. It was a time of great creativity and innovation, and it had a profound impact on the development of Indian culture.

The correct answer is: C. Economics

The Nobel Prize in Economics was first awarded in 1969. The other three Nobel Prizes were awarded in 1901.

The Nobel Prize in Chemistry is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences to scientists in the various fields of chemistry. The Nobel Prize in Physics is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences to scientists in the various fields of physics. The Nobel Prize in Peace is awarded by the Norwegian Nobel Committee to those who have "done the most or the best work for fraternity between nations, for the abolition or reduction of standing armies and for the holding and promotion of peace congresses".

The correct answer is (a) Squadron 17 – Golden Arrows.

Squadron 17 is a fighter squadron of the Indian Air Force (IAF) based at Ambala Air Force Station in Haryana. It is the first squadron to be equipped with the Rafale fighter jets. The squadron was formed on 1 July 1951 and was initially equipped with the Hawker Tempest fighter aircraft. It was later equipped with the MiG-21 fighter aircraft in 1963. The squadron was re-equipped with the Mirage 2000 fighter aircraft in 2001.

The Rafale is a twin-engine, multirole fighter aircraft manufactured by Dassault Aviation of France. It is one of the most advanced fighter aircraft in the world and is capable of carrying out a wide range of missions, including air superiority, ground attack, and reconnaissance. The Rafale was inducted into the IAF in September 2020.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the squadrons of the IAF that have been equipped with the Rafale fighter jets.

The correct answer is (a) Thomson.

The three-age system is a system of classifying human technological development into three periods: the Stone Age, the Bronze Age, and the Iron Age. The system was first developed by Danish antiquarian Christian Jürgensen Thomsen in 1836, based on the collections of the National Museum of Denmark.

Thomsen divided the museum's collection into three main categories: stone tools, bronze tools, and iron tools. He observed that the stone tools were the oldest, followed by the bronze tools, and then the iron tools. He also noted that the stone tools were found in the lowest levels of the museum's collection, while the bronze tools were found in the middle levels, and the iron tools were found in the highest levels.

Thomsen concluded that the three-age system represented a chronological progression in human technological development. He believed that the Stone Age was the earliest period, followed by the Bronze Age, and then the Iron Age. He also believed that each period was characterized by a different type of technology.

Thomsen's three-age system was quickly adopted by other archaeologists and historians. It became the standard way of classifying human technological development for over a century. However, in recent years, the three-age system has been criticized for being too simplistic. It has been argued that the system does not adequately account for the diversity of human technological development.

Despite these criticisms, the three-age system remains a useful tool for archaeologists and historians. It provides a simple way of organizing and understanding the vast amount of data that has been collected about human technological development.

The other options are incorrect because:

(b) Lubbock was a British archaeologist who developed a four-age system, which included the Stone Age, the Bronze Age, the Iron Age, and the Copper Age.
(c) Taylor was an English anthropologist who developed a cultural evolutionary theory, which divided human history into three stages: savagery, barbarism, and civilization.
(d) Childe was an Australian archaeologist who developed a theory of social evolution, which divided human history into three stages: the age of hunting and gathering, the age of agriculture, and the age of industry.

The correct answer is: B. Switzerland

Switzerland is the only country in the world that allows its citizens to directly veto constitutional amendments. This means that if a majority of voters in a popular referendum vote against an amendment, it is not adopted.

This system of direct democracy was first introduced in Switzerland in 1848, and it has been used to ratify over 100 constitutional amendments since then. It is one of the most important features of Swiss democracy, and it helps to ensure that the constitution reflects the will of the people.

The other options are incorrect because:

• In Britain, the constitution is not codified, and there is no provision for amending it by popular veto.
• In Russia, the constitution can be amended by the Federal Assembly, but there is no provision for a popular veto.
• In India, the constitution can be amended by Parliament, but there is no provision for a popular veto.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (d). The 18th SAARC Summit was held on November 26-27, 2014 in New Delhi, India. The theme of the summit was "Deeper Integration for a Shared Prosperity." The summit was attended by the heads of state or government of the eight member states of SAARC: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Afghanistan. The summit was a success, with the leaders of the member states agreeing to a number of important initiatives, including the establishment of a SAARC Development Fund and the launch of a SAARC Free Trade Area.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a), Kabul, is the capital of Afghanistan. Option (b), Kathmandu, is the capital of Nepal. Option (c), Colombo, is the capital of Sri Lanka.

The answer is E, XYZA.

In each of the other options, the letters are in alphabetical order, except for the first and last letters. For example, in A, XZCG, the letters are in alphabetical order from X to Z, except for the first letter, X, and the last letter, Z.

In E, XYZA, the letters are not in alphabetical order. The first letter is X, the second letter is Y, the third letter is Z, and the fourth letter is A.

Therefore, E is the odd one out.

The correct answer is (c), silver chloride. Silver chloride is a light-sensitive compound that is used in photographic plates. When exposed to light, silver chloride breaks down into silver and chlorine gas. The silver is then deposited on the photographic plate, creating an image.

Silver oxide is not used in photographic plates because it is not light-sensitive. Silver bromide and silver iodide are also light-sensitive compounds, but they are not as sensitive to light as silver chloride. This means that they require more light to create an image, which can make them less practical for use in photographic plates.

In addition to being light-sensitive, silver chloride is also relatively inexpensive and easy to produce. This makes it a good choice for use in photographic plates.

The answer to the question "Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?" is "Planet".

A satellite is a celestial body that orbits another larger celestial body. The Moon is a satellite of Earth. Earth is a planet. A planet is a large celestial body that orbits the Sun and is massive enough for its self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that it assumes a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape.

The Sun is a star, not a planet. A star is a large ball of hot gas that emits light and heat. The Solar System is the system of planets and other objects that orbit the Sun. Asteroids are small, rocky bodies that orbit the Sun.

In conclusion, the answer to the question "Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?" is "Planet".

The correct answer is C. 1792 AD.

France became a republic in 1792, after the French Revolution. The revolution began in 1789 with the storming of the Bastille, a prison in Paris. The revolutionaries were angry about the high taxes and the lack of representation for the common people. They wanted to create a new government that would be more fair and just.

The revolution was successful in overthrowing the monarchy and establishing a republic. However, it was also a very bloody and violent time. Millions of people were killed or injured. The revolution ended in 1799 with the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte.

Option A is incorrect because it is the year that the French Revolution began. Option B is incorrect because it is the year that the French Revolution ended. Option D is incorrect because it is too early.

The correct answer is Japan and United States of America.

The Malabar Trilateral Naval Exercise is an annual maritime exercise between the Indian Navy, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force, and the United States Navy. The exercise was first held in 1992, and has been held every year since then, except for 1998 and 2007. The exercise is designed to improve cooperation between the three navies in areas such as anti-piracy, anti-terrorism, and search and rescue.

The 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise was held in June 2018 in the Bay of Bengal. The exercise involved ships, aircraft, and personnel from the Indian Navy, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force, and the United States Navy. The exercise was the first time that the three navies had conducted a joint exercise in the Bay of Bengal.

The exercise was a success, and helped to improve cooperation between the three navies. The exercise also demonstrated the commitment of the three countries to working together to promote peace and security in the Indo-Pacific region.

Option A is incorrect. Russia did not participate in the 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise.

Option B is incorrect. Bangladesh did not participate in the 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise.

Option C is incorrect. Nepal did not participate in the 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise.

Option D is correct. Japan and United States of America participated in the 22nd edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise.

The first recipient of Jnanpith Award from West Bengal in 1966 was Tarashankar Bandopadhyay.

The odd one out is option E. Tongue : Taste.

The other options are all pairs of senses and the organs that are used to perceive them. Sight is perceived by the eyes, hearing is perceived by the ears, smell is perceived by the nose, and touch is perceived by the skin. Taste is perceived by the tongue, but it is not a sense that is as closely linked to a specific organ as the others. The tongue is involved in taste, but it is not the only organ that is involved. The nose is also involved in taste, as it helps to detect the aromas of food. Additionally, the brain plays a role in taste, as it interprets the signals that are sent from the tongue and the nose.

Therefore, the odd one out is option E. Tongue : Taste.

The correct answer is: B. capital gain.

A capital gain is a profit that is realized when an asset is sold for more than its purchase price. Capital gains can be realized on the sale of stocks, bonds, real estate, and other assets.

Capital gains are taxed at different rates than ordinary income. For taxpayers in the 2022 tax year, long-term capital gains (gains from assets held for more than one year) are taxed at 0%, 15%, or 20%, depending on the taxpayer's income. Short-term capital gains (gains from assets held for one year or less) are taxed as ordinary income.

Capital gains can be a significant source of income for some taxpayers. In 2019, capital gains and dividends accounted for 15% of all federal income tax revenue.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Capital. Capital is a general term for assets that are used to produce goods and services. It can include money, equipment, land, and buildings.
• Option B: Capital gain. A capital gain is a profit that is realized when an asset is sold for more than its purchase price.
• Option C: Capitalism. Capitalism is an economic system in which the means of production are privately owned and operated for profit.
• Option D: None of the above.

West Bengal was the first state to hold the Panchayat elections with the official participation of the political parties. It was adopted in June, 1978.

The correct answer is D. Commitment.

The other options are incorrect because they are not spelled correctly. The word "commitment" is spelled with two m's and two t's.

The word "commitment" means a pledge or promise to do something. It can also mean a strong sense of responsibility or dedication to something.

Sohrai is the biggest festivl amomg Santhals. Karam festival celebrated in the month of September-October is their major festival.

The answer is B. Crow : Carrion.

In the other three pairs, the first word is an animal that eats the second word. A cow eats fodder, poultry eats farm-raised food, and a vulture eats prey. However, a crow does not eat carrion. Carrion is the flesh of dead animals, and crows are scavengers, which means they eat dead animals that have already been killed by other animals.

Here are some additional details about each pair:

• Cows are herbivores, which means they eat plants. Fodder is any type of food that is given to livestock, such as hay, grass, or grain.
• Poultry are birds that are raised for their meat or eggs. Farm-raised food is any type of food that is given to poultry, such as corn, soybeans, or wheat.
• Vultures are birds of prey that eat carrion. Carrion is the flesh of dead animals.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (d). Right to take share or accounts of a dissolved firm is not an actionable claim.

An actionable claim is a claim that can be enforced in court. In order for a claim to be actionable, it must meet certain requirements, such as being based on a valid legal right and being for a specific amount of money.

The right to take share or accounts of a dissolved firm does not meet these requirements. A dissolved firm is no longer a legal entity, and therefore its shareholders do not have any legal rights to its assets. Additionally, the amount of money that a shareholder would be entitled to receive from a dissolved firm is uncertain, as it would depend on the value of the firm's assets.

Therefore, the right to take share or accounts of a dissolved firm is not an actionable claim.

(a) Mesne profits are profits that a person makes from the use of another person's property without the owner's permission. Mesne profits are actionable claims, as they are based on the legal right to possession of property.

(b) The right to claim insured amount from LIC is an actionable claim, as it is based on the legal right to insurance coverage.

(c) Sum of arrear payable in future is an actionable claim, as it is based on the legal right to payment of a debt.

The correct answer is B. Somnambulism.

Somnambulism, also known as sleepwalking, is a sleep disorder that causes people to get up and walk around while they are asleep. It is most common in children, but it can also occur in adults.

People who sleepwalk often do not remember what they did while they were asleep. They may also have other sleep disorders, such as sleep apnea or restless legs syndrome.

There is no cure for somnambulism, but there are treatments that can help to reduce the number of episodes. These treatments include medication, therapy, and lifestyle changes.

A. Somniloquism is sleep talking. It is a sleep disorder that causes people to talk in their sleep. It is most common in children, but it can also occur in adults.

C. Obsession is a thought that repeatedly enters a person's mind and causes anxiety or distress. It is a common symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

D. Hallucination is a false perception that occurs when a person is awake. It can be caused by a number of things, including mental illness, drug use, and certain medical conditions.

The correct answer is: B. Rolling to Sliding

Friction is a force that opposes the relative motion of two objects or materials. It is caused by the roughness of the surfaces in contact. The rougher the surfaces, the greater the friction.

Static friction is the friction that exists between two objects that are not moving relative to each other. Dynamic friction is the friction that exists between two objects that are moving relative to each other.

Rolling friction is a type of dynamic friction that occurs when a wheel rolls over a surface. Sliding friction is a type of dynamic friction that occurs when two surfaces slide past each other.

Rolling friction is less than sliding friction because the rolling motion of the wheel helps to reduce the contact area between the wheel and the surface. This reduces the amount of roughness that can cause friction.

Therefore, the friction can be reduced by changing from sliding to rolling.

Here are some additional details about each option:

• Option A: Static to Dynamic. Static friction is greater than dynamic friction. Therefore, changing from static to dynamic friction will not reduce friction.
• Option C: Dynamic to Static. Dynamic friction is less than static friction. Therefore, changing from dynamic to static friction will not reduce friction.
• Option D: Sliding to Rolling. Rolling friction is less than sliding friction. Therefore, changing from sliding to rolling will reduce friction.

The correct answer is: C. spring tide

A spring tide is a tidal phenomenon that occurs when the Sun and Moon are aligned, either on the same side of Earth (new moon) or on opposite sides (full moon). This alignment causes the gravitational forces of the Sun and Moon to combine, creating stronger tides than usual.

Ebb tide is the receding of the tide, or the lowering of the sea level. It is the opposite of high tide.

Neap tide is a tidal phenomenon that occurs when the Sun and Moon are at right angles to each other, as viewed from Earth. This misalignment causes the gravitational forces of the Sun and Moon to cancel each other out, creating weaker tides than usual.

The correct answer is (c). Bokaro Steel Plant is located in Bokaro district of Jharkhand, India. It is one of the largest integrated steel plants in India. The plant was established in 1965 by the Government of India with the help of the Soviet Union. It has a capacity of producing 10.5 million tonnes of steel per annum.

Hirapur Steel Plant is located in Hirapur, West Bengal, India. It is a mini steel plant with a capacity of producing 0.5 million tonnes of steel per annum. The plant was established in 1962 by the Government of India.

Kulti Steel Plant is located in Kulti, West Bengal, India. It is a mini steel plant with a capacity of producing 0.5 million tonnes of steel per annum. The plant was established in 1962 by the Government of India.

Durgapur Steel Plant is located in Durgapur, West Bengal, India. It is one of the largest integrated steel plants in India. The plant was established in 1956 by the Government of India with the help of the Soviet Union. It has a capacity of producing 4.5 million tonnes of steel per annum.

The correct answer is: C. 18

The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India. It is composed of 245 members, of whom 233 are elected by the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President of India. The term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha is six years, and one-third of the members retire every two years.

The number of seats that each state is allotted in the Rajya Sabha is based on its population. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, and it is therefore allotted 18 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct number of seats that Uttar Pradesh is allotted in the Rajya Sabha.

Georgia, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan became members of the United Nations on March 3, 1992.

• Option A: 1991 is incorrect because Georgia, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan were not members of the United Nations in 1991.
• Option B: 1992 is correct because Georgia, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan became members of the United Nations on March 3, 1992.
• Option C: 1993 is incorrect because Georgia, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan were not members of the United Nations in 1993.
• Option D: 1994 is incorrect because Georgia, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan were not members of the United Nations in 1994.

The correct answer is: B. market of government securities.

Gilt-edged securities are a type of government bond that is considered to be very safe and secure. They are often used as a benchmark for other investments, and are considered to be a relatively low-risk investment.

Bullion is a term used to describe gold or silver that is in the form of bars or coins. The bullion market is the market for buying and selling bullion.

The market of guns is the market for buying and selling guns.

The market of pure metals is the market for buying and selling pure metals, such as gold, silver, and platinum.

The correct answer is: **C) Bengali-Assamese**

The Bengali-Assamese script is a writing system used to write the Bengali and Assamese languages. It is derived from the Brahmi script, and is written from left to right. The Bengali-Assamese script has 52 letters, of which 11 are vowels and 41 are consonants.

The Bengali-Assamese script is a very beautiful and elegant script. It is used to write a wide variety of literature, from poetry to novels to plays. The Bengali-Assamese script is also used in newspapers, magazines, and other forms of media.

The Bengali-Assamese script is a very important part of the Bengali and Assamese cultures. It is a symbol of the rich history and heritage of these two languages.

The other options are incorrect because:

* **Devanagari** is a writing system used to write the Hindi, Marathi, Nepali, and Sanskrit languages.
* **Gurmukhi** is a writing system used to write the Punjabi language.
* **Oriya** is a writing system used to write the Oriya language.

The correct answer is D.

The Partition of Bengal in 1947 was the division of the Indian province of Bengal into two new provinces, West Bengal and East Bengal, based on religious demographics. West Bengal was predominantly Hindu, while East Bengal was predominantly Muslim. The partition led to large-scale migration of Hindus from East Bengal to West Bengal, and of Muslims from West Bengal to East Bengal.

Option A is incorrect because Nepal is a landlocked country located in the Himalayas. It is not adjacent to Bengal, and there was no significant migration between Nepal and Bengal in 1947.

Option B is incorrect because Bhutan is a landlocked country located in the Himalayas. It is not adjacent to Bengal, and there was no significant migration between Bhutan and Bengal in 1947.

Option C is incorrect because Myanmar is a country located in Southeast Asia. It is not adjacent to Bengal, and there was no significant migration between Myanmar and Bengal in 1947.

The correct answer is B.

A profit-maximizing monopolist in separate markets will adjust his sales in each market so that his MR is equal to his MC. This is because the monopolist will want to produce at the point where marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost, which is the point of profit maximization.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the monopolist will not adjust his sales in each market to just equal his MC. Instead, he will adjust his sales in each market so that his MR is equal to his MC.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the monopolist will adjust his sales in each market.

Statement 3 is correct because the monopolist will adjust his sales in each market.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the monopolist will adjust his sales in each market so that his MR is equal to his MC, not less than his MC.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it is based on a valid reason. Octroi is a tax on goods entering a city or town, and it is often seen as a source of corruption. By abolishing octroi, the government can eliminate this source of corruption and improve the efficiency of the economy.

Argument II is weak because it is based on an assumption that is not necessarily true. It is possible that abolishing octroi could adversely affect government revenues, but it is also possible that the government could find other ways to raise revenue. In addition, the impact of abolishing octroi on government revenues would likely be small compared to the overall size of the government budget.

Therefore, only argument I is strong.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{B}}$.

Pantene is a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula $C_{10}H_{20}$. It is a straight-chain alkane with 10 carbon atoms. The structural formula of pentene is shown below:

$$ce{CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH=CH2}$$

Butene is a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula $C_4H_8$. It is an alkene with 4 carbon atoms and one double bond. The structural formula of butene is shown below:

$$ce{CH3-CH2-CH=CH2}$$

Ethene is a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula $C_2H_4$. It is an alkene with 2 carbon atoms and one double bond. The structural formula of ethene is shown below:

$$ce{CH2=CH2}$$

Propene is a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula $C_3H_6$. It is an alkene with 3 carbon atoms and one double bond. The structural formula of propene is shown below:

$$ce{CH3-CH=CH2}$$

Therefore, the only option that matches the structural formula of pentene is $boxed{text{B}}$.

The correct answer is (b) Plan Bee.

Plan Bee is a unique strategy adopted by the North-East Frontier Railway (NFR) to keep wild elephants away from railway tracks. The strategy involves using beehives to deter elephants from crossing the tracks. The beehives are placed on the tracks, and when an elephant approaches, the bees are released and chase the elephant away.

Plan Bee has been successful in reducing the number of elephant-train collisions in the NFR region. In the first year of the program, there were no collisions between elephants and trains in the areas where Plan Bee was implemented. This is a significant improvement from the previous year, when there were 10 collisions between elephants and trains in the same areas.

Plan Bee is a cost-effective and humane way to keep elephants away from railway tracks. The beehives are relatively inexpensive to purchase and maintain, and the bees do not cause any harm to the elephants. In fact, the elephants eventually learn to avoid the beehives and the tracks altogether.

Plan Bee is a win-win solution for both the elephants and the NFR. The elephants are safe from being hit by trains, and the NFR is able to operate its trains without fear of collisions.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Plan Flee is a strategy that involves using loud noises to scare elephants away from railway tracks. This strategy is not as effective as Plan Bee, as elephants can become habituated to the noise.

(c) Plan Tea is a strategy that involves planting tea bushes along railway tracks. This strategy is not as effective as Plan Bee, as elephants are not deterred by tea bushes.

(d) Plan Sweep is a strategy that involves using bulldozers to clear vegetation along railway tracks. This strategy is not as effective as Plan Bee, as elephants can easily cross through cleared areas.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

The Mukhyamantri Matru Vandana Yojana (MMVY) is a government of India scheme that provides financial assistance to pregnant women, lactating mothers, and newborn babies. The scheme was launched in 2018 and aims to improve the health and well-being of mothers and children.

Under the MMVY, pregnant women are eligible for a one-time payment of Rs. 5,000. Lactating mothers are eligible for a monthly payment of Rs. 6,000 for up to six months. Newborn babies are eligible for a one-time payment of Rs. 1,000.

The MMVY is a cash transfer scheme that is implemented through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system. This means that the financial assistance is directly transferred into the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.

The MMVY is a welcome initiative by the government of India. It is a step in the right direction to improve the health and well-being of mothers and children. The scheme is likely to have a positive impact on the lives of millions of people in India.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Pregnant women. Pregnant women are eligible for a one-time payment of Rs. 5,000 under the MMVY. This payment is intended to help cover the costs of prenatal care and childbirth.
* Option B: Lactating mothers. Lactating mothers are eligible for a monthly payment of Rs. 6,000 for up to six months under the MMVY. This payment is intended to help cover the costs of food and other expenses related to breastfeeding.
* Option C: Newborn babies. Newborn babies are eligible for a one-time payment of Rs. 1,000 under the MMVY. This payment is intended to help cover the costs of immunizations and other medical expenses.

The correct answer is: A) Fisheries sector.

The Matysa Sampad Yojana is a scheme aimed at developing the fisheries sector in India. The scheme was launched in 2015 with an aim to increase fish production, improve the quality of fish, and create employment opportunities in the fisheries sector. The scheme provides financial assistance to fishermen, fish farmers, and fish processing units. It also provides training and capacity building to fishermen and fish farmers.

The other options are incorrect because they are not related to the fisheries sector. The Dairy sector is the sector of the economy that deals with the production, processing, and distribution of milk and dairy products. The Poultry sector is the sector of the economy that deals with the production, processing, and distribution of poultry meat and poultry products. The Sericulture sector is the sector of the economy that deals with the production, processing, and distribution of silk.

The correct answer is: C. A hypothesis

An economic theory is a statement about the relationship between two or more economic variables. It is a hypothesis that has been tested and supported by evidence.

An axiom is a statement that is assumed to be true without proof. A proposition is a statement that is offered for consideration. A tested hypothesis is a hypothesis that has been tested and found to be true or false.

Here are some examples of economic theories:

• The law of demand states that, all other things being equal, the quantity demanded of a good or service will decrease as the price of that good or service increases.
• The theory of comparative advantage states that a country should specialize in the production of goods and services in which it has a comparative advantage, and trade with other countries for goods and services in which it does not have a comparative advantage.
• The theory of the firm states that a firm will maximize its profits by producing the quantity of output at which marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

Economic theories are important because they help us to understand the world around us. They can be used to make predictions about the future, and they can be used to design policies that will improve economic outcomes.

The correct answer is C. Controlled Nuclear Fission.

Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a large atomic nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei. This process releases a large amount of energy, which can be used to generate electricity. Nuclear reactors use nuclear fission to generate heat, which is then used to boil water and turn a turbine. The turbine generates electricity, which is then used to power homes and businesses.

Nuclear fusion is the process of combining two or more small atomic nuclei into a larger nucleus. This process also releases a large amount of energy, but it is much more difficult to achieve than nuclear fission. Nuclear fusion is the process that powers the sun and other stars.

Magnetic confinement of plasma is a technique used to confine a plasma, which is a hot gas of charged particles. This technique is used in nuclear fusion reactors to keep the plasma from touching the walls of the reactor, which would cause it to cool and stop producing energy.

None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is: A. 1 only

Rafael Nadal won the Men's Singles French Open Tennis tournament in 2013, defeating Spanish compatriot David Ferrer in the final. However, this was not Nadal's maiden French Open title. He had previously won the tournament in 2005, 2006, 2007, 2008, 2010, 2011, and 2012.

Statement 1 is correct because Rafael Nadal did win the Men's Singles French Open Tennis tournament in 2013.

Statement 2 is incorrect because this was not Nadal's maiden French Open title. He had previously won the tournament in 7 previous years.

The correct answer is: The base has the least concentration of impurity.

A bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is a type of transistor that uses both electrons and holes as charge carriers. It is composed of three semiconductor regions: the emitter, the base, and the collector. The emitter and collector regions are heavily doped with impurities, while the base region is lightly doped.

The emitter and collector regions are connected to external circuits, while the base region is connected to a small voltage source. When a voltage is applied to the base-emitter junction, a small current flows through the base region. This current causes a much larger current to flow through the emitter-collector junction. This is because the emitter and collector regions are heavily doped, and the base region is lightly doped.

The base region is the control element of the BJT. The current through the base region controls the current through the emitter-collector junction. This makes the BJT a very versatile device that can be used as an amplifier, a switch, or a logic gate.

The concentration of impurity in the base region is important because it determines the current gain of the BJT. The current gain is the ratio of the collector current to the base current. A higher current gain means that the BJT can amplify a smaller signal into a larger signal.

The base region is lightly doped so that the current through the base region is small. This small current controls the much larger current through the emitter-collector junction. This makes the BJT a very efficient device.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concentration of impurity in the three regions of a BJT.

The correct answer is A. Kochi.

INS Venduruthy is a naval base of the Indian Navy located in Kochi, Kerala. It is one of the oldest naval bases in India and was established in 1939. The base is home to a number of ships and submarines of the Indian Navy and is also used for training purposes.

Option B, Mumbai, is the home of the Western Naval Command of the Indian Navy. The command is headquartered at Naval Dockyard, Mumbai.

Option C, Lonavla, is a hill station in Maharashtra. It is located about 100 kilometers from Mumbai.

Option D, Jamnagar, is a city in Gujarat. It is located on the Gulf of Kutch.

The correct answer is (c) 67th.

The Open Government Index 2015 is a report that measures the level of open government in 102 countries. It is prepared by the World Justice Project, an independent, non-profit organization that works to improve justice systems around the world.

The index measures open government on seven dimensions:

• Openness of government data
• Transparency of government processes
• Participation of citizens in government
• Collaboration between government and civil society
• Accountability of government to citizens
• Use of new technologies to promote open government
• Institutional framework for open government

India ranked 67th in the Open Government Index 2015, with a score of 0.53 out of 1.00. This score is based on the country's performance on the seven dimensions of open government.

India's performance on the Open Government Index has improved since 2012, when it ranked 89th. This improvement is due to the government's efforts to make information more accessible to citizens, to increase transparency in government processes, and to promote participation of citizens in government.

However, there are still areas where India can improve its performance on open government. For example, the government could do more to make data more accessible to citizens, to increase transparency in government procurement, and to promote collaboration between government and civil society.

The Open Government Index is a valuable tool for measuring the progress of open government around the world. It can help governments to identify areas where they can improve their performance and to track their progress over time.

The Biswa Bangla Convention Centre is located in New Town, Kolkata. It is a state-of-the-art convention centre that can accommodate up to 10,000 people. It is the largest convention centre in eastern India and is used for a variety of events, including conferences, exhibitions, and concerts.

New Town is a planned township in Kolkata, India. It is located in the eastern part of the city and is home to a number of government offices, educational institutions, and commercial establishments. New Town is also home to the Biswa Bangla Convention Centre.

Howrah is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Hooghly River, opposite Kolkata. Howrah is a major commercial and industrial center and is home to a number of educational institutions and hospitals.

Siliguri is a city in West Bengal, India. It is located in the foothills of the Himalayas and is a major tourist destination. Siliguri is also a major commercial and industrial center.

The Biswa Bangla Convention Centre is located in New Town, Kolkata. It is a state-of-the-art convention centre that can accommodate up to 10,000 people. It is the largest convention centre in eastern India and is used for a variety of events, including conferences, exhibitions, and concerts.

The correct answer is: A) Chief Minister.

The Chief Minister is the head of government of the state of West Bengal. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of West Bengal, who is the head of state. The Chief Minister is responsible for the day-to-day running of the state government and for implementing the policies of the state legislature.

The Governor is the head of state of West Bengal. The Governor is appointed by the President of India. The Governor is responsible for the appointment of the Chief Minister and for dissolving the state legislature. The Governor also has the power to veto laws passed by the state legislature.

The Chief Secretary is the chief administrative officer of the state of West Bengal. The Chief Secretary is appointed by the Governor of West Bengal. The Chief Secretary is responsible for the day-to-day running of the state government and for implementing the policies of the state government.

The Speaker of the Assembly is the presiding officer of the Legislative Assembly of West Bengal. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. The Speaker is responsible for maintaining order in the Assembly and for presiding over the proceedings of the Assembly.

The correct answer is $intlimits_0^{text{t}} {{{text{f}}_1}left( {text{x}} right){{text{f}}_2}left( {{text{t}} - {text{x}}} right){text{dx}}}$.

The probability density function of the overall time taken to execute the program is the probability that the program will take a certain amount of time, given that the two modules are executed sequentially. This probability can be calculated by multiplying the probability density functions of the two modules, $f_1(t)$ and $f_2(t)$, and integrating the product over the interval $[0, t]$. This is because the probability that the program will take a certain amount of time is equal to the probability that the first module takes a certain amount of time, and then the second module takes the remaining amount of time.

The probability density function of the first module is $f_1(t)$, which gives the probability that the first module will take a certain amount of time, $t$. The probability density function of the second module is $f_2(t)$, which gives the probability that the second module will take a certain amount of time, $t$. The probability that the program will take a certain amount of time, $t$, is equal to the probability that the first module takes a certain amount of time, $x$, and then the second module takes the remaining amount of time, $t - x$. This probability is given by the product of the probability density functions of the two modules, $f_1(x)$ and $f_2(t - x)$, integrated over the interval $[0, t]$.

$$intlimits_0^{text{t}} {{{text{f}}_1}left( {text{x}} right){{text{f}}_2}left( {{text{t}} - {text{x}}} right){text{dx}}}$$

This is the probability density function of the overall time taken to execute the program.

The correct answer is: C. Their electronic configuration is stable.

Rare gases are generally chemically inert because they have a full valence shell of electrons. This means that they do not need to gain or lose electrons in order to achieve a stable electron configuration. As a result, they are not very reactive and do not form many chemical bonds.

Option A is incorrect because rare gases are not always monoatomic. For example, xenon can form a few stable compounds, such as xenon tetrafluoride (XeF4).

Option B is incorrect because rare gases do not always have low ionization capacity. For example, helium has a very high ionization energy, which means that it is very difficult to remove an electron from its atom.

Option D is incorrect because rare gases do not always contain electronic affinity. Electronic affinity is the energy released when an electron is added to a neutral atom. Rare gases have very low electronic affinities, which means that they do not readily accept electrons.

The correct answer is (a) Akbar.

Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, who ruled from 1556 to 1605. He was a great patron of the arts, and under his patronage, the Mughal style of painting developed. This style was characterized by its use of bright colors, its realistic depiction of people and animals, and its use of perspective.

Humayun was Akbar's father, who ruled from 1530 to 1540. He was also a patron of the arts, but his reign was cut short by his defeat at the Battle of Panipat in 1540.

Jehangir was Akbar's son, who ruled from 1605 to 1627. He was also a patron of the arts, but his style of painting was more naturalistic than his father's.

Shah Jahan was Akbar's grandson, who ruled from 1628 to 1658. He was a great builder, but he was not a patron of the arts.

The Mughal style of painting continued to develop after Akbar's death, but it never reached the same heights of achievement.

The correct answer is: A) Unemployed youth.

Yuvasree is a youth empowerment scheme launched by the Government of Kerala in 2008. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance and training to unemployed youth in the state. The scheme is open to all unemployed youth between the ages of 18 and 35 years who are residents of Kerala.

The scheme provides financial assistance of up to Rs. 1 lakh to each eligible youth for starting a new business or for taking up skill training. The scheme also provides training and placement assistance to unemployed youth.

The scheme has been successful in providing financial assistance and training to a large number of unemployed youth in Kerala. The scheme has also helped in creating new jobs and in reducing unemployment in the state.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option B: Women entrepreneurs are not the target group of the Yuvasree scheme. The scheme is open to all unemployed youth, irrespective of gender.
* Option C: Senior citizens are not the target group of the Yuvasree scheme. The scheme is open to unemployed youth between the ages of 18 and 35 years.
* Option D: Differently-abled individuals are not the target group of the Yuvasree scheme. The scheme is open to all unemployed youth, irrespective of disability.

The correct answer is: B. Bend towards right

A bimetal is a strip made of two different metals that are welded together. The metals have different coefficients of thermal expansion, which means that they expand at different rates when heated. When the bimetal is heated, the metal with the higher coefficient of thermal expansion will expand more than the other metal. This causes the bimetal to bend in the direction of the metal with the higher coefficient of thermal expansion.

In this case, the copper strip has a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than the iron strip. Therefore, when the bimetal is heated, the copper strip will expand more than the iron strip. This will cause the bimetal to bend towards the right.

Option A is incorrect because the bimetal will not remain straight when heated. The bimetal will bend in the direction of the metal with the higher coefficient of thermal expansion.

Option C is incorrect because the bimetal will not bend towards the left. The bimetal will bend in the direction of the metal with the higher coefficient of thermal expansion.

Option D is incorrect because the bimetal will bend in one direction or the other. It cannot remain straight.

The correct answer is A. tenacious.

Tenacious means holding firmly to something; persistent. In this context, it means that the ties that bind a family together are very strong and will not easily break.

The other options are incorrect because they do not convey the same meaning of strength and durability.

• Twisted means bent or turned out of shape. This does not accurately describe the ties that bind a family together, which are meant to be strong and supportive.
• Tenuous means not strong or firm. This also does not accurately describe the ties that bind a family together, which are meant to be strong and lasting.
• Tentative means not certain or decided. This does not accurately describe the ties that bind a family together, which are meant to be strong and secure.

The correct answer is (b). Project Tiger was launched in 1973. It is a tiger conservation program implemented by the Government of India. The program aims to increase the tiger population in India and to protect its habitat. Project Tiger has been successful in increasing the tiger population in India. The number of tigers in India has increased from 1,411 in 1973 to 2,967 in 2018. Project Tiger has also been successful in protecting the tiger habitat. The program has created a network of tiger reserves, which provide a safe haven for tigers and other wildlife.

Option (a) is incorrect because Project Tiger was not launched in 1956. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in 1972, which led to the creation of Project Tiger in 1973.

Option (c) is incorrect because Project Tiger was not launched in 1971. The Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 was fought in 1971.

Option (d) is incorrect because Project Tiger was not launched in 19.

The answer is $boxed{3}$.

The missing number is the number that completes the following pattern:

$1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, boxed{18}, 21, 24, 27, 30$

This is a simple arithmetic sequence with a common difference of $3$. In other words, each term is $3$ more than the term before it. Therefore, the missing number is $3$ more than the last number in the sequence, which is $15$.

Bamboo is classified as a grass. It is a member of the grass family Poaceae, which also includes wheat, rice, and corn. Bamboo is a fast-growing plant that can reach heights of up to 30 meters. It is a perennial plant, which means that it lives for more than two years. Bamboo is a versatile plant that can be used for a variety of purposes, including construction, furniture, and food.

Trees are woody plants that have a single trunk and branches that grow from the trunk. Trees typically have a lifespan of more than 100 years. Trees are an important part of the environment, as they provide oxygen, shade, and food for animals.

Shrubs are woody plants that have multiple stems that grow from the base of the plant. Shrubs typically have a lifespan of less than 100 years. Shrubs are an important part of the environment, as they provide food and shelter for animals.

Herbs are non-woody plants that have a lifespan of less than one year. Herbs are an important part of the human diet, as they are used to flavor food.

In conclusion, bamboo is classified as a grass. It is a fast-growing, perennial plant that can be used for a variety of purposes.

The correct answer is A) North Bengal plains.

North Bengal plains are a region in the state of West Bengal, India. The region is known for its litchi orchards, which produce a type of fruit that is popular in India and other parts of Asia. Litchi orchards are found in many parts of North Bengal, but the most famous are located in the districts of Malda and Murshidabad.

The Dooars are a region in the state of West Bengal, India. The region is located in the foothills of the Himalayas and is known for its tea plantations. The Dooars are not known for their litchi orchards.

The Sundarbans Delta is a delta in the Bay of Bengal. The delta is formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. The Sundarbans Delta is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is known for its mangrove forests. The Sundarbans Delta is not known for its litchi orchards.

Rarh is a region in the state of Bihar, India. The region is located in the north-central part of the state. Rarh is not known for its litchi orchards.

The correct answer is D. Force is applied in a convenient direction.

A single fixed pulley is a simple machine that changes the direction of a force. It consists of a grooved wheel that a rope or cable runs through. The rope is attached to a load, and the other end is attached to a force. When the force is applied, the rope pulls on the wheel, and the wheel rotates. This causes the load to move in the opposite direction of the force.

Single fixed pulleys are often used to lift heavy objects. They are also used in cranes and other lifting devices. The main advantage of a single fixed pulley is that it allows you to apply a force in a convenient direction. For example, if you want to lift a heavy object over your head, you can use a single fixed pulley to apply the force from below. This makes it much easier to lift the object.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• Option A is incorrect because the efficiency of a single fixed pulley is not 100%. The efficiency of a simple machine is the ratio of the output work to the input work. The output work is the work done by the load, and the input work is the work done by the force. The efficiency of a single fixed pulley is always less than 100% because some of the input work is lost to friction.
• Option B is incorrect because the velocity ratio of a single fixed pulley is 1. The velocity ratio of a simple machine is the ratio of the speed of the output to the speed of the input. The speed of the output is the speed of the load, and the speed of the input is the speed of the force. The velocity ratio of a single fixed pulley is always 1 because the wheel does not rotate.
• Option C is incorrect because the mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is 1. The mechanical advantage of a simple machine is the ratio of the output force to the input force. The output force is the force that lifts the load, and the input force is the force that is applied to the rope. The mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is always 1 because the wheel does not change the magnitude of the force.

The correct answer is (a). The Government of India launched the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme in 1994. The RCH programme is a comprehensive approach to reproductive health that aims to improve the health of women, children, and adolescents. The programme focuses on providing access to quality reproductive health services, including family planning, antenatal care, postnatal care, and immunization. The RCH programme has been successful in reducing maternal and child mortality rates in India.

Option (b) is incorrect because the RCH programme was launched in 1994, not 1995.

Option (c) is incorrect because the RCH programme was launched in 1994, not 1997.

Option (d) is incorrect because the RCH programme was launched in 1994, not 1993.

The correct answer is (d). The National Social Security Fund (NSSF) is a social security fund for employees in the organized sector. It is not an employment generation and poverty alleviation programme.

The other three options are employment generation and poverty alleviation programmes of the Government of India.

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social protection programme that guarantees 100 days of paid employment in a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
• The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is a programme that aims to reduce rural poverty by promoting self-employment and livelihoods through the formation of self-help groups (SHGs).
• The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) is a programme that aims to generate employment opportunities in urban areas by providing financial assistance to self-help groups (SHGs) and urban poor individuals.

The correct answer is (a) Copper and Tin.

Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin. It is one of the oldest metal alloys, and was first used in the Bronze Age. Bronze is stronger and more durable than copper, and it has a golden color. It is used to make a variety of objects, including coins, jewelry, and sculptures.

Copper and silver are not typically alloyed together. Copper and zinc form an alloy called brass, which is yellow in color. Copper and lead form an alloy called pewter, which is a white metal.

The correct answer is D. Padam Vibhusan.

Mahasweta Devi was a Bengali writer and social activist who won numerous awards, including the Sahitya Akademi Award, the Jnanpith Award, and the Ramon Magsaysay Award. She was also nominated for the Nobel Prize in Literature.

The Padma Vibhushan is an Indian civilian award of the third highest grade in the Padma Vibhushan series, awarded for distinguished service of a high order. It is awarded by the President of India.

Mahasweta Devi was not awarded the Padma Vibhushan. This may be because she was a controversial figure who was often critical of the Indian government. She was also a strong advocate for the rights of the poor and marginalized, which may have made her unpopular with some members of the Indian establishment.

Despite not being awarded the Padma Vibhushan, Mahasweta Devi was a highly respected writer and social activist who made a significant contribution to Indian society.

The correct answer is: B. Films

The Cannes Film Festival is an annual film festival held in Cannes, France. It is one of the most prestigious film festivals in the world, and is often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals". The festival was founded in 1946 by Jean Cocteau, and has been held every year since then, except for 1948 and 1950.

The Cannes Film Festival is known for its red carpet, which is one of the most famous in the world. The festival also features a number of awards, including the Palme d'Or, which is considered to be one of the most prestigious film awards in the world.

The Cannes Film Festival is an important event in the film industry, and it is a major opportunity for filmmakers to showcase their work. The festival also attracts a large number of celebrities, and it is a major social event.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Literature: The Nobel Prize in Literature is the most prestigious award in literature. It is awarded by the Swedish Academy to an author who has produced "in the field of literature the most outstanding work in an ideal direction".
• Journalism: The Pulitzer Prize for Journalism is one of the most prestigious awards in journalism. It is awarded by Columbia University to journalists who have produced "distinguished and meritorious public service".
• Economics: The Nobel Prize in Economics is the most prestigious award in economics. It is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences to an economist who has made "the most outstanding contribution to the development of economic science".

The correct answer is (c) 1962.

Uttar Pradesh Urdu Akademi was established on 15 August 1962 by the Government of Uttar Pradesh. It is a statutory body that promotes the study, research, and development of Urdu language and literature. The Akademi organizes various activities such as conferences, seminars, workshops, and literary competitions. It also publishes books, journals, and magazines on Urdu language and literature.

The other options are incorrect because:

• (a) 1947 is the year when India gained independence from British rule.
• (b) 1950 is the year when the Constitution of India came into effect.
• (d) 1972 is the year when the Emergency was declared in India.

The correct answer is (b). Babar assumed the title of ‘Padshah’ first at Kabul.

Babur was born in Ferghana in 1483. He was the son of Umar Shaikh Mirza, the ruler of Ferghana, and Khanzada Begum, the daughter of Miran Shah, the second Timurid ruler of Central Asia. Babar's father died when he was only nine years old, and he was forced to flee Ferghana after his uncle, Ahmed Khan, seized power.

Babar spent the next several years wandering through Central Asia, trying to regain his lost kingdom. In 1504, he finally succeeded in capturing Kabul, which he made his capital. He then began to expand his territory, conquering the neighboring provinces of Kandahar and Ghazni.

In 1526, Babar invaded India. He defeated the Lodhi dynasty at the Battle of Panipat and became the first Mughal emperor. He ruled India for five years until his death in 1530.

Babar was a great military leader and a skilled administrator. He was also a poet and a writer. His memoirs, the Baburnama, are considered to be one of the most important works of literature in the Persian language.

The other options are incorrect because Babar did not assume the title of ‘Padshah’ at those places.

(a) Farghana: Babar was born in Ferghana, but he did not assume the title of ‘Padshah’ there.

(c) Delhi: Babar conquered Delhi in 1526, but he did not assume the title of ‘Padshah’ there. He assumed the title of ‘Padshah’ at Kabul in 1504.

(d) Samarkand: Samarkand was the capital of the Timurid Empire, and it was ruled by Babar's cousin, Muhammad Shaybani Khan. Babar never ruled Samarkand, and he did not assume the title of ‘Padshah’ there.

The correct answer is A. plucking.

Plucking is the process of particle detachment by moving glacial ice. It occurs when the ice freezes to a rock or other particle and then the ice moves, pulling the particle loose. Plucking is a major process in the formation of glacial erratics, which are large boulders that are found far from their original source.

Abrasion is the process of rock erosion by friction between rock particles and a moving surface. It is a major process in the formation of glacial striations, which are long, parallel scratches that are found on the surface of rocks that have been eroded by glaciers.

Sc scouring is the process of rock erosion by the impact of moving particles. It is a major process in the formation of glacial potholes, which are deep, round holes that are found in the bedrock beneath glaciers.

None of the above is not the correct answer because it does not describe a process of particle detachment by moving glacial ice.

The correct answer is: D. Four other carbon atoms

In a diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This means that each carbon atom is connected to four other carbon atoms by covalent bonds, which are strong bonds that form when atoms share electrons. The tetrahedral arrangement of the carbon atoms gives diamond its strength and hardness.

Option A is incorrect because each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms, not five.

Option B is incorrect because each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms, not three.

Option C is incorrect because each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms, not two.

The correct answer is C. Future Continuous.

The future continuous tense is used to talk about actions that will be happening or continuing at a specific time in the future. In the sentence "I will be repairing the roof," the speaker is saying that they will be in the process of repairing the roof at a specific time in the future.

The simple past tense is used to talk about actions that happened at a specific time in the past. The future perfect tense is used to talk about actions that will have happened by a specific time in the future. The future perfect continuous tense is used to talk about actions that will have been happening or continuing for a period of time by a specific time in the future.

Here are some examples of how the future continuous tense can be used:

• I will be working at the office tomorrow.
• We will be visiting our grandparents next week.
• The meeting will be starting at 9:00 AM.
• The food will be ready in 30 minutes.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: A. Virtual Connection Manager

A Virtual Connection Manager (VCM) is a software component that manages virtual connections in a computer network. It is responsible for creating, maintaining, and terminating virtual connections, as well as for routing data between virtual connections.

A Virtual Channel Memory (VCM) is a type of memory that is used to store data for virtual channels. Virtual channels are a way of multiplexing multiple data streams over a single physical channel. VCM is used to store the data for each virtual channel so that it can be accessed by the appropriate application.

A Voice Controlled Modem (VCM) is a type of modem that can be controlled by voice commands. This is useful for people who have difficulty using a traditional keyboard and mouse. VCMs are typically used with voice recognition software to allow users to control their computers with their voice.

A Voice Communications Module (VCM) is a type of module that is used to provide voice communication services in a computer network. VCMs are typically used in conjunction with VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) technology to allow users to make and receive phone calls over the Internet.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. Virtual Connection Manager.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it provides a valid reason why India should make efforts to harness solar energy. The statement says that India should make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfill its energy requirements. Argument I supports this statement by providing evidence that most of the energy sources used at present are exhaustible. This means that India will eventually run out of these energy sources, and so it is important to find alternative sources of energy. Solar energy is a renewable energy source, which means that it will never run out. Therefore, it is a good option for India to consider as a source of energy.

Argument II is weak because it does not provide a valid reason why India should not make efforts to harness solar energy. The statement says that India should make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfill its energy requirements. Argument II contradicts this statement by providing evidence that harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital. However, this does not mean that India should not make efforts to harness solar energy. It simply means that India will need to find a way to finance the project. There are many ways to finance a project, such as through government subsidies, private investment, or public-private partnerships. Therefore, Argument II does not provide a valid reason why India should not make efforts to harness solar energy.

The answer is B. Bhopal.

The other three options are all capital cities of Indian states. Bhopal is the capital of Madhya Pradesh, but it is not a coastal city. The other three options are all coastal cities.

Panaji is the capital of Goa. Pune is the second largest city in Maharashtra. Shillong is the capital of Meghalaya.

The correct answer is A. Carbon black.

Carbon black is a fine black powder that is produced by incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. It is used as a filler in rubber to improve its strength, durability, and resistance to wear and tear. It is also used in inks, paints, and plastics.

Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals. It is used as a fuel for electricity generation, heating, and transportation.

Coke is a solid fuel produced from coal by heating it in the absence of air. It is used in blast furnaces to produce iron and steel.

Graphite is a form of carbon that is soft and flaky. It is used as a lubricant, a conductor of electricity, and a component of pencils.

The correct answer is (a) Dehradun.

Dehradun is the most urbanized district in Uttarakhand. It is the capital of Uttarakhand and is located in the Garhwal region of the state. The city has a population of over 1 million people and is a major tourist destination. Dehradun is also home to a number of educational institutions, including the Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee and the University of Dehradun.

Nainital is a city in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is a popular tourist destination and is known for its scenic beauty. The city has a population of over 300,000 people.

Haridwar is a city in the Haridwar district of Uttarakhand. It is a major Hindu pilgrimage site and is located on the banks of the Ganges River. The city has a population of over 200,000 people.

Almora is a city in the Almora district of Uttarakhand. It is the headquarters of the district and is located in the Kumaon region of the state. The city has a population of over 100,000 people.

The probability that the face value is even is 100% - 90% = 10%.
The probability that the face value is even given that it is greater than 3 is 0.75.
The probability that the face value is greater than 3 and even is 0.75 * 10% = 7.5%.
The probability that the face value is greater than 3 is 100% - 7.5% = 92.5%.
So the answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: 0.453 is the probability that the face value is even. This is not the correct answer because the question is asking for the probability that the face value exceeds 3, not the probability that the face value is even.
• Option B: 0.468 is the probability that the face value is odd. This is not the correct answer because the question is asking for the probability that the face value exceeds 3, not the probability that the face value is odd.
• Option C: 0.485 is the probability that the face value is even or greater than 3. This is not the correct answer because the question is asking for the probability that the face value exceeds 3, not the probability that the face value is even or greater than 3.
• Option D: 0.492 is the probability that the face value is greater than 3. This is the correct answer because it is the only option that is consistent with the information given in the question.

West Bengal has 6 national parks, 15 wildlife sanctuaries and 2 elephant reserves. The six national parks are Sundarbans National Park, Neora Valley National Park, Singalia National Park, Buxa National Park, Gorumara National Park and Jaldapara National Park.

The correct answer is: B. Wind

Pine trees are wind-pollinated, which means that the pollen grains are carried to the female cones by the wind. The pollen grains are produced in the male cones, which are located at the top of the tree. The female cones are located at the base of the tree. When the pollen grains are mature, they are released from the male cones and carried by the wind to the female cones. The pollen grains land on the sticky stigma of the female cone, and they germinate and grow a pollen tube down into the ovule. The sperm cells in the pollen tube fertilize the egg cell in the ovule, and a seed is formed.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the pollen tube is not what carries the pollen grains to the female cone. The pollen tube is a structure that grows from the pollen grain down into the ovule.
• Option C is incorrect because insects do not pollinate pine trees.
• Option D is incorrect because animals do not pollinate pine trees.

The correct answer is (a). Sayana songs are sung by the people after Krishna Janmashtmi in the Kumaun region. They are a type of folk song that is sung to celebrate the birth of Krishna. The songs are usually about Krishna's childhood and his adventures. They are often accompanied by dancing and music.

Thulkhel is a type of folk dance that is performed in the Kumaun region. It is usually performed during festivals and celebrations. The dance is performed by a group of people who move in a circle and sing songs.

Duda songs are a type of folk song that is sung in the Kumaun region. They are usually about love and relationships. The songs are often accompanied by music.

Here are some additional details about Sayana songs:

• Sayana songs are usually sung in the evening, after the sun has set.
• The songs are often about Krishna's childhood and his adventures.
• The songs are often accompanied by dancing and music.
• Sayana songs are a popular way to celebrate Krishna Janmashtmi in the Kumaun region.

Poly Park for polymer products has been set up in Howrah district of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d). The first meeting of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) on December 28, 1885. It was founded by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant, with the help of some prominent Indian leaders such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta. The main objective of the Indian National Congress was to promote unity among the Indian people and to demand greater political rights from the British government.

The other options are incorrect. (a) Bombay is the capital of the Indian state of Maharashtra. (b) Poona is a city in the Indian state of Maharashtra. (c) Madras is the capital of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.

The Indian National Congress played a major role in the Indian independence movement. It was the largest and most influential political organization in India during the colonial period. The Congress led the country to independence in 1947.

The correct answer is: A. Derived Unit

A derived unit is a unit of measurement that is defined in terms of other base units. The unit of force, the newton (N), is a derived unit. It is defined as the force required to accelerate a mass of 1 kilogram at a rate of 1 meter per second squared.

A basic unit is a unit of measurement that is not defined in terms of other units. The seven base units in the International System of Units (SI) are the second (s), metre (m), kilogram (kg), ampere (A), kelvin (K), mole (mol), and candela (cd).

A fundamental unit is a unit of measurement that is not defined in terms of other units, but is instead defined by a physical constant. For example, the metre is defined as the distance that light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 of a second.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The iconic yellow taxis in Kolkata are primarily **B) Hindustan Ambassadors**.

The Hindustan Ambassador is a large, four-door sedan that was manufactured in India from 1958 to 2014. It was based on the Morris Oxford Series III, which was designed by the British Motor Corporation in the 1950s. The Ambassador was originally marketed as a luxury car, but it became popular as a taxi in India in the 1960s. It was the most popular taxi in India for many years, and it is still a common sight on the streets of Kolkata.

The Ambassador is a large and comfortable car, but it is not very fuel-efficient. It is also not very safe, as it does not have many of the safety features that are standard on modern cars. However, the Ambassador is a very popular car in India, and it is likely to remain a common sight on the streets of Kolkata for many years to come.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Maruti Suzuki cars are small, fuel-efficient cars that are popular in India. However, they are not as common as taxis as the Hindustan Ambassador.
* Tata Indicas are small, affordable cars that are also popular in India. However, they are not as common as taxis as the Hindustan Ambassador.
* Mahindra SUVs are large, powerful SUVs that are popular in India. However, they are not as common as taxis as the Hindustan Ambassador.

The correct answer is D. Pullela Gopichand.

Pullela Gopichand is an Indian badminton player and coach. He is the only Indian to have won the All England Open Badminton Championships, which he did in 1994. He is also the only Indian to have been awarded all the three major sports awards viz. Dronacharya Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ranta and Arjuna Award.

Prakash Padukone is an Indian former badminton player. He is considered to be one of the greatest badminton players of all time. He was the first Indian to win the All England Open Badminton Championships, which he did in 1980. He was also the first Indian to win the World Badminton Championships, which he did in 1983.

Sanjeev Kumar Singh is an Indian former badminton player. He was a doubles specialist and won the bronze medal at the 1996 Summer Olympics in the men's doubles event with Virender Kumar. He was also a two-time Commonwealth Games gold medalist.

Harika Dronavali is an Indian chess player. She is the first Indian woman to become a Grandmaster. She is also the first Indian woman to win the World Junior Chess Championship.

All four of these individuals are accomplished athletes who have made significant contributions to Indian sports. However, only Pullela Gopichand has been awarded all the three major sports awards viz. Dronacharya Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ranta and Arjuna Award.

The correct answer is: B. Increase in the price of the commodity concerned.

Contraction of demand is a decrease in the quantity demanded of a good or service at any given price. It can be caused by a number of factors, including:

• An increase in the price of the good or service.
• A decrease in the income of consumers.
• An increase in the prices of other goods or services.
• A decrease in the quality of the good or service.
• A change in consumer preferences.

In the case of an increase in the price of a good or service, consumers will tend to demand less of that good or service. This is because they have less money to spend on other goods and services, and they may also be able to find substitutes for the good or service that have not increased in price.

The other options are not correct because they do not directly affect the demand for a good or service. A decrease in the number of consumers will decrease the demand for a good or service, but this is not the same as an increase in the price of the good or service. An increase in the prices of other goods or services may lead to a decrease in the demand for a good or service, but this is only if the good or service is a substitute for the other goods or services. A decrease in the income of purchasers will decrease the demand for all goods and services, but this is not the same as an increase in the price of a specific good or service.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. Increase in the price of the commodity concerned.

The correct answer is B. Rio de Janeiro in Brazil.

The 2016 Summer Olympics, officially known as the Games of the XXXI Olympiad, were an international multi-sport event held from 5 to 21 August 2016 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Rio de Janeiro was the first South American city to host the Summer Olympics. The Games were officially opened by Brazilian President Dilma Rousseff at the Maracanã Stadium on 5 August 2016, and closed by her successor, Michel Temer, on 21 August 2016.

A total of 206 nations competed in the Games, with a record 11,238 athletes participating. The United States topped the medal table with 46 gold medals, followed by Great Britain with 27 gold medals and China with 26 gold medals. Brazil finished in 13th place in the medal table, with seven gold medals.

The 2016 Summer Olympics were marred by a number of controversies, including the Zika virus outbreak, the construction of the Olympic Park on land that had been illegally deforested, and the cost overruns of the Games. However, the Games were also a success, with many spectators and athletes praising the city of Rio de Janeiro and the organization of the Games.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. Madrid in Spain did not host the 2016 Summer Olympics. Madrid was one of the three finalists to host the Games, but Rio de Janeiro was ultimately chosen.
• C. Los Angeles in USA hosted the 1932 and 1984 Summer Olympics, but not the 2016 Summer Olympics.
• D. Toronto in Canada hosted the 1976 Summer Olympics, but not the 2016 Summer Olympics.

The correct answer is (a) 41st Amendment.

The 42nd Amendment was passed in 1976, and it did not lower the voting age. It did, however, make a number of other changes to the Constitution, including increasing the President's term of office from five to six years and giving the President the power to declare an emergency.

The 61st Amendment was passed in 1988, and it did not lower the voting age either. It did, however, make a number of other changes to the Constitution, including increasing the number of seats in the Lok Sabha from 545 to 552.

The 97th Amendment was passed in 2011, and it did not lower the voting age either. It did, however, make a number of other changes to the Constitution, including increasing the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha from 250 to 252.

The 41st Amendment was passed in 1976, and it lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years. This was done in order to give more young people a say in the democratic process. The amendment also changed the minimum age for being a member of Parliament from 25 years to 21 years.

The 41st Amendment was a controversial amendment, and it was challenged in the Supreme Court. However, the Supreme Court upheld the amendment, and the voting age has been 18 years ever since.

The correct answer is (a).

The 44th Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1978, inserted Article 74(2A) which gives the President of India the power to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. This power was not originally present in the Constitution, but was added by the 44th Amendment in order to strengthen the President's position as a check on the power of the Council of Ministers.

The 42nd Amendment, enacted in 1976, was a controversial amendment that was passed during the Emergency. Among other things, it removed the President's power to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. This power was restored by the 44th Amendment.

The 43rd Amendment, enacted in 1977, was a relatively minor amendment that did not affect the President's power to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration.

The 35th Amendment, enacted in 1974, was another controversial amendment that was passed during the Emergency. Among other things, it gave the President the power to declare an emergency in the country. However, this power was not related to the President's power to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration.

The correct answer is: B) Gupta period.

Tamluk (Tamralipta) was an important port city during the Gupta period. It was a major center of trade and commerce, and was also a religious and cultural center. The city was founded in the 3rd century BCE, and reached its peak during the Gupta period (4th-6th centuries CE).

The Gupta period was a time of great prosperity and cultural achievement in India. The Guptas were a powerful dynasty that ruled over much of northern India. They were patrons of the arts and sciences, and their reign is often considered to be the golden age of Indian civilization.

Tamluk was an important port city during the Gupta period. It was located on the eastern coast of India, and was a major center of trade and commerce. The city was also a religious and cultural center. It was home to many temples and monasteries, and was a place of pilgrimage for Hindus and Buddhists.

The city of Tamluk declined in importance after the Gupta period. It was sacked by the Arabs in the 7th century CE, and was never able to regain its former glory. However, it remains an important archaeological site, and is a valuable source of information about the Gupta period.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The Mauryan period was from 322 to 185 BCE. Tamluk was not an important port city during this time.
* The Pala period was from 750 to 1174 CE. Tamluk was an important port city during this time, but it was not as important as it was during the Gupta period.
* The Mughal period was from 1526 to 1857 CE. Tamluk was not an important port city during this time.

The correct answer is (a) 206.

The human skeleton is made up of 206 bones. These bones are divided into two main groups: the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton includes the skull, the spine, the ribs, and the sternum. The appendicular skeleton includes the arms, the legs, the hands, and the feet.

The bones in the human body are constantly being remodeled. This process of remodeling is necessary to maintain the strength and health of the bones. The bones are also constantly being replaced. New bone is formed to replace old bone that has been lost due to injury or disease.

The bones in the human body are very important. They provide support for the body, protect the organs, and allow for movement. The bones are also involved in the production of blood cells and the storage of minerals.

Here is a brief description of each option:

(a) 206: This is the correct answer. The human skeleton is made up of 206 bones.
(b) 216: This is incorrect. The human skeleton is not made up of 216 bones.
(c) 226: This is incorrect. The human skeleton is not made up of 226 bones.
(d) 270: This is incorrect. The human skeleton is not made up of 270 bones.

The correct answer is: B. West Bengal

West Bengal is the leading state in producing paper in India. It accounts for about 25% of the country's paper production. The state has a number of paper mills, which are located in the districts of Hooghly, Howrah, and Birbhum. The paper mills use wood pulp, which is obtained from trees, to produce paper. The paper is used for a variety of purposes, including printing, packaging, and writing.

Bihar is the second-largest state in India in terms of population, but it is not a major producer of paper. The state has a few paper mills, but they do not produce a significant amount of paper.

Kerala is a state in southern India that is known for its beautiful beaches and backwaters. It is not a major producer of paper.

Orissa is a state in eastern India that is known for its mineral resources. It is not a major producer of paper.

The correct answer is C. Adjourn.

To adjourn is to suspend a meeting or other proceeding until a later time. It is often used in the context of a legislative body, such as a parliament or congress, which may adjourn a session to reconvene at a later date.

The other options are incorrect.

• To convene is to assemble or call together a meeting or other proceeding.
• To terminate is to bring to an end.
• To procrastinate is to delay or postpone action.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (d), Gulf of Mannar.

The Gulf of Mannar is a marine national park located in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is the first marine national park in India and was established in 1986. The park covers an area of 10,000 square kilometers and is home to a variety of marine life, including coral reefs, sea turtles, dolphins, and dugongs.

The Gulf of Mannar is also an important fishing ground and is home to a number of traditional fishing communities. The park is managed by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department and is open to the public for tourism.

The other options are incorrect because they are not marine national parks.

(a) Bhitar-Kanika is a wildlife sanctuary located in the Indian state of Odisha.
(b) Sundarban is a mangrove forest located in the Indian state of West Bengal and the Bangladesh Sundarbans.
(c) Gahirmatha is a national park located in the Indian state of Odisha. It is home to the world's largest population of Olive Ridley sea turtles.

Pt. Bhimsen Joshi was a Hindustani classical vocalist. He was one of the most prominent vocalists of the Kirana Gharana, and is considered to be one of the greatest vocalists of all time. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1991.

The correct answer is C. Classical music.

Option A, Literature, is incorrect because Pt. Bhimsen Joshi was not associated with literature. He was a musician, not a writer.

Option B, Social services, is incorrect because Pt. Bhimsen Joshi was not associated with social services. He was a musician, not a social worker.

Option D, Politics, is incorrect because Pt. Bhimsen Joshi was not associated with politics. He was a musician, not a politician.

Sisir Manch of Calcutta is named after legendary actor and director, Sisir Bhaduri.

The correct answer is (b), Prime Minister.

The National Development Council (NDC) is a high-level planning body in India. It was set up in 1952 by the Planning Commission to advise the government on planning matters. The NDC is chaired by the Prime Minister and its members include the Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of States, and representatives of the Planning Commission, the Reserve Bank of India, and other important national institutions.

The NDC meets at least once a year to review the progress of the Five Year Plans and to discuss the economic situation of the country. It also makes recommendations to the government on matters relating to planning and development.

The NDC is an important body in the Indian planning process. It provides a forum for the government and the states to discuss and coordinate their planning efforts. It also helps to ensure that the plans are implemented effectively.

The other options are incorrect. The President is the head of state of India and does not have a role in the planning process. The Finance Minister is responsible for the country's finances, but does not have a direct role in the planning process. None of the above is the correct answer because the Prime Minister is the Chairman of the National Development Council.

The correct answer is (a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate, also known as baking soda.

Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a white, water-soluble solid that is used in a variety of applications, including fire extinguishers. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is mixed with water, it produces carbon dioxide gas. This gas helps to smother the fire by displacing the oxygen that the fire needs to burn.

Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also a relatively safe substance to use. It is not flammable and does not produce toxic fumes when it is heated. This makes it a good choice for use in fire extinguishers that are used in areas where there are people or animals present.

The other options are incorrect because they are not used in fire extinguishers. Sodium hydrogen sulphate is a white, water-soluble solid that is used in a variety of applications, including as a desiccant and as a mordant in dyeing. Sodium carbonate is a white, water-soluble solid that is used in a variety of applications, including as a cleaning agent and as a water softener. Sodium sulphate is a white, water-soluble solid that is used in a variety of applications, including as a fertilizer and as a desiccant.

The correct answer is: A. Article-14

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality to all persons within the territory of India. It prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Article 14 is one of the most important fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution. It is based on the principle of equality before the law. The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 14 to mean that all persons are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the laws. This means that the State cannot discriminate against any person on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Article 14 has been used to strike down a number of laws that discriminated against certain groups of people. For example, the Supreme Court struck down a law that discriminated against women in the matter of inheritance. The Court held that the law violated the Right to Equality guaranteed by Article 14.

Article 14 is a powerful tool that can be used to protect the rights of all persons. It is a fundamental right that should be cherished and protected.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Article-14 guarantees the Right to Equality to all persons within the territory of India. It prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
• Option B: Article-19 guarantees the six freedoms, namely freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of movement, freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, and freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Option C: Article-20 guarantees protection in respect of conviction for offences. It provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
• Option D: Article-21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

The correct answer is D. disinfectant.

Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is a strong oxidizing agent that can be used to disinfect surfaces and water. It is also used in some industrial processes, such as the production of paper and textiles.

Insecticides are chemicals that are used to kill insects. They can be used to control pests in agriculture, homes, and businesses.

Fertilizers are substances that are added to soil to improve plant growth. They can be organic or inorganic, and they provide plants with essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

Pesticides are chemicals that are used to kill pests, which can include insects, rodents, weeds, and fungi. They can be used in agriculture, homes, and businesses.

Potassium permanganate is not an insecticide, fertilizer, or pesticide. It is a disinfectant.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The Wilsons are a specific couple, so we do not need to use an article. If we were talking about a general couple, we would use the indefinite article "a" or "an." For example, "Do you know a couple named Wilson?" or "Do you know an old couple named Wilson?"

The definite article "the" is used to refer to a specific person or thing that has already been mentioned. For example, "I know the Wilsons. They're a very nice couple."

In this case, the Wilsons are being introduced for the first time, so we do not need to use an article.

The correct answer is: B. had lost

The sentence "If Bianca hadn't argued, Raghubhai had lost the case" is in the past perfect conditional tense. This tense is used to talk about a hypothetical situation that did not happen in the past. The past perfect conditional is formed with the past perfect of the verb "to have" and the past participle of the main verb. In this case, the past perfect of "to have" is "had" and the past participle of "to lose" is "lost".

The sentence can be paraphrased as follows: "If Bianca had not argued, Raghubhai would have lost the case." This means that Raghubhai would have lost the case if Bianca had not argued. However, Bianca did argue, so Raghubhai did not lose the case.

The other options are incorrect because they do not agree with the tense of the sentence. Option A, "lost", is in the simple past tense. This tense is used to talk about events that happened in the past. Option C, "would lose", is in the simple future tense. This tense is used to talk about events that will happen in the future. Option D, "would have lost", is in the past perfect conditional tense. This tense is used to talk about hypothetical situations that did not happen in the past.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "If Bianca hadn't argued, Raghubhai . . . . . . the case" is: B. had lost

The correct answer is: A. 23rd

Serena Williams defeated her sister Venus Williams in the 2017 Australian Open final to win her 23rd Grand Slam singles title. This was her seventh Australian Open title, and her first since 2015.

Venus Williams was the defending champion, but she was unable to defend her title due to a back injury. Serena Williams was the top seed in the tournament, and she cruised through the early rounds. She defeated her sister in the quarterfinals, and then defeated Angelique Kerber in the final.

This was Serena Williams' 23rd Grand Slam singles title, which is the most in the history of women's tennis. She is also the only player in history to have won at least seven titles in each of the four Grand Slam tournaments.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 23rd. This is the correct answer. Serena Williams won her 23rd Grand Slam singles title at the 2017 Australian Open.
• Option B: 18th. This is the number of Grand Slam singles titles that Serena Williams had won before the 2017 Australian Open.
• Option C: 26th. This is the number of Grand Slam singles titles that Margaret Court has won. She is the all-time leader in Grand Slam singles titles.
• Option D: 20th. This is the number of Grand Slam singles titles that Steffi Graf has won. She is the second all-time leader in Grand Slam singles titles.

The correct answer is (c) six months.

Article 249 of the Constitution of India deals with the power of Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by both Houses of Parliament. The resolution passed under clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for a period not exceeding six months, unless before the expiry of that period, it is approved by resolutions passed by the Houses of the Legislature of the State concerned.

The other options are incorrect because they are not mentioned in Article 249.

The correct answer is: Oligopoly.

An oligopoly is a market structure in which a small number of large firms have a high degree of market power. This means that they can influence the prices of their products and services. In the case of manufacturing of T.V. sets and refrigerators and their pricing in India, there are a few large firms that dominate the market. These firms are able to set prices that are higher than they would be in a perfectly competitive market. This is because they have a large share of the market and consumers have few other options to choose from.

Monopolistic competition is a market structure in which there are a large number of firms that sell similar but not identical products. Firms in a monopolistically competitive market have some market power, but it is not as great as it is in an oligopoly. This is because consumers have more choices in a monopolistically competitive market.

Perfect competition is a market structure in which there are a large number of firms that sell identical products. Firms in a perfectly competitive market have no market power. This is because consumers have a large number of choices and firms cannot charge a price that is higher than the equilibrium price.

A monopoly is a market structure in which there is only one firm that sells a good or service. The firm has a great deal of market power and can charge a price that is much higher than the equilibrium price.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: Oligopoly.

The correct answer is: D. K. V. Anoop.

K. V. Anoop is an Indian journalist and the current editor of the Economic and Political Weekly. He was appointed as the editor in January 2018.

Anoop is a graduate of the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and the Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad. He has worked as a journalist for several years, including at The Hindu, The Indian Express, and The Financial Express. He has also written several books on Indian politics and economics.

Anoop is a respected journalist and editor. He is known for his in-depth reporting and analysis of Indian politics and economics. He is also known for his independence and his willingness to challenge the establishment.

Anoop's appointment as the editor of the Economic and Political Weekly was seen as a positive development by many in the Indian media. He is seen as a person who will uphold the high standards of journalism that the Economic and Political Weekly is known for.

Arun Shourie is an Indian politician, author, and journalist. He was the Minister of Finance in the Government of India from 1998 to 2002. He is a former editor of the Indian Express and the Pioneer.

Khalid A. H. Ansari is an Indian journalist and the former editor of the Indian Express. He is a graduate of the Aligarh Muslim University and the University of Chicago. He has worked as a journalist for several years, including at The Hindu, The Indian Express, and The Times of India. He has also written several books on Indian politics and economics.

Gopal Guru is an Indian political scientist and the former director of the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies. He is a graduate of the University of Delhi and the Jawaharlal Nehru University. He has worked as a political scientist for several years, and has written several books on Indian politics and society.

K. V. Anoop is the correct answer to the question "In January 2018, who was appointed as the Editor of the Economic and Political Weekly?"

The correct answer is: 1 amu is equivalent to 931 MeV.

1 amu is the atomic mass unit, which is a unit of mass used to measure the mass of atoms and subatomic particles. It is defined as one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.

1 eV is the electronvolt, which is a unit of energy equal to the energy gained by an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of one volt.

1 keV is the kiloelectronvolt, which is a unit of energy equal to one thousand electronvolts.

1 MeV is the megaelectronvolt, which is a unit of energy equal to one million electronvolts.

The energy equivalent of mass is given by Einstein's famous equation $E = mc^2$, where $E$ is energy, $m$ is mass, and $c$ is the speed of light. Plugging in the value of $c$, we get $E = 931 times 10^6 text{ eV} cdot text{amu}^{-1}$. Therefore, 1 amu is equivalent to 931 MeV.

The odd one out is A, cot. Cot is a small bed, while the others are all items that are used on a bed.

A cot is a small bed, typically for a child or a guest. It is usually made of metal or wood, and has a simple frame with a mattress and sheets. Cots are often used in dormitories, hospitals, and other places where people need to sleep in a temporary or shared space.

A sheet is a piece of fabric that is used to cover a bed. It is usually made of cotton or linen, and is often white or another light color. Sheets are typically fitted to the mattress, and they can be either flat or fitted. Flat sheets are the most common type, and they are simply placed over the mattress. Fitted sheets have elastic bands around the edges, which help them to stay in place on the mattress.

A quilt is a bed covering that is made of two layers of fabric that are sewn together with a layer of batting in between. Quilts are often decorated with patterns, and they can be made from a variety of materials, including cotton, wool, and silk. Quilts are typically used in the winter to keep people warm, but they can also be used year-round.

A pillow is a soft cushion that is used to support the head and neck when sleeping. Pillows are typically made of feathers, down, or foam, and they can be filled with a variety of materials, including cotton, wool, and silk. Pillows are often used in conjunction with a mattress and sheets to create a comfortable sleeping environment.

A blanket is a piece of fabric that is used to cover the body for warmth. Blankets are typically made of wool, cotton, or flannel, and they can be either solid or patterned. Blankets are often used in the winter to keep people warm, but they can also be used year-round.

Bartaman Bharat was written by Swami Vivekananda.

Champ, Sissoo, Simul, Teak, Sal, Mango, Jackfruit, Coconut, Betelnut, Mahua etc., are the major species of trees found in Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests.

The correct answer is: B. Concave

A concave mirror is a curved mirror that bulges inward at the center. The reflecting surface is on the inside of the curve. Concave mirrors can be used to create real and virtual images, and they can also be used to magnify or reduce objects.

A convex mirror is a curved mirror that bulges outward at the center. The reflecting surface is on the outside of the curve. Convex mirrors always produce virtual images that are upright and reduced in size.

A plane mirror is a flat mirror. Plane mirrors always produce virtual images that are upright and the same size as the object.

A parabolic mirror is a curved mirror that has the shape of a parabola. Parabolic mirrors are used in many different applications, including telescopes, headlights, and radar dishes.

In the case of a shaving mirror, a concave mirror is used because it produces an enlarged image of the face. This allows the user to see more detail when shaving.

The correct answer is (a) Nepal. Nepal is called "Land of Thunderbolt" because it is home to Mount Everest, the highest mountain in the world. The name "Nepal" comes from the Sanskrit words "nep" meaning "snow" and "ala" meaning "home".

(b) Sri Lanka is called "The Emerald Isle of the East" because of its lush green vegetation. The name "Sri Lanka" comes from the Sanskrit words "sri" meaning "beautiful" and "lanka" meaning "island".

(c) Bangladesh is called "The Land of the Golden Pagoda" because of its many Buddhist temples. The name "Bangladesh" comes from the Bengali words "bangla" meaning "Bengal" and "desh" meaning "country".

(d) Bhutan is called "The Land of the Thunder Dragon" because of its national animal, the thunder dragon. The name "Bhutan" comes from the Tibetan words "bhutan" meaning "high land" and "po" meaning "people".

The correct answer is: 15.

The Finance Commission is a statutory body constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to review the financial relations between the Union and the States and to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of revenues between the Union and the States;
• The grants-in-aid to the States;
• The principles governing grants-in-aid to local bodies;
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
• Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 and the fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in 2020. The terms of reference of the Finance Commission are determined by the President of India. The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who places it before both Houses of Parliament. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government, but they are usually accepted.

The Finance Commission plays an important role in the financial relations between the Union and the States. It helps to ensure that the States have adequate resources to meet their expenditure needs. The Finance Commission also helps to promote fiscal discipline among the States.

The correct answer is (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an Indian nationalist, social reformer, and freedom fighter who is considered one of the "fathers of Indian nationalism". He was the first leader of the Indian independence movement to popularize the use of the Marathi language and Hindu symbols in the struggle for independence. He is also credited with starting the Ganapati festival in Maharashtra in 1893.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a social reformer and politician who is considered one of the "makers of modern India". He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. He is best known for his work in education and social reform.

Aurobindo Ghosh was a Bengali polymath who was a nationalist, revolutionary, philosopher, yogi, and spiritual teacher. He is considered one of the most important figures in modern Indian history. He is best known for his work in philosophy and spirituality.

Bipin Chandra Pal was a Bengali nationalist, revolutionary, and freedom fighter who is considered one of the "fathers of Indian nationalism". He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He is best known for his work in journalism and political agitation.

The Ganapati festival is a ten-day Hindu festival that is celebrated in Maharashtra and other parts of India. The festival is dedicated to the Hindu god Ganesha, who is the god of wisdom, prosperity, and success. The festival is celebrated with great pomp and show, with people setting up pandals (temporary structures) to house the idols of Ganesha, performing pujas (prayers), and exchanging gifts.

The correct answer is: A) Irrigation and Flood control.

The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) is a statutory corporation set up by the Government of India in 1948 to develop the Damodar river basin in the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. The DVC has played a major role in irrigation and flood control in the Damodar basin. It has constructed a number of dams and reservoirs, which have helped to control floods and provide irrigation water for agriculture. The DVC also generates electricity, which is used to meet the power needs of the region.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the DVC does not play a major role in textile production, tourism development, or wildlife conservation.

The correct answer is: A. buy securities from non-government holders.

Open market operations are a monetary policy tool used by central banks to buy or sell government securities in the open market. When a central bank buys securities, it injects money into the economy. When a central bank sells securities, it withdraws money from the economy.

An expansionist open market operations policy is a policy that aims to increase the money supply in the economy. This can be done by buying securities from non-government holders. When the central bank buys securities, it pays for them with newly created money. This increases the amount of money in circulation and can lead to lower interest rates and higher economic growth.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe an expansionist open market operations policy. Option B, sell securities in the open market, is a contractionary open market operations policy. Option C, offer commercial banks more credit in the open market, is a monetary policy tool that can be used to implement either an expansionist or contractionary open market operations policy. Option D, openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit, is not a monetary policy tool.

The correct answer is (c). The 26th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) was held in Glasgow, Scotland from 31 October to 12 November 2021. The conference was attended by over 200 countries and aimed to achieve a global agreement on climate change.

The other options are incorrect. New York is the most populous city in the United States and the capital of the state of New York. Tokyo is the capital of Japan and the most populous metropolitan area in the world. Beijing is the capital of China and the second most populous city in the world.

Large part of the Barley produce of West Bengal goes for manufacturing beer and other alcoholic products. It is also commonly used in baby food products.

The correct answer is: A. Amplifiers

Positive feedback is a type of feedback in which the output of a system is fed back into the input in such a way that it increases the amplitude of the output signal. This can be used to amplify signals, or to create oscillations.

Amplifiers are devices that increase the amplitude of a signal. They are used in a variety of applications, such as audio amplifiers, radio amplifiers, and power amplifiers. Positive feedback is used in amplifiers to increase the gain of the amplifier. This means that the output signal is larger than the input signal.

Rectifiers are devices that convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). They are used in a variety of applications, such as power supplies, battery chargers, and solar inverters. Positive feedback is not used in rectifiers.

Oscillators are devices that generate a periodic signal. They are used in a variety of applications, such as clocks, timers, and synthesizers. Positive feedback is used in oscillators to create a sustained oscillation.

In conclusion, positive feedback is used in amplifiers to increase the gain of the amplifier. It is not used in rectifiers or oscillators.

The correct answer is: A. Chlorenchymatous cells.

Chlorenchymatous cells are plant cells that contain chloroplasts, which are the organelles that carry out photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, which is a green pigment that absorbs sunlight and uses it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.

Sclerenchymatous cells are plant cells that provide support and strength. They are dead at maturity and have thick, lignified cell walls.

Parenchymatous cells are plant cells that are involved in a variety of functions, including photosynthesis, storage, and secretion. They are living cells with thin cell walls.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Chlorenchymatous cells.

The correct answer is (d). Potato.

Clonal selection is a technique used to produce a population of genetically identical cells or organisms. It is often used in agriculture to produce crops that are resistant to pests or diseases.

Potatoes are a good candidate for clonal selection because they are relatively easy to grow and they can be propagated vegetatively, meaning that new plants can be grown from cuttings of existing plants. This makes it possible to produce a large number of genetically identical potatoes in a short period of time.

Clonal selection can be used to produce potatoes that are resistant to a variety of pests and diseases. For example, potatoes that are resistant to the potato virus Y can be produced by selecting individual plants that are resistant to the virus and then propagating them vegetatively.

Clonal selection can also be used to produce potatoes with desirable traits, such as improved flavor or nutritional value. For example, potatoes that are high in antioxidants can be produced by selecting individual plants that are high in antioxidants and then propagating them vegetatively.

Clonal selection is a powerful tool that can be used to improve the quality and yield of potato crops. It is a safe and effective method that does not require the use of chemicals or genetic engineering.

The correct answer is D. price effect into substitution and income effect.

Slutsky's theorem is a microeconomic theorem that decomposes the change in demand for a good into two effects: a substitution effect and an income effect. The substitution effect is the change in demand for a good that results from a change in its relative price, holding real income constant. The income effect is the change in demand for a good that results from a change in real income, holding relative prices constant.

Option A is incorrect because Slutsky's theorem does not decompose goods into high and low elasticity of demand. The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive demand is to changes in price. Goods with high elasticity of demand are those that are very responsive to changes in price, while goods with low elasticity of demand are those that are not very responsive to changes in price.

Option B is incorrect because Slutsky's theorem does not decompose goods into necessaries and luxuries. Necessities are goods that are essential for survival, while luxuries are goods that are not essential for survival.

Option C is incorrect because Slutsky's theorem does not decompose goods into high price and low price. The price of a good is the amount of money that a buyer must pay to obtain one unit of the good.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (b) Varanasi.

The Indian Institute of Heritage is a proposed institute to be established in Varanasi, India. The institute will focus on the study and preservation of Indian heritage. It will offer courses in archaeology, art history, conservation, and museology. The institute will also have a museum and a library.

The government has decided to establish the institute in Varanasi because it is a city with a rich history and culture. Varanasi is also a major center for Hindu pilgrimage. The institute will be a valuable resource for students, scholars, and tourists interested in Indian heritage.

The other options are incorrect because they are not cities with a rich history and culture. Noida is a city in Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a major industrial and technology hub. Haridwar is a city in Uttarakhand, India. It is a major Hindu pilgrimage site. Rameshwaram is a city in Tamil Nadu, India. It is a major Hindu pilgrimage site.

The correct answer is: C) Maharaja Jitendra Narayan.

Maharaja Jitendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur was the last ruler of the princely state of Cooch Behar. He was born on 26 February 1918 and died on 29 December 1982. He was the son of Maharaja Nripendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur and Maharani Indira Devi. He succeeded his father as the Maharaja of Cooch Behar on 27 November 1939. He ruled the state until it was merged with the Indian Union on 15 August 1947. After the merger, he became a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament. He was also a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which drafted the Constitution of India.

Maharaja Jitendra Narayan was a popular and respected figure in Cooch Behar. He was known for his love of music and literature. He was also a keen sportsman and was a member of the Indian Olympic team in 1936. He was married to Maharani Indira Devi, who was the daughter of the Maharaja of Patiala. They had three children: a son, Maharaja Birendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur, and two daughters, Princess Ayesha Kumari and Princess Harsha Kumari.

Maharaja Jitendra Narayan was a great statesman and a visionary leader. He played a key role in the merger of Cooch Behar with the Indian Union. He was also a strong advocate for the rights of the people of Cooch Behar. He was a true patriot and a great son of India.

The other options are incorrect.

A) Maharaja Nripendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur was the father of Maharaja Jitendra Narayan. He was the Maharaja of Cooch Behar from 1874 to 1939.

B) Maharaja Jagaddipendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur was the grandfather of Maharaja Jitendra Narayan. He was the Maharaja of Cooch Behar from 1863 to 1874.

D) Maharaja Virajendra Narayan Bhup Bahadur was the great-grandfather of Maharaja Jitendra Narayan. He was the Maharaja of Cooch Behar from 1839 to 1863.

The most superior industrial coal of West Bengal is of Bituminous variety. High grade bituminous coal is mined at Bardhaman (Raniganj, Dishergarh, Kulti, Jamuria, Ramnagar), Bankura (Barjora, Mezia) and Purulia (Nituria).

The correct answer is C. Juicy.

A synonym is a word that has the same or nearly the same meaning as another word. In this case, the word "succulent" means "having a lot of juice or moisture." The other options do not have the same meaning as "succulent."

• Fluid: A fluid is a substance that can flow and take the shape of its container.
• Sucking: Sucking is the act of drawing something into the mouth by creating a partial vacuum.
• Sweet: Sweet is a taste that is often associated with sugar or honey.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: A) Undulating topography

Purulia district is located in the western part of West Bengal, India. It is known for its undulating topography, with hills and valleys. The district is also home to a number of forests, including the Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary.

Option B is incorrect because Purulia district does not have dense forest cover. The district is home to a number of forests, but these forests are not as dense as those found in other parts of India.

Option C is incorrect because Purulia district is not located on the coast. The district is located in the western part of West Bengal, which is not a coastal state.

Option D is incorrect because Purulia district is not known for its tea plantations. The district does have a number of tea gardens, but these gardens are not as well-known as those found in other parts of India, such as Darjeeling and Assam.

The correct answer is: The firm will face an accounting loss but earn economic profits.

Economic profits are the difference between total revenue and total economic costs, while accounting profits are the difference between total revenue and total accounting costs. Economic costs include both explicit costs (such as wages and materials) and implicit costs (such as the opportunity cost of capital).

If a firm sells its product at a price lower than the opportunity cost of the inputs used to produce it, then it will face an accounting loss. This is because accounting profits do not take into account implicit costs. However, the firm may still earn economic profits if total revenue is greater than total economic costs. This is because economic profits take into account both explicit and implicit costs.

For example, suppose a firm sells its product for $100, and its total explicit costs are $80. The firm's accounting profits would be $20. However, if the opportunity cost of the firm's capital is $15, then the firm's economic profits would be $5.

In conclusion, a firm that sells its product at a price lower than the opportunity cost of the inputs used to produce it will face an accounting loss but may earn economic profits.

The correct answer is (c) 11 members from Lok Sabha and 11 from Rajya Sabha.

The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) is a standing committee of the Parliament of India. It was constituted in 1964 to oversee the functioning of public undertakings in India. The COPU consists of 22 members, 11 from the Lok Sabha and 11 from the Rajya Sabha. The members are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The COPU is headed by a chairman who is elected by the members of the committee. The chairman is usually a member of the opposition party.

The COPU has the following functions:

• To examine the reports and accounts of public undertakings;
• To examine the working of public undertakings;
• To make recommendations to the government on the improvement of the working of public undertakings;
• To call for reports from the government on any matter relating to public undertakings;
• To conduct inquiries into any matter relating to public undertakings;
• To publish its reports and recommendations.

The COPU is a powerful committee and its recommendations are usually taken seriously by the government. The COPU has played a significant role in improving the functioning of public undertakings in India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct number of members from each house of Parliament.

The correct answer is (a) Ten.

The following languages enjoy the ‘classical’ status in India:

• Sanskrit
• Tamil
• Telugu
• Kannada
• Malayalam
• Odia
• Bengali
• Assamese
• Marathi
• Gujarati
• Punjabi

The status of a classical language in India is conferred by the Central Government. The criteria for conferring this status are:

• The language must have a long literary history.
• The language must have a rich and varied literature.
• The language must have a significant impact on the culture and history of India.
• The language must be spoken by a large number of people.

The languages listed above have all been conferred the status of classical languages by the Central Government.

The correct answer is: B. Australia

In the 2002 World Cup Hockey Finals, Germany beat Australia 2-1. The match was played on 15 May 2002 at the International Hockey Stadium in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Germany took the lead in the first half through a penalty corner goal by Florian Fuchs. Australia equalized in the second half through a field goal by Jamie Dwyer. Germany scored the winning goal in the last minute of the match through a penalty stroke by Andreas Keller.

Option A: India was knocked out in the quarter-finals by Australia.

Option B: Australia lost to Germany in the final.

Option C: Pakistan was knocked out in the group stage.

Option D: Spain was not part of the 2002 World Cup Hockey Finals.

The correct answer is $boxed{1}$.

The limit $lim_{xto 0}frac{sin^2(x)}{x}$ can be evaluated using the following steps:

1. Substitute $x=0$ into the expression $frac{sin^2(x)}{x}$. This results in the indeterminate form $frac{0}{0}$.
2. Use L'Hôpital's rule, which states that if $lim_{xto a}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ is equal to the indeterminate form $frac{0}{0}$ or $frac{infty}{infty}$, then $lim_{xto a}frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}$ exists and is equal to the limit $lim_{xto a}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$.
3. Applying L'Hôpital's rule to the limit $lim_{xto 0}frac{sin^2(x)}{x}$, we get $lim_{xto 0}frac{2sin(x)cos(x)}{1}$.
4. Simplifying the expression $lim_{xto 0}frac{2sin(x)cos(x)}{1}$, we get $lim_{xto 0}sin(2x)$.
5. Using the substitution $u=2x$, we get $lim_{xto 0}sin(2x)=lim_{uto 0}sin(u)$.
6. The value of $lim_{uto 0}sin(u)$ is equal to $1$.
7. Therefore, the value of $lim_{xto 0}frac{sin^2(x)}{x}$ is also equal to $1$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the value of the limit $lim_{xto 0}frac{sin^2(x)}{x}$.

The correct answer is (c), Gall midge.

Tungo virus is a plant virus that infects rice. It is transmitted by the gall midge, a small insect that feeds on rice plants. The virus causes the rice plants to produce galls, which are abnormal growths on the plant. The galls can damage the plant and reduce its yield.

Stem borer is a moth that attacks rice plants. It bores into the stems of the plants, which can kill the plants or reduce their yield. Gundhi bug is a small insect that sucks the sap from rice plants. It can damage the plants and reduce their yield. Green leaf hopper is a small insect that sucks the sap from rice plants. It can damage the plants and reduce their yield.

The gall midge is the only insect that is known to transmit Tungo virus. The virus is not transmitted by contact with infected plants or by seed.

The correct answer is A. Consumption.

Consumption is the largest component of GDP, accounting for about 60% of total output. When gross investment becomes zero, consumption will still continue, which will prevent national income from becoming zero.

The multiplier is a measure of the effect of a change in investment on national income. The accelerator is a measure of the effect of a change in national income on investment. Both the multiplier and the accelerator are important concepts in macroeconomics, but they do not prevent national income from becoming zero when gross investment becomes zero.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. Consumption.

The correct answer is A. Samuel asked Remiel where he usually went swimming.

In this sentence, Samuel is asking Remiel a question. The question is "Where do you usually go swimming?" This means that Samuel is asking Remiel to tell him where he usually goes swimming.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the sentence. Option B is incorrect because it says that Samuel said to Remiel where he usually goes swimming. However, in the sentence, Samuel is asking Remiel a question, not telling him something. Option C is incorrect because it says that Samuel asked if Remiel usually went swimming. However, in the sentence, Samuel is asking Remiel where he usually goes swimming, not if he usually goes swimming. Option D is incorrect because it says that Samuel told Remiel where he usually had been going swimming. However, in the sentence, Samuel is asking Remiel a question, not telling him something.

Kala Bhavan was established in 1919 by Rabindranath Tagore. Its collection has grown through the gifts made by Rabindranath Tagore, Rathindranath Tagore, Abanindranath Tagore, Nandlal Bose and Pratima Devi.

The correct answer is: B. Prof. A. Marshall.

The law of diminishing marginal utility is a fundamental concept in economics that states that as a consumer acquires more of a good, the additional satisfaction (or utility) that they receive from each additional unit of the good decreases.

The law of diminishing marginal utility was first proposed by Alfred Marshall in his 1890 book, Principles of Economics. Marshall argued that the law of diminishing marginal utility was a fundamental principle of human nature, and that it could be used to explain a wide range of economic phenomena.

The law of diminishing marginal utility has a number of important implications for economic theory. For example, it can be used to explain why consumers are willing to pay more for the first unit of a good than they are for subsequent units. It can also be used to explain why firms produce a variety of goods, rather than just one good.

The law of diminishing marginal utility is a powerful tool for understanding economic behavior. It is a fundamental concept that is used in a wide range of economic models.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A is incorrect because Paul Samuelson was a Nobel Prize-winning economist who lived from 1915 to 2009. He is best known for his work on general equilibrium theory and welfare economics. However, he did not propose the law of diminishing marginal utility.
• Option C is incorrect because John Hicks was a Nobel Prize-winning economist who lived from 1904 to 1989. He is best known for his work on welfare economics and the theory of value. However, he did not propose the law of diminishing marginal utility.
• Option D is incorrect because Mrs. John Robinson was a fictional character in the novel "The Economics of Imperfect Competition" by Joan Robinson. She is not a real person, and she did not propose the law of diminishing marginal utility.

The correct answer is (a). Rural housing is not a component of the Bharat Nirman scheme. The Bharat Nirman scheme is a national rural development program launched by the Government of India in 2005. The scheme aims to improve the quality of life in rural areas by providing basic infrastructure and services such as rural roads, rural housing, rural electrification, rural drinking water, rural sanitation, and rural irrigation.

(a) Rural housing is not a component of the Bharat Nirman scheme. However, the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a government of India scheme launched in 2015 to provide housing for the poor. The scheme aims to construct 20 million houses by 2022.

(b) Rural sanitation is a component of the Bharat Nirman scheme. The scheme aims to provide toilets to all rural households by 2022.

(c) Drinking water is a component of the Bharat Nirman scheme. The scheme aims to provide safe drinking water to all rural households by 2022.

(d) Rural roads is a component of the Bharat Nirman scheme. The scheme aims to construct 100,000 km of rural roads by 2022.

The correct answer is A. My mother wished me a happy and prosperous life.

The sentence "My mother said to me, 'Wish you a happy and prosperous life!'" is an example of a direct quote. In a direct quote, the speaker's exact words are reproduced, enclosed in quotation marks. In this case, the speaker is the mother, and the words she is saying are "Wish you a happy and prosperous life!"

The verb "wish" can be used in a number of ways. In this case, it is being used to express a hope or desire for someone's well-being. The mother is wishing her child a happy and prosperous life.

The phrase "a happy and prosperous life" is a noun phrase that describes the kind of life that the mother is wishing for her child. A happy life is one that is full of joy and contentment. A prosperous life is one that is successful and financially secure.

The sentence "My mother said to me, 'Wish you a happy and prosperous life!'" can be paraphrased as "My mother wished me a happy and prosperous life."

The second highest civilian award Padma Vibhushan was given in 1954 in West Bengal to Satyendranath Bose in Science filed and Nandalal Bose in Arts field.

The correct answer is (d) Devprayag.

Devprayag is a town in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers, which form the Ganges River. The town is a popular tourist destination, and is known for its temples and shrines.

The confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is considered to be a sacred site in Hinduism. The rivers are said to represent the goddesses Lakshmi and Saraswati, respectively. The confluence is also said to be the site where the god Vishnu appeared to the sage Agastya.

The town of Devprayag is home to a number of temples and shrines. The most famous of these is the Vishnuprayag Temple, which is dedicated to the god Vishnu. The temple is said to have been built by the Pandavas, the heroes of the Mahabharata.

Devprayag is also a popular destination for pilgrims. The town is located on the Char Dham Yatra, a pilgrimage route that includes four Hindu temples in the Garhwal Himalayas. The other three temples on the Char Dham Yatra are Kedarnath, Badrinath, and Gangotri.

The confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is a beautiful and sacred site. The town of Devprayag is a popular tourist destination and a pilgrimage site for Hindus.

The correct answer is: D. no article

The word "scheme" is a general noun, not a specific noun. It does not refer to a particular scheme, but rather to schemes in general. Therefore, it does not require an article.

The other options are incorrect because they are all articles. An article is a word that is used to introduce a noun or noun phrase. The three articles in English are "a", "an", and "the".

"A" and "an" are indefinite articles. They are used to introduce a noun or noun phrase that is not specific. For example, "I saw a dog" or "I bought an apple".

"The" is a definite article. It is used to introduce a noun or noun phrase that is specific. For example, "I saw the dog that ate my homework" or "I bought the apple that was on sale".

In the sentence "The scheme failed for want of sufficient funds", the word "scheme" is a general noun, not a specific noun. It does not refer to a particular scheme, but rather to schemes in general. Therefore, it does not require an article.

The correct answer is (b), Intangible Asset.

Goodwill is an intangible asset that arises from factors such as the reputation of a business, the relationships between the business and its customers and suppliers, and the business's competitive advantages. It is not a physical asset, but it can have a significant value.

Fictitious assets are assets that do not have a physical existence, but are recorded on the balance sheet because they have economic value. Examples of fictitious assets include goodwill, patents, and trademarks.

Floating assets are assets that are constantly changing in value, such as inventory and accounts receivable.

Wasting assets are assets that lose their value over time, such as natural resources and machinery.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is (a) Anthracite.

Anthracite is the purest form of coal. It is a hard, black coal with a high carbon content. It is the most expensive type of coal to mine and transport, but it is also the most efficient to burn. Anthracite is used in power plants to generate electricity and in industrial processes to produce heat.

Bituminous coal is a soft, black coal with a high carbon content. It is less expensive to mine and transport than anthracite, but it is not as efficient to burn. Bituminous coal is used in power plants to generate electricity, in industrial processes to produce heat, and in the production of steel.

Lignite is a brown coal with a low carbon content. It is the least expensive type of coal to mine and transport, but it is also the least efficient to burn. Lignite is used in power plants to generate electricity and in industrial processes to produce heat.

Peat is a soft, brown material that is formed from the remains of plants that have been buried and subjected to heat and pressure over time. It is not a true coal, but it is sometimes referred to as "brown coal." Peat is used as a fuel in some parts of the world, but it is not a major source of energy.

The correct answer is: B. in

The preposition "in" is used to indicate a location inside a place or object. In this case, the children are inside the school building.

The other prepositions are not correct in this context.

• The preposition "at" is used to indicate a location at a specific point or place. In this case, the children are not at a specific point in the school building.
• The preposition "of" is used to indicate possession or association. In this case, the children are not associated with the school building.
• The preposition "on" is used to indicate a location on a surface or area. In this case, the children are not on the surface of the school building.

The correct answer is A. Norethindrone.

Norethindrone is a progestin, a type of hormone that helps to regulate the menstrual cycle. It is also used as a "morning after pill" to prevent pregnancy after unprotected sex. Norethindrone works by preventing ovulation, the release of an egg from the ovary. It can also thicken the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to reach the egg.

Ethinylestradiol is an estrogen, a type of hormone that helps to regulate the menstrual cycle. It is also used in combination with progestins to prevent pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol works by preventing ovulation and thickening the cervical mucus.

Mifepristone is a medication that is used to end a pregnancy. It is also known as RU-486. Mifepristone works by blocking the effects of progesterone, a hormone that is necessary for pregnancy to continue.

Bithional is a medication that is used to treat parasitic infections. It is not used as a "morning after pill."

Here is a table that summarizes the information about each option:

| Option | Description |
|---|---|
| A. Norethindrone | A progestin, a type of hormone that helps to regulate the menstrual cycle. It is also used as a "morning after pill" to prevent pregnancy after unprotected sex. Norethindrone works by preventing ovulation, the release of an egg from the ovary. It can also thicken the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to reach the egg. |
| B. Ethinylestradiol | An estrogen, a type of hormone that helps to regulate the menstrual cycle. It is also used in combination with progestins to prevent pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol works by preventing ovulation and thickening the cervical mucus. |
| C. Mifepristone | A medication that is used to end a pregnancy. It is also known as RU-486. Mifepristone works by blocking the effects of progesterone, a hormone that is necessary for pregnancy to continue. |
| D. Bithional | A medication that is used to treat parasitic infections. It is not used as a "morning after pill." |

The correct answer is C) Birbhum.

Biraha is a folk song expressing the pain of separation and is popular in the Birbhum region of West Bengal, India. It is a form of singing that is often performed at weddings and other social gatherings. The lyrics of Biraha songs are typically about the pain of separation, and the music is often mournful and slow. Biraha is a very popular form of folk music in the Birbhum region, and it is often used to express the emotions of love, loss, and longing.

The other options are incorrect because they are not regions where Biraha is popular. Purulia is a district in West Bengal, but Biraha is not as popular there as it is in Birbhum. Malda is a district in West Bengal, but Biraha is not as popular there as it is in Birbhum. Medinipur is a district in West Bengal, but Biraha is not as popular there as it is in Birbhum.

The correct answer is C. brown.

Unsaturated carbon compounds burn in oxygen with excessive black smoke providing a flame with a brown color. This is because the incomplete combustion of these compounds produces carbon monoxide and soot, which are both black in color. The soot particles are suspended in the flame and give it a brown color.

Option A is incorrect because yellow flames are typically associated with the combustion of sodium-containing compounds. Option B is incorrect because red flames are typically associated with the combustion of carbon-containing compounds. Option D is incorrect because blue flames are typically associated with the combustion of hydrogen-containing compounds.

Ajitesh Bandopadhyay left Nandikar in 1977 and formed 'Nandimukh'.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Bankura horses are terracotta sculptures traditionally used as votive offerings, decorative items, and toys. They are made in the Bankura district of West Bengal, India, and are known for their intricate designs and vibrant colors.

Votive offerings are objects that are given to a deity or spirit in the hope of receiving a blessing or favor. Decorative items are objects that are used to add beauty or interest to a space. Toys are objects that are used for play.

Bankura horses are made by hand by skilled artisans. The clay is first molded into the desired shape, and then it is decorated with intricate patterns and designs. The horses are then fired in a kiln, which gives them their characteristic color and finish.

Bankura horses are a popular tourist attraction in West Bengal. They are also sold in many souvenir shops throughout India.

The correct answer is (c), virus.

Hydrophobia is a symptom of rabies, a viral disease that affects the central nervous system. It is caused by a virus called Lyssavirus, which is transmitted through the bite of an infected animal. The virus attacks the brain and spinal cord, causing symptoms such as anxiety, confusion, hallucinations, and paralysis. In severe cases, it can lead to death.

Bacteria are single-celled organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including pneumonia, strep throat, and tuberculosis. Fungi are multicellular organisms that can cause diseases such as athlete's foot, ringworm, and yeast infections. Protozoa are single-celled organisms that can cause diseases such as malaria, sleeping sickness, and giardiasis.

Rabies is a preventable disease. The best way to prevent rabies is to avoid contact with wild animals, especially bats. If you are bitten by an animal, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. There is a vaccine that can prevent rabies, but it must be given before symptoms appear.

The correct answer is D. President of India.

The President of India is empowered to alter the Scheduled Areas under Article 244(2) of the Constitution of India. This article states that the President may, with the consent of the Governor of a State, by public notification, direct that any area specified in the notification shall be included in or excluded from the Scheduled Areas.

The President's power to alter the Scheduled Areas is subject to the following conditions:

• The President must consult the Governor of the State before issuing a notification under Article 244(2).
• The President must obtain the consent of the State Legislature before issuing a notification under Article 244(2).
• The President must publish the notification in the Official Gazette.

The President's power to alter the Scheduled Areas is a significant power, as it can have a major impact on the lives of the people who live in these areas. The President must exercise this power carefully and in accordance with the Constitution.

The other options are incorrect because they do not have the power to alter the Scheduled Areas.

• The Supreme Court of India is the highest court in India. It has the power to interpret the Constitution, but it does not have the power to alter the Scheduled Areas.
• The High Court of State is a high court in a State of India. It has the power to interpret the Constitution, but it does not have the power to alter the Scheduled Areas.
• The Prime Minister of India is the head of the Government of India. He/She does not have the power to alter the Scheduled Areas.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A. Surabhi C. M.

Surabhi C. M. won the Best Actress award at the 64th National Film Awards for her performance in the Malayalam film Oru Adaar Love. She was praised for her portrayal of a young woman who falls in love with a man from a different religion.

Sonam Kapoor was nominated for Best Actress for her performance in the Hindi film Neerja. She played the role of Neerja Bhanot, a flight attendant who saved the lives of over 300 passengers on a hijacked plane.

Iman Chakraborty was nominated for Best Actress for her performance in the Bengali film Rajkahini. She played the role of a young woman who is forced to marry an older man.

Zaira Wasim was nominated for Best Actress for her performance in the Hindi film Dangal. She played the role of Geeta Phogat, a wrestler who becomes a national champion.

Surabhi C. M.'s performance in Oru Adaar Love was particularly praised for its authenticity and vulnerability. She was able to capture the complex emotions of a young woman who is falling in love for the first time. Her performance was a tour-de-force that earned her widespread critical acclaim.

The correct answer is D. West Bengal Agricultural Policy.

The West Bengal Industrial Promotion Policy (WBIPP) is a policy initiative of the West Bengal government for industrial development. The WBIPP aims to promote investment in the state by providing a number of incentives and benefits to businesses. The WBIPP also aims to create a conducive environment for businesses to operate in, by improving infrastructure and providing support services.

The West Bengal Information Technology Policy (WBITP) is a policy initiative of the West Bengal government for the development of the information technology sector in the state. The WBITP aims to promote investment in the IT sector by providing a number of incentives and benefits to businesses. The WBITP also aims to create a conducive environment for IT businesses to operate in, by improving infrastructure and providing support services.

The West Bengal Tourism Policy (WBT) is a policy initiative of the West Bengal government for the development of the tourism sector in the state. The WBT aims to promote investment in the tourism sector by providing a number of incentives and benefits to businesses. The WBT also aims to create a conducive environment for tourism businesses to operate in, by improving infrastructure and providing support services.

The West Bengal Agricultural Policy (WBAP) is a policy initiative of the West Bengal government for the development of the agriculture sector in the state. The WBAP aims to promote investment in the agriculture sector by providing a number of incentives and benefits to businesses. The WBAP also aims to create a conducive environment for agriculture businesses to operate in, by improving infrastructure and providing support services.

However, the WBAP is not a major policy initiative of the West Bengal government for industrial development. The WBAP is a policy initiative for the development of the agriculture sector in the state. The WBAP aims to promote investment in the agriculture sector by providing a number of incentives and benefits to businesses. The WBAP also aims to create a conducive environment for agriculture businesses to operate in, by improving infrastructure and providing support services.

The correct answer is: A) Flood control.

The Farakka Barrage is a dam on the Ganges River in West Bengal, India. It was built in 1975 to divert water from the Ganges to the Hooghly River, which flows through Kolkata. The main purpose of the barrage is to prevent flooding in Kolkata during the monsoon season. It also helps to improve the navigability of the Hooghly River and to generate hydroelectric power.

The barrage has been controversial since its construction. Critics argue that it has caused environmental problems, such as the depletion of the water table in the Ganges basin and the extinction of several fish species. They also argue that it has had a negative impact on the lives of people living downstream of the barrage.

Despite the controversy, the Farakka Barrage remains an important part of India's infrastructure. It plays a vital role in flood control, navigation, and power generation.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Flood control. The Farakka Barrage is primarily associated with flood control. It was built to divert water from the Ganges to the Hooghly River, which flows through Kolkata. This helps to prevent flooding in Kolkata during the monsoon season.
* Option B: Drought mitigation. The Farakka Barrage does not have a significant impact on drought mitigation. It is not designed to store water, so it cannot be used to release water during droughts.
* Option C: Power generation. The Farakka Barrage does generate hydroelectric power, but this is not its primary purpose. The barrage was built primarily to prevent flooding in Kolkata.
* Option D: Soil conservation. The Farakka Barrage does not have a significant impact on soil conservation. It is not designed to prevent soil erosion, so it does not help to protect the soil from being washed away.

The correct answer is: The President of India.

The signature of the President of India appears on the obverse (front) of all Indian currency notes. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India signs the reverse (back) of all currency notes. The Finance Minister of India is not responsible for signing currency notes. The Finance Secretary of the Government of India is responsible for the printing and distribution of currency notes, but does not sign them.

The signature of the President of India on currency notes is a security feature that helps to prevent counterfeiting. The signature is unique to each President and is difficult to forge. It is also a symbol of the authority of the Indian government.

The correct answer is option B: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (1838-1894) was a Bengali writer, novelist, essayist, and journalist. He is considered one of the most important figures in Bengali literature. His novel Anandamath (1882) is considered a classic of Bengali literature and is one of the most important works of Indian literature. The novel is set during the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and tells the story of a group of Hindu rebels who fight against the British East India Company. The novel contains the song "Vande Mataram," which has become a national song of India.

Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was a Bengali polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music, as well as Indian art with Contextual Modernism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Author of Gitanjali, he became the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913. He remains the most translated Indian writer, and is considered one of the greatest writers in the history of literature.

Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay (1876-1938) was a Bengali novelist and short-story writer. He is considered one of the most important figures in Bengali literature. His novels are known for their realistic portrayal of Bengali middle-class life.

Bibhutibhushan Bandopadhyay (1894-1950) was a Bengali novelist and short-story writer. He is considered one of the most important figures in Bengali literature. His novels are known for their lyrical style and their depiction of rural Bengal.

The correct answer is (a) a moderately indebted country.

The World Bank classifies countries into four categories based on the size and composition of their external debt:

• Low-income countries (LICs) have an external debt-to-GNI ratio of more than 70% and an external debt service-to-exports ratio of more than 25%.
• Lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have an external debt-to-GNI ratio of between 40% and 70% and an external debt service-to-exports ratio of between 15% and 25%.
• Upper-middle-income countries (UMICs) have an external debt-to-GNI ratio of between 20% and 40% and an external debt service-to-exports ratio of between 10% and 15%.
• High-income countries (HICs) have an external debt-to-GNI ratio of less than 20% and an external debt service-to-exports ratio of less than 10%.

India is classified as a moderately indebted country because it has an external debt-to-GNI ratio of 22.2% and an external debt service-to-exports ratio of 1.6%.

The World Bank's classification of countries is based on a number of factors, including the size of the country's external debt, the composition of the debt, the country's economic performance, and the country's debt sustainability. The World Bank's classification of countries is used to determine eligibility for certain types of financial assistance and to monitor the progress of countries in reducing their external debt.

The correct answer is C. Bleaching powder.

Baking powder is a leavening agent used in baking. It is a mixture of baking soda, cream of tartar, and sometimes cornstarch. Baking soda is a base, while cream of tartar is an acid. When these two ingredients are combined, they react to produce carbon dioxide gas. This gas is what causes baked goods to rise.

Bleaching powder is a white, crystalline solid that is used to bleach fabrics and paper. It is also used to disinfect water and to kill bacteria. Bleaching powder is made by combining chlorine gas with calcium hydroxide.

Washing soda is a white, crystalline solid that is used in laundry detergents and other cleaning products. It is also used to make glass and paper. Washing soda is made by combining sodium carbonate with water.

Chlorine gas is a greenish-yellow gas that is used in a variety of industrial processes. It is also used as a disinfectant and a bleaching agent. Chlorine gas is made by combining chlorine and hydrogen.

In conclusion, chlorine gas is used in the manufacture of bleaching powder.

The correct answer is C) 5.

West Bengal is divided into 5 administrative divisions:

* Burdwan
* Jalpaiguri
* Malda
* North 24 Parganas
* South 24 Parganas

Each division is further divided into districts.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

The mantra of Jainism is "Ahimsa paramo dharma" which means "non-violence is the highest virtue". Jains believe that all living beings are interconnected and that harming any living being is harmful to oneself. They strive to live a life of non-violence in thought, word, and deed.

Ahimsa is the first of the five great vows (mahavratas) that all Jains take. The other four vows are satya (truthfulness), asteya (non-stealing), brahmacharya (celibacy), and aparigraha (non-possession).

Jains also believe in the doctrine of karma, which states that every action has a corresponding reaction. Good actions lead to good karma, while bad actions lead to bad karma. The goal of Jainism is to achieve moksha, or liberation from the cycle of rebirth. This can be achieved by following the path of ahimsa and the other four great vows.

Option A is incorrect because Jains do not renounce all sinful acts for life-long. They believe that it is possible to atone for sins through repentance and good deeds.

Option B is incorrect because Jains do not renounce all philanthropies acts for life-long. They believe that it is important to help others, but they also believe that it is important to do so in a way that does not harm any living beings.

The correct answer is (a) 1 month.

Under Section 105 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction, shall not exceed one month.

An injunction is a court order that requires a person to do something or to refrain from doing something. If a person disobeys an injunction, they may be held in contempt of court and sentenced to civil imprisonment.

The purpose of civil imprisonment is to compel compliance with an injunction, not to punish the person who disobeyed it. The maximum period of detention is one month, and the court may order a shorter period of detention if it is satisfied that the purpose of the injunction has been served.

The other options are incorrect because they are longer than the maximum period of detention allowed under the law.

The correct answer is C. Consolidated Fund of India.

The salary and allowances of judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that the money for their salaries and allowances comes from the government's general revenue, which is collected through taxes. The Consolidated Fund of India is a special account that is used to pay for the expenses of the central government. It is managed by the Ministry of Finance.

The other options are incorrect. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India. It is responsible for managing the country's monetary policy and issuing currency. The Contingency Fund of India is a reserve fund that is used to meet unforeseen expenses. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is responsible for recommending the distribution of central taxes among the states.

The correct answer is: insulated.

To insulate something is to protect it from something harmful or unpleasant. In this case, the speaker is saying that the woman has been protected from the harsh realities of the world. This could mean that she has been sheltered from violence, poverty, or other difficult experiences. It could also mean that she has been raised in a wealthy or privileged environment that has shielded her from the problems that many people face.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the sentence. Option A, exposed, means to make something or someone vulnerable to something harmful or unpleasant. Option B, troubled, means to be worried or anxious about something. Option C, used, means to be taken advantage of or exploited. Option D, worried, means to be filled with anxiety or concern about something.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "All her life she has been insulated from the harsh realities of the world" is insulated. This means that the woman has been protected from something harmful or unpleasant.

The correct answer is D. Plagiarism.

Plagiarism is the act of taking someone else's work or ideas and passing them off as your own. It is a form of academic dishonesty and can have serious consequences, such as failing a class or being expelled from school.

Copying is the act of reproducing something exactly as it is. It is not plagiarism if you give credit to the original source.

Reframing is the act of putting something in a new context. It is not plagiarism if you give credit to the original source and explain how you have changed the original work.

Reproducing is the act of making a copy of something. It is not plagiarism if you give credit to the original source.

Here are some examples of plagiarism:

• Taking someone else's paper and submitting it as your own.
• Paraphrasing someone else's work without giving them credit.
• Using someone else's ideas without giving them credit.
• Using someone else's images or data without giving them credit.

Here are some tips to avoid plagiarism:

• Always cite your sources.
• Use quotation marks when you are directly quoting someone else.
• Paraphrase someone else's work in your own words.
• Give credit to the original source for any ideas or images that you use.
• Be careful when using online sources, as some of them may not be reliable.

If you are unsure whether something is plagiarism, it is always best to ask your teacher or professor.

The correct answer is: C. rather starve than steal.

The sentence is about a man who would rather go hungry than steal. The correct way to express this is "rather starve than steal." This means that the man would rather suffer from hunger than commit a crime.

The other options are incorrect because they do not express the man's preference clearly. Option A, "starve to rather stealing," is grammatically incorrect. Option B, "starve to rather steal," is also grammatically incorrect and does not make sense. Option D, "rather starving to stealing," is grammatically correct but does not express the man's preference clearly. Option E, "No correction required," is incorrect because the sentence does require correction.

The correct answer is (b) 78.

The Constitution of India has been amended 78 times since it came into effect on 26 January 1950. The first amendment was passed in 1951, and the most recent amendment was passed in 2019.

The amendments have been made to address a variety of issues, including the introduction of new laws, the removal of outdated laws, and the clarification of the Constitution's provisions.

Some of the most significant amendments include the First Amendment, which guaranteed freedom of speech and expression; the Fourth Amendment, which guaranteed the right to equality; the Seventeenth Amendment, which introduced the system of adult franchise; and the Twenty-sixth Amendment, which abolished the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.

The amendments have been a vital part of the evolution of the Indian Constitution, and they have helped to make it a living document that reflects the changing needs of the Indian people.

Here is a brief description of each option:

(a) 68: This is the number of amendments that had been passed up to 2013. However, one more amendment has been passed since then, so the correct answer is now 78.
(b) 78: This is the correct answer.
(c) 88: This is the number of amendments that had been passed up to 2019. However, one more amendment has been passed since then, so this is no longer the correct answer.
(d) 98: This is the number of amendments that have been passed up to 2023. However, the question is asking about the number of amendments that had been implemented up to 2013, so this is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is (d) None of the above.

The number of ministers have not been limited to 15% the total number of members of the lower house by any constitutional amendment. The number of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is determined by the Prime Minister, and is subject to the approval of the President. The number of ministers in a state government is determined by the Chief Minister, and is subject to the approval of the Governor.

The Ninety-first Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 2003, inserted a new Article 338A, which provides for the appointment of a National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The Ninety-second Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 2003, inserted a new Article 338B, which provides for the appointment of a National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. The Ninetieth Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 2001, inserted a new Article 338, which provides for the appointment of a National Commission for Minorities.

The correct answer is D. Sports.

Volleyball, hockey, and football are all sports. Sports are activities that involve physical exertion and skill in which an individual or team competes against another or others for entertainment.

Aquatics is the branch of physical education that deals with swimming, diving, and water polo. Baseball is a bat-and-ball game played between two opposing teams who take turns batting and fielding. Athletes are people who participate in sports.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: C. Twelve Angas

The Twelve Angas are the oldest and most important texts of Jainism. They are considered to be the direct teachings of Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara. The Angas are divided into two groups: the Srutika Angas, which are the canonical texts, and the Prakrit Angas, which are the commentaries on the Srutika Angas.

The Srutika Angas are:

• Adhyatma Sutra
• Sutrakritanga
• Samayabheda Agama
• Upadesasahasri
• Drstivāda
• Jiva Kanda
• Karma Kanda
• Yoga Kanda
• Vyavahara Kanda
• Bheda Bheda Agama
• Parishishta

The Prakrit Angas are:

• Uvavahapannatti
• Sthānanga Sutra
• Samavayanga Sutra
• Vyavahara Sutra
• Mokshadharma Sutra
• Daśavaikālika Sutra
• Anuttarovaiyavāda SÅ«tra
• Cheda SÅ«tra
• Upāsakadaśā
• Ratnakaranda SÅ«tra

The Angas are written in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit, a language that is closely related to Sanskrit. They are a vast and complex body of literature, and they contain a wealth of information on Jain philosophy, cosmology, and ritual.

The Angas are considered to be the foundation of Jainism, and they are essential reading for anyone who wants to understand the religion.

The answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The given series is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of $6$. This means that each term is $6$ more than the term before it. The first term is $3$, so the 21st term is equal to $3 + (21 - 1) times 6 = 129$.

Option A is incorrect because $117$ is not a term in the given series.

Option B is incorrect because $121$ is not a term in the given series.

Option C is incorrect because $123$ is not a term in the given series.

The correct answer is: A) Unmarried women from economically weaker sections for their marriage.

The Rupashree Prakalpa scheme is a government scheme that provides financial assistance to unmarried women from economically weaker sections for their marriage. The scheme was launched in 2011 and is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

The objective of the scheme is to help unmarried women from economically weaker sections to get married and start a family. The scheme provides a one-time financial assistance of Rs. 25,000 to eligible women.

To be eligible for the scheme, a woman must:

* Be an unmarried Indian citizen
* Belong to a family with an annual income of less than Rs. 3 lakh
* Be a graduate or equivalent
* Be willing to marry a person who is also an unmarried Indian citizen and belongs to a family with an annual income of less than Rs. 3 lakh

The application form for the scheme can be obtained from the website of the Ministry of Women and Child Development or from the district offices of the Ministry. The application form must be submitted along with the required documents to the district office of the Ministry.

The scheme is a great initiative by the government to help unmarried women from economically weaker sections to get married and start a family. The scheme will help these women to improve their lives and the lives of their families.

Option B is incorrect because the Rupashree Prakalpa scheme does not provide financial assistance to farmers for agricultural inputs. The scheme provides financial assistance to unmarried women from economically weaker sections for their marriage.

Option C is incorrect because the Rupashree Prakalpa scheme does not provide financial assistance to students for higher education. The scheme provides financial assistance to unmarried women from economically weaker sections for their marriage.

Option D is incorrect because the Rupashree Prakalpa scheme does not provide financial assistance to unemployed youth for skill development. The scheme provides financial assistance to unmarried women from economically weaker sections for their marriage.

The correct answer is: A. Apostle.

An apostle is a person who is sent on a mission, especially by a religious leader. In the Christian tradition, the apostles were the twelve disciples of Jesus Christ who were sent out to spread his teachings.

A apothecary is a person who prepares and sells medicines.

An apotheosis is the glorification or deification of a person.

A renegade is a person who deserts his party, cause, or principles.

In the context of the question, an apostle is the most likely answer because it is a person who is sent on a mission to reform something. The other options are not as relevant to the question.

The correct answer is: D. 14 November.

The International Day of Reflection on the Genocide in Rwanda is observed on 14 November each year. This date was chosen to commemorate the beginning of the Rwandan genocide, which took place from 7 April to 15 July 1994. During this time, an estimated 800,000 Rwandans were killed, mostly Tutsis and moderate Hutus.

The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution in 2003 to establish the International Day of Reflection on the Genocide in Rwanda. The resolution calls on all member states to observe the day in a manner that "promotes peace, reconciliation and healing in Rwanda and the region."

The day is also an opportunity to raise awareness of the dangers of genocide and to reaffirm the commitment of the international community to preventing future atrocities.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the dates on which the International Day of Reflection on the Genocide in Rwanda is observed.

The correct answer is: B. United Nations Day for South-South Cooperation

South-South cooperation is a term used to describe the development cooperation that takes place between developing countries. It is based on the idea that developing countries can learn from each other's experiences and share resources in order to achieve sustainable development.

The United Nations Day for South-South Cooperation is observed on March 15 each year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2005 to promote South-South cooperation and to highlight the importance of this type of development cooperation.

The other options are incorrect because:

• World Cancer Day is observed on February 4 each year.
• World Telecommunication Day is observed on May 17 each year.
• International Human Solidarity Day is observed on December 20 each year.

The correct answer is: B. International Labour Organisation

The International Labour Organisation (ILO) was founded in 1919, after the First World War. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that deals with labour issues. The ILO's goal is to promote social justice and internationally recognized human and labour rights. It does this by setting international labour standards, providing technical assistance to governments and employers' and workers' organizations, and conducting research on labour issues.

The other options are incorrect because they were founded after the Second World War.

• The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) was founded in 1945.
• The World Health Organisation (WHO) was founded in 1948.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was founded in 1945.

Kanyashree scheme received the first prize among 552 nominations from 62 countries in the category "Reaching the poorest and most vulnerable through inclusive services and participation" in the World Forum heal at 'The Hague' in the Netherlands in 2017.

The correct answer is D. Rajat Chauhan.

Virender Singh, Vinesh Phogat, and Amit Kumar are all Indian wrestlers who received the Arjuna Award in 2016. Rajat Chauhan is an Indian wrestler who did not receive the Arjuna Award in 2016.

Virender Singh is an Indian freestyle wrestler who competes in the 74 kg category. He is a two-time Commonwealth Games gold medalist and a two-time Asian Games silver medalist. He won the Arjuna Award in 2016.

Vinesh Phogat is an Indian freestyle wrestler who competes in the 48 kg category. She is a two-time Commonwealth Games gold medalist and a two-time Asian Games bronze medalist. She won the Arjuna Award in 2016.

Amit Kumar is an Indian freestyle wrestler who competes in the 57 kg category. He is a two-time Commonwealth Games silver medalist and a two-time Asian Games bronze medalist. He won the Arjuna Award in 2016.

Rajat Chauhan is an Indian freestyle wrestler who competes in the 65 kg category. He is a two-time Commonwealth Games bronze medalist and a two-time Asian Games bronze medalist. He did not receive the Arjuna Award in 2016.

The correct answer is A. Alexander Fleming.

Alexander Fleming was a Scottish bacteriologist who discovered penicillin in 1928. He was born in Lochfield, Ayrshire, Scotland on August 6, 1881. He studied medicine at the University of St Andrews and the Royal College of Surgeons in Edinburgh. After graduating, he worked as a researcher at St Mary's Hospital in London.

In 1928, Fleming was working in his laboratory when he noticed that a mold had grown on a petri dish containing bacteria. He observed that the bacteria around the mold were dying. Fleming realized that the mold was producing a substance that was killing the bacteria. He named this substance penicillin.

Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered. It revolutionized medicine and saved countless lives. Fleming was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945 for his discovery of penicillin. He died on March 11, 1955.

Option B, Albert Einstein, was a German-born theoretical physicist who developed the theory of relativity, one of the two pillars of modern physics (alongside quantum mechanics). He is best known for his mass–energy equivalence formula E = mc2, which has been dubbed "the world's most famous equation". He received the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics "for his services to theoretical physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect", a crucial step in the development of quantum theory.

Option C, Archimedes, was a Greek mathematician, physicist, engineer, inventor, astronomer, and geographer of the Hellenistic period. He was a polymath, and one of the greatest mathematicians of all time. He is often referred to as the "Father of Mathematics" and the "Father of Science".

Option D, Aryabhata, was an Indian mathematician and astronomer who lived in the 5th century CE. He is considered one of the most important mathematicians of the ancient world. He is credited with developing the concept of zero and the decimal system. He also made significant contributions to the fields of trigonometry and astronomy.

The odd one out is quart. The other three options are units of length, while quart is a unit of volume.

• Inch is a unit of length in the imperial and US customary systems of measurement. It is equal to 1/12 of a foot or 1/36 of a yard.
• Metre is the base unit of length in the International System of Units (SI). It is defined as the distance that light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 of a second.
• Yard is a unit of length in the imperial and US customary systems of measurement. It is equal to 3 feet or 0.9144 metres.
• Quart is a unit of volume in the imperial and US customary systems of measurement. It is equal to 1/4 of a gallon or 1.136522544 litres.

The correct answer is: C. Avadi (Tamil Nadu)

Rare earth elements are a group of 17 elements that are essential for many modern technologies, including electric vehicles, wind turbines, and smartphones. India is one of the world's largest producers of rare earths, and the government has been investing heavily in the development of the domestic rare earth industry.

The Avadi Rare Earth Plant is a joint venture between the Indian government and the China-based company, China Minmetals Corporation. The plant was inaugurated in 2018 and has a capacity of 10,000 tonnes per year.

The plant is located in Avadi, Tamil Nadu, which is about 20 kilometers from Chennai. The plant is well-connected to the national highway and railway network, and it has access to a skilled workforce.

The Avadi Rare Earth Plant is a major milestone in India's efforts to develop its domestic rare earth industry. The plant will help to reduce India's dependence on imports of rare earths, and it will also create jobs and boost economic growth.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Allepey is a town in Kerala, India. It is located on the banks of the Vembanad Lake. Allepey is known for its backwaters and its traditional fishing industry.
• Alwaye is a city in Kerala, India. It is located on the banks of the Periyar River. Alwaye is known for its educational institutions and its industrial estates.
• Ambernath is a city in Maharashtra, India. It is located on the banks of the Ulhas River. Ambernath is known for its automobile manufacturing industry.

The correct answer is: B. Low density

Clouds are made up of tiny water droplets or ice crystals. These droplets and crystals are much smaller than the air molecules around them, so they have a lower density. This lower density allows them to float in the air.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Low pressure: The pressure of the atmosphere is not a factor in whether or not clouds float.
• Low viscosity: The viscosity of a fluid is a measure of its resistance to flow. The viscosity of air is very low, so it does not affect the ability of clouds to float.
• Low temperature: The temperature of the atmosphere does not affect the ability of clouds to float. Clouds can form at any temperature, from very cold to very hot.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.