WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-18

The correct answer is: D. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

A. P. J. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President of India. He was a scientist and aeronautical engineer who played a key role in the development of India's nuclear weapons and missiles. He was also a popular figure in India and was known as the "Missile Man of India". He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1997.

Sachin Tendulkar is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He is the leading run-scorer in Test and One Day International (ODI) cricket. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2014.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the 10th Prime Minister of India. He was a leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and a prominent figure in the Hindu nationalist movement. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2014.

Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher who is a Nobel laureate in economics. He is a professor at Harvard University and a leading expert on welfare economics and social choice theory. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1999.

The correct answer is A. 28 inches.

A cricket stump is a vertical post that forms part of the wicket. The three stumps are arranged in a triangular formation with the bails balanced on top. The stumps are 28 inches high and 9 inches wide.

Option B is incorrect because the length of each stump is 28 inches, not 32 inches.

Option C is incorrect because the length of each stump is 28 inches, not 2 feet.

Option D is incorrect because the length of each stump is 28 inches, not 4 feet.

The correct answer is: C. The year 1979.

The Mandal Commission was a commission set up by the Government of India in 1979 to identify the socially and educationally backward classes in India. The commission was headed by B. P. Mandal, a former Chief Justice of India. The commission submitted its report in 1980, which recommended that 27% of government jobs and seats in educational institutions be reserved for members of the Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The report was controversial, and its recommendations were not implemented until 1990.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the first Backward Class Commission was appointed in 1953.
• Option B is incorrect because the second Backward Class Commission was appointed in 1979.
• Option D is incorrect because the third Backward Class Commission was appointed in 2005.

The correct answer is: A) Sudden thunderstorms.

Kalbaisakhi is a severe thunderstorm that occurs in the Indian states of West Bengal and Odisha during the pre-monsoon season. It is characterized by strong winds, heavy rain, and hail. The storms can cause widespread damage to crops and property, and can also lead to loss of life.

Prolonged heatwaves are periods of abnormally hot weather that can last for several days or weeks. Heatwaves can cause a number of health problems, including heat exhaustion, heat stroke, and death.

Dense winter fog is a type of fog that occurs during the winter months. It is characterized by low visibility and can make it difficult to drive or walk.

Heavy snowfall is a type of precipitation that occurs in the form of snow. It can cause a number of problems, including power outages, travel delays, and avalanches.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is C. sad, evolve.

The word "sad" is used to describe something that is causing or feeling sorrow or regret. In this case, the speaker is expressing sadness that 40 years after independence, India has not yet been able to develop a suitable education or examination system.

The word "evolve" means to develop or change gradually over time. In this case, the speaker is suggesting that India's education and examination system has not been able to keep up with the changing needs of the country.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the speaker's sentiment. The word "bad" is too strong, and it suggests that India's education and examination system is completely worthless. The word "improper" is too negative, and it suggests that India's education and examination system is somehow wrong or unethical. The word "objectionable" is too strong, and it suggests that India's education and examination system is somehow offensive or harmful.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. sad, evolve.

The correct answer is A. Foreign exchange earnings.

Export of fish and fishery products provides foreign exchange earnings, which can be used to import other goods and services. It also creates jobs in the fishing industry and related industries, such as processing and distribution. Additionally, fish and fishery products are a good source of protein and other nutrients, so their export can help to improve nutrition in other countries.

Option B is incorrect because export of fish and fishery products can actually create jobs in the fishing industry and related industries.

Option C is incorrect because fish and fishery products are a good source of protein and other nutrients, so their export can help to improve nutrition in other countries.

Option D is incorrect because export of fish and fishery products does not necessarily lead to increased pollution. In fact, if done sustainably, it can actually help to reduce pollution by reducing the need to catch fish in unsustainable ways.

The correct answer is A. Destruction.

Smoke is a byproduct of combustion, and pollution is the contamination of the environment with harmful substances. War is a state of armed conflict between two or more nations or states, and destruction is the act of causing something to be ruined or destroyed.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. Treaty is an agreement between two or more nations or states, and victory is the success of one side in a battle or war. Peace is the absence of war or conflict.

The correct answer is D. Mixed.

West Bengal's economy is a mixed economy, with a large public sector and a growing private sector. The state is home to a number of major industries, including steel, coal, and textiles. The service sector is also growing rapidly, driven by the growth of IT and ITES industries.

Agrarian economies are based on agriculture, and the majority of the population works in the agricultural sector. Industrial economies are based on manufacturing, and the majority of the population works in the manufacturing sector. Service-oriented economies are based on the provision of services, and the majority of the population works in the service sector. Mixed economies are a combination of agrarian, industrial, and service-oriented economies.

West Bengal's economy is a mixed economy because it is based on a combination of agriculture, manufacturing, and services. The state has a large public sector, which is responsible for providing basic services such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure. The private sector is also growing rapidly, and is responsible for a number of major industries, including steel, coal, and textiles. The service sector is also growing rapidly, driven by the growth of IT and ITES industries.

The answer is D. Mongoose.

A tortoise, frog, rat, and snake are all reptiles. A mongoose is a mammal.

Reptiles are a class of vertebrate animals characterized by dry, scaly skin. They are ectotherms, meaning that their body temperature varies with the environment. Reptiles include snakes, lizards, turtles, tortoises, crocodiles, and alligators.

Mammals are a class of vertebrate animals characterized by the presence of mammary glands which in females produce milk for feeding (nursing) their young, a neocortex (a region of the brain), fur or hair, and three middle ear bones. These animals are warm-blooded, meaning that their body temperature is regulated internally. Mammals include humans, dogs, cats, cows, pigs, horses, whales, dolphins, and bats.

The mongoose is a small, slender mammal that is native to Africa, Asia, and Europe. It is a carnivore and its diet consists of insects, reptiles, rodents, and small birds. The mongoose is a skilled hunter and is known for its ability to kill snakes.

The correct answer is B. Boxing.

The Queensbury rules are a set of rules governing boxing that were written by John Graham Chambers and adopted by the Marquess of Queensberry in 1867. The rules were designed to make boxing safer and more humane, and they have been used to govern professional boxing ever since.

The rules include a number of important provisions, such as the use of gloves, a three-minute round structure, and a ban on hitting below the belt. The rules also established the concept of a knockout, which is when a boxer is unable to continue fighting after being hit.

The Queensbury rules have had a profound impact on the sport of boxing. They have helped to make boxing a safer and more popular sport, and they have also helped to establish boxing as a legitimate professional sport.

The other options are incorrect because they are not sports that are directly influenced by the Queensbury rules. Tennis is a racket sport that is played between two or four players on a rectangular court divided by a net. Polo is a team sport played on horseback in which the objective is to score goals against an opposing team by driving a small white plastic or wooden ball into the opposing team's goal using a long-handled mallet. Billiards is a family of cue sports that includes carom billiards and pool.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Birdwatching is a popular ecotourism activity in all of the following regions of West Bengal:

* The Sundarbans is a vast mangrove forest delta on the Bay of Bengal, shared between India and Bangladesh. It is home to a wide variety of birds, including the endangered Bengal florican, the greater adjutant stork, and the black-necked stork.
* The Rarh region is a hilly area in central West Bengal. It is home to a number of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, including the Buxa Tiger Reserve, the Singalila National Park, and the Jaldapara National Park. These parks are home to a variety of birds, including the rufous-necked hornbill, the great hornbill, and the Bengal tiger.
* The Himalayan foothills are a region of West Bengal that lies at the foothills of the Himalayas. This region is home to a number of bird species, including the Himalayan monal, the blood pheasant, and the satyr tragopan.

Birdwatching is a great way to enjoy the natural beauty of West Bengal and learn about the region's diverse birdlife.

The correct answer is: Both A and B.

Antigens are molecules that can trigger an immune response. They are found on the surface of cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), plasma, and white blood cells (WBCs).

RBCs are the most common type of blood cell. They carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. RBCs do not have a nucleus, and they are filled with hemoglobin, a protein that carries oxygen.

Plasma is the liquid part of blood. It contains water, proteins, electrolytes, and other substances. Plasma helps to transport nutrients and waste products throughout the body.

WBCs are a type of blood cell that helps to fight infection. They are produced in the bone marrow. There are many different types of WBCs, each with a different function.

Antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, or lipids. They can be found on the surface of cells, or they can be free-floating in the blood. When an antigen enters the body, it can trigger an immune response. The immune system will produce antibodies that bind to the antigen. This binding can help to destroy the antigen, or it can help to mark the antigen for destruction by other immune cells.

Antigens are important in the immune system. They help the body to recognize and fight off infection.

The correct answer is: A. Clouds: Rain

Wind is a mass of moving air. A hurricane is a large, rotating storm with high winds that forms over warm ocean waters. Hurricanes are fueled by the heat energy in the ocean water. As the warm water evaporates, it rises into the atmosphere. The rising air creates an area of low pressure at the surface of the ocean. This low pressure draws in more air from the surrounding area, which creates strong winds.

Clouds are made up of tiny water droplets or ice crystals. They form when water vapor in the air condenses around tiny particles, such as dust or salt. Clouds can be classified into four main types: cumulus, stratus, cirrus, and nimbus. Cumulus clouds are puffy, white clouds that form at low altitudes. Stratus clouds are thin, gray clouds that form at low altitudes. Cirrus clouds are thin, wispy clouds that form at high altitudes. Nimbus clouds are dark, gray clouds that produce rain or snow.

Rain is water that falls to the ground from clouds. It is formed when water vapor in the air condenses around tiny particles, such as dust or salt. Raindrops are typically about 0.02 inches in diameter. Rain can be heavy or light, and it can fall for a short period of time or for a long period of time.

The other options are not correct because they do not represent a direct relationship between two things in the same way that wind and rain do. For example, clouds and rain are both related to water, but they are not directly related to each other. The sky and the universe are both very large, but they are not directly related to each other. Thunder and lightning are both related to storms, but they are not directly related to each other. Water and life are both essential for survival, but they are not directly related to each other.

The correct answer is A. Glucose.

Glucose is the main source of energy for the body. It is a simple sugar that is found in many foods, including fruits, vegetables, and grains. When glucose is broken down in the body, it releases energy that is used by cells to function.

Triglycerides are a type of fat that is found in the body. They are made up of three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule. Triglycerides are stored in fat cells and are used for energy when glucose is not available.

Proteins are made up of amino acids. They are essential for the growth and repair of tissues in the body. Proteins are also used for energy, but they are not the main source of energy.

Cholesterol is a waxy substance that is found in the body. It is used to make hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. Cholesterol is also found in foods, such as meat, eggs, and dairy products.

In conclusion, glucose is the main source of energy for the body. It is a simple sugar that is found in many foods, including fruits, vegetables, and grains. When glucose is broken down in the body, it releases energy that is used by cells to function.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The limit does not exist because the two expressions have different values as $x$ approaches 1.

For $x=1$, the numerator is $1-2+1=0$ and the denominator is $1-3+2=0$. Therefore, the limit is 0/0, which is an indeterminate form.

We can try to find the limit by L'Hôpital's rule. However, L'Hôpital's rule does not apply in this case because the derivatives of the numerator and denominator are both 0 at $x=1$.

Therefore, the limit does not exist.

The correct answer is (a) 80 – 100.

Octane number is a measure of a fuel's ability to resist knocking in an internal combustion engine. The higher the octane number, the more resistant the fuel is to knocking. Natural gas has an octane number of 80-100, which means it is a good fuel for use in internal combustion engines.

Option (b) is incorrect because natural gas has an octane number of 80-100, not 80-90.

Option (c) is incorrect because natural gas has an octane number of 80-100, not 90-100.

Option (d) is incorrect because natural gas has an octane number of 80-100, not greater than 100.

The correct answer is (d). PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) was an ambitious programme on Rural Development introduced by Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the 11th Prime Minister of India. The programme was launched in 2005 with the objective of providing urban amenities in rural areas, such as roads, electricity, water supply, sanitation, healthcare, education, and communication. The programme was implemented through a partnership between the central government, state governments, and local bodies. It was a success in many areas, but it also faced some challenges, such as lack of coordination between the different stakeholders. The programme was discontinued in 2014.

Option (a) is incorrect because A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President of India, not the Prime Minister.

Option (b) is incorrect because Manmohan Singh was the 13th Prime Minister of India, not the 11th.

Option (c) is incorrect because M.S. Swaminathan is a renowned agricultural scientist, not a politician.

The correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.

The statement only tells us that Nation X faced growing international opposition for its decision to explode eight nuclear weapons at its test site. It does not tell us anything about the citizens of Nation X or about the motivations of the other nations that opposed the decision. Therefore, we cannot conclude that the citizens of Nation X favoured the decision or that some powerful countries do not want other nations to become as powerful as they are.

Conclusion I is not supported by the statement because the statement does not tell us anything about the citizens of Nation X. It is possible that the citizens of Nation X did not favour the decision, but the statement does not provide any evidence to support this conclusion.

Conclusion II is supported by the statement because the statement tells us that Nation X faced growing international opposition for its decision. This suggests that some powerful countries did not want Nation X to become more powerful. However, the statement does not tell us why these countries opposed the decision, so we cannot conclude that they were motivated by a desire to prevent Nation X from becoming as powerful as they are.

Therefore, the only conclusion that can be drawn from the statement is conclusion II.

The correct answer is (a). Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

All persons are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the laws. No person shall be discriminated against on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

This right is available to any person on the soil of India, whether citizen or foreigner. It is a fundamental right and cannot be taken away by any law.

The other options are not fundamental rights.

(b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is a right available only to citizens of India.

(c) Cultural and educational rights of minorities are rights available to minorities, i.e., groups of people who are different from the majority in terms of religion, language, culture or any other aspect.

(d) Right against exploitation is a right available to all persons, but it is not available to foreigners who are in India on a temporary basis.

Madhur-Sneha is the first Human Milk Bank set-up in West Bengal at SSKM Hospital in Kolkata. It was started in 2013.

The correct answer is (c).

The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA (Organization of India, Brazil and South Africa) was held in Brasilia, Brazil in 2011. The summit was attended by the leaders of the three countries, namely, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh of India, President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva of Brazil and President Jacob Zuma of South Africa. The summit discussed a wide range of issues of mutual interest, including trade, investment, energy, agriculture, climate change and multilateral cooperation.

The LBSA is a trilateral forum that was established in 2003 by India, Brazil and South Africa. The forum aims to promote cooperation among the three countries in a number of areas, including trade, investment, agriculture, science and technology, education and culture. The LBSA has been successful in promoting cooperation among the three countries and has helped to strengthen their ties.

The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was a significant event in the history of the forum. The summit reaffirmed the commitment of the three countries to work together to promote their common interests. The summit also agreed to a number of initiatives to strengthen cooperation among the three countries. The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was a success and helped to further strengthen the ties between India, Brazil and South Africa.

Option (a), New Delhi, is incorrect because the Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was not held in New Delhi. The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was held in Brasilia, Brazil.

Option (b), Pretoria, is incorrect because the Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was not held in Pretoria. The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was held in Brasilia, Brazil.

Option (d), Victoria, is incorrect because the Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was not held in Victoria. The Fifth Summit Conference of LBSA was held in Brasilia, Brazil.

The correct answer is: D. Vacuum

Sound is a mechanical wave that is an oscillation of pressure transmitted through a solid, liquid, or gas, composed of frequencies within the range of hearing and of a level sufficiently strong to be heard, or the sensation stimulated in organs of hearing by such vibrations.

Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no particles to vibrate and transmit the sound waves.

Water, steel, and air are all materials that can transmit sound waves. Water is a good conductor of sound because it is a dense material. Steel is also a good conductor of sound because it is a dense material and has a high tensile strength. Air is a good conductor of sound because it is a gas and has molecules that are constantly moving.

A vacuum is a space that is empty of matter. There are no particles in a vacuum to vibrate and transmit sound waves. Therefore, sound cannot travel through a vacuum.

The correct answer is: C. The 23rd, 24th, and 25th states of the Indian Union

Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Goa were granted statehood on 20 February 1987, making them the 23rd, 24th, and 25th states of the Indian Union, respectively.

Option A is incorrect because it lists the states in the wrong order. Mizoram was the 23rd state to be granted statehood, followed by Arunachal Pradesh (24th) and Goa (25th).

Option B is incorrect because it lists the states in the wrong order and also includes states that were not granted statehood in 1987. The 17th state of the Indian Union was Nagaland, which was granted statehood on 1 December 1963. The 18th state was Haryana, which was granted statehood on 1 November 1966. The 19th state was Himachal Pradesh, which was granted statehood on 25 January 1971.

Option D is incorrect because it lists the states in the wrong order and also includes states that were not granted statehood in 1987. The 25th state of the Indian Union was Sikkim, which was granted statehood on 26 April 1975. The 26th state was Manipur, which was granted statehood on 15 October 1972. The 27th state was Meghalaya, which was granted statehood on 21 January 1972.

Virender Sehwag made his One Day International (ODI) debut for India against South Africa on 15 November 1999 in Bloemfontein. He scored 115 runs off 104 balls, including 14 fours and 3 sixes. He was the first Indian batsman to score a century on ODI debut.

Sehwag was a right-handed opening batsman and occasional right-arm off break bowler. He was one of the most destructive batsmen in the world and was known for his aggressive batting style. He was also a very good fielder and took 115 catches in ODIs.

Sehwag played for India for 13 years and represented the country in 249 ODIs, scoring 8273 runs at an average of 35.05. He also scored 23 centuries and 42 half-centuries in ODIs.

Sehwag retired from international cricket in 2013. He is currently a commentator and cricket analyst.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: New Zealand. India played New Zealand in 3 ODIs in 1999, but Sehwag did not play in any of those matches.
• Option B: Sri Lanka. India played Sri Lanka in 5 ODIs in 1999, but Sehwag did not play in any of those matches.
• Option C: Pakistan. India played Pakistan in 3 ODIs in 1999, and Sehwag played in the first match of the series. He scored 115 runs off 104 balls, including 14 fours and 3 sixes.
• Option D: South Africa. India played South Africa in 5 ODIs in 1999, and Sehwag made his ODI debut in the first match of the series. He scored 115 runs off 104 balls, including 14 fours and 3 sixes.

The answer is B. 54 - 61.

In each of the other options, the difference between the first and last number is 9. However, in option B, the difference is 7.

A. 37 - 46 = 9
C. 65 - 74 = 9
D. 86 - 95 = 9

The correct answer is: A. Punjab National Bank

Punjab National Bank (PNB) is an Indian multinational banking and financial services company headquartered in New Delhi. It is the second-largest state-owned bank in India, with 10,822 branches and 13,000 ATMs in India and 14 overseas branches. PNB was founded in 1895 by Lala Lajpat Rai, Lala Harkishan Lal, and other prominent Indian businessmen. It was the first Indian bank to be established under the Indian Companies Act of 1882.

Punjab National Bank offers a wide range of banking products and services, including retail banking, corporate banking, investment banking, and treasury services. It is also a major player in the Indian stock market. PNB is listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange of India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the first fully Indian bank.

• B. Central Bank of India was founded in 1911 by a group of Indian businessmen.
• C. Canara Bank was founded in 1904 by a group of Indian merchants.
• D. State Bank of India was founded in 1955 by the merger of Imperial Bank of India with 14 other banks.

The correct answer is (b). The recommendations of the National Human Rights Commission are advisory in nature. This means that the government is not bound to follow the recommendations of the NHRC, but it is expected to do so in good faith. The NHRC is an independent body that was set up to protect and promote human rights in India. It has the power to investigate complaints of human rights violations, and to make recommendations to the government. The government is not bound to follow the recommendations of the NHRC, but it is expected to do so in good faith. The NHRC has played an important role in raising awareness of human rights issues in India, and in bringing about positive changes in the law and practice.

Option (a) is incorrect because the recommendations of the NHRC are not binding on the government. The government is not obliged to follow the recommendations of the NHRC, but it is expected to do so in good faith.

Option (c) is incorrect because the recommendations of the NHRC are not both binding and advisory. They are only advisory in nature.

Option (d) is incorrect because the recommendations of the NHRC are not none of the above. They are advisory in nature.

The correct answer is: B. Mitochondria

Mitochondria are organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They are responsible for producing energy for the cell through a process called cellular respiration. Cellular respiration is a complex process that involves the breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water. This process releases energy, which is used by the cell to power its activities.

Plastids are organelles found in plant cells. They are responsible for carrying out photosynthesis, which is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Plastids come in a variety of shapes and sizes, and they each have a different function. For example, chloroplasts are plastids that are responsible for photosynthesis.

Golgi bodies are organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They are responsible for packaging and transporting proteins and other molecules. Golgi bodies are also involved in the synthesis of lipids.

Cell walls are a rigid structure that surrounds the cells of plants and some other organisms. Cell walls provide support and protection for the cell. They are made up of cellulose, a type of carbohydrate.

In conclusion, mitochondria are the organelles that are responsible for producing energy for the cell. They are also called the "powerhouse of the cell."

The correct answer is D. You cannot hear the sound of explosion.

Sound travels in waves. These waves need a medium to travel through, such as air, water, or metal. Sound cannot travel through a vacuum, such as the vacuum of space.

The moon is in space, which is a vacuum. Therefore, sound cannot travel from the moon to the earth.

Even if the moon were not in space, it would still be very difficult to hear the sound of an explosion on the moon. The moon is very far away from the earth, and the sound of an explosion would be very faint by the time it reached the earth.

In addition, the sound of an explosion would be muffled by the atmosphere of the earth. The atmosphere is a layer of gas that surrounds the earth. It helps to protect the earth from harmful radiation and to keep the earth warm. However, it also absorbs sound waves. This is why it is difficult to hear a whisper from a distance.

Therefore, even if the moon were not in space, it would still be very difficult to hear the sound of an explosion on the moon.

Geet Sethi won the IBSF World Billiards title 5 times. He won the title in 1986, 1990, 1992, 1994, and 2004. He is the only player to have won the title 5 times.

The IBSF World Billiards is a professional billiards tournament organized by the International Billiards and Snooker Federation (IBSF). The tournament is held every two years and is open to all players from member nations of the IBSF. The tournament is played in the three-cushion billiards format.

Geet Sethi is an Indian professional billiards player. He is the current world champion in three-cushion billiards. He has won the IBSF World Billiards title 5 times, the Asian Billiards Championship 10 times, and the World Cup of Billiards 3 times. He is also the first Indian to win the World Professional Billiards Championship.

The answer is $boxed{text{UVXZ}}$.

In the sequence $PSQR:CFED$, each letter is three places after the corresponding letter in the alphabet. So, $P$ is three places after $A$, $S$ is three places after $B$, and so on. This pattern continues for the letters $Q$, $R$, $C$, $F$, $E$, and $D$.

Therefore, the next letter in the sequence is $U$, which is three places after $Z$. The next letter is $V$, which is three places after $U$. The next letter is $X$, which is three places after $V$. The next letter is $Z$, which is three places after $X$.

Therefore, the answer to the question $PSQR:CFED::JMKL:?$ is $boxed{text{UVXZ}}$.

Here is a table showing the letters in the sequence $PSQR:CFED$ and the corresponding letters in the alphabet:

Letter | Alphabetical position
------- | --------
$P$ | 16
$S$ | 19
$Q$ | 17
$R$ | 18
$C$ | 3
$F$ | 6
$E$ | 5
$D$ | 4

Here is a table showing the letters in the sequence $UVXZ$ and the corresponding letters in the alphabet:

Letter | Alphabetical position
------- | --------
$U$ | 21
$V$ | 22
$X$ | 24
$Z$ | 25

The correct answer is: B. Peltier effect

The Peltier effect is the heating or cooling of a junction between two dissimilar conductors when an electric current is passed through it. It is a non-reversible process, meaning that the heat cannot be completely recovered when the current is turned off.

The Joule effect is the heating of a conductor due to the passage of an electric current. It is a reversible process, meaning that the heat can be completely recovered when the current is turned off.

The Seebeck effect is the generation of an electric potential difference across a junction between two dissimilar conductors when there is a temperature difference between the two junctions. It is a reversible process, meaning that the electric potential difference can be completely recovered when the temperature difference is removed.

The Thomson effect is the heating or cooling of a conductor when it is subjected to a temperature gradient. It is a non-reversible process, meaning that the heat cannot be completely recovered when the temperature gradient is removed.

In conclusion, the Peltier effect is the only non-reversible process listed in the question.

The correct answer is: between.

The word "nexus" means a connection or link between two or more things. In the context of the sentence, the word "nexus" is used to describe the connection between politics and sports in India. The sentence suggests that there is a close relationship between these two areas, and that this relationship is often negative or harmful.

The other options are not as accurate or appropriate in this context. The word "with" could be used to describe a relationship between two things that are not necessarily connected, but it does not convey the sense of closeness or negative impact that is implied in the sentence. The words "among" and "by" are not appropriate in this context because they do not refer to a relationship between two things.

In conclusion, the correct answer is "between" because it is the most accurate and appropriate word to describe the connection between politics and sports in India.

The correct answer is (d). Cyprus is the only country in the list that has Nicosia as its capital city.

Venezuela's capital city is Caracas. New Zealand's capital city is Wellington. Colombia's capital city is Bogota.

Caracas is the capital of Venezuela and the country's largest city. It is located in the northern part of the country, on the Caribbean coast. Caracas is a major economic and cultural center.

Wellington is the capital of New Zealand and the country's third-largest city. It is located on the southern tip of the North Island, on the shores of Wellington Harbour. Wellington is a major political and economic center.

Bogota is the capital of Colombia and the country's largest city. It is located in the central part of the country, on the Bogotá River. Bogota is a major economic, political, and cultural center.

Nicosia is the capital of Cyprus and the world's last divided capital city. It is located on the island of Cyprus, in the eastern Mediterranean Sea. Nicosia is a major economic, political, and cultural center.

The correct answer is (a) Mahesh Das.

Banda Bahadur was born as Mahesh Das in 1600 in the village of Bhunder in the present-day district of Sangrur in Punjab, India. He was a Hindu Brahmin who was initially a disciple of Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru. After the execution of Guru Tegh Bahadur by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675, Mahesh Das became a Sikh and took the name Banda Singh Bahadur.

Banda Singh Bahadur led a rebellion against the Mughals in the late 17th century. He captured several important Mughal forts and cities, including Sirhind and Samana. He also defeated a Mughal army at the Battle of Chappar Chiri in 1705.

Banda Singh Bahadur was eventually captured by the Mughals in 1710 and executed in Delhi. He is considered a martyr by Sikhs and is remembered for his bravery and sacrifice.

The other options are incorrect.

(b) Lachhman Dev was a Hindu saint who lived in the 16th century. He is not related to Banda Singh Bahadur.

(c) Dwarka Das was a Sikh saint who lived in the 17th century. He is not related to Banda Singh Bahadur.

(d) Harnam Das was the name of Guru Har Rai, the seventh Sikh Guru. He is not related to Banda Singh Bahadur.

The correct answer is: B. Ultraviolet radiations from Sun burn our retina.

The Sun emits a lot of different types of radiation, including visible light, infrared light, ultraviolet light, and X-rays. Of these, ultraviolet light is the most harmful to our eyes. Ultraviolet light can damage the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. This damage can lead to vision problems such as cataracts, macular degeneration, and blindness.

When the Sun is blocked by the Moon during a solar eclipse, the amount of visible light that reaches Earth is greatly reduced. However, the amount of ultraviolet light that reaches Earth is not reduced as much. This is because ultraviolet light is scattered less than visible light by the Earth's atmosphere. As a result, it is still possible to suffer eye damage from looking at the Sun during a solar eclipse, even if you are wearing sunglasses.

If you want to safely observe a solar eclipse, you should use a special solar eclipse viewer or eclipse glasses. These devices filter out all of the harmful ultraviolet light from the Sun. You should never look directly at the Sun, even during a solar eclipse, without proper eye protection.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Infrared radiations from sun burn our retina. This is not the correct answer because infrared radiation is not as harmful to our eyes as ultraviolet radiation.
• Option B: Ultraviolet radiations from Sun burn our retina. This is the correct answer because ultraviolet radiation is the most harmful type of radiation from the Sun.
• Option C: All radiations from sun initiate chemical reactions in eyes. This is not the correct answer because not all radiations from the Sun are harmful to our eyes. Only ultraviolet radiation is harmful to our eyes.
• Option D: Cosmic rays reach eyes more during the eclipse. This is not the correct answer because cosmic rays are not as harmful to our eyes as ultraviolet radiation.

The correct answer is: B. Pyranometer

A pyranometer is a device used to measure the intensity of solar radiation. It is a non-imaging radiometer that measures the total solar irradiance (TSI) on a plane perpendicular to the Sun's rays. Pyranometers are used in a variety of applications, including meteorology, agriculture, and solar energy research.

An ammeter is a device used to measure the current in an electric circuit. It is a basic instrument in electrical engineering and is used to measure the current in a variety of circuits, including power supplies, motors, and generators.

A dynamometer is a device used to measure the power or torque of a rotating shaft. It is used in a variety of applications, including engine testing, machine testing, and wind turbine testing.

An anemometer is a device used to measure wind speed. It is a basic instrument in meteorology and is used to measure the wind speed in a variety of applications, including weather forecasting, aviation, and wind energy research.

Pyranometers are typically mounted on a south-facing roof or wall, and they are calibrated to measure the total solar irradiance in watts per square meter (W/m2). The data from pyranometers can be used to calculate the solar energy potential of a location, and it can also be used to monitor the amount of solar radiation that is received by a solar panel or other solar energy system.

The correct answer is: B. Highly elastic

The demand for luxury items is highly elastic, meaning that a small change in price will lead to a large change in demand. This is because luxury items are not essential goods, and consumers are more likely to substitute them for other goods if the price increases. For example, if the price of a high-end sofa increases by 10%, consumers may be more likely to buy a lower-end sofa or even forgo buying a sofa altogether.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• Option A: Unit elastic demand means that the percentage change in demand is equal to the percentage change in price. This is not the case for luxury items, as the percentage change in demand is much greater than the percentage change in price.
• Option C: Fairly elastic demand means that the percentage change in demand is greater than the percentage change in price. This is true for luxury items, but the demand is even more elastic than this.
• Option D: Zero elastic demand means that the demand is not affected by changes in price. This is not the case for luxury items, as the demand is very sensitive to changes in price.

The correct answer is: took.

The sentence is in the past simple tense, which is used to talk about actions that happened and were completed at a specific time in the past. The other options are not in the past simple tense.

• Take is the present tense form of the verb. It is used to talk about actions that happen regularly or repeatedly.
• Has taken is the present perfect tense form of the verb. It is used to talk about actions that started in the past and continue to the present.
• Had taken is the past perfect tense form of the verb. It is used to talk about actions that happened before another action in the past.

In this case, we are talking about an action that happened during Cronin's school years, which is a specific time in the past. Therefore, the past simple tense is the most appropriate tense to use.

The correct answer is (b), Justice M.N. Venkatachalliah.

Justice M.N. Venkatachalliah was the second Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India. He was appointed to the post on 15 January 1993 and served until 14 January 1996.

Justice Venkatachalliah was born on 17 November 1920 in the village of Venkatachalam in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh. He studied law at the University of Madras and was enrolled as an advocate in the Madras High Court in 1947. He served as a judge of the Madras High Court from 1969 to 1978 and as the Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court from 1978 to 1985. He was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1985 and served until his retirement in 1990.

After his retirement from the Supreme Court, Justice Venkatachalliah was appointed as the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission of India. He was a strong advocate for human rights and worked to promote and protect the rights of all people in India. He also served as the Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities and the National Commission for Women.

Justice Venkatachalliah was a highly respected jurist and a champion of human rights. He made significant contributions to the development of human rights law in India and around the world. He died on 24 December 2009 at the age of 89.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Justice A.S. Anand was the third Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India. He was appointed to the post on 15 January 1996 and served until 14 January 2000.

(c) Justice Shivaraj V. Patil was the fourth Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India. He was appointed to the post on 15 January 2000 and served until 14 January 2003.

(d) Justice S. Rajendra Babu was the fifth Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India. He was appointed to the post on 15 January 2003 and served until 14 January 2006.

The correct answer is: A. 1.3 Billion years

Blue-green algae are the oldest fossils found on Earth. They were found in limestones with the age almost as old as 1.3 billion years.

Blue-green algae are a type of bacteria that can photosynthesize. They are the oldest known photosynthetic organisms and are thought to have played a major role in the development of the Earth's atmosphere.

Limestone is a type of sedimentary rock that is formed from the accumulation of calcium carbonate. It is often found in marine environments and can be used to date fossils.

The age of a fossil can be determined by a variety of methods, including radiometric dating and stratigraphy. Radiometric dating is a technique that uses the decay of radioactive elements to determine the age of a rock or fossil. Stratigraphy is the study of the layers of rock and their relative ages.

The fossils of blue-green algae found in limestones with the age almost as old as 1.3 billion years provide evidence that these organisms were present on Earth at a very early stage in its history. This finding suggests that blue-green algae may have played a role in the development of the Earth's atmosphere and the evolution of life on Earth.

The other options are incorrect because they are not as old as 1.3 billion years.

The correct answer is (c), Chaudhary Charan Singh.

Chaudhary Charan Singh was the 6th Prime Minister of India, serving from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980. He was the leader of the Janata Party and formed the government with the support of the Congress (I) party. However, he lost the confidence motion in the Lok Sabha on 14 January 1980 and was replaced by Indira Gandhi.

Chaudhary Charan Singh never faced the Parliament during his tenure as Prime Minister. This is because he was not elected to the Lok Sabha in the 1977 general election. He was elected to the Rajya Sabha in 1978. However, the Rajya Sabha is not a directly elected body and its members are not accountable to the people.

The other three options, Chandra Sekhar, V.P. Singh, and Atal Behari Vajpayee, all faced the Parliament during their tenure as Prime Minister. Chandra Sekhar was the 9th Prime Minister of India, serving from 2 December 1990 to 10 November 1991. He was the leader of the Janata Dal and formed the government with the support of the Congress (I) party. V.P. Singh was the 10th Prime Minister of India, serving from 2 December 1989 to 10 November 1990. He was the leader of the Janata Dal and formed the government with the support of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Atal Behari Vajpayee was the 11th and 13th Prime Minister of India, serving from 16 May 1996 to 12 May 1998 and from 13 October 1999 to 22 May 2004. He was the leader of the BJP and formed the government with the support of the All India Trinamool Congress (TMC) and the Shiv Sena.

The correct answer is (b) April – March.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India. It was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

The RBI is responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy, regulating the financial system, and issuing currency in India. It also acts as the banker to the government of India and the banker's bank.

The RBI's financial year is from April 1 to March 31. This is the same as the financial year of the Government of India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option (a) is the financial year of the Government of the United States.
• Option (c) is the financial year of the European Union.
• Option (d) is the financial year of Japan.

The correct answer is (b), Appointment.

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is an Indian governmental agency that conducts the Civil Services Examination, the Indian Administrative Service Examination, and the Indian Foreign Service Examination. The UPSC is also responsible for the selection of candidates for the Indian Police Service, the Indian Revenue Service, and other central government services.

The UPSC's selection process is a multi-stage process that includes written examinations, interviews, and physical tests. The last step in the UPSC's selection process is the appointment of the successful candidates to the various government services.

(a) Selection is the process of identifying and choosing the best candidates for a particular job or position. The UPSC's selection process is designed to identify the best candidates for the various government services.

(b) Appointment is the process of formally hiring a person to a particular job or position. The UPSC is responsible for appointing the successful candidates to the various government services.

(c) Certification is the process of formally recognizing or confirming the qualifications of a person or organization. The UPSC does not issue certificates to the successful candidates.

(d) Establishment is the process of setting up or founding something. The UPSC does not establish the various government services.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian social reformer, politician, and economist who was one of the most important leaders of the Indian independence movement. He was born in 1866 in the village of Kothapur in the Konkan region of Maharashtra. He studied at Elphinstone College in Mumbai and then at the University of Bombay, where he received a master's degree in English literature. After graduating, he taught mathematics at Fergusson College in Pune. In 1887, he founded the Servants of India Society, a social service organization that worked to improve the lives of the poor and oppressed in India. He also served as a member of the Indian National Congress and was its president in 1907. Gokhale was a strong advocate for Indian self-rule and worked to improve the relationship between India and Britain. He died in 1915 at the age of 48.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a brilliant scholar and a gifted orator. He was also a man of great integrity and compassion. He was a true patriot who dedicated his life to the service of his country. He is remembered as one of the most important figures in the history of the Indian independence movement.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1887. The Servants of India Society was a social service organization that worked to improve the lives of the poor and oppressed in India.
• Option B: Gopal Krishna Gokhale served as President of the Indian National Congress in 1907. The Indian National Congress was a political party that worked for Indian independence.
• Option C: Gopal Krishna Gokhale started as a maths teacher and rose to the position of the principal of Ferguson College, Pune. Ferguson College is a college in Pune, India.

The correct answer is (a) 8.

A perfect square is a number that can be obtained by squaring an integer. For example, 16 is a perfect square because it is equal to $4^2$.

To find the last number that must be added to 7912 to make it a perfect square, we can start by finding the square root of 7912. The square root of 7912 is approximately 88.83. This means that 7912 is very close to $88.83^2$, which is 7793.24.

To make 7912 a perfect square, we need to add a number that is close to 7793.24 - 7912 = -120.76. The only answer choice that is close to -120.76 is 8.

Therefore, the last number that must be added to 7912 to make it a perfect square is 8.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) 8: This is the correct answer. 8 is the only answer choice that is close to -120.76, which is the difference between 7793.24 and 7912.
(b) 9: 9 is not close to -120.76. Therefore, it is not the correct answer.
(c) 12: 12 is not close to -120.76. Therefore, it is not the correct answer.
(d) 16: 16 is not close to -120.76. Therefore, it is not the correct answer.

Montane Wet Temperate forests are found in upper reaches of North Bengal hills with an altitude between 1650m-3000m.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Regional disparities, socio-economic inequalities, and gender disparities are all factors that contribute to inequality in human development within West Bengal.

Regional disparities are differences in the level of development between different parts of a country. In West Bengal, there are significant regional disparities, with some districts having much higher levels of development than others. This is due to a number of factors, including differences in natural resources, infrastructure, and investment.

Socio-economic inequalities are differences in the level of wealth, income, and access to resources between different groups of people. In West Bengal, there are significant socio-economic inequalities, with a small minority of people controlling a large share of the wealth and resources. This is due to a number of factors, including historical factors, such as the caste system, and more recent factors, such as the liberalization of the economy.

Gender disparities are differences in the level of development between men and women. In West Bengal, there are significant gender disparities, with women having lower levels of education, employment, and health than men. This is due to a number of factors, including traditional gender roles, discrimination, and violence against women.

These factors are all interrelated and contribute to the overall inequality in human development within West Bengal.

The correct answer is: A. implicit cost.

Normal profit is the minimum amount of profit that a firm must earn in order to remain in business. It is the amount of profit that a firm would earn if it were to produce its output at the lowest possible cost. Normal profit is not included in the firm's explicit costs, which are the costs that the firm incurs in order to produce its output. Explicit costs include the costs of labor, materials, and capital. Normal profit is included in the firm's implicit costs, which are the costs that the firm incurs in order to use its resources. Implicit costs include the opportunity cost of the firm's resources, which is the amount of profit that the firm could earn if it were to use its resources in another way.

Implicit costs are not included in the firm's accounting profit, which is the firm's total revenue minus its explicit costs. However, implicit costs are included in the firm's economic profit, which is the firm's total revenue minus its total costs, both explicit and implicit.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Implicit cost: Implicit costs are the costs that a firm incurs in order to use its resources. Implicit costs include the opportunity cost of the firm's resources, which is the amount of profit that the firm could earn if it were to use its resources in another way.
• Explicit cost: Explicit costs are the costs that the firm incurs in order to produce its output. Explicit costs include the costs of labor, materials, and capital.
• Real cost: Real cost is the cost of a good or service in terms of the goods and services that must be given up in order to obtain it.
• Opportunity cost: Opportunity cost is the cost of a good or service in terms of the next best alternative that must be forgone in order to obtain it.

The correct answer is: C. by water erosion.

Crop rotation is a system of farming where different types of crops are grown in the same field in a planned sequence. This helps to prevent the loss of topsoil, which can be caused by water erosion. When the same crop is grown in the same field year after year, the soil can become depleted of nutrients and more susceptible to erosion. Crop rotation helps to replenish the nutrients in the soil and also helps to break up the soil, which makes it less likely to be eroded by water.

Option A: Weathering is the process of breaking down rocks and minerals by the action of wind, water, and ice. Crop rotation does not help to prevent weathering.

Option B: Wind erosion is the process of soil being blown away by the wind. Crop rotation can help to prevent wind erosion by breaking up the soil and creating a barrier between the soil and the wind.

Option D: The loss of mineral content in the soil is not a major concern with crop rotation. Crop rotation helps to replenish the nutrients in the soil, which helps to prevent the loss of mineral content.

The correct answer is (c) Maitri.

Maitri is an Indian research station in Antarctica. It is located at Schirmacher Oasis, which is about 2,800 km from the South Pole. The station was established in 1989 and is operated by the Indian Ministry of Earth Sciences. Maitri is the only Indian research station in Antarctica.

The station is used for a variety of scientific research, including studies of the atmosphere, the ice sheet, and the marine environment. It is also used as a base for training and research by Indian scientists.

The station is named after the Sanskrit word for "friendship". It was chosen to reflect the spirit of cooperation between India and other countries that are involved in research in Antarctica.

(a) Bharti is an Indian research station in Ladakh. It is located at an altitude of 4,500 meters and is used for studies of the atmosphere and the environment.

(b) Dakshni Gangotri is an Indian research station in the Himalayas. It is located at an altitude of 7,800 meters and is used for studies of the atmosphere and the environment.

(d) None of the above is a research station in Antarctica.

The correct answer is D. Temple : Hindu.

The Avesta is the holy book of Zoroastrianism, the Torah is the holy book of Judaism, and the Tripitaka is the holy book of Buddhism. All three of these books are sacred texts that are central to the religious beliefs and practices of their respective faiths.

A temple is a place of worship for Hindus, but it is not the only place where Hindus can worship. Hindus can also worship at home, in a river, or in any other place that they consider to be sacred.

Therefore, the pair "Temple : Hindu" is the only pair in which the words are not directly related.

The correct answer is: A) Higher human development.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A higher HDI value indicates a higher level of human development.

The HDI is a valuable tool for assessing the progress of countries towards achieving human development goals. It is also a useful tool for comparing the human development of different countries.

However, the HDI has some limitations. It does not take into account inequality within countries. It also does not take into account environmental sustainability.

Despite its limitations, the HDI is a valuable tool for assessing the progress of countries towards achieving human development goals.

The sex of a newborn baby is determined by the chromosome inherited from the father. The father's sperm contains either an X or a Y chromosome, and the mother's egg always contains an X chromosome. If the sperm that fertilizes the egg contains an X chromosome, the baby will be a girl. If the sperm that fertilizes the egg contains a Y chromosome, the baby will be a boy.

Option A is the correct answer. The father's sperm determines the sex of the baby.

Option B is incorrect. The mother's egg always contains an X chromosome.

Option C is incorrect. The father's father does not have any direct influence on the sex of the baby.

Option D is incorrect. Only the father's sperm determines the sex of the baby.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Fiscal policy is the use of government revenue collection (taxation) and expenditure (spending) to influence the economy. The goals of fiscal policy are to promote economic growth and development, ensure social justice and equity, and maintain macroeconomic stability.

Economic growth and development are important for improving the standard of living of citizens. Government spending on infrastructure, education, and healthcare can help to promote economic growth and development.

Social justice and equity are important for creating a fair and just society. Government spending on social programs, such as welfare and unemployment benefits, can help to ensure social justice and equity.

Macroeconomic stability is important for creating a stable and predictable economic environment. Government spending and taxation can be used to control inflation, unemployment, and interest rates.

In conclusion, the state government's fiscal policy aims to promote economic growth and development, ensure social justice and equity, and maintain macroeconomic stability.

The correct answer is (b). Disk Cleanup is a Windows utility that helps you to free up disk space on your computer. It does this by removing temporary files, recycle bin files, and other unnecessary files from your computer.

(a) Disk close up is not a real tool.
(c) System configuration is a Windows tool that allows you to configure various system settings.
(d) System file checker is a Windows tool that scans your computer for system file corruption and repairs any errors that it finds.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "mistake" is a non-count noun, which means it does not have a plural form and cannot be preceded by an article. For example, you would not say "I have made a mistake" or "I have made two mistakes." Instead, you would say "I have made a mistake" or "I have made mistakes."

In this case, the speaker is not referring to a specific mistake, but rather to mistakes in general. Therefore, the article "a" or "an" would not be appropriate. The article "the" would also not be appropriate, because the speaker is not referring to a specific mistake that has already been mentioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. no article.

The correct answer is (d), Zinc Oxide.

Zinc oxide is a white, odorless, tasteless powder that is used in a variety of products, including cosmetics, sunscreen, and pharmaceuticals. It is also used in the manufacture of ceramics, glass, and rubber.

Zinc oxide is a good conductor of heat and electricity, and it is also a good absorber of ultraviolet light. These properties make it ideal for use in glazing pottery. When zinc oxide is added to a glaze, it helps to create a smooth, even surface that is resistant to chipping and cracking. It also helps to protect the pottery from the elements.

Alum, calomel, and zinc chloride are all substances that are used in other applications, but they are not used in glazing pottery. Alum is a double sulfate of aluminum and potassium that is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning. Calomel is a mercury(II) chloride that is used as a purgative and diuretic. Zinc chloride is a zinc salt that is used as a wood preservative and a galvanizing agent.

The correct answer is (a) Eastern Ghat, Western Ghat.

The Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats are mountain ranges that run parallel to the east and west coasts of India, respectively. They are important biodiversity hotspots, containing a wide variety of plant and animal species. The Eastern Ghats are home to the Eastern Ghats Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Western Ghats are home to the Western Ghats Biosphere Reserve, which is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The Vindhyan Range is a mountain range that runs through central India. It is not a biodiversity hotspot. The Shivalik Range is a mountain range that runs along the foothills of the Himalayas. It is not a biodiversity hotspot.

The Eastern Ghat and Western Ghat are important for a number of reasons. They provide a home for a wide variety of plant and animal species. They also help to regulate the climate and provide a source of water for millions of people. The Eastern Ghat and Western Ghat are also important for tourism.

The Eastern Ghat and Western Ghat are facing a number of threats, including deforestation, mining, and pollution. These threats are putting the biodiversity of the Eastern Ghat and Western Ghat at risk. It is important to protect the Eastern Ghat and Western Ghat so that they can continue to provide a home for a wide variety of plant and animal species and help to regulate the climate.

Tripti Mitra co-founded Bohurupee, the theatre group with her husband, Sombhu Mitra.

The correct answer is (d), Cytokinin.

Cytokinins are a group of plant hormones that promote cell division and cell expansion. They are also involved in the regulation of plant growth and development, including the regulation of leaf senescence, the promotion of root growth, and the inhibition of fruit ripening.

Insulin is a hormone that is produced by the pancreas and helps the body to use glucose for energy. Thyroxin is a hormone that is produced by the thyroid gland and helps to regulate metabolism. Estrogen is a hormone that is produced by the ovaries and helps to regulate the menstrual cycle and female sexual development.

All of these hormones are important for human health, but only cytokinin is a plant hormone.

The correct answer is A. Kharaj.

Kharaj is a tax on land that was levied by the Muslim rulers on non-Muslims living in their empire. It was a form of poll tax that was paid in exchange for protection and security. The rate of kharaj varied depending on the type of land and the productivity of the land.

Jizya is a tax that was levied on non-Muslims who did not convert to Islam. It was a form of poll tax that was paid in exchange for the right to live and practice their religion in the Muslim empire. The rate of jizya was lower than the rate of kharaj.

Khums is a tax that is levied on the profits of trade and commerce. It is a form of wealth tax that is paid to the state. The rate of khums is 20%.

Zakat is a tax that is levied on the wealth of Muslims. It is a form of almsgiving that is paid to the poor and needy. The rate of zakat is 2.5%.

Kharaj was the most important source of revenue for the Muslim rulers during the Sultanate period. It was a major source of income for the state and it was used to finance the military, the bureaucracy, and other government expenses.

The correct answer is: C. Holkar Trophy - Bridge

The Nehru Trophy is a water polo tournament held in India. The B.C. Roy Trophy is a lawn tennis tournament held in India. The Ruia Trophy is a kabaddi tournament held in India. The Holkar Trophy is a bridge tournament held in India.

Bridge is a card game for four players, played with a standard 52-card deck. The goal of the game is to take tricks, which are sets of cards of the same suit. The player who takes the trick leads the next trick. The game is won by the team that takes the most tricks.

The Holkar Trophy is a bridge tournament held in India. It is one of the oldest and most prestigious bridge tournaments in the country. The tournament is named after Maharaja Yeshwantrao Holkar III of Indore, who was a patron of the game of bridge.

The Holkar Trophy is held every year in Indore. The tournament is open to all bridge players, regardless of their skill level. The tournament is divided into several sections, each of which caters to a different level of player.

The Holkar Trophy is a great opportunity for bridge players to compete against some of the best players in India. It is also a great opportunity for players to learn from each other and improve their skills.

The Holkar Trophy is a prestigious tournament that is held in high regard by bridge players all over India. It is a tournament that is sure to test the skills of even the most experienced bridge players.

The correct answer is: A. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

Soda glass is a mixture of sodium and calcium silicates. Crown glass is a mixture of sodium, barium, zinc and magnesium silicates. Flint glass is a mixture of sodium, zinc and aluminium silicates. Pyrex glass is a mixture of borosilicates.

Soda glass is the most common type of glass. It is used in a variety of applications, including windows, bottles, and containers. Crown glass is a type of glass that is known for its clarity and brilliance. It is used in a variety of applications, including optical lenses and windows. Flint glass is a type of glass that is known for its high refractive index. It is used in a variety of applications, including optical lenses and prisms. Pyrex glass is a type of glass that is known for its resistance to thermal shock. It is used in a variety of applications, including ovenware and laboratory glassware.

The correct answer is could.

The verb "could" is used to talk about ability in the past. In this case, the question is asking about the speaker's ability to swim when they were five years old. The speaker is not asking about their ability to swim now, so the verb "can" is not appropriate. The verb "do" is not used to talk about ability, so it is also not appropriate. The verb "are" is used to talk about identity, so it is also not appropriate.

Here are some examples of how the verb "could" is used to talk about ability in the past:

• I could swim when I was five years old.
• She could play the piano when she was a child.
• They could speak French when they lived in Paris.

In each of these examples, the speaker is talking about an ability that they had in the past but no longer have.

West bengal shares its international boundaries with Bangladesh in South-east, Bhutan in North and Nepal in North-west

Charak Puja is held on the dau of Chaitra Sakranti. The festival is devoted to the deities Shiva and Shakti.

The correct answer is: B. Momentum

The Planck constant is a fundamental physical constant that is used to describe the behavior of light and matter at the atomic and subatomic level. It is denoted by the symbol $hbar$ and has the value $6.62607015 × 10^{-34}$ joule-seconds.

The dimension of momentum is mass times velocity, which is equivalent to energy divided by time. The Planck constant has the same dimension as momentum because it is a measure of the energy of a photon divided by the time it takes for the photon to travel a distance of one wavelength.

The other options are incorrect because they do not have the same dimension as momentum. Energy has the dimension of mass times length squared divided by time squared, angular momentum has the dimension of mass times length squared times angular velocity, and power has the dimension of energy divided by time.

The correct answer is: A. Article-352

Article 352 of the Indian Constitution provides for the proclamation of a state of emergency in the country. The President can proclaim a state of emergency if he is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

When a state of emergency is proclaimed, the President can suspend the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution, including the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The President can also assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government, or of any State Legislature, or of any authority or functionary in the State.

The proclamation of a state of emergency can be made for a period of six months, but it can be extended for a further period of six months at a time. The proclamation of a state of emergency can be revoked by the President at any time.

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution provides for the imposition of President's rule in a State. The President can impose President's rule in a State if he is satisfied that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

When President's rule is imposed, the President assumes to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government, or of any State Legislature, or of any authority or functionary in the State. The President can also appoint a Governor to exercise the functions of the State Government.

President's rule can be imposed for a period of six months, but it can be extended for a further period of six months at a time. President's rule can be revoked by the President at any time.

Article 389 of the Indian Constitution provides for the suspension of the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution in the event of a Proclamation of Emergency. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in force, the President can suspend the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution, including the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Article 392 of the Indian Constitution provides for the temporary suspension of the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution in the event of a Proclamation of Financial Emergency. When a Proclamation of Financial Emergency is in force, the President can suspend the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution, including the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

The correct answer is D. Paseo.

A computer is a machine that can be programmed to carry out sequences of arithmetic or logical operations automatically. Modern computers can perform generic sets of operations known as programs. These programs enable computers to perform a wide range of tasks.

Aptiva is a line of personal computers that was manufactured by IBM from 1994 to 2004.

Macintosh is a line of personal computers designed, developed, and marketed by Apple Inc. since January 24, 1984. Macintosh computers use the Mac OS operating system, which was the first widely used graphical user interface (GUI) operating system.

Acorn was a British computer company that was founded in 1978. Acorn developed a number of successful personal computers, including the BBC Micro and the Archimedes.

Paseo was a personal digital assistant (PDA) that was developed by Hewlett-Packard in 1998. The Paseo was not a successful product and was discontinued in 2000.

The correct answer is C. Susunia Hill.

Susunia Hill is a Mesolithic site known for its rock paintings in West Bengal. The paintings are located on the southern face of the hill and depict a variety of animals, including tigers, elephants, deer, and rhinoceroses. The paintings are also believed to depict human figures, although these are less well-preserved.

The rock paintings at Susunia Hill are thought to have been created by the Mesolithic people who lived in the area around 10,000 years ago. The paintings are an important archaeological site, as they provide valuable insights into the lives of these early people.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Birbhanpur is a Buddhist site from the Gupta period.
* Pandu Rajar Dhibi is a Chalcolithic site.
* Mahasthangarh is an early historic site.

The correct answer is B. diligent.

Diligence is the quality of being careful and persistent in doing something. Ants are known for their hard work and dedication to their tasks. They are constantly working to gather food, build nests, and care for their young. They are also very organized and efficient in their work.

The other options are not as accurate descriptions of ants. Ants are not necessarily sensible, as they can sometimes be quite destructive. They are also not always successful, as they can be preyed upon by other animals. And they are not always punctual, as they may sometimes take breaks from their work.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Ant is believed to be the most industrious creature. A. sensible B. diligent C. successful D. punctual" is B. diligent.

The correct answer is B. Door.

A door is a movable barrier that allows people and objects to pass through an opening in a wall, fence, or other barrier. Doors are typically made of wood, metal, or glass, and they can be either hinged or sliding. Hinged doors swing open and closed on hinges, while sliding doors move horizontally along tracks. Doors can be locked to prevent unauthorized access, and they can also be equipped with security features such as peepholes and deadbolts.

The other options are incorrect because they are not typically used to lock, shut, or fasten things. A window is an opening in a wall or roof that allows light and air to enter a building. An iron is a heavy metal that is used to make tools and other objects. A block is a solid piece of material that is used to support or hold something in place.

Here is a table that summarizes the information about each option:

| Option | Description |
|---|---|
| Door | A movable barrier that allows people and objects to pass through an opening in a wall, fence, or other barrier. |
| Window | An opening in a wall or roof that allows light and air to enter a building. |
| Iron | A heavy metal that is used to make tools and other objects. |
| Block | A solid piece of material that is used to support or hold something in place. |

The correct answer is B. Satnamis.

The Satnamis are a Bhakti sect founded by Birbhan in the 16th century. Their religious granth, the Adi Granth, is revered like the Granth of the Sikhs.

The Satnamis believe in one God, who is formless and without attributes. They believe that all people are equal in the eyes of God, and that there is no need for priests or temples. They practice a simple form of worship, which includes singing hymns, meditating, and reading the Adi Granth.

The Satnamis are a peaceful and egalitarian sect. They have a strong tradition of social service, and they are active in promoting education and health care.

The other options are incorrect.

A. Pothi is a general term for a book or manuscript. It is not the name of any specific religious text.

C. Vaishanavism is a Hindu sect that worships Vishnu as the supreme deity. It is not a Bhakti sect.

D. Shaivism is a Hindu sect that worships Shiva as the supreme deity. It is not a Bhakti sect.

The correct answer is (c), violet.

Violet light has the shortest wavelength of visible light, and therefore travels the slowest in glass. Red light has the longest wavelength of visible light, and therefore travels the fastest in glass.

The speed of light in a medium is given by the equation $v = frac{c}{mu}$, where $c$ is the speed of light in a vacuum and $mu$ is the refractive index of the medium. The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much light slows down when it passes through the medium. The refractive index of glass is typically around 1.5, which means that light travels about 1.5 times slower in glass than it does in a vacuum.

The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the wavelength of light. Shorter wavelengths of light have a higher refractive index than longer wavelengths of light. This is why violet light, which has the shortest wavelength of visible light, travels the slowest in glass.

The correct answer is: A. Planetary Motion

Kepler's laws of planetary motion are three physical laws that describe the motion of planets around the Sun. They were first published by Johannes Kepler in 1609. The laws are:

1. The orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.
2. A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

Kepler's laws are based on the observation of the motion of the planets around the Sun. They were not derived from any underlying theory, but were instead empirical laws that were found to be consistent with the data. However, Kepler's laws can be derived from Newton's law of gravitation, which provides a theoretical explanation for the motion of planets.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but can only be transferred from one form to another. This law is based on the observation that the total energy of a system remains constant over time. The Law of Conservation of Energy is a fundamental law of physics, and it has been tested and verified in many different experiments.

The Law of Gravitation states that every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This law was first proposed by Isaac Newton in 1687. The Law of Gravitation is a fundamental law of physics, and it has been tested and verified in many different experiments.

Therefore, the Law of Kepler is related to planetary motion.

The correct answer is: A. Electrons and protons

An atom is the smallest unit of ordinary matter that forms a chemical element. Every solid, liquid, gas, and plasma is composed of neutral or ionized atoms. Atoms are extremely small, typically around 100 picometers across. They are so small that accurately predicting their behavior using classical physics is impossible. Instead, quantum mechanics must be used to correctly describe and predict their behavior.

The center of an atom, called the nucleus, contains protons and neutrons. Protons have a positive electric charge, neutrons have no electric charge, and electrons have a negative electric charge. The number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic number and determines the chemical element of the atom. For example, all carbon atoms have 6 protons in their nucleus. The number of neutrons in the nucleus is called the neutron number. Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes. For example, carbon-12 has 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 has 8 neutrons.

The electrons in an atom are attracted to the protons in the nucleus by the electromagnetic force. The electrons are arranged in shells around the nucleus, with each shell having a maximum number of electrons. The first shell can hold up to 2 electrons, the second shell can hold up to 8 electrons, the third shell can hold up to 18 electrons, and so on. The electrons in the outermost shell are called valence electrons. The number of valence electrons determines the chemical properties of an atom.

For example, hydrogen has 1 proton in its nucleus and 1 electron in its outermost shell. This means that hydrogen has 1 valence electron. Oxygen has 8 protons in its nucleus and 8 electrons in its outermost shell. This means that oxygen has 8 valence electrons.

The electrons in an atom are constantly moving around the nucleus. They can move from one shell to another, but they can never be found in the nucleus. The electrons in an atom are what give it its chemical properties.

The correct answer is: D. Badminton

The Thomas Cup is an international badminton competition contested by the men's national teams of the member associations of the Badminton World Federation (BWF). It is named after Sir George Alan Thomas, a former president of the BWF. The tournament is held every two years, with the exception of 1942 and 1946 when it was not held due to World War II.

The Thomas Cup is one of the most prestigious badminton tournaments in the world. It is considered to be the equivalent of the Davis Cup in tennis. The current holders of the Thomas Cup are Indonesia, who won the 2020 Thomas Cup Final against China.

The Thomas Cup is played in a round-robin format, with each team playing each of the other teams in their group once. The top two teams from each group progress to the knockout stage, which consists of a single-elimination tournament. The final is played between the winners of the two semi-finals.

The Thomas Cup has been won by 15 different countries since its inception in 1949. Indonesia is the most successful team, having won the tournament 14 times. China has won the tournament 10 times, while Malaysia has won the tournament five times. Denmark, India, Japan, South Korea, and Sweden have each won the tournament once.

The Thomas Cup is a major event in the badminton calendar. It is a chance for the best men's badminton players in the world to compete against each other. The tournament is always exciting and unpredictable, and it is always a major attraction for badminton fans.

The correct answer is: B. Coherent and monochromatic.

A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. The term "laser" originated as an acronym for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation".

Laser light is characterized by its high degree of coherence, monochromaticity, and brightness. Coherence refers to the fact that the light waves in a laser beam are all in phase with each other. This means that the peaks and troughs of the waves line up perfectly, which results in a very narrow, intense beam of light. Monochromaticity refers to the fact that laser light is of a single wavelength. This means that the light is all of the same color, which results in a very pure beam of light. Brightness refers to the amount of energy that is contained in a laser beam. Lasers can be very bright, which makes them useful for a variety of applications, such as cutting, welding, and surgery.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because laser light is coherent.
• Option C is incorrect because laser light is monochromatic.
• Option D is incorrect because laser light is both coherent and monochromatic.

The correct answer is of.

The word "of" is used to indicate that someone is accused of doing something. In this case, the speaker is accusing the person of stealing the pen.

The other options are not correct because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

• The word "for" is used to indicate a reason or purpose. In this case, the speaker is not saying that the person stole the pen for a reason.
• The word "over" is used to indicate a position or location. In this case, the speaker is not saying that the person stole the pen from a particular location.
• The word "by" is used to indicate a means or method. In this case, the speaker is not saying that the person stole the pen using a particular method.

Sambad Pravakar, started in 1839, was the first Bengali daily newspaper.

The correct answer is A. Only 1.

Decrease in demand is caused by change in factors other than own price of the commodity. This is because the demand curve is downward sloping, which means that as the price of a good decreases, consumers will demand more of it. However, if there are other factors that change, such as income, taste, or the prices of related goods, the demand curve can shift. For example, if income increases, consumers will demand more of all goods, including the good in question. This would cause the demand curve to shift to the right.

Contraction of demand is caused by decrease in own price of the same commodity. This is not correct. As explained above, a decrease in the price of a good will cause an increase in demand, not a decrease.

Extension of demand is caused by increase in own price of the same commodity. This is also not correct. As explained above, an increase in the price of a good will cause a decrease in demand, not an increase.

The correct answer is A. gifts.

The word "bounty" means "a generous gift". In this context, the bounties of nature are the many resources that the Earth provides us with, such as food, water, and air. These resources are essential for our survival, and we should be grateful for them. However, humans are often careless with these resources, and we are exploiting them at an unsustainable rate. This is causing damage to the environment and threatening our own well-being.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the bounties of nature. Option B, "products", suggests that these resources are something that we can simply buy and sell. However, they are much more than that. They are the foundation of our existence, and we should treat them with respect. Option C, "rules", suggests that these resources are something that we are bound by. However, this is not the case. We have the freedom to use these resources as we see fit, but we should do so responsibly. Option D, "ecological", suggests that these resources are something that we should protect. This is true, but it is not the only thing that we should do. We should also appreciate and be grateful for these resources.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. gifts. The bounties of nature are the many resources that the Earth provides us with, and we should be grateful for them. However, we are often careless with these resources, and we are exploiting them at an unsustainable rate. This is causing damage to the environment and threatening our own well-being.

The leader of the Jari dance group is called Ustad and the others are called Dohar.

Mahendra Singh Dhoni made his ODI debut for India against Bangladesh in Chittagong on December 13, 2004. He was 23 years old at the time. He scored 12 runs in his first match.

Chittagong is a city in Bangladesh. It is the second largest city in the country after Dhaka. It is located on the banks of the Karnaphuli River. Chittagong is a major port city and is also a center of trade and commerce.

Dhaka is the capital of Bangladesh. It is the largest city in the country. It is located on the banks of the Buriganga River. Dhaka is a major center of education, culture, and commerce.

Hyderabad is a city in India. It is the capital of the state of Telangana. It is the fifth largest city in India. Hyderabad is a major center of education, technology, and culture.

Visakhapatnam is a city in India. It is the capital of the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is the third largest city in the state. Visakhapatnam is a major port city and is also a center of trade and commerce.

The correct answer is B. Bagdi.

Bhawaiya is a folk dance and music tradition that originated in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is performed by the Bagdi community, who are a scheduled caste. The dance is characterized by its vigorous movements and its use of drums and cymbals. It is often performed at weddings and other festivals.

The Bagdi are a tribal people who live in the eastern part of India. They are traditionally farmers and laborers. The Bagdi are a very diverse group, with a wide range of customs and traditions. However, they share a common history of oppression and discrimination.

The Bhawaiya dance is a way for the Bagdi to express their culture and their identity. It is a way for them to connect with their past and to celebrate their present. The dance is also a way for the Bagdi to challenge the stereotypes that are often associated with them.

The Bhawaiya dance is a powerful and moving performance. It is a reminder of the strength and resilience of the Bagdi people. It is also a celebration of their culture and their identity.

The other options are incorrect.

Option A, Rajbanshi, is a community that lives in the northeastern Indian state of Assam. They are a scheduled tribe. The Rajbanshi are traditionally farmers and fishermen.

Option C, Mahali, is a community that lives in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. They are a scheduled caste. The Mahali are traditionally fishermen and laborers.

Option D, Jele, is a community that lives in the northeastern Indian state of Assam. They are a scheduled tribe. The Jele are traditionally fishermen and boatmen.

The correct answer is A) Rishra (near Kolkata).

Rishra is a town in the Hooghly district of West Bengal, India. It is located about 15 kilometers from Kolkata. Rishra is famous for its jute mills. The first jute mill in Rishra was established in 1855. The town has a population of about 100,000 people.

Durgapur is a city in the Burdwan district of West Bengal, India. It is located about 250 kilometers from Kolkata. Durgapur is a major industrial city. The city has a population of about 1 million people.

Haldia is a port city in the Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal, India. It is located about 120 kilometers from Kolkata. Haldia is a major port city. The city has a population of about 200,000 people.

Kharagpur is a city in the Paschim Medinipur district of West Bengal, India. It is located about 170 kilometers from Kolkata. Kharagpur is a major educational and research center. The city has a population of about 150,000 people.

The correct answer is: All of the options.

Halogens are a group of elements in the periodic table that are highly reactive and have a strong affinity for electrons. They are found in nature in the form of salts, and are also released into the environment through human activities such as emissions from automobiles, industrial processes, and the use of pesticides.

Emissions from automobiles are a major source of halogens in the environment. When gasoline is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants, including halogens such as chlorine and bromine. These pollutants can be transported long distances by the wind and can eventually fall to the ground in rain or snow.

Industrial processes are another major source of halogens in the environment. Chlorine is used in a variety of industrial processes, including the production of plastics, paper, and textiles. Bromine is used in the production of flame retardants and other chemicals. These industrial processes release halogens into the air and water, where they can contaminate ecosystems and pose a risk to human health.

The use of pesticides is another source of halogens in the environment. Pesticides are used to control pests such as insects, rodents, and weeds. Many pesticides contain halogens, which can be released into the environment when the pesticides are applied. These halogens can contaminate soil, water, and air, and can pose a risk to human health.

In conclusion, all of the options are sources of halogens in the environment. Emissions from automobiles, industrial processes, and the use of pesticides all release halogens into the environment, where they can contaminate ecosystems and pose a risk to human health.

Stone temples of Pakbira is located in Pakbira village, 40 km away from Purulia.

The correct answer is (b). Article 280 of the Constitution of India deals with the Finance Commission. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body constituted every five years to review the financial relations between the Union and the States and to make recommendations to the President on the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States, the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States, and the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of India.

The other options are incorrect. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank set up by the Government of India in 2015. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a statutory body established by the Government of India in 1970 to safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Tribes. The Election Commission is an independent constitutional body responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, the State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and the Vice-President of India.

The answer is D. 362.

The other three numbers are all the sum of two squares.

173 = 12 + 144
263 = 16 + 249
284 = 19 + 265

362 is not the sum of two squares.

The correct answer is: The intensity of gravitational field of earth is maximum at the poles.

The gravitational field intensity at a point is defined as the force per unit mass acting on a particle placed at that point. The gravitational field intensity at the poles is maximum because the Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator. This means that the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface is greater at the equator than it is at the poles. The gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two objects. Therefore, the gravitational force at the poles is greater than the gravitational force at the equator.

The gravitational field intensity at the center of the Earth is zero. This is because the gravitational forces from all sides of the Earth cancel each other out at the center.

The gravitational field intensity at the surface of the Earth is less than the gravitational field intensity at the poles. This is because the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface is greater at the equator than it is at the poles. The gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two objects. Therefore, the gravitational force at the equator is less than the gravitational force at the poles.

The correct answer is: Only assumption II is implicit.

The statement "Beware of dogs, our dogs do not bark, but they are trained to distinguish between genuine guests and intruders" does not provide enough information to support assumption I, that barking dogs bite rarely. It is possible that barking dogs bite often, but that our dogs are an exception. The statement also does not provide enough information to support assumption II, that our dogs could be dangerous for intruders. It is possible that our dogs are friendly and would never harm anyone, even an intruder. However, the statement does suggest that our dogs are trained to distinguish between genuine guests and intruders, which means that they are likely to be more aggressive towards intruders than towards genuine guests. Therefore, the only assumption that is implicit in the statement is assumption II.

Jyoti Basu was India's longest serving Chief Minister. He served as the Chief Minister of West Bengal from 1977 to 2000.

The correct answer is: B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India. He was also the chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India, which was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India.

Dr. Prasad was born in 1884 in Zeradei, Bihar, India. He studied law at the University of Calcutta and then practiced law in Patna. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and was involved in the Indian independence movement. He was imprisoned several times by the British for his political activities.

After India gained independence in 1947, Dr. Prasad was elected the first President of India. He served as President from 1950 to 1962. He died in 1963.

Dr. Prasad was a respected leader and statesman. He played a key role in the drafting of the Constitution of India and in the development of the Indian nation.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A is incorrect. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was a Dalit leader and the principal architect of the Constitution of India. He was not the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
• Option C is incorrect. Dr. B.N. Rao was a politician and economist. He was not the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
• Option D is incorrect. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. He was not the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Soil conservation practices in West Bengal can help reduce erosion, improve water retention, and enhance fertility.

Soil erosion is the process of soil being carried away by wind or water. It can be caused by natural forces such as rain and wind, or by human activities such as deforestation and agriculture. Soil erosion can lead to a loss of topsoil, which is the most fertile layer of soil. It can also lead to a loss of nutrients and organic matter, which are essential for plant growth.

Soil conservation practices can help reduce erosion by preventing soil from being carried away by wind or water. These practices include planting trees and shrubs, terracing, and using cover crops.

Water retention is the ability of soil to hold water. It is important for plant growth, as plants need water to survive. Soil retention can be improved by using organic matter, such as compost, and by planting deep-rooted plants.

Soil fertility is the ability of soil to support plant growth. It is determined by the amount of nutrients and organic matter in the soil. Soil fertility can be improved by adding organic matter, such as compost, and by rotating crops.

Soil conservation practices are important for protecting the environment and for ensuring the long-term productivity of agricultural land.

Bangladesh declared Kazi Nazrul Islam as their national poet.

The correct answer is A. Sunlight.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create oxygen and energy in the form of sugar. The energy from sunlight is absorbed by chlorophyll, a green pigment found in plant cells. This energy is used to split water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. The hydrogen is then combined with carbon dioxide to create glucose, a type of sugar. The oxygen is released into the atmosphere.

Option B is incorrect because oxidation of glucose is a process that releases energy, not stores it. Option C is incorrect because the breakdown of proteins does not produce energy. Option D is incorrect because the breakdown of glucose does produce energy, but it is not the source of the energy stored in photosynthesis.

The correct answer is C. Uttar Pradesh.

Tamil Nadu has had three female chief ministers: J. Jayalalithaa, M. Karunanidhi's wife, and Jayalalithaa's successor, O. Panneerselvam.

Rajasthan has had one female chief minister: Vasundhara Raje Scindia.

Maharashtra has had two female chief ministers: Indira Gandhi and Sharad Pawar's daughter, Supriya Sule.

Uttar Pradesh has never had a female chief minister.

The following are some of the reasons why Uttar Pradesh has never had a female chief minister:

• The state has a patriarchal society, and women are often seen as inferior to men.
• There is a lack of female representation in politics in Uttar Pradesh.
• The state has a history of violence against women.
• There is a lack of awareness about women's rights in Uttar Pradesh.

Despite these challenges, there have been some efforts to promote women's participation in politics in Uttar Pradesh. In 2017, the state government launched a scheme to encourage women to contest elections. The scheme provides financial assistance and training to women who want to contest elections.

It is important to continue to promote women's participation in politics in Uttar Pradesh. Women bring a unique perspective to the table, and they can make a real difference in the lives of their constituents.

There are four Nobel Laureates associted with the University of Calcutt i.e. Ronald Ross, Rabindranath Tagore, CV Raman and Amartya Sen.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{Carbon dioxide}}$.

An allotrope is a form of an element that has a different structure than other forms of the same element. Carbon has many allotropes, including diamond, graphite, buckminsterfullerene, and carbon nanotubes.

• Diamond is a hard, transparent allotrope of carbon. It is made up of carbon atoms that are arranged in a tetrahedral structure.
• Graphite is a soft, black allotrope of carbon. It is made up of carbon atoms that are arranged in a hexagonal structure.
• Buckminsterfullerene is a spherical allotrope of carbon. It is made up of 60 carbon atoms that are arranged in a soccer ball-like structure.
• Carbon nanotubes are long, thin tubes of carbon atoms. They are made up of carbon atoms that are arranged in a hexagonal structure.

Carbon dioxide is a gas that is made up of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. It is not an allotrope of carbon because it does not have the same structure as other forms of carbon.

The correct answer is: A. plate tectonics.

Plate tectonics is the theory that the Earth's surface is made up of a number of rigid plates that move relative to each other. These plates are constantly colliding, grinding, and sliding past each other, which is what causes earthquakes, volcanoes, and other geological activity.

The deep oceanic trenches are formed when one tectonic plate is subducted under another. This happens when the denser plate sinks beneath the less dense plate and is forced down into the Earth's mantle. As the plate descends, it melts and the magma rises to the surface, forming volcanoes.

The other options are incorrect because they do not explain the formation of deep oceanic trenches.

• Option B, sea floor spreading, is the process by which new oceanic crust is created at mid-ocean ridges.
• Option C, continental drift, is the process by which the continents have moved over time.
• Option D, isostasy, is the concept that the Earth's crust is floating on the mantle and that the continents and ocean basins are in equilibrium.

Rabindra Sadan is a cultural centre and a theatre in Kolkata. It was established in 1967. It is one of the famous stages in Bengali theatre.

The correct answer is (a) Bhagwanpur.

The Centre for Aromatic Plants (CAP) is a research institute located in Bhagwanpur, Uttarakhand, India. It was established in 1992 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. The institute is dedicated to the research and development of aromatic plants. It has a mandate to promote the cultivation of aromatic plants, to develop new products from aromatic plants, and to provide training and extension services to farmers and entrepreneurs.

The institute has a well-equipped laboratory and a greenhouse. It also has a field station at Rudrapur, Uttarakhand. The institute has a team of scientists and technical staff who are engaged in research on various aspects of aromatic plants. The institute has also developed a number of products from aromatic plants, such as essential oils, perfumes, cosmetics, and herbal medicines.

The institute has been providing training and extension services to farmers and entrepreneurs on the cultivation and processing of aromatic plants. The institute has also been organizing workshops and seminars on the subject of aromatic plants.

The Centre for Aromatic Plants is a valuable resource for the development of the aromatic plants industry in India. The institute is playing a key role in promoting the cultivation of aromatic plants, developing new products from aromatic plants, and providing training and extension services to farmers and entrepreneurs.

Option (b), Rudrapur, is incorrect because the Centre for Aromatic Plants is located in Bhagwanpur, not Rudrapur.

Option (c), Kashipur, is incorrect because the Centre for Aromatic Plants is located in Bhagwanpur, not Kashipur.

Option (d), Selaqui, is incorrect because the Centre for Aromatic Plants is located in Bhagwanpur, not Selaqui.

The correct answer is (b). The Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU) was established in 1980 by Mahendra Singh Tikait. The BKU is a farmers' union in India that has been involved in a number of protests and agitations, including the 2007 farmers' protests in India. The BKU is a powerful political force in India and has been able to influence government policy on a number of issues.

The other options are incorrect. (a) 1975 is the year that Indira Gandhi declared Emergency in India. (c) 1985 is the year that Rajiv Gandhi became Prime Minister of India. (d) 1990 is the year that the Berlin Wall fell.

The correct answer is: **B) Rabindra Puraskar**

The Rabindra Puraskar is the highest literary award in India, named after the renowned Bengali novelist and poet, Rabindranath Tagore. It is awarded annually by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, to a writer for their outstanding contribution to literature in any of the 22 official languages of India.

The award was instituted in 1954, the year of Tagore's birth centenary. The first recipient of the award was the Bengali writer Tarashankar Bandopadhyay.

The Rabindra Puraskar consists of a cash prize of ₹1 lakh, a plaque, and a citation.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Ananda Puraskar is a Bengali literary award, instituted in 1972, named after the Bengali writer and journalist, Manik Bandopadhyay.
* Bankim Puraskar is a Bengali literary award, instituted in 1972, named after the Bengali novelist and poet, Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
* Nazrul Award is a Bangladeshi literary award, instituted in 1972, named after the Bengali poet and musician, Kazi Nazrul Islam.

The correct answer is: A. by a sweeping majority.

The phrase "by a sweeping majority" means that someone won an election by a large number of votes. This is the most idiomatic way to express this idea.

The phrase "with sweeping a majority" is not idiomatic. It is not clear what the phrase "with sweeping" means in this context.

The phrase "with the sweeping majority" is also not idiomatic. It is not clear what the phrase "with the" means in this context.

The phrase "No improvement" is not correct. The phrase "by a sweeping majority" is the most idiomatic way to express this idea.

The correct answer is D.

The partition of Bengal in 1947 was the division of the Indian province of Bengal into two new provinces, East Bengal and West Bengal. The partition was part of the larger Partition of India, which took place on 15 August 1947, when the British Indian Empire was divided into the independent dominions of India and Pakistan.

The partition of Bengal was a highly controversial decision, and it led to widespread violence and displacement. Millions of people were forced to flee their homes, and many were killed in the violence. The partition of Bengal also had a significant impact on the economy of the region.

The partition of Bengal was a traumatic event for the people of the region. It is important to remember the victims of the partition, and to work to prevent such events from happening again.

A. Creation of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh)

East Bengal was the eastern part of the Indian province of Bengal. It was predominantly Muslim, while West Bengal was predominantly Hindu. After the partition of India, East Bengal became the province of East Pakistan, which was part of the new dominion of Pakistan. In 1971, East Pakistan became independent as the People's Republic of Bangladesh.

B. Mass migration of people across the border

The partition of Bengal led to a mass migration of people across the border between India and Pakistan. Millions of Hindus fled from East Bengal to India, while millions of Muslims fled from West Bengal to Pakistan. The migration was chaotic and often violent, and many people were killed or injured.

C. Communal violence and displacement

The partition of Bengal also led to communal violence and displacement. Hindus and Muslims attacked each other in many parts of Bengal, and many people were killed or injured. The violence forced millions of people to flee their homes.

D. All of the above

The partition of Bengal led to all of the above. It was a traumatic event that had a significant impact on the people of the region. It is important to remember the victims of the partition, and to work to prevent such events from happening again.

The correct answer is: Only assumption II is implicit.

The statement "Greater public participation results in good civic governance" does not imply that the municipal office is not competent to effect good civic administration. It is possible that the municipal office is competent, but that it is unable to achieve good civic governance without the participation of the people.

The statement does, however, imply that good civic governance is a matter of collective will and effort of the people and administration. This is because the statement says that "greater public participation results in good civic governance." This means that the people must participate in order for there to be good civic governance.

Therefore, only assumption II is implicit in the statement.

The correct answer is A. Vijay L. Kelkar.

Vijay L. Kelkar was the chairman of the 13th Finance Commission of India. He was a member of the Indian Administrative Service and served as the Finance Secretary of India from 1998 to 2001. He was also the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 2006 to 2009.

The 13th Finance Commission was constituted on 29 January 2007 and submitted its report on 15 December 2009. The Commission recommended a total devolution of ₹22,42,222 crore to the states over the five-year period from 2010-11 to 2014-15. The Commission also recommended a number of reforms to the fiscal federalism system in India.

The other options are incorrect.

• K C Neogy was the chairman of the 1st Finance Commission of India.
• Nand Kishore Singh was the chairman of the 6th Finance Commission of India.
• Y V Reddy was the chairman of the 12th Finance Commission of India.

The correct answer is (d). Such questions cannot be asked.

Section 146 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that "No evidence shall be admissible in any civil or criminal proceeding, which is irrelevant to the matter in issue." This means that questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings cannot be asked.

Section 147 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that "Evidence may be given of the existence of any state of mind of any person, if it is relevant to any fact in issue or relevant to any fact which, if proved, would enable the Court to infer any fact in issue." This means that evidence of the existence of a state of mind may be given if it is relevant to any fact in issue or relevant to any fact which, if proved, would enable the Court to infer any fact in issue.

Section 148 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that "Evidence may be given of the existence of any state of body, if it is relevant to any fact in issue or relevant to any fact which, if proved, would enable the Court to infer any fact in issue." This means that evidence of the existence of a state of body may be given if it is relevant to any fact in issue or relevant to any fact which, if proved, would enable the Court to infer any fact in issue.

In the case of the question "Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under:- (a) Section 146 (b) Section 147 (c) Section 148 (d) Such questions cannot be asked", the correct answer is (d). Such questions cannot be asked. This is because Section 146 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that "No evidence shall be admissible in any civil or criminal proceeding, which is irrelevant to the matter in issue." This means that questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings cannot be asked.

The correct answer is: C. had lived

The headline is in the past tense, which indicates that Saddam Hussein is no longer living in Tikrit. The other options are not consistent with the past tense of the headline.

• A. lived is the simple past tense, which would be used to describe a past event that happened at a specific time. In this case, the headline does not specify when Saddam Hussein lived in Tikrit, so the simple past tense is not the best option.
• B. has been living is the present perfect continuous tense, which would be used to describe an event that started in the past and continues into the present. In this case, the headline does not indicate that Saddam Hussein is still living in Tikrit, so the present perfect continuous tense is not the best option.
• D. would live is the conditional tense, which would be used to describe a possible or hypothetical event. In this case, the headline is about a real event that happened in the past, so the conditional tense is not the best option.
• E. will live is the future tense, which would be used to describe an event that will happen in the future. In this case, the headline is about a past event, so the future tense is not the best option.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. had lived.

The Government of India honoured Manna Dey with the Padma Shri in 1971, the Padma Bhusan in 2005 and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2007.

The correct answer is: C. Abul Fazl.

Abul Fazl was a 16th-century Indian scholar, historian, and poet. He was born in Agra in 1551 and died in 1602. He was a close advisor to the Mughal emperor Akbar and served as his chief minister. He is best known for his work Akbarnama, a chronicle of Akbar's reign. He also wrote the Ain-i-Akbari, a treatise on Akbar's administration.

Darbar-i-Akbari is a book written by Abul Fazl. It is a history of the Mughal court during the reign of Akbar. The book is divided into two parts. The first part deals with Akbar's early life and his accession to the throne. The second part deals with Akbar's reign and his achievements.

The book is a valuable source of information on Mughal history. It provides insights into Akbar's personality and his policies. It also contains information on the Mughal court, its customs, and its ceremonies.

The other options are incorrect.

Muhammad Hussain was a 17th-century Indian poet. He is best known for his work Gulistan-i-Hussain, a collection of poems.

Malik Muhammad Jayasi was a 16th-century Indian poet. He is best known for his work Padmavat, an epic poem about the love between a Rajput prince and a Muslim princess.

Amir Khusrau was a 13th-century Indian poet, musician, and scholar. He is considered to be one of the greatest poets in the Persian language.

The correct answer is (b).

The percentage of students obtaining marks more than 10 but less than or equal to 40 is the number of students obtaining marks in the range 11-40 divided by the total number of students, multiplied by 100. This is equal to $frac{4+6+3}{15} times 100 = 65%$.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is the percentage of students obtaining marks less than or equal to 10. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the percentage of students obtaining marks in the range 21-40. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the percentage of students obtaining marks in the range 31-40.

The correct answer is A) Sub-centers and Primary Health Centers (PHCs).

Sub-centers and PHCs are the first point of contact for people seeking primary healthcare in West Bengal. They provide a range of services, including preventive care, curative care, and referral services. Sub-centers are staffed by a health worker, while PHCs are staffed by a doctor, nurse, and other health workers.

Community Health Centers (CHCs) are the next level of healthcare in West Bengal. They provide a wider range of services than sub-centers and PHCs, including inpatient care, specialized services, and training for health workers.

District Hospitals are the highest level of healthcare in West Bengal. They provide a comprehensive range of services, including inpatient care, specialized services, and training for health workers.

Medical Colleges are institutions of higher education that provide training for doctors and other health professionals. They do not provide primary healthcare services.

The correct answer is (a) Ministry of Education.

The EK PAHAL campaign is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Education in 2018 to promote early childhood education in India. The campaign aims to improve access to quality early childhood education for all children, especially those from disadvantaged backgrounds. The campaign also aims to raise awareness of the importance of early childhood education and to build a strong foundation for lifelong learning.

The Ministry of Education is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the EK PAHAL campaign. The ministry has developed a comprehensive action plan for the implementation of the campaign, which includes the following key components:

• Providing access to quality early childhood education: The ministry will work with state governments and other stakeholders to increase the availability of quality early childhood education services. This will be done by setting up new early childhood education centers, providing training to early childhood educators, and developing a national curriculum for early childhood education.
• Raising awareness of the importance of early childhood education: The ministry will launch a public awareness campaign to raise awareness of the importance of early childhood education. The campaign will target parents, teachers, policymakers, and the general public.
• Building a strong foundation for lifelong learning: The ministry will work with state governments and other stakeholders to develop a strong foundation for lifelong learning. This will be done by providing early childhood education to all children, regardless of their background or circumstances.

The EK PAHAL campaign is a major step towards ensuring that all children in India have access to quality early childhood education. The campaign has the potential to transform the lives of millions of children and to lay the foundation for a more prosperous and equitable India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not associated with the EK PAHAL campaign. The Ministry of Culture is responsible for promoting and preserving India's cultural heritage. The Ministry of Law & Justice is responsible for the administration of justice in India. The Ministry of Woman & Child Development is responsible for the welfare of women and children in India.

The correct answer is (d), Sarnath.

The Ashokan Edicts are a series of edicts, rock inscriptions, and pillar edicts issued by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka the Great of India between 272 and 232 BCE. The edicts, written in Brahmi script, are mainly written in Prakrit, and are found on rocks, pillars, and cave walls across India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.

The edicts deal with a variety of topics, including Ashoka's religious beliefs, his policies, and his instructions to his subjects. They are an important source of information about the Mauryan Empire and Ashoka's reign.

The edict at Sarnath is one of the most famous of the Ashokan Edicts. It is located on a pillar near the Dhamek Stupa in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, India. The edict was written in 269 BCE, and it commemorates Ashoka's visit to the site of the Buddha's first sermon.

The edict at Sarnath is important because it provides evidence of Ashoka's support for Buddhism. It also shows that Ashoka was interested in spreading the message of the Buddha to other parts of India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not contain the name of Ashoka.

(a) Gujarra is a village in the Indian state of Gujarat. It is not known to have any connection with Ashoka.

(b) Ahraura is a village in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is not known to have any connection with Ashoka.

(c) Brahmagiri is a hill in the Indian state of Karnataka. It is known for its Buddhist stupas and inscriptions. However, the inscriptions at Brahmagiri do not mention Ashoka.

The correct answer is A. 32 teams participated in the 2018 FIFA World Cup, which was held in Russia from 14 June to 15 July 2018. The 32 teams were divided into eight groups of four, with the top two teams from each group advancing to the knockout stage. The final was played between France and Croatia, with France winning 4-2.

Option B is incorrect because there were 32 teams, not 34.

Option C is incorrect because there were 32 teams, not 36.

Option D is incorrect because there were 32 teams, not 30.

The correct answer is A. negative.

Cross elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive the demand for one good is to a change in the price of another good. When two goods are complementary, a decrease in the price of one good will lead to an increase in the demand for the other good, and vice versa. This is because complementary goods are used together, so if the price of one good decreases, people will be more likely to buy it, and they will also be more likely to buy the other good that it is complementary with.

For example, if the price of gasoline decreases, people will be more likely to drive, and they will also be more likely to buy cars. This is because gasoline is a complementary good to cars.

The cross elasticity of demand for complementary goods is always negative. This means that if the price of one good decreases, the demand for the other good will increase, and vice versa.

Option B, zero, is incorrect because the cross elasticity of demand for complementary goods is always negative.

Option C, infinite, is incorrect because the cross elasticity of demand for complementary goods is always negative, but it is not infinite.

Option D, unitary, is incorrect because the cross elasticity of demand for complementary goods is always negative, but it is not unitary.

The correct answer is: C. I've written to them.

The other options are incorrect because they do not agree with the tense of the question. The question is in the present perfect tense, so the answer must also be in the present perfect tense.

• A. I'd written to them is in the past perfect tense.
• B. I wrote to them is in the simple past tense.
• D. I would have written to them is in the conditional perfect tense.

The present perfect tense is used to talk about things that have happened in the past but are still relevant in the present. In this case, the speaker is talking about a letter that they wrote to someone last month. The letter is still relevant in the present because the speaker is talking about it.

The simple past tense is used to talk about things that happened at a specific time in the past. In this case, the speaker could be talking about a letter that they wrote to someone last month, but they could also be talking about a letter that they wrote to someone years ago.

The conditional perfect tense is used to talk about things that would have happened in the past if something else had happened. In this case, the speaker could be talking about a letter that they would have written to someone if they had had the chance.

I hope this explanation is helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is C. Nephew.

Explanation:

Saroj's uncle has a daughter. The man receiving the prize is the brother of Saroj's uncle's daughter. This means that the man is Saroj's cousin.

A son is a male child of a parent. A brother-in-law is the husband of one's sister or brother. An uncle is the brother of one's father or mother. A cousin is a person who is related to another person as the child of one's aunt or uncle.

The correct answer is C. Undo.

The other options are not synonyms of untie.

• Unfold means to open or spread out something that is folded or rolled up.
• Unchain means to remove a chain from something or someone.
• Unhinge means to make something become loose or detached from its hinges.

To untie something means to remove the knot or knots that are holding it together. For example, you might untie a shoelace, a knotted rope, or a ribbon.

The correct answer is C. Aunt.

The girl's father has only one son. The lady is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of the girl's father's only son. This means that the lady is married to the grandmother of the girl's father. The grandmother of the girl's father is the girl's great-grandmother. This means that the lady is married to the girl's great-uncle. The great-uncle of the girl is the brother of the girl's grandfather. This means that the lady is the aunt of the girl.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the relationship between the lady and the girl.

• Sister-in-law is incorrect because the lady is not married to the girl's brother.
• Mother is incorrect because the lady is not the girl's biological mother.
• Mother-in-law is incorrect because the lady is not married to the girl's husband.
• Cousin is incorrect because the lady is not a descendant of the girl's parents.

The correct answer is (a). The Radcliffe Line is the border between India and Bangladesh. It was drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer, in 1947, following the partition of India. The line was drawn in a hurry and without much consultation with the people who lived in the area. As a result, it left many people on the wrong side of the border. The Radcliffe Line has been a source of tension between India and Bangladesh ever since it was drawn.

Option (b) is incorrect. The border between India and Afghanistan is the Durand Line, which was drawn in 1893.

Option (c) is incorrect. The border between India and Nepal is the India–Nepal border, which was established in 1816.

Option (d) is incorrect. The border between India and China is the Line of Actual Control, which was established in 1962.

The correct answer is B. Winter.

In winter, the weather is cold and we need more energy to stay warm. Fat is a good source of energy, so we need more of it in winter.

Spring is a time of new growth, and we need more energy to support this growth. However, the weather is still relatively warm, so we don't need as much fat as in winter.

Summer is the hottest season, and we need to stay cool. Fat can make us feel hot, so we don't need as much of it in summer.

The rainy season is a time of high humidity, and we need to stay hydrated. Fat can make us feel bloated, so we don't need as much of it in the rainy season.

The correct answer is C. on.

We use "on" to indicate a specific date or day. In this case, we are congratulating Ariana on her birthday, which is a specific day.

The other options are not correct because they do not indicate a specific date or day.

• "To" is used to indicate a destination. For example, we might say "I am going to the store."
• "For" is used to indicate a reason or purpose. For example, we might say "I am going to the store to buy milk."
• "Of" is used to indicate possession or association. For example, we might say "The book is of great value."

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: B. adapt himself to.

To "turn one's hand to something" means to be able to do it well. In this case, Akshay is able to adapt himself to anything, which means he is able to learn new things quickly and easily.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. refuse to do: This is not what the phrase "turn one's hand to something" means.
• C. take advantage of: This is not a positive thing, and it is not what the phrase "turn one's hand to something" means.
• D. find fault with: This is not a positive thing, and it is not what the phrase "turn one's hand to something" means.

The correct answer is: Synagogue.

A synagogue is a Jewish house of prayer. It is a place where Jews gather to worship, study, and socialize. Synagogues are typically built in a similar style to churches, with a sanctuary, an ark, and a bimah. The sanctuary is the main room of the synagogue, where the congregation gathers for prayer. The ark is a cabinet that contains the Torah scrolls. The bimah is a raised platform from which the Torah is read and sermons are given.

Synagogues are an important part of Jewish life. They provide a place for Jews to worship, learn, and connect with their community.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• B. First temple. The First Temple was a Jewish temple that was built in Jerusalem in the 10th century BCE. It was destroyed by the Babylonians in 586 BCE.
• C. No church or temple. Jews do have places of worship, called synagogues.
• D. Monastery. A monastery is a place where monks live and worship. It is not a place of worship for Jews.

The correct answer is A. Onam.

Onam is a 10-day festival celebrated in the Indian state of Kerala. It is the most important festival of the Malayali people and is a time for family reunions and feasting. One of the special features of Onam is the boat races that are held on the final day of the festival. The races are a popular attraction and attract people from all over the world.

B. Rongali Bihu is a harvest festival celebrated by the Assamese people. It is a time for thanksgiving and for celebrating the arrival of spring. The festival is marked by feasting, dancing, and singing. Boat races are not a special feature of Rongali Bihu.

C. Navratri is a nine-day festival celebrated by Hindus all over India. It is a time for devotion to the goddess Durga. The festival is marked by prayers, fasting, and feasting. Boat races are not a special feature of Navratri.

D. Pongal is a four-day harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil people. It is a time for thanksgiving and for celebrating the arrival of the harvest season. The festival is marked by feasting, dancing, and singing. Boat races are not a special feature of Pongal.

Income for taxation and other sources should likely be adequate for the discharge of municipal functions under the Municipal Act.

The correct answer is (c) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs.

A Standing Committee of Parliament is a permanent committee of Parliament that is constituted at the beginning of each Parliament. There are 21 Standing Committees of Parliament, each of which is responsible for a different area of government. The Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs is not a Standing Committee of Parliament. It is a Special Committee of Parliament that is constituted to examine a specific issue or bill.

The Committee on Public Accounts is a Standing Committee of Parliament that is responsible for examining the accounts of the government. The Estimate Committee is a Standing Committee of Parliament that is responsible for examining the government's budget. The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Standing Committee of Parliament that is responsible for examining the working of public undertakings.

The correct answer is B. Bodh Gaya.

Bodh Gaya is a town in the Indian state of Bihar. It is located in the Gaya district, about 96 km (60 mi) south of Patna, the state capital. Bodh Gaya is one of the four holy sites related to the life of Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism. The other three sites are Lumbini, Kushinagar, and Sarnath.

According to Buddhist tradition, Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment (bodhi) under a Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya. This event is considered to be the most important event in the history of Buddhism.

The Mahabodhi Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in Bodh Gaya. The temple was built in the 3rd century BCE by Emperor Ashoka. The temple complex includes the Bodhi tree, a large stone image of the Buddha, and several other temples and monasteries.

Bodh Gaya is a major pilgrimage site for Buddhists from all over the world. The town is also a popular tourist destination.

The correct answer is: A. 22 April

National Sports Day is observed every year on 22 April in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand, who is considered to be the greatest hockey player of all time. He was born on 29 August 1905 in Allahabad, British India (now Prayagraj, India). He was a member of the Indian hockey team that won three consecutive gold medals at the Olympic Games in 1928, 1932, and 1936. He was also the captain of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1936 Summer Olympics.

Major Dhyan Chand was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 1956. He was also awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1958. He died on 3 December 1979 in Delhi, India.

National Sports Day is a public holiday in India. It is a day to celebrate the achievements of Indian athletes and to promote sports and fitness among the people of India. On this day, various sports events are organized across the country. Schools and colleges also organize sports events to celebrate National Sports Day.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the birth anniversaries of any famous Indian sportspersons.

Gostha Pal was the first Indian footballer to be honoured with the Padma Shri in 1962.

The correct answer is A. Anatomy.

Anatomy is the study of the structure of an organism, especially the human body. It is a branch of biology that deals with the physical form of organisms and their parts. Anatomy is concerned with the identification, description, and study of the structures of organisms and their relationship to each other and to their function.

Physiology is the study of the function of an organism, especially the human body. It is a branch of biology that deals with the processes of life and the physical and chemical changes that occur in living organisms. Physiology is concerned with the study of how the body works and how its parts interact with each other.

Morphology is the study of the form and structure of organisms. It is a branch of biology that deals with the shape and structure of organisms and their parts. Morphology is concerned with the study of how the body is shaped and how its parts are arranged.

Cell biology is the study of cells. It is a branch of biology that deals with the structure, function, and behavior of cells. Cell biology is concerned with the study of the basic unit of life and how it works.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. Anatomy. Anatomy is the study of the structure of an organism, especially the human body. It is a branch of biology that deals with the physical form of organisms and their parts.

The correct answer is: B. hormones

Hormones are organic substances that in very small amounts control growth and development. They are produced by glands in the body and are transported through the bloodstream to other parts of the body, where they act on specific cells or tissues. Hormones regulate a wide range of physiological processes, including metabolism, growth, reproduction, and behavior.

Vitamins are organic substances that are essential for human health. They are required in small amounts, but are necessary for the proper functioning of the body. Vitamins are found in a variety of foods, including fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and dairy products.

Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body. They are essential for the proper functioning of the body, as they speed up the rate of chemical reactions that would otherwise take place too slowly. Enzymes are found in all living cells.

None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a Bengali polymath who founded the Brahmo Samaj, a Hindu reform movement that advocated for the modernization of Hinduism and the emancipation of women. He was also a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement.

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a Bengali scholar and social reformer who is best known for his work on women's education and widow remarriage. He was also a key figure in the development of Bengali literature.

Swami Vivekananda was a Hindu monk and philosopher who is best known for his work in spreading Hinduism to the West. He was also a key figure in the Indian independence movement.

Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali polymath who was a poet, novelist, short story writer, essayist, playwright, painter, musician, and social reformer. He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature.

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was born in 1772 in Radhanagar, Bengal, India. He was the son of a wealthy Brahmin family. He received a traditional Hindu education, but he was also exposed to Western ideas through his contact with British missionaries.

In 1803, Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha, a religious reform society that advocated for the modernization of Hinduism. In 1828, he founded the Brahmo Samaj, a Hindu reform movement that was even more radical than the Atmiya Sabha. The Brahmo Samaj rejected many of the traditional Hindu practices, such as idol worship and caste discrimination.

Roy was also a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement. He argued that India should be ruled by Indians, and he opposed British rule. He was also a critic of the practice of sati, the burning of widows on the funeral pyres of their husbands.

Roy died in 1833 in Bristol, England. He is considered to be one of the most important figures in Indian history. He is credited with modernizing Hinduism and with laying the foundations for the Indian independence movement.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

A multimeter is an electronic measuring instrument that can be used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It is a handheld device that is typically used by electricians, technicians, and hobbyists.

Multimeters are available in a variety of sizes and types, but they all have the same basic functions. The most common type of multimeter is the analog multimeter, which has a needle that moves across a scale to indicate the measurement. Digital multimeters are also available, which display the measurement as a number on a digital display.

Multimeters are used in a variety of applications, including electrical troubleshooting, circuit testing, and component testing. They are an essential tool for anyone who works with electricity.

Here is a brief explanation of each of the options:

• Current: Current is the flow of electricity through a circuit. It is measured in amperes (A).
• Voltage: Voltage is the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit. It is measured in volts (V).
• Resistance: Resistance is the opposition to the flow of electricity through a material. It is measured in ohms (Ω).

The answer is E. Morbid.

The other words all refer to actions that are intended to deceive or cheat someone. Treachery is the act of betraying someone's trust, fraud is the act of deceiving someone in order to gain money or property, deceit is the act of lying or misleading someone, and swindle is the act of tricking someone out of money or property. Morbid is an adjective that means relating to or suggestive of death or disease.

Morbid is the only word in the list that does not refer to an action that is intended to deceive or cheat someone. It is an adjective that describes something that is related to or suggestive of death or disease.

The correct answer is D.

The state government is promoting the use of solar power through various initiatives like:

* Rooftop solar installations: This is where solar panels are installed on the roofs of homes and businesses. This allows people to generate their own electricity and reduce their reliance on the grid.
* Solar parks: These are large-scale solar power plants that are typically located in remote areas. They can generate a significant amount of electricity and help to reduce the cost of solar power.
* Net metering: This is a policy that allows people who generate their own electricity to sell the excess back to the grid. This can help to offset the cost of installing solar panels.

All of these initiatives are helping to promote the use of solar power and make it more affordable for people to adopt.

The correct answer is D. Soyabean.

Soyabean is a good source of protein because it is a complete protein, meaning that it contains all nine essential amino acids that the body cannot produce on its own. It is also a good source of fiber, iron, and calcium.

Pea is a good source of protein, but it is not a complete protein. It is a good source of fiber and vitamins A and C.

Pigeon pea is a good source of protein, but it is not a complete protein. It is a good source of fiber and iron.

Black gram is a good source of protein, but it is not a complete protein. It is a good source of fiber and iron.

Here is a table showing the protein content of different types of beans:

| Bean | Protein (g/100g) |
|---|---|
| Soyabean | 36.6 |
| Pea | 24.4 |
| Pigeon pea | 23.4 |
| Black gram | 24.3 |

As you can see, soyabean has the highest protein content of all the beans listed.

The correct answer is: D. None of Above

A governor is an integral part of the State Executive. The Governor is the head of the State Government and is appointed by the President of India. The Governor has the power to appoint the Chief Minister and other Ministers of the State. The Governor also has the power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India. The State Legislature is the legislative body of a State in India.

The Governor is not a member of any of these bodies.

The correct answer is (a). Mohini Attam is a classical dance form of Tamil Nadu. It is a dance drama that tells the story of the Hindu god Vishnu, who takes the form of a beautiful woman named Mohini to defeat the demon Asura. The dance is performed by a single dancer who uses intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions to tell the story.

Andhra Pradesh is home to a number of folk dances, including the Kuchipudi dance, which is a classical dance form that tells stories from Hindu mythology. Karnataka is home to the Yakshagana dance, which is a folk dance that tells stories from Hindu mythology and history. Kerala is home to the Kathakali dance, which is a classical dance form that tells stories from Hindu mythology.

Mohini Attam is a beautiful and complex dance form that is a part of the rich cultural heritage of Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is: A. Average cost is the lowest.

Average cost is equal to marginal cost at the point where average cost is the lowest. This is because marginal cost is the additional cost of producing one more unit of output, while average cost is the total cost divided by the number of units produced. When marginal cost is equal to average cost, the additional cost of producing one more unit is equal to the average cost of all the units that have already been produced. This means that the average cost is not increasing or decreasing, and it is therefore at its lowest point.

Option B is incorrect because marginal cost is not always the lowest at the point where average cost is equal to marginal cost. For example, if the marginal cost curve is U-shaped, then the marginal cost will be lowest at a point where it is not equal to the average cost.

Option C is incorrect because marginal cost is not always falling at the point where average cost is equal to marginal cost. For example, if the marginal cost curve is horizontal, then the marginal cost will not be falling at the point where it is equal to the average cost.

Option D is incorrect because the average cost is equal to the marginal cost at a specific point, not at all points.

The correct answer is (a) Dr. Muhammad Shahid Amin Khan.

Dr. Muhammad Shahid Amin Khan is the current World Chairman of the International Human Rights Commission. He was elected to this position in 2019. Dr. Khan is a Pakistani lawyer and human rights activist. He has served as the President of the Human Rights Commission of Pakistan since 2014. He is also the founder and Chairman of the Pakistan Institute of Human Rights.

Dr. Khan has a long history of working on human rights issues. He has worked with the United Nations, the European Union, and other international organizations on a variety of human rights issues. He has also written extensively on human rights issues.

Dr. Khan is a strong advocate for the protection of human rights. He has spoken out against human rights abuses in Pakistan and around the world. He has also worked to promote human rights education and awareness.

Dr. Khan is a respected figure in the field of human rights. He is a tireless advocate for the protection of human rights. He is a strong voice for the voiceless and a champion of the oppressed.

The other options are incorrect.

(b) H. B. Adnan Mansour is the President of the Arab Lawyers Union. He is a Syrian lawyer and human rights activist.

(c) Dr. Prathavi Ravish Singh is a Professor of Law at the University of Delhi. She is an expert on human rights law.

(d) Rafal Marcin Wasik is a Polish judge. He is the President of the Supreme Court of Poland.

The correct answer is (d) Lucknow.

The North-Central Zonal Cultural Centre is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the six zonal cultural centres of India, established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. The centre is responsible for promoting and preserving the cultural heritage of the North Central Zone, which includes the states of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Bihar.

The centre organizes a variety of cultural activities, including music, dance, theatre, and art exhibitions. It also offers training in traditional arts and crafts. The centre is open to the public and admission is free.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the locations of the North-Central Zonal Cultural Centre.

(a) Allahabad is a city in Uttar Pradesh. It is the headquarters of Allahabad district and the Allahabad division. Allahabad is one of the oldest cities in India and is considered to be one of the seven sacred cities of Hinduism.

(b) Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh. It is the headquarters of Varanasi district and the Varanasi division. Varanasi is one of the oldest cities in India and is considered to be one of the seven sacred cities of Hinduism.

(c) Agra is a city in Uttar Pradesh. It is the headquarters of Agra district and the Agra division. Agra is famous for the Taj Mahal, a white marble mausoleum built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.

I hope this helps!

The missing number is 11.

The numbers in the sequence are all prime numbers, except for 10, which is a composite number. The next prime number after 10 is 11.

The correct answer is B) Siraj ud-Daulah.

Siraj ud-Daulah was the last independent Nawab of Bengal, defeated by the British in the Battle of Plassey in 1757. He was the grandson of Alivardi Khan, who had ruled Bengal from 1740 to 1756. Siraj ud-Daulah succeeded his grandfather in 1756, at the age of 23.

Siraj ud-Daulah was a young and ambitious ruler, and he soon came into conflict with the British East India Company. The Company had established a trading post in Calcutta in 1690, and it had gradually expanded its influence in Bengal. Siraj ud-Daulah was concerned about the Company's growing power, and he ordered the Company to close its trading post in Calcutta.

The Company refused to comply with Siraj ud-Daulah's order, and in June 1756, Siraj ud-Daulah's forces attacked and captured Calcutta. The Company's employees were imprisoned in the Black Hole of Calcutta, where many of them died.

The Company retaliated by sending a military force to Bengal under the command of Robert Clive. In June 1757, Clive's forces defeated Siraj ud-Daulah's army at the Battle of Plassey. Siraj ud-Daulah was killed in the battle, and the British took control of Bengal.

The Battle of Plassey was a turning point in the history of India. It marked the beginning of the British Raj, which lasted for nearly 200 years.

The correct answer is: no article.

The reason is that the ticket is not specific. It is not a particular ticket, but rather a general ticket. We do not need to use an article to refer to general things.

Here are some examples of other general things that we do not use articles with:

• water
• air
• food
• money
• love
• life

In contrast, we do use articles with specific things. For example, we would say "I saw the ticket that you were talking about yesterday." In this case, the ticket is specific because it is the ticket that the speaker was talking about.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: A. Will change the quantity in same direction.

Demand is inelastic when the quantity demanded does not change much in response to a change in price. This means that if the price of a good increases, consumers will not buy much less of it, and if the price decreases, they will not buy much more of it.

When demand is inelastic, a change in price will cause a change in the quantity demanded in the same direction. For example, if the price of a good increases, consumers will buy less of it, and if the price decreases, they will buy more of it.

This is because consumers are not very sensitive to changes in price when demand is inelastic. They are willing to pay a higher price for a good, or they are not willing to buy much less of a good even if the price decreases.

The opposite is true when demand is elastic. When demand is elastic, a change in price will cause a change in the quantity demanded in the opposite direction. For example, if the price of a good increases, consumers will buy much less of it, and if the price decreases, they will buy much more of it.

This is because consumers are very sensitive to changes in price when demand is elastic. They are not willing to pay a higher price for a good, and they are willing to buy much more of a good even if the price decreases.

In conclusion, if demand is inelastic, a change in the price will cause a change in the quantity demanded in the same direction.

The correct answer is (a) Chhattisgarh.

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of the Parliament of India. It is composed of 245 members, 233 of whom are elected by the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President of India. The number of elected members from each state is based on its population, with larger states having more members.

Chhattisgarh is a state in central India with a population of 27.9 million. It has 11 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

Himachal Pradesh is a state in northern India with a population of 8.7 million. It has 3 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

Jharkhand is a state in eastern India with a population of 3.3 million. It has 6 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

Jammu and Kashmir is a state in northern India with a population of 12.5 million. It has 4 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

Therefore, Chhattisgarh has the lowest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is (b).

Haryana is the leading producer of wheat in India, followed by Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Bihar. In 2020-21, Haryana produced 13.2 million tonnes of wheat, while Madhya Pradesh produced 12.5 million tonnes, Rajasthan produced 11.6 million tonnes, and Bihar produced 9.7 million tonnes.

Haryana is well-suited for wheat cultivation due to its fertile soil, favorable climate, and irrigation facilities. The state has a long history of wheat cultivation, and its farmers are highly skilled in the cultivation of this crop.

Madhya Pradesh is also a major producer of wheat. The state has a large area under wheat cultivation, and its farmers use modern agricultural practices to produce high yields.

Rajasthan is a desert state, but it is also a major producer of wheat. The state has developed a number of irrigation schemes to make it possible to grow wheat in the desert.

Bihar is a state in eastern India. It is the third most populous state in India, after Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. Bihar is a major producer of rice, wheat, and maize.

The descending order of the following states from the point of view of wheat production in the country is:

1. Haryana
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
4. Bihar

The correct answer is C. Adrenal gland.

Cortisol is a steroid hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands. It is released in response to stress and helps the body to respond to a variety of challenges. Cortisol helps to regulate blood sugar levels, blood pressure, and immune function. It also helps to break down fat and muscle tissue for energy.

The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. It produces hormones that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. The pituitary gland is a pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It produces hormones that control a variety of body functions, including growth, reproduction, and metabolism. The parathyroid glands are four small glands that are located on the back of the thyroid gland. They produce hormones that regulate calcium levels in the blood.

Cortisol is not produced by the thyroid gland, pituitary gland, or parathyroid gland. It is produced by the adrenal glands.

The correct answer is: A. She treated B. me as though C. an old friend.

The word "as though" is a subordinating conjunction that introduces a clause that expresses a condition or supposition. In this case, the clause "as though she were an old friend" expresses the condition that the woman treated the speaker in a friendly way.

The word "me" is the direct object of the verb "treated." The word "an old friend" is the object of the preposition "as though."

The sentence is grammatically correct and makes sense.

The correct answer is: B. Ministry of Finance

The Ministry of Finance is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing the fiscal policy of the Government of India. It is responsible for the management of the country's finances, including revenue collection, expenditure, and debt management. The Ministry also advises the Government on economic policy matters.

The Planning Commission was a body set up by the Government of India in 1950 to formulate and implement the country's economic development plans. It was abolished in 2014 and its functions were transferred to the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog).

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body set up every five years to recommend to the President of India the principles on which the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States should be made. It also recommends the grants-in-aid to be given by the Centre to the States.

The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India. It is responsible for the formulation and implementation of monetary policy, the management of the country's foreign exchange reserves, and the regulation of the banking system.

The correct answer is A. acetylene in oxygen.

Acetylene is a highly flammable gas that burns with a very hot flame. When it is mixed with oxygen, the flame can reach temperatures of up to 3,500 degrees Celsius. This is hot enough to melt most metals, which is why acetylene is often used in welding.

LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) is a mixture of propane and butane. It is also flammable, but it does not burn as hot as acetylene. The flame temperature of LPG is typically around 2,000 degrees Celsius.

Methane is the main component of natural gas. It is also flammable, but it burns even cooler than LPG. The flame temperature of methane is typically around 1,500 degrees Celsius.

Nitrogen is an inert gas. It does not burn and does not support combustion. Therefore, it cannot be used to produce a high-temperature flame.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. acetylene in oxygen.

The correct answer is C. Forebrain.

The forebrain is the largest and most complex part of the brain. It is responsible for higher functions such as thinking, planning, and decision-making. It also contains the cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for processing information from the senses and controlling voluntary movement.

The midbrain is a small region of the brain that is located between the hindbrain and the forebrain. It is responsible for controlling movement, vision, and hearing.

The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain that is located below the thalamus. It is responsible for controlling many important bodily functions, such as body temperature, blood pressure, and hunger.

The hindbrain is the oldest and most primitive part of the brain. It is responsible for controlling basic functions such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion.

Here is a diagram of the human brain, with the forebrain highlighted in blue:

The correct answer is (a) Energy.

The 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was a plan for the economic development of India. The plan was approved by the National Development Council on 12 December 2011. The plan had an outlay of ₹50,67,000 crore (US$740 billion).

The plan had six major goals:

• Rapid, inclusive and sustainable growth
• Agriculture and rural development
• Infrastructure and connectivity
• Human resource development
• Social protection and empowerment
• Good governance and institutions

The plan allocated the largest amount of funds to the energy sector, followed by transport, social services, and rural development.

The energy sector received an allocation of ₹16,32,000 crore (US$240 billion). This was to be used to increase the share of renewable energy in the total energy mix, to improve energy efficiency, and to expand the transmission and distribution network.

The transport sector received an allocation of ₹12,60,000 crore (US$190 billion). This was to be used to build new roads, railways, and airports, to improve the efficiency of the transport system, and to promote public transport.

The social services sector received an allocation of ₹10,80,000 crore (US$160 billion). This was to be used to improve education, health, and nutrition, to provide social security, and to promote gender equality.

The rural development sector received an allocation of ₹8,50,000 crore (US$120 billion). This was to be used to improve agriculture, rural infrastructure, and rural livelihoods.

The 12th Five Year Plan was a comprehensive plan for the economic development of India. The plan had six major goals, and allocated the largest amount of funds to the energy sector.

Bankim Puraskar is the highest award given by the Government of West Bengal for contribution to Bengali fiction. The award was instituted in 1975, in the memory of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, who was the founder of Bengali novel. The first Bankim Puruskar was conferred to well known Tagore scholar Prabodh Chandra Sen.

The correct answer is: C. Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train.

When a train goes around a curve, it experiences a centripetal force that pulls it towards the center of the curve. This force is provided by the friction between the wheels and the tracks. However, if the curve is too sharp, the friction may not be enough to provide the necessary centripetal force. In this case, the train will start to slide outwards.

To prevent this, the tracks are banked on curves. This means that the outer edge of the track is higher than the inner edge. This creates a sideways component to the weight of the train, which provides additional centripetal force.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the horizontal component of the weight of the train is not enough to provide the necessary centripetal force on its own.
• Option B is incorrect because friction is still required to provide some of the centripetal force.
• Option D is incorrect because the train will not fall down inwards if the tracks are not banked.

The quadratic approximation of $f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 - 5$ at the point $x = 0$ is $3x^2 - 5$. This is because the quadratic polynomial $3x^2 - 5$ has the same first two derivatives as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$.

The first derivative of $f(x)$ is $3x^2 - 6x$. The second derivative of $f(x)$ is $6x$. The first derivative of $3x^2 - 5$ is $6x$. The second derivative of $3x^2 - 5$ is $0$.

Therefore, the quadratic approximation of $f(x)$ at the point $x = 0$ is $3x^2 - 5$.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: $3x^2 - 6x - 5$. This is the quadratic polynomial that has the same first two derivatives as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$. However, it does not pass through the point $(0, -5)$.
• Option B: $-3x^2 - 5$. This is the quadratic polynomial that passes through the point $(0, -5)$. However, it does not have the same first two derivatives as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$.
• Option C: $-3x^2 + 6x - 5$. This is the quadratic polynomial that has the same first derivative as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$. However, it does not have the same second derivative as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$.
• Option D: $3x^2 - 5$. This is the quadratic polynomial that has the same first two derivatives as $f(x)$ at $x = 0$ and passes through the point $(0, -5)$. Therefore, it is the quadratic approximation of $f(x)$ at the point $x = 0$.

The correct answer is D. State of inputs.

A production function is a mathematical relationship that shows the maximum amount of output that can be produced from a given amount of inputs, given the state of technology. The inputs are typically labor, capital, and land. The state of technology refers to the level of knowledge and expertise that is available to producers.

The state of inputs is not an attribute of a production function because it is not a factor that affects the maximum amount of output that can be produced from a given amount of inputs. The state of inputs can affect the cost of production, but it does not affect the maximum amount of output that can be produced.

For example, if a producer has access to more capital, it will be able to produce more output. However, the maximum amount of output that can be produced from a given amount of capital is still determined by the state of technology.

In conclusion, the state of inputs is not an attribute of a production function because it is not a factor that affects the maximum amount of output that can be produced from a given amount of inputs.

The correct answer is: A. Subash Agrawal

Subash Agrawal is a former Indian cricketer who played in 19 Tests and 11 ODIs from 1981 to 1985. He was a right-handed batsman and a right-arm off break bowler.

Ashok Shandilya is an Indian billiards and snooker player. He is a former world champion in billiards and has won the Indian national billiards championship 13 times.

Manoj Kothari is an Indian billiards and snooker player. He is a former world champion in snooker and has won the Indian national snooker championship 10 times.

Mihir Sen is an Indian billiards player. He is a former world champion in billiards and has won the Indian national billiards championship 12 times.

Therefore, Subash Agrawal is the only person among the given options who is not associated with billiards in India.

The correct answer is (c). The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS), also known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), was launched in 2005 in 200 districts of India. It was later extended to all the districts of the country.

The NREGS is a social security program that guarantees 100 days of paid employment in a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The program is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.

The NREGS has been successful in providing employment to millions of rural people and has helped to improve their livelihoods. It has also helped to reduce poverty and inequality in rural areas.

The NREGS has been criticized for its implementation problems, such as delays in payment of wages and corruption. However, it remains a popular program among rural people and is seen as an important tool for rural development.

(a) 100 Districts: This is incorrect because the NREGS was launched in 200 districts in 2005.
(b) 200 Districts: This is incorrect because the NREGS was launched in 200 districts in 2005.
(d) All the Districts: This is incorrect because the NREGS was launched in 200 districts in 2005 and was later extended to all the districts of the country.

The correct answer is D. 1890.

The Indian Red Cross Society was established in 1890. It is a humanitarian organization that provides assistance to people in need, regardless of their race, religion, or nationality. The Indian Red Cross Society is a member of the International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies.

Option A is incorrect because the Indian Red Cross Society was established in 1890, not 1932.

Option B is incorrect because the Indian Red Cross Society was established in 1890, not 1920.

Option C is incorrect because the Indian Red Cross Society was established in 1890, not 1945.

The correct answer is: C. A is true, but R is false.

Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This is because formic acid has a higher pKa value than acetic acid. The pKa value is a measure of how easily an acid dissociates in water. A higher pKa value means that the acid is less likely to dissociate, and therefore a stronger acid.

The reason given in the question is that formic acid is an organic acid. However, this is not a correct explanation for why formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. There are many organic acids that are weaker than acetic acid, such as propionic acid and butyric acid.

The correct explanation for why formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid is that formic acid has a smaller molecular size. The smaller the molecular size, the more easily the acid can dissociate in water. This is because the smaller molecules can more easily penetrate the water molecules and interact with the hydrogen ions.

In conclusion, formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid because it has a higher pKa value. The reason given in the question is not a correct explanation for why formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. The correct explanation is that formic acid has a smaller molecular size.

The correct answer is (c), Kazakhstan.

Kazakhstan has the largest uranium reserves in the world, followed by Canada and Australia. South Africa has the fourth largest uranium reserves.

Kazakhstan's uranium reserves are estimated to be 190,000 tonnes, which is about 40% of the world's total. Canada's uranium reserves are estimated to be 130,000 tonnes, which is about 27% of the world's total. Australia's uranium reserves are estimated to be 70,000 tonnes, which is about 15% of the world's total. South Africa's uranium reserves are estimated to be 50,000 tonnes, which is about 10% of the world's total.

Uranium is a radioactive metal that is used to generate electricity in nuclear power plants. It is also used in the production of nuclear weapons.

The correct answer is: A. Rs. 93.75

Average fixed cost (AFC) is the total fixed cost divided by the number of units of output produced. Average variable cost (AVC) is the total variable cost divided by the number of units of output produced. Total cost (TC) is the sum of fixed cost (FC) and variable cost (VC).

We are given that AFC = Rs. 12.50 and AVC = Rs. 81.25. We can calculate total cost as follows:

TC = AFC + AVC = Rs. 12.50 + Rs. 81.25 = Rs. 93.75

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rs. 93.75.

Option B is incorrect because it is the average variable cost. Option C is incorrect because it is the total fixed cost. Option D is incorrect because it is the total variable cost.

Debashree Roy first appeared in film as a child artist in the movie 'Balak Gadadhar' in 1969. She also acted in the role of a little girl in the film 'Kuheli'.

The correct answer is (a) Kerala.

Kerala has the highest urbanization rate in India, with 55.3% of its population living in urban areas. This is followed by Maharashtra (45.3%), Tamil Nadu (44.8%), and West Bengal (38.6%).

Kerala's high urbanization rate is due to a number of factors, including its relatively small size, its high literacy rate, and its strong economy. The state has a long history of migration from rural to urban areas, and this trend has continued in recent years.

Kerala's urbanization has brought both benefits and challenges. On the one hand, it has led to economic growth and development. The state has a thriving manufacturing sector, and its service sector is also growing rapidly. Urbanization has also made it easier for people to access education, healthcare, and other services.

On the other hand, Kerala's urbanization has also led to problems such as traffic congestion, pollution, and crime. The state is struggling to provide adequate housing and infrastructure for its growing population.

Despite these challenges, Kerala's urbanization is likely to continue in the future. The state's economy is expected to grow, and its population is expected to continue to increase. This will put further pressure on the state's infrastructure and resources.

The other options are incorrect because they have lower urbanization rates than Kerala. Maharashtra has a urbanization rate of 45.3%, Tamil Nadu has a urbanization rate of 44.8%, and West Bengal has a urbanization rate of 38.6%.

The answer is C. Tape recorder.

A telescope is an optical instrument that uses lenses to make distant objects appear closer. A transistor is a semiconductor device used to amplify and switch electronic signals and electrical power. A telephone is an electronic device used to transmit and receive sound over a distance. A tape recorder is an electronic device used to record and play back sound on magnetic tape.

Of the four options, only the tape recorder is not a device that uses electricity. The other three options all use electricity to operate.

The correct answer is: A. an effective, honest government

The directive principles of state policy are a set of principles that are enshrined in the Indian Constitution. They are not enforceable in a court of law, but they are nevertheless fundamental to the governance of India. The directive principles are intended to guide the government in its policymaking and to ensure that the state works for the welfare of all its citizens.

In order for the directive principles to be effective, it is essential that the government be effective and honest. The government must have the will and the ability to implement the directive principles. It must also be free from corruption and nepotism. If the government is not effective and honest, then the directive principles will be nothing more than a set of lofty ideals.

The other options are not necessary for the enforcement of the directive principles. A socialist government is not necessary, as the directive principles are not specifically aimed at promoting socialism. Active opposition is not necessary, as the directive principles are not controversial. Adequate resources are not necessary, as the directive principles can be implemented even with limited resources.

In conclusion, the pre-requisite for the enforcement of the directive principles of state policy is an effective, honest government.

The correct answer is A) State Planning Board.

The State Planning Board (SPB) is a government body in West Bengal, India, responsible for planning and implementing the state's development programs. It was established in 1957, and its headquarters are located in Kolkata.

The SPB is headed by the Chief Minister of West Bengal, and its members include the Finance Minister, the Chief Secretary, and other senior officials from the state government. The SPB's functions include:

* Preparing the state's five-year plans
* Monitoring the implementation of development programs
* Coordinating the activities of different government departments
* Providing technical assistance to local governments

The SPB is an important body in the development of West Bengal. It has played a key role in the state's economic growth and social development.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The Finance Department is responsible for managing the state's finances.
* The Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for formulating and implementing the state's economic policies.
* The Chief Minister's Office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Chief Minister.

The correct answer is: Kamleshwar.

Kamleshwar was a Hindi writer who won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2016 for his novel "Aastha ka Andhare Ghar". He was born in 1932 in the village of Bhabhua in Bihar, India. He started writing at a young age and published his first novel, "Dhuan", in 1954. He went on to write over 20 novels, as well as short stories, essays, and plays. His work has been translated into many languages, including English, French, German, and Russian.

Kamleshwar was a prolific writer who was known for his social and political commentary. His work often dealt with the lives of ordinary people and the struggles they faced. He was also a strong advocate for women's rights and social justice.

Kamleshwar died in 2007 at the age of 75. He is survived by his wife and two children.

Here is a brief description of each option:

• Mridula Garg is an Indian writer who is known for her novels and short stories. She has won several awards for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1993.
• Amar Kant is an Indian writer who is known for his novels, short stories, and essays. He has won several awards for his work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1983.
• Nasira Sharma is an Indian writer who is known for her novels, short stories, and essays. She has won several awards for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2001.
• Kamleshwar is an Indian writer who is known for his novels, short stories, and essays. He has won several awards for his work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2016.

The correct answer is: B. Article-16

Article 16 of the Indian Constitution provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. It states that no citizen shall be discriminated against on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them, for any employment or office under the State.

Article 22 deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. Article 20 deals with protection in respect of conviction for offences. Article 25 deals with freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

Article 16 is one of the most important articles of the Indian Constitution. It guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment. This means that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them, for any employment or office under the State.

This article is important because it ensures that all citizens have an equal chance to compete for government jobs. It also helps to prevent discrimination in the workplace.

Article 16 has been interpreted by the Supreme Court of India in a number of cases. In the case of Indra Sawhney v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the principle of equality of opportunity in public employment must be interpreted in a broad and liberal manner. The Court also held that the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on the basis of caste, sex, or religion.

In the case of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the right to equality of opportunity in public employment is a fundamental right. This means that the State cannot arbitrarily deprive any citizen of this right.

Article 16 is a very important article of the Indian Constitution. It guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment. This means that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them, for any employment or office under the State.

The answer is C. Discomfort.

A hill is a smaller landform than a mountain, and discomfort is a milder form of pain. Both hills and discomfort can be unpleasant, but they are not as severe as mountains and pain.

A fear is an emotion that is caused by a sense of danger or threat. A headache is a pain in the head. Distress is a state of great anxiety or sorrow.

While all of these words can be unpleasant, they do not have the same relationship to each other as hill and mountain do.

Geetanjali Sports Stadium is the newest stadium in West Bengal. It was build in 2011 in Kosba, Kolkata.

The acid rich mountain soil is less fertile and black in colour. It is good for tea, pineapple, oranges and pears cultivation.

The correct answer is: B. Aziz-ud-Din

Aziz-ud-Din was a Mughal prince who was the son of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal. He was born in 1616 and died in 1671. He was the governor of Gujarat from 1645 to 1657 and the governor of Bengal from 1657 to 1658. He was also the wazir (prime minister) of the Mughal Empire from 1658 to 1661.

Aziz-ud-Din was a powerful and ambitious man. He was involved in a number of political intrigues and conspiracies. He was also a patron of the arts and literature.

In 1658, Aziz-ud-Din supported his brother Aurangzeb in his rebellion against their father Shah Jahan. After Aurangzeb became emperor, Aziz-ud-Din was appointed wazir. However, he was soon dismissed from office and imprisoned. He was released from prison in 1661, but he was never again allowed to hold any important position in the Mughal government.

Aziz-ud-Din died in 1671. He was buried in the Shahjahan Mosque in Agra.

The other options are incorrect.

• Sultan Ahmad III was the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire from 1703 to 1730.
• De Singh was a Rajput ruler who fought against the Mughal Empire in the 17th century.
• Wazir is an Arabic word that means "minister" or "advisor". It was used in the Mughal Empire to refer to the prime minister.

Some famous Rabindra Sangeet singers are Debabrata Biswas, Suchitra Mitra, Kanika Bandhopadhyay, Sagar Sen, Ritu Guha, Rezwana Chowdhury Bannya, Srabani Sen, etc.

The correct answer is: E. No error

The sentence is grammatically correct. The word "but" is used to introduce a contrast, and the word "for" is used to introduce a reason. The word "kind" is an adjective that describes the noun "help." The word "this" is a demonstrative pronoun that refers to the noun "task." The word "task" is a noun that refers to a piece of work. The word "could not" is a modal verb that expresses ability or possibility. The word "have been completed" is a perfect passive participle phrase that functions as the object of the verb "could not."

The sentence can be paraphrased as follows: "If it were not for your kind help, this task would not have been completed."

The correct answer is: B. Was given

A diary was given to Mary for her thirteenth birthday last month. This is a past event, so we use the simple past tense. The other options are incorrect because they are not in the past tense.

• Is given is in the present tense. This would be correct if the sentence were about a diary that is being given to Mary right now.
• Have been given is in the present perfect tense. This would be correct if the sentence were about a diary that has been given to Mary at some point in the past, but we don't know when.
• Will be given is in the future tense. This would be correct if the sentence were about a diary that will be given to Mary in the future.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is D. A worker wage is Rs. 15 per hour.

A fixed cost is a cost that does not change in total regardless of the number of units produced or sold. Examples of fixed costs include rent, insurance premiums, and salaries.

A worker wage is not a fixed cost because it is a variable cost. A variable cost is a cost that changes in total in direct proportion to the number of units produced or sold. For example, if a company produces 100 units and each unit costs Rs. 15 to produce, then the total cost of production is Rs. 1,500. If the company produces 200 units, then the total cost of production is Rs. 3,000.

The other options are fixed costs because they do not change in total regardless of the number of units produced or sold. For example, if a company rents a building for Rs. 1,000 per month, then the total cost of rent is Rs. 1,000 per month, regardless of whether the company produces 100 units or 200 units.

The correct answer is D. All of these.

The Indian civil service is a permanent bureaucracy that is responsible for carrying out the policies of the government. It is made up of a large number of officials who are appointed on the basis of merit. The civil service is supposed to be neutral and unbiased, and to serve the government of the day without any political affiliation. However, in practice, the civil service has often been accused of being partial to the ruling party. This is because the civil service is appointed by the government, and its members are often promoted or transferred based on their political connections.

The civil service is also supposed to have a temporary relationship with the political executive. This means that the civil service should not be influenced by the political ideology of the government of the day. However, in practice, the civil service has often been accused of being biased towards the ruling party. This is because the civil service is appointed by the government, and its members are often promoted or transferred based on their political connections.

Despite these criticisms, the Indian civil service is still considered to be one of the best in the world. It is a highly professional and efficient bureaucracy that has played a vital role in the development of India.

The correct answer is: **D) Ardhamagadhi Prakrit**

Magadhi Prakrit is the language of the Magadha region, which is now part of Bihar and Jharkhand states in India. It was the language of the Buddha and the early Buddhist scriptures. Sauraseni Prakrit is the language of the Mathura region, which is now part of Uttar Pradesh state in India. It was the language of the Jain scriptures. Maharashtri Prakrit is the language of the Maharashtra region, which is now part of Maharashtra state in India. It was the language of the early Hindu epics. Ardhamagadhi Prakrit is a mixed dialect of Magadhi Prakrit and Sauraseni Prakrit. It was the language of the Jain scriptures and the early Buddhist scriptures.

Bengali is an Indo-Aryan language spoken in Bangladesh and the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the seventh most spoken language in the world, with over 265 million speakers. Bengali is a member of the Eastern Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-Aryan languages. It is closely related to Assamese, Oriya, and Maithili. Bengali is written in the Bengali script, which is derived from the Brahmi script.

The Bengali language is derived from Ardhamagadhi Prakrit. Ardhamagadhi Prakrit is a mixed dialect of Magadhi Prakrit and Sauraseni Prakrit. It was the language of the Jain scriptures and the early Buddhist scriptures. Bengali developed from Ardhamagadhi Prakrit over a period of several centuries. The earliest known Bengali inscriptions date back to the 7th century AD. The Bengali language reached its golden age in the 15th and 16th centuries, during the reign of the Sultanate of Bengal. Bengali literature flourished during this period, and many famous Bengali literary works were written. The Bengali language continued to develop in the 17th and 18th centuries, and it reached its modern form in the 19th century. Bengali is now a major language of South Asia, and it is used in a variety of fields, including literature, art, music, and science.

The correct answer is (a), Azam.

Azam Shah was the eldest son of Aurangzeb and his first wife Dilras Banu Begum. He was born in 1605 and was appointed as the viceroy of the Deccan in 1633. In 1652, he rebelled against his father and fought a series of battles against him. The war ended in 1658 with Azam's defeat and death.

Azam's rebellion weakened Aurangzeb's position against the Rajputs. The Rajputs were a powerful Hindu warrior group who had been resisting Mughal rule for centuries. Aurangzeb had been trying to conquer the Rajput kingdoms for many years, but he had not been successful. Azam's rebellion gave the Rajputs a chance to regroup and launch a new offensive against the Mughals.

Azam's rebellion also had a negative impact on the Mughal Empire's economy. The war was very costly and it drained the empire's resources. This made it more difficult for Aurangzeb to maintain control over his empire.

In conclusion, Azam Shah's rebellion weakened Aurangzeb's position against the Rajputs and had a negative impact on the Mughal Empire's economy.

The correct answer is:

• The Taj Mahal is a historical place.

The Taj Mahal is a white marble mausoleum on the south bank of the Yamuna river in the Indian city of Agra. It was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan (reigned 1628–1658) to house the tomb of his favourite wife Mumtaz Mahal; it also houses the tomb of Shah Jahan himself. The tomb is the centrepiece of a 17-hectare (42-acre) complex, which includes a mosque and a guest house, and is set in formal gardens bounded on three sides by a crenellated wall.

The Taj Mahal is widely recognized as "the jewel of Muslim art in India and one of the universally admired masterpieces of the world's heritage". The tomb is the most popular tourist destination in India and is consistently ranked among the top tourist attractions in the world.

The Taj Mahal is an example of Mughal architecture, a style that developed in India under the Mughal Empire, which ruled most of the Indian subcontinent from the early 16th to the mid-18th centuries. Mughal architecture is a fusion of Islamic and Hindu architectural styles, and is characterized by its use of white marble, intricate inlay work, and large domes.

The Taj Mahal was built over a period of 22 years, from 1632 to 1653. It is estimated that 20,000 workers were employed in its construction. The main materials used in the construction of the Taj Mahal are white marble, red sandstone, and black marble. The white marble was quarried from Makrana, Rajasthan, while the red sandstone was quarried from Fatehpur Sikri. The black marble was quarried from Makrana, Rajasthan, and was used for the inlay work on the tomb.

The Taj Mahal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It was inscribed on the World Heritage List in 1983, and is described as "the jewel of Muslim art in India and one of the universally admired masterpieces of the world's heritage".

The Taj Mahal is a popular tourist destination. It is estimated that over 8 million people visit the Taj Mahal each year. The best time to visit the Taj Mahal is during the winter months, from November to March, when the weather is cooler and drier.

The Taj Mahal is a beautiful and awe-inspiring monument. It is a testament to the love that Shah Jahan had for his wife, Mumtaz Mahal. The Taj Mahal is a must-see for anyone visiting India.

The correct answer is B. ESCAP stands for Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific. It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. It was established in 1947 to promote economic and social development in the Asia-Pacific region. ESCAP works with governments, international organizations, and civil society to address a wide range of issues, including poverty reduction, sustainable development, and regional cooperation.

A is incorrect because it does not include the word "Social". C is incorrect because it does not include the word "Asia". D is incorrect because it is not a valid option.