WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-2

Pig Farm is located at Harringhata (Nadia).

The correct answer is: B) Milk production.

Murrah buffaloes are a breed of water buffalo that are primarily reared for milk production. They are native to the Indian subcontinent and are the most common breed of buffalo in the world. Murrah buffaloes are known for their high milk production, which can reach up to 4,000 liters per year. They are also known for their docile temperament and their ability to adapt to a variety of climates.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Option A: Meat production. Murrah buffaloes are not typically reared for meat production. Their meat is considered to be tough and low-quality.
* Option C: Draught purposes. Murrah buffaloes are not typically used for draught purposes. They are not as strong as other breeds of buffalo, such as the Nili Ravi buffalo.
* Option D: Wool production. Murrah buffaloes do not produce wool.

The correct answer is: A. who

The sentence is about human beings, so the relative pronoun "who" is the most appropriate choice. The other options are not as accurate or natural-sounding.

• "That" is used to refer to things, not people.
• "As" is used to introduce a clause that describes something.
• "No improvement" is not an option, as the sentence is grammatically incorrect without a relative pronoun.

Here is a rewritten version of the sentence that uses the correct relative pronoun:

The function of education is to create human beings who are integrated and therefore intelligent.

The correct answer is C. underhand.

A hole-and-corner method is a method that is secret or dishonest. Rajeev achieved success by using a dishonest method, so the answer must be a word that means dishonest. Of the four options, only underhand means dishonest.

Obscure means not well-known or not easily understood. Usual means happening or done often. Clever means intelligent or skillful.

Sound travels fastest in solids, followed by liquids, and then gases. This is because the molecules in solids are closer together than the molecules in liquids or gases, so they can transfer energy more easily.

In a vacuum, there are no molecules to transfer energy, so sound cannot travel.

In air, the molecules are further apart than in solids or liquids, so sound travels slower.

In water, the molecules are closer together than in air, so sound travels faster.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

• D. Water

Sound travels fastest in water because the molecules in water are closer together than the molecules in air. This means that they can transfer energy more easily, and sound can travel faster.

The correct answer is (c), Hawaii.

Hawaii is the only state in the United States that grows coffee commercially. Coffee is grown on the Big Island of Hawaii, on the slopes of Mauna Loa and Mauna Kea. The coffee grown in Hawaii is known for its high quality and unique flavor.

Florida is a major producer of citrus fruits, such as oranges, grapefruits, and lemons. California is a major producer of fruits, vegetables, and nuts, such as grapes, almonds, and walnuts. Arizona is a major producer of cotton, alfalfa, and cattle.

The correct answer is C. Equal.

A consumer is in equilibrium when the marginal utility of each good consumed is equal to the marginal utility of money. This means that the consumer is getting the same amount of satisfaction from each additional unit of each good consumed.

If the marginal utility of one good is greater than the marginal utility of another good, the consumer will want to consume more of the good with the higher marginal utility. This will continue until the marginal utilities of all goods are equal.

If the marginal utility of one good is less than the marginal utility of another good, the consumer will want to consume less of the good with the lower marginal utility. This will continue until the marginal utilities of all goods are equal.

The following is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Minimum. This is incorrect because the marginal utility of a good is typically highest at the point of consumption and then decreases as more of the good is consumed.
• Option B: Highest. This is incorrect because the marginal utility of a good is typically highest at the point of consumption and then decreases as more of the good is consumed.
• Option C: Equal. This is the correct answer because the consumer is in equilibrium when the marginal utility of each good consumed is equal to the marginal utility of money.
• Option D: Increasing. This is incorrect because the marginal utility of a good is typically highest at the point of consumption and then decreases as more of the good is consumed.

The correct answer is (b), 1974.

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is an act of the Parliament of India to provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution in the country. The Act was enacted on 23 May 1974 and came into force on 19 November 1974.

The Act provides for the establishment of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to implement the provisions of the Act. The Act also provides for the appointment of Air Pollution Control Officers (APCOs) to enforce the provisions of the Act.

The Act prohibits the emission of air pollutants in excess of the prescribed standards. The Act also prohibits the use of certain specified fuels and substances which are likely to cause air pollution.

The Act provides for the imposition of penalties for contravention of its provisions. The Act also provides for the closure of industries which are found to be causing air pollution.

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is a landmark legislation which has helped to improve the air quality in India. The Act has been amended several times since its enactment to make it more effective.

The following are the options for the question:

(a) 1980: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974, not 1980.
(b) 1974: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974. This is the correct answer.
(c) 1981: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974, not 1981.
(d) 1986: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974, not 1986.

The correct answer is A. Pullela Gopichand.

Pullela Gopichand is an Indian badminton player and coach. He is the chief national coach of the Indian badminton team and the founder of the Gopichand Badminton Academy in Hyderabad. He is a former world number one and the only Indian to have won the All England Open Badminton Championships. He is also the first Indian to win a medal at the Olympics, winning the silver medal in the men's singles event at the 2001 Summer Olympics.

P.V. Sindhu is an Indian badminton player. She is the current world champion and the first Indian to win the title. She is also the first Indian to win a silver medal at the Olympics, winning the silver medal in the women's singles event at the 2016 Summer Olympics. She is currently ranked number two in the world by the Badminton World Federation.

Pullela Gopichand has been coaching P.V. Sindhu since she was 10 years old. He has been instrumental in her success, and she has credited him with her development as a player. Gopichand is a highly respected coach, and he is considered to be one of the best in the world. He has coached many other successful players, including Saina Nehwal and Kidambi Srikanth.

A. Pullela Gopichand is the correct answer because he is the current coach of P.V. Sindhu. He is a highly respected coach, and he has been instrumental in her success.

The correct answer is: D. no article

The word "a" or "an" is used before a singular noun that refers to a general or unspecified thing. In this case, Toni's car is a specific car, so we do not use an article.

The word "the" is used before a singular noun that refers to a specific or unique thing. In this case, Toni's car is not a specific or unique car, so we do not use "the."

No article is used before a singular noun that refers to a general or unspecified thing. In this case, Toni's car is a general or unspecified car, so we do not use an article.

The correct answer is (a).

Section 376D of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, states that whoever, in committing rape, is in company with one or more other persons, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years but which may be extended to life imprisonment.

The punishment for gang rape is more severe than the punishment for rape, which is rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years but which may be extended to ten years. This is because gang rape is a more serious crime, as it involves multiple perpetrators who act together to commit the crime.

The punishment for gang rape is also more severe than the punishment for other forms of sexual assault, such as molestation and sexual harassment. This is because gang rape is a more violent crime, as it involves the use of force or the threat of force.

The punishment for gang rape is intended to deter people from committing this crime, and to protect victims of gang rape. The punishment is also intended to send a message that gang rape is a serious crime that will not be tolerated.

The correct answer is A. Direct tax.

Direct taxes are taxes that are levied directly on the income or property of the taxpayer. They are the most important source of revenue for the government of India. The main direct taxes in India are income tax, corporate tax, and wealth tax.

Indirect taxes are taxes that are levied on goods and services. They are collected by the government from the seller of the goods or services, and are ultimately passed on to the consumer in the form of higher prices. The main indirect taxes in India are excise duty, customs duty, and service tax.

Progressive taxes are taxes that have a higher rate for higher-income taxpayers. They are designed to redistribute income from the rich to the poor. The main progressive taxes in India are income tax and wealth tax.

Specific taxes are taxes that are levied on a specific good or service, regardless of its value. They are usually used to regulate the production or consumption of a particular good or service. The main specific taxes in India are excise duty and customs duty.

In 2020-21, direct taxes accounted for 57.8% of the total revenue of the government of India. Indirect taxes accounted for 42.2% of the total revenue.

Five of the films of Buddhadeb Dasgupta have won the National Film Award for best Feature Film. They are Bagh Bahadur (1989), Charachar (1993), Lal Darja (1997), Mondo Meyer Upakhyan (2002), and Kaalpurush (2008), while Dooratwa (1978) and Tahader Katha (1993) have won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film in Bengali.

The correct answer is: A) Darjeeling foothills.

Darjeeling is a town in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the foothills of the Himalayas, and is known for its tea plantations. The Darjeeling tea industry is one of the most important industries in the state, and employs a large number of people.

The Sundarbans Delta is a vast delta formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. It is located in the Bay of Bengal, and is the largest mangrove forest in the world. The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, elephants, and crocodiles.

The Rarh plains are a region of West Bengal that is located between the Ganges and the Brahmaputra rivers. It is a fertile agricultural region, and is home to a number of important cities, including Kolkata.

The coastal districts of West Bengal are located on the Bay of Bengal. They are a popular tourist destination, and are home to a number of important historical and cultural sites.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Which region of West Bengal is known for its tea plantations?" is A) Darjeeling foothills.

The correct answer is A. 12.

A typical human ribcage consists of 12 pairs of ribs, which are connected to the spine at the back and to the sternum (breastbone) at the front. The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, and they are attached to the sternum directly. The next five pairs of ribs are called false ribs, and they are attached to the sternum indirectly through the cartilage of the seventh pair of ribs. The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs, and they are not attached to the sternum at all.

The ribs protect the lungs, heart, and other organs in the chest. They also help with breathing by expanding and contracting the chest cavity.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 12. This is the correct answer. A typical human ribcage consists of 12 pairs of ribs.
• Option B: 14. This is incorrect. There are 12 pairs of ribs, not 14.
• Option C: 16. This is incorrect. There are 12 pairs of ribs, not 16.
• Option D: 24. This is incorrect. There are 12 pairs of ribs, not 24.

The correct answer is: B. Kepler's Laws

Kepler's laws are three physical laws that describe the motion of planets around the Sun. They were first published by Johannes Kepler in his 1609 book Astronomia nova, based on the astronomical observations of Tycho Brahe.

The first law states that the orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus. The second law states that the line joining a planet to the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times. The third law states that the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

Kepler's laws are a fundamental part of classical mechanics, and they have been used to great success in understanding the motion of planets, comets, and other objects in the Solar System.

A. Newton's Laws are three physical laws that, together, laid the foundation for classical mechanics. They describe the relationship between a body and the forces acting upon it, and its motion in response to those forces.

The first law states that a body remains at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force. The second law states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it, and inversely proportional to its mass. The third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

B. Avogadro's law is a gas law that states that, at a fixed temperature and pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles of gas present.

C. De Morgan's laws are two rules of logic that are used to negate statements. The first law states that the negation of "all A are B" is "some A are not B". The second law states that the negation of "some A are B" is "all A are not B".

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is A. Mallabhum.

Mallabhum was a feudatory state in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. It was ruled by the Malla dynasty from the 12th to the 18th centuries. The Mallas were known for their martial traditions and skilled warriors. They fought against the Mughals and the British, and they were also involved in the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

Bishnupur was a feudatory state in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. It was ruled by the Malla dynasty from the 16th to the 18th centuries. The Mallas were known for their art and architecture. They built many temples and palaces in Bishnupur, which are now UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Pachet was a feudatory state in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. It was ruled by the Sen dynasty from the 11th to the 13th centuries. The Sen dynasty was known for its military prowess. They fought against the Pala dynasty and the Mughals.

Dinajpur was a feudatory state in the eastern Indian state of West Bengal. It was ruled by the Nawabs of Bengal from the 16th to the 18th centuries. The Nawabs of Bengal were known for their luxury and extravagance. They built many palaces and gardens in Dinajpur, which are now tourist attractions.

The correct answer is A. Jitshatru.

Ajitnath was the 17th Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born in Ayodhya, India, to King Jitshatru and Queen Padmavati. He attained enlightenment at the age of 30 and attained moksha at the age of 72.

Jitshatru was a king of the Ikshvaku dynasty. He was a wise and just ruler who was loved by his people. He was also a devout Jain who followed the teachings of Mahavira.

Padmavati was the queen of Jitshatru. She was a beautiful and virtuous woman who was devoted to her husband and son. She was also a devout Jain who followed the teachings of Mahavira.

Ajitnath was born in Ayodhya, India, in the 8th century BCE. He was the son of King Jitshatru and Queen Padmavati. He was raised in a palace and had a comfortable childhood. However, he was always interested in religion and philosophy. He began to study the teachings of Jainism when he was young and eventually decided to become a monk.

Ajitnath renounced his royal life and became a monk at the age of 30. He spent the next 42 years wandering the countryside, preaching the Jain faith and helping others to achieve enlightenment. He attained enlightenment at the age of 72 and attained moksha shortly thereafter.

Ajitnath is one of the most important figures in Jainism. He is considered to be the 17th Tirthankara, or savior, of the world. He is also known as the "Great Conqueror" because he conquered his passions and attained enlightenment.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the names of Ajitnath's father. B. Mallinath was the 16th Tirthankara of Jainism. C. Parsavnath was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism. D. Neminath was the 22nd Tirthankara of Jainism.

The correct answer is A. Harappa and Mohenjodaro.

Harappa and Mohenjodaro were the two largest cities of the Indus Valley Civilization. They were located in what is now Pakistan. Harappa was located in the Punjab region, while Mohenjodaro was located in the Sindh region. Both cities were built on the banks of rivers, and they were both well-planned and organized. They had a complex system of drainage and sewage, and they were also home to a number of public buildings, including granaries, baths, and workshops.

Kalibangan, Banawali, and Lothal were also important cities of the Indus Valley Civilization, but they were not as large or as well-known as Harappa and Mohenjodaro. Kalibangan was located in the Rajasthan region, Banawali was located in the Haryana region, and Lothal was located in the Gujarat region. All three cities were built on the banks of rivers, and they all had a complex system of drainage and sewage. They were also home to a number of public buildings, including granaries, baths, and workshops.

The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the northwestern Indian subcontinent from 3300 to 1300 BCE. It was one of the world's earliest urban civilizations, and it was also one of the most advanced. The Indus Valley Civilization was known for its sophisticated urban planning, its well-developed system of drainage and sewage, and its large public buildings. It was also a major center of trade and commerce.

The Indus Valley Civilization declined around 1300 BCE, and its cause of decline is still unknown. Some scholars believe that it was due to a natural disaster, such as a flood or an earthquake. Others believe that it was due to invasion from outside. Whatever the cause, the Indus Valley Civilization disappeared without a trace, and its people left behind no written records.

The correct answer is: **B) Sena Dynasty**.

The Sena dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 11th to the 12th century. The Senas were originally from the Deccan Plateau, and they came to power in Bengal after overthrowing the Pala dynasty. The Senas were a powerful and prosperous dynasty, and they built many temples and monasteries in Bengal. However, the Sena dynasty declined in the 12th century due to a number of factors, including the Turkish invasions of Bengal. The Turks were a Muslim people from Central Asia, and they invaded Bengal in the 12th century. The Turks were a powerful force, and they defeated the Sena army. The Turks also destroyed many temples and monasteries in Bengal. The Sena dynasty was unable to recover from the Turkish invasions, and it eventually collapsed.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* The Pala Empire was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 8th to the 12th century. The Palas were a powerful and prosperous dynasty, and they built many temples and monasteries in Bengal. However, the Pala dynasty declined in the 12th century due to a number of factors, including the Turkish invasions of Bengal. The Turks were a Muslim people from Central Asia, and they invaded Bengal in the 12th century. The Turks were a powerful force, and they defeated the Pala army. The Turks also destroyed many temples and monasteries in Bengal. The Pala dynasty was unable to recover from the Turkish invasions, and it eventually collapsed.
* The Deva Dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 7th to the 8th century. The Devas were a powerful and prosperous dynasty, and they built many temples and monasteries in Bengal. However, the Deva dynasty declined in the 8th century due to a number of factors, including internal conflict and the rise of the Pala dynasty.
* The Khadga Dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 6th to the 7th century. The Khadgas were a powerful and prosperous dynasty, and they built many temples and monasteries in Bengal. However, the Khadga dynasty declined in the 7th century due to a number of factors, including internal conflict and the rise of the Deva dynasty.

The correct answer is (a) 87.28%.

The literacy rate of Uttarakhand state is 87.28%, which is higher than the national average of 74.04%. The literacy rate for males is 90.59%, while the literacy rate for females is 83.89%. The literacy rate has increased significantly in Uttarakhand since the 2001 census, when it was 76.74%. This increase is due to a number of factors, including the expansion of education facilities, the introduction of new educational programs, and the government's focus on promoting literacy.

The literacy rate is an important indicator of a country's development. It is a measure of the level of education and knowledge among the population. A high literacy rate is associated with a number of benefits, including economic growth, social progress, and political stability.

The literacy rate in Uttarakhand is still lower than the national average, but it is improving steadily. The government is committed to promoting literacy and education in the state, and it is working to ensure that all children have access to quality education.

Kankalitala temple, located in Birbhum district, is one of the 51 Shaktipithas of India. It is located about 9 km from Bolpur on the bank of Kopai river.

The correct answer is (a) Captain Hawkins.

Captain William Hawkins was an English merchant and explorer who was the first Englishman to visit the Mughal court of Emperor Jahangir. He arrived in India in 1608 and was granted an audience with the emperor in 1609. He remained in India for several years, during which time he attempted to establish trade relations between England and the Mughal Empire.

Sir Thomas Roe was an English diplomat who was the first English ambassador to the Mughal court. He arrived in India in 1615 and was granted an audience with the emperor in 1616. He remained in India for several years, during which time he negotiated a trade treaty between England and the Mughal Empire.

François Bernier was a French physician and traveler who visited the Mughal court in the early 17th century. He wrote a detailed account of his travels, which was published in 1670.

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a French traveler and merchant who visited the Mughal court in the late 17th century. He wrote a detailed account of his travels, which was published in 1676.

The correct answer is: B. Carbon

Diamond is an allotrope of carbon, a chemical element with the symbol C and atomic number 6. It is a member of the group 14 elements in the periodic table: carbon is the second-lightest element in the group and is a solid at standard temperature and pressure.

Diamond is one of the hardest materials known and is the most widely used gemstone. It is also used in industrial applications, such as cutting tools and abrasives.

Germanium is a chemical element with the symbol Ge and atomic number 32. It is a metalloid in the carbon group in the periodic table. It is a silvery-white metalloid that is chemically similar to silicon and tin.

Silicon is a chemical element with the symbol Si and atomic number 14. It is a tetravalent metalloid and semiconductor in the group 14 of the periodic table. It is a member of the carbon group and is a major component of the Earth's crust.

Sulphur is a chemical element with the symbol S and atomic number 16. It is a non-metallic, multivalent pale yellow solid that is widely distributed in nature. It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table and is chemically similar to oxygen and selenium.

In conclusion, diamond is an allotrope of carbon, not germanium, silicon, or sulphur.

Haliday Island Wildlife Sanctuary is located in South 24 Parganas district in West Bengal. Jorepokhri Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Darjeeling district in West Bengal. Ramnabagan Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Bardhaman district in West Bengal. Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Darjeeling district in West Bengal.

The correct answer is C. Impulse and moment of force.

Impulse is a measure of the change in momentum of an object, while moment of force is a measure of the torque exerted on an object. The dimensions of impulse are $MLT^{-1}$, while the dimensions of moment of force are $ML^2T^{-2}$. Therefore, impulse and moment of force do not have identical dimensions.

In more detail, impulse is defined as the product of force and time, $J = Ft$. Force is a vector quantity, so it has both magnitude and direction. The magnitude of force is measured in newtons (N), and the direction of force is indicated by a unit vector. Time is a scalar quantity, so it is measured in seconds (s). Therefore, the dimensions of impulse are $MLT^{-1}$.

Moment of force is defined as the product of force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the point of rotation, $M = Fd$. Force is a vector quantity, so it has both magnitude and direction. The magnitude of force is measured in newtons (N), and the direction of force is indicated by a unit vector. The perpendicular distance is a scalar quantity, so it is measured in meters (m). Therefore, the dimensions of moment of force are $ML^2T^{-2}$.

As you can see, the dimensions of impulse and moment of force are not the same. Therefore, impulse and moment of force do not have identical dimensions.

The answer is B. Discovery.

Novelty is the state of being new or unusual. Oldness is the state of being old or long-established. Newness is the state of being new or recent. Discovery is the act of finding something new or previously unknown.

The relationship between novelty and oldness is that novelty is the opposite of oldness. Novelty is something that is new or unusual, while oldness is something that is old or long-established. The relationship between newness and discovery is that newness is the result of discovery. Discovery is the act of finding something new or previously unknown, and newness is the state of being new or recent.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. Culture is the customs, arts, social institutions, and achievements of a particular nation, people, or other social group. Model is a three-dimensional representation of a physical object or system, typically on a smaller scale than the original. Antiquity is the ancient period, especially the period before the Middle Ages.

The correct answer is: C. 82

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are rural banks in India that were established in 1975 by the Government of India with the objective of providing banking services to the rural population. The RRBs are sponsored by commercial banks and state governments.

As of 31st March,2010, there were 82 RRBs in India. These RRBs have a network of over 22,000 branches and over 1.5 lakh employees. They have mobilized deposits of over Rs. 1,50,000 crore and have disbursed loans of over Rs. 1,00,000 crore.

The RRBs have played a significant role in the development of the rural economy. They have provided banking services to the rural population, who were earlier not served by the formal banking system. They have also helped in the development of agriculture, small businesses, and other rural industries.

The RRBs have been facing a number of challenges in recent years. These challenges include low profitability, high levels of non-performing assets, and competition from other banks. However, the RRBs are taking steps to address these challenges and are committed to providing quality banking services to the rural population.

The following are the options for the question:

• A. 85
• B. 81
• C. 82
• D. 93

Option A is incorrect because there were 82 RRBs in India as of 31st March,2010.

Option B is incorrect because there were 82 RRBs in India as of 31st March,2010.

Option C is the correct answer because there were 82 RRBs in India as of 31st March,2010.

Option D is incorrect because there were 82 RRBs in India as of 31st March,2010.

The correct answer is: B. cheerful

A cheerful person is someone who is happy and optimistic. They are often smiling and laughing, and they enjoy spending time with others. They are also typically good at making others feel happy and comfortable.

A talkative person is someone who talks a lot. They may be good at conversation, or they may simply enjoy talking. They may also be good at sharing stories or information.

A drunk person is someone who has been drinking too much alcohol. They may be impaired in their judgment and coordination, and they may behave in ways that are out of character.

An uncontrollable person is someone who is difficult to control. They may be angry, aggressive, or simply difficult to reason with.

In the context of the question, the person is always in high spirits. This suggests that they are happy and optimistic. This is consistent with the definition of a cheerful person. The other options are not as consistent with the information in the question.

The correct answer is (d). Malaria is transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes. When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, she ingests blood that contains malaria parasites. The parasites then multiply in the mosquito's gut and eventually develop into sporozoites. When the mosquito bites another person, the sporozoites are injected into the person's bloodstream and can cause malaria.

Male Anopheles mosquitoes do not bite humans and therefore do not transmit malaria. Female Culex mosquitoes are the primary vectors of West Nile virus, but they do not transmit malaria. Female Aedes mosquitoes are the primary vectors of dengue fever, chikungunya, and yellow fever, but they do not transmit malaria.

The correct answer is: A. Majority number of votes polled.

The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament, elected members of the legislative assemblies of all states, and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

To be elected, a candidate must secure a majority of the votes polled. If no candidate secures a majority of the votes polled in the first round of voting, the election is held between the two candidates who have secured the highest number of votes in the first round. The candidate who secures a majority of the votes polled in the second round is elected as the President of India.

Option B is incorrect because the winning candidate does not need to secure 66% of the votes polled.

Option C is incorrect because the winning candidate does not need to secure 50% of the votes polled.

Option D is incorrect because the winning candidate does not need to secure more than 50% and a majority of the total votes polled.

The correct answer is D. Small intestine.

The small intestine is the longest part of the digestive system, and it is where most of the absorption of nutrients occurs. The small intestine is about 20 feet long, and it is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, and it is where the stomach contents are mixed with bile and pancreatic juices. Bile is a fluid that helps to break down fats, and pancreatic juices contain enzymes that help to break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

The jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine, and it is where most of the absorption of nutrients occurs. The jejunum has a large surface area, which is important for absorption. The jejunum also has many villi, which are small finger-like projections that increase the surface area even more.

The ileum is the last part of the small intestine, and it is where bile salts and vitamin B12 are absorbed. The ileum also has a large surface area, but it does not have as many villi as the jejunum.

After the nutrients are absorbed, they are transported to the bloodstream and then to the cells of the body. The nutrients are used by the cells for energy, growth, and repair.

The correct answer is (a) 11%.

Renewable energy sources include hydropower, wind power, solar power, biomass, and geothermal energy. As of December 2011, renewable energy sources accounted for 11% of the total generation capacity in the energy sector of India. This is a significant increase from the 5% share that renewable energy sources held in 2000. The increase in the share of renewable energy is due to a number of factors, including government policies that promote the use of renewable energy, technological advances that have made renewable energy more affordable, and growing public awareness of the environmental benefits of renewable energy.

Hydropower is the largest source of renewable energy in India, accounting for 5.3% of the total generation capacity. Wind power is the second largest source of renewable energy, accounting for 3.3% of the total generation capacity. Solar power is the third largest source of renewable energy, accounting for 2.2% of the total generation capacity. Biomass is the fourth largest source of renewable energy, accounting for 0.8% of the total generation capacity. Geothermal energy is the smallest source of renewable energy, accounting for 0.1% of the total generation capacity.

The growth of renewable energy in India is expected to continue in the coming years. The government has set a target of increasing the share of renewable energy to 20% of the total generation capacity by 2022. This target is ambitious, but it is achievable given the current trends in the growth of renewable energy.

The correct answer is: D. no article

The phrase "an apple a day keeps the doctor away" is a proverb that means eating an apple every day can help you stay healthy and avoid going to the doctor. The phrase does not use an article because it is a general statement about apples and health. It is not referring to a specific apple or a specific doctor.

The other options are incorrect because they all use articles. The article "a" is used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound. The article "an" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound. The article "the" is used before specific nouns. In this case, the noun "apple" is not specific, so it does not need an article.

The correct answer is: A. Market Attractiveness and Business Position.

The GE Business Model is a framework for analyzing a company's business strategy. It is based on the idea that a company's success depends on both its market attractiveness and its business position.

Market attractiveness is a measure of the potential for a company to generate profits in a particular market. It is determined by factors such as the size of the market, the growth rate of the market, the intensity of competition, and the profitability of the market.

Business position is a measure of a company's competitive strength in a particular market. It is determined by factors such as the company's market share, its brand strength, its product quality, and its distribution network.

The GE Business Model is a valuable tool for companies that are trying to develop or improve their business strategy. It can help companies to identify their strengths and weaknesses, to assess the opportunities and threats in their markets, and to develop a plan to achieve their goals.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Market Attractiveness and Business Position. This is the correct answer. The GE Business Model is based on the idea that a company's success depends on both its market attractiveness and its business position.
• Option B: Business Attractiveness and Market Position. This is not the correct answer. The GE Business Model does not consider business attractiveness.
• Option C: Industry Growth rate and Company's Market share. This is not the correct answer. The GE Business Model does not consider industry growth rate.
• Option D: Company's Growth rate and Industry's Position. This is not the correct answer. The GE Business Model does not consider company's growth rate.

The answer is B, papaya.

Cabbage, gourd, cucumber, and brinjal are all vegetables, while papaya is a fruit.

Cabbage is a leafy green vegetable that is a member of the cruciferous vegetable family. It is a cool-weather crop that is native to Europe and Asia. Cabbage is a good source of vitamins C and K, as well as fiber.

Gourd is a type of squash that is a member of the Cucurbitaceae family. It is a warm-weather crop that is native to Africa and Asia. Gourd is a good source of vitamins A and C, as well as fiber.

Cucumber is a type of melon that is a member of the Cucurbitaceae family. It is a cool-weather crop that is native to Asia. Cucumber is a good source of vitamins K and C, as well as water.

Brinjal is a type of eggplant that is a member of the Solanaceae family. It is a warm-weather crop that is native to India. Brinjal is a good source of vitamins C and B6, as well as fiber.

Papaya is a type of fruit that is a member of the Caricaceae family. It is a tropical fruit that is native to Central America. Papaya is a good source of vitamins C and A, as well as fiber.

The correct answer is (c) Kerala.

Kerala is the largest coconut producing state in India, accounting for about 27% of the country's total production. The state has a long history of coconut cultivation, and coconuts are an important part of the local economy. Coconuts are used in a variety of products, including food, fuel, and building materials.

Andhra Pradesh is the second largest coconut producing state in India, accounting for about 18% of the country's total production. Karnataka is the third largest coconut producing state in India, accounting for about 15% of the country's total production. Tamil Nadu is the fourth largest coconut producing state in India, accounting for about 12% of the country's total production.

The following are some of the reasons why Kerala is the largest coconut producing state in India:

• The state has a favorable climate for coconut cultivation.
• The state has a long history of coconut cultivation.
• Coconuts are an important part of the local economy.
• Coconuts are used in a variety of products, including food, fuel, and building materials.

The correct answer is: D. Serena Williams

Serena Williams defeated Lindsay Davenport in the final of the 2005 Wimbledon Women's Singles Championship. Williams won in straight sets, 6-4, 6-4.

Mary Pierce was eliminated in the fourth round of the tournament by Lindsay Davenport.

Maria Sharapova was eliminated in the second round of the tournament by Patty Schnyder.

Serena Williams is a professional tennis player from the United States. She has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles, the most in the Open Era and the second-most in history, tied with Steffi Graf. She has also won 14 Grand Slam doubles titles and two Olympic gold medals. Williams is considered one of the greatest tennis players of all time.

The correct answer is: B. Bicameral

The Indian Parliament is a bicameral legislature, consisting of the President and the two Houses of Parliament: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

The President is the head of state of India and is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the legislative assemblies of the states. The President has the power to summon and prorogue Parliament, to dissolve the Lok Sabha, to appoint the Prime Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers, to give assent to bills passed by Parliament, and to veto bills.

The Lok Sabha is the lower house of Parliament and is directly elected by the people of India. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 members, of which 543 are elected from single-member constituencies and 9 are nominated by the President. The term of the Lok Sabha is five years.

The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of Parliament and is indirectly elected by the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and the Union Territories. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250 members, of whom 238 are elected by the legislative assemblies of the states and the Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President. The term of the Rajya Sabha is six years, but one-third of its members retire every two years.

The Indian Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India and has the power to make laws on all matters except those that are reserved for the state legislatures. The Parliament also has the power to amend the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is: A. Jaundice.

Hepatitis is a liver disease caused by a virus. The virus attacks the liver cells and can cause inflammation, which can lead to a number of health problems. Jaundice is one of the most common symptoms of hepatitis. It is a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by a build-up of bilirubin in the blood.

Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease caused by a parasite. The parasite attacks red blood cells and can cause a number of health problems, including fever, chills, anemia, and organ failure.

Typhoid is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi. The bacteria attack the small intestine and can cause a number of health problems, including fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and rose spots (a rash on the chest and abdomen).

Elephantiasis is a disease caused by a parasitic worm. The worm attacks the lymphatic system and can cause a number of health problems, including swelling of the arms, legs, and genitals.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: A. Jaundice.

The correct answer is (d), Directive Principles of State Policy.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of principles that are enshrined in the Indian Constitution. They are not enforceable in a court of law, but the government is supposed to follow them while making laws and policies. The Directive Principles were borrowed from the Irish Constitution, which also has a similar set of principles.

The Directive Principles are intended to guide the government in making laws and policies that will promote the welfare of the people. They cover a wide range of issues, including economic and social justice, education, health, and environment. The Directive Principles are a reminder that the government has a responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens.

The other options are incorrect. The post of Prime Minister is an executive position that is not mentioned in the Irish Constitution. Fundamental Duties are a set of duties that are imposed on citizens by the Indian Constitution. They are not enforceable in a court of law, but citizens are expected to follow them. Fundamental Rights are a set of rights that are guaranteed to citizens by the Indian Constitution. They are enforceable in a court of law.

The correct answer is: **A) Tripura**.

Bengali is the state language of Tripura, in addition to being the official language of West Bengal. It is also spoken in Assam, Jharkhand, and Odisha, but it is not the state language of those states.

Bengali is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by about 265 million people worldwide, making it the seventh most spoken language in the world. It is the official language of Bangladesh and the state language of West Bengal in India. Bengali is also spoken in parts of Assam, Jharkhand, and Odisha.

Bengali is a tonal language, which means that the pitch of your voice can change the meaning of a word. It is also a syllabic language, which means that each syllable has a vowel sound. Bengali has a rich literary tradition, and many famous Bengali writers have won the Nobel Prize in Literature, including Rabindranath Tagore and Amartya Sen.

The correct answer is: A) Classical music.

The Bishnupur Gharana is a renowned school of classical music in India. It is one of the most important gharanas in the Hindustani classical music tradition. The gharana is known for its unique style of singing, which is characterized by its use of complex rhythms and melodies. The Bishnupur Gharana has produced many great singers, including Alauddin Khan, Ravi Shankar, and Ali Akbar Khan.

The other options are incorrect. Classical dance is a form of dance that is based on traditional Indian dance forms. Painting is a form of visual art that is used to create images on a surface. Sculpture is a form of three-dimensional art that is created by carving or molding materials such as stone, wood, or metal.

West Bengal Industrial Development Corporation Ltd. (WBIDC) that is responsible for industrial development was formed in 1967.

The correct answer is: A) Recognize the rights of forest-dwelling communities.

The Forest Rights Act, 2006, is an Indian law that recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities. It was enacted to protect the rights of these communities and to ensure that they have a say in the management of forests. The Act also provides for the restitution of forest land that was illegally taken away from these communities.

Option B is incorrect because the Act does not promote deforestation. In fact, it aims to protect forests and to ensure that they are managed in a sustainable manner.

Option C is incorrect because the Act does not restrict tribal land ownership. In fact, it provides for the restitution of forest land that was illegally taken away from tribal communities.

Option D is incorrect because the Act does not increase industrial activity in forest areas. In fact, it aims to protect forests and to ensure that they are managed in a sustainable manner.

The correct answer is (a) Respiration.

Respiration is a metabolic process that releases energy by breaking down glucose. This process consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide as a waste product.

Photosynthesis is a process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This process is the primary way that carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere.

Decay of organic matter is a process by which bacteria and other microorganisms break down dead plants and animals. This process releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

Volcanic action is a process by which volcanoes release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

Therefore, respiration is the only process that does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the carbon cycle.

The correct answer is: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Akbar was greatly indebted to Sher Shah Sur not only in local administration but also in provincial administration. Sher Shah Sur had established a uniform pattern of administration in all provinces of his empire. Akbar adopted this system and made some changes to it to suit his own needs. The main features of Akbar's system of administration were:

• A strong central government with the emperor at the top.
• A hierarchy of officials with the emperor at the top, followed by the provincial governors, the district officers, and the village headmen.
• A system of revenue collection based on land revenue.
• A system of justice based on Islamic law.
• A system of education based on Persian and Arabic.

Akbar's system of administration was very successful. It helped to bring peace and stability to the Mughal empire. It also helped to promote economic development and cultural progress.

The reason (R) is a correct explanation of the assertion (A) because it provides evidence to support the assertion. The assertion states that the Mughals, particularly Akbar, established a uniform pattern of administration in all provinces. The reason states that Akbar was greatly indebted to Sher Shah Sur not only in local administration but also in provincial administration. This evidence supports the assertion because it shows that Akbar adopted Sher Shah Sur's system of administration and made some changes to it to suit his own needs.

The correct answer is (d) Article 13.

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution provides for the power of judicial review. It states that any law that is inconsistent with the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution shall be void. This means that the courts can strike down any law that they find to be in violation of the fundamental rights.

Article 10, 11 and 12 of the Indian Constitution deal with the equality before law, protection in respect of conviction for offences and protection of life and personal liberty respectively. These articles do not provide for the power of judicial review.

Judicial review is the power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional. It is a fundamental principle of the rule of law that no one is above the law, not even the government. The power of judicial review ensures that the government does not violate the rights of the people.

Judicial review is an important safeguard against tyranny. It is a check on the power of the government and ensures that the government does not become too powerful. It also helps to protect the rights of the people and ensures that they are not deprived of their fundamental rights.

The correct answer is A. Acetylene.

A double bond is a covalent bond between two atoms that share two pairs of electrons. It is represented by two lines between the atoms.

Acetylene is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $C_2H_2$. It is a colorless, flammable gas with a garlic-like odor. Acetylene is the simplest alkyne, and it is the simplest hydrocarbon with a triple bond.

Ethene is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $C_2H_4$. It is a colorless, flammable gas with a sweet odor. Ethene is the simplest alkene, and it is the simplest hydrocarbon with a double bond.

Ethane is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $C_2H_6$. It is a colorless, odorless, flammable gas. Ethane is the simplest alkane, and it is the simplest hydrocarbon with only single bonds.

Methane is a hydrocarbon with the chemical formula $CH_4$. It is a colorless, odorless, flammable gas. Methane is the simplest alkane, and it is the simplest hydrocarbon with only single bonds.

Therefore, the only compound that has a double bond is acetylene.

The correct answer is (a) Mumbai and Ahmedabad (Sabarmati).

The bullet train project is a high-speed rail corridor connecting Mumbai and Ahmedabad. It is the first high-speed rail project in India and is being built by the National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL). The project is expected to be completed in 2023.

The bullet train will run at a maximum speed of 320 km/h and will cover the distance between Mumbai and Ahmedabad in about 2 hours and 50 minutes. The train will have 10 coaches and will be able to carry up to 1,320 passengers.

The bullet train project is expected to cost around ₹1.1 lakh crore. The project is being funded by the Government of India and the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA).

The bullet train project is expected to have a number of benefits, including:

• Reduced travel time between Mumbai and Ahmedabad
• Increased tourism
• Improved connectivity between the two cities
• Generation of employment
• Boost to the economy

The bullet train project has been facing a number of challenges, including:

• Land acquisition
• Environmental clearances
• Financial constraints
• Protests from locals

Despite the challenges, the bullet train project is progressing on schedule and is expected to be completed in 2023.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the routes that the bullet train will be traveling on.

The correct answer is B. Coulomb.

An ampere is a unit of electric current, not electric charge. The coulomb is the SI unit of electric charge. It is named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb, a French physicist who studied electricity and magnetism. One coulomb is equal to the charge transported by a constant current of one ampere in one second.

The esu, or electrostatic unit, is a unit of electric charge that is no longer used in the SI system. It was originally defined as the charge of one proton. However, it was later found that the charge of a proton is not exactly one esu. Therefore, the esu was replaced by the coulomb, which is a more accurate unit of electric charge.

The kelvin is a unit of thermodynamic temperature. It is named after Lord Kelvin, a Scottish physicist who developed the Kelvin scale of temperature. One kelvin is equal to one degree Celsius on the Celsius scale.

The correct answer is: B) Single-window clearance for setting up industries.

The Shilpa Sathi scheme is a single-window clearance system for setting up industries in India. It was launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The scheme aims to provide a hassle-free and time-bound clearance process for setting up industries in India. It also aims to promote investment and economic growth in the country.

The Shilpa Sathi scheme provides a single-window for all clearances required for setting up an industry. This includes clearances from the government, state governments, and other agencies. The scheme also provides a single-point contact for all queries and issues related to setting up an industry.

The Shilpa Sathi scheme has been successful in reducing the time and cost required for setting up an industry in India. It has also helped in improving the ease of doing business in the country.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option A is incorrect because the Shilpa Sathi scheme does not provide financial assistance to farmers.
* Option C is incorrect because the Shilpa Sathi scheme does not provide subsidies for tourism projects.
* Option D is incorrect because the Shilpa Sathi scheme does not provide scholarships for students.

The correct answer is (c). Brazil hosted the 2014 FIFA World Cup. The tournament was held from 12 June to 13 July 2014, with the final match played at the Estádio do Maracanã in Rio de Janeiro. A total of 32 teams competed in the tournament, including the host nation Brazil. The final match was played between Argentina and Germany, with Germany winning 1–0.

The correct answer is: Blood is a connective tissue.

Blood is a fluid connective tissue that carries oxygen, nutrients, and waste products to and from the cells of the body. It is made up of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

Plasma is the liquid part of blood. It is made up of water, proteins, electrolytes, and nutrients.

Red blood cells are the cells that carry oxygen. They are made up of hemoglobin, which is a protein that binds to oxygen.

White blood cells are the cells that fight infection. They are made up of different types of cells, including neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes.

Platelets are the cells that help the blood to clot. They are made up of proteins that form a mesh that traps blood cells and stops bleeding.

Connective tissue is a type of tissue that connects, supports, and protects other tissues in the body. It is made up of cells, fibers, and ground substance.

Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that covers the surfaces of the body and lines the organs and cavities of the body. It is made up of cells that are tightly packed together.

Cardiac tissue is a type of tissue that makes up the heart. It is made up of cells that are able to contract and relax, which allows the heart to pump blood.

Muscular tissue is a type of tissue that is able to contract and relax. It is made up of cells that are long and thin, and that have the ability to shorten and thicken.

Chaitnyadev founded Gaudiya Vasihnavism or Bhakti Movement in Bengal.

The correct answer is: A. 10 raised to the power (-9)

One nanometer is equal to 10 raised to the power (-9) meters. This means that a nanometer is one billionth of a meter, or one millionth of a millimeter. It is a very small unit of measurement, and is often used to measure the size of atoms and molecules.

Option B is incorrect because 10 raised to the power (-6) meters is equal to one micrometer. Option C is incorrect because 10 raised to the power (-9) meters is equal to one nanometer. Option D is incorrect because 10 raised to the power (-12) meters is equal to one picometer.

The correct answer is: B. David Ricardo

Ricardo was an English economist who is considered one of the most influential thinkers in the history of economic thought. He is best known for his work on the theory of comparative advantage, which is still taught in economics classes today.

Ricardo also made significant contributions to the theory of rent. He argued that rent is a payment made to the owners of land for the use of their land. He further argued that rent is not a creation of wealth, but rather a transfer of wealth from one group of people (the tenants) to another group of people (the landlords).

The other options are incorrect because:

• Adam Smith was a Scottish economist who is considered the father of modern economics. He is best known for his work on the theory of free markets. Smith did not make the observation that "rent is a creation of value, not of wealth."
• Alfred Marshall was an English economist who is considered one of the founders of neoclassical economics. He is best known for his work on the theory of general equilibrium. Marshall did not make the observation that "rent is a creation of value, not of wealth."
• A.C. Pigou was an English economist who is best known for his work on welfare economics. He did not make the observation that "rent is a creation of value, not of wealth."

The correct answer is: A. developing countries

The G-15 is a group of 15 developing countries that was founded in 1989. The group's goal is to promote South-South cooperation and to strengthen the voice of developing countries in international forums. The G-15 countries are:

• Algeria
• Argentina
• Brazil
• Chile
• Egypt
• India
• Indonesia
• Iran
• Jamaica
• Kenya
• Malaysia
• Mexico
• Nigeria
• Peru
• Venezuela

The G-15 meets annually to discuss issues of common interest, such as trade, finance, and development. The group has also played a role in promoting South-South cooperation, such as through the establishment of the G-15 Development Bank.

The G-15 is a non-aligned group, meaning that it is not aligned with any particular superpower or bloc. The group's members are all developing countries, and they share a common interest in promoting their economic development and in strengthening their voice in international forums.

The G-15 has been criticized for being ineffective and for not having achieved its goals. However, the group has played a role in promoting South-South cooperation and in giving a voice to developing countries in international forums.

The G-15 is not a group of companies.

The correct answer is (d), Sulphur Dioxide.

Sulphur dioxide is a gas that is released into the atmosphere when fossil fuels are burned. It can also be released from industrial processes. Sulphur dioxide can cause acid rain, which can damage forests and aquatic ecosystems. It can also cause respiratory problems in humans.

Zinc, copper, and nickel are all metals that can be found in water. They can be released into the water from industrial processes, mining, and agriculture. These metals can be toxic to aquatic life and can also cause health problems in humans.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

• Zinc is a metal that is used in a variety of products, including batteries, paints, and alloys. It can be released into the water from industrial processes, mining, and agriculture. Zinc can be toxic to aquatic life and can also cause health problems in humans.
• Copper is a metal that is used in a variety of products, including electrical wiring, plumbing, and coins. It can be released into the water from industrial processes, mining, and agriculture. Copper can be toxic to aquatic life and can also cause health problems in humans.
• Nickel is a metal that is used in a variety of products, including stainless steel, batteries, and coins. It can be released into the water from industrial processes, mining, and agriculture. Nickel can be toxic to aquatic life and can also cause health problems in humans.

The correct answer is: A. Have large coefficient of expansion.

Gases have a large coefficient of expansion, which means that they expand a lot when they are heated. This makes them more sensitive to changes in temperature than liquids, which have a smaller coefficient of expansion.

Option B is incorrect because the weight of a gas does not affect its coefficient of expansion.

Option C is incorrect because the specific heat of a gas does not affect its coefficient of expansion.

Option D is incorrect because the specific heat of a gas does not affect its coefficient of expansion.

The correct answer is: C. Ozone

Photochemical smog is a type of air pollution that is formed when sunlight reacts with pollutants in the air, such as nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons. Ozone is one of the main components of photochemical smog, and it can cause a variety of health problems, including respiratory problems, eye irritation, and headaches.

Hydrocarbons are organic compounds that contain hydrogen and carbon. They are found in gasoline, natural gas, and other petroleum products. When hydrocarbons are released into the air, they can react with nitrogen oxides in the presence of sunlight to form ozone.

Nitrogen oxides are gases that are produced when fossil fuels are burned. They are also found in car exhaust and power plant emissions. Nitrogen oxides can react with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight to form ozone.

Methane is a gas that is produced by natural gas, landfills, and agriculture. It is also a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change. Methane does not play a significant role in the formation of photochemical smog.

The correct answer is: A. World Hemophilia Day

World Hemophilia Day is an annual observance held on 28 March to raise awareness of hemophilia and other bleeding disorders. It is also a day to celebrate the achievements of people with hemophilia and their families.

Hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. People with hemophilia can bleed excessively from even minor injuries. There is no cure for hemophilia, but treatment can help to control bleeding and prevent complications.

World Hemophilia Day was first observed in 1989 by the World Federation of Hemophilia (WFH). The WFH is an international organization that represents people with hemophilia and their families. The WFH works to improve the lives of people with hemophilia through education, advocacy, and research.

World Hemophilia Day is celebrated in over 100 countries around the world. Each year, the WFH chooses a theme for World Hemophilia Day. The theme for World Hemophilia Day 2023 is "Building Momentum for a World Without Bleeding Disorders."

The other options are incorrect because:

• International Water Day is celebrated on 22 March. It is a day to raise awareness of the importance of water and to promote sustainable water management.
• World Earth Day is celebrated on 22 April. It is a day to celebrate the Earth and to raise awareness of environmental issues.
• World Book Day is celebrated on 23 April. It is a day to celebrate books and reading.

Kanyashree scheme was launched on 1st October, 2013. This scheme I srun by Women and Child Development Department of West Bengal.

The immediate trigger for Mangal Pandey's revolt was the introduction of the Enfield rifle. The rifle cartridges were greased with animal fat, which was considered sacrilegious to both Hindus and Muslims. When Pandey refused to load the rifle, he was arrested and beaten. This sparked a mutiny among the sepoys, which quickly spread to other parts of India.

The new land revenue policy was a long-term issue that had been causing resentment among the peasantry for many years. The British government had imposed a new system of taxation that was much higher than the previous system. This had led to widespread poverty and hardship.

Religious discrimination was another long-term issue that had been causing resentment among the Indian people. The British government had favored the Christian minority over the Hindu and Muslim majority. This had led to a sense of alienation and anger among the Indian people.

Mistreatment of soldiers was a common problem in the British Indian Army. The sepoys were often underpaid and overworked. They were also subjected to harsh discipline. This had led to a great deal of resentment among the sepoys.

However, the immediate trigger for Mangal Pandey's revolt was the introduction of the Enfield rifle. This was the issue that finally pushed the sepoys over the edge.

The correct answer is (d).

Faskh is a form of divorce in Islamic law that can be initiated by either the husband or the wife. It is a judicial dissolution of marriage, which means that it must be granted by a court. The grounds for faskh vary from country to country, but they typically include impotence, insanity, incurable disease, and non-consummation of the marriage.

Restitution of conjugal rights is a remedy that can be sought by a spouse who has been denied their marital rights. This can include the right to sexual intercourse, the right to live together, and the right to financial support.

Judicial separation is a legal process that allows a couple to live apart without formally ending their marriage. This can be a temporary or permanent arrangement.

I hope this helps!

Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is known for his work in the Chipko movement. The Chipko movement was a nonviolent resistance movement that started in India in the 1970s. The movement was against the deforestation of the Himalayan forests. The movement was led by women who hugged the trees to prevent them from being cut down. The movement was successful in stopping the deforestation and it is considered to be one of the most successful environmental movements in history.

Option A is incorrect because Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is not known for his work in the Chipko movement.

Option B is incorrect because Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is not known for composing music for Ray's films.

Option C is incorrect because Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is not known for being literary Secretary to R. N. Tagore.

Option D is incorrect because Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is not known for patenting a living organism.

The correct answer is (b), Ramanand.

Ramanand was a 14th-century Indian Hindu saint and the founder of the Ramanandi Sampradaya, one of the largest Hindu sects. He was born in Prayag (now Allahabad) in the 14th century. He was a disciple of Lakshmanananda Saraswati and a teacher of Kabir, Ravidas, and other saints. He is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement.

Kumbhan Das was a 16th-century Indian poet and saint. He was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Kumbhan in the state of Rajasthan. He is best known for his work on the Ramayana, which he composed in the Brajbhasha dialect.

Raidas was a 16th-century Indian poet and saint. He was born into a family of cobblers in the village of Sirol in the state of Uttar Pradesh. He is best known for his work on the Bhagavad Gita, which he composed in the Avadhi dialect.

Tulsidas was a 16th-century Indian poet and saint. He was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Ramanujpur in the state of Uttar Pradesh. He is best known for his work on the Ramacharitamanasa, which is considered to be one of the greatest works of Indian literature.

The correct answer is: B. utility cannot be measured in cardinal numbers.

Ordinal utility is a concept in economics that states that individuals can rank their preferences for different goods and services, but they cannot assign precise numerical values to those preferences. This means that it is impossible to say that one good or service provides twice as much utility as another good or service.

Cardinal utility, on the other hand, is a concept that states that individuals can assign precise numerical values to their preferences for different goods and services. This means that it is possible to say that one good or service provides twice as much utility as another good or service.

The ordinal approach to utility is based on the idea that individuals can rank their preferences for different goods and services, but they cannot assign precise numerical values to those preferences. This means that it is impossible to say that one good or service provides twice as much utility as another good or service.

The cardinal approach to utility, on the other hand, is based on the idea that individuals can assign precise numerical values to their preferences for different goods and services. This means that it is possible to say that one good or service provides twice as much utility as another good or service.

The ordinal approach to utility is often used in economics because it is more realistic than the cardinal approach. In reality, it is very difficult for individuals to assign precise numerical values to their preferences for different goods and services. The ordinal approach to utility is also more flexible than the cardinal approach. It can be used to analyze a wider range of economic problems.

The cardinal approach to utility is sometimes used in economics, but it is less common than the ordinal approach. The cardinal approach to utility is more difficult to use than the ordinal approach, and it is not always necessary. The cardinal approach to utility is also more controversial than the ordinal approach. Some economists believe that it is impossible to assign precise numerical values to people's preferences.

The correct answer is: A. Decreases.

When a person sitting on a swing stands up, their center of mass is raised. This means that the swing has to move further to reach the same point in its oscillation. This increases the time it takes for the swing to complete one oscillation, which is the definition of frequency.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: Decreases. When a person sitting on a swing stands up, their center of mass is raised. This means that the swing has to move further to reach the same point in its oscillation. This increases the time it takes for the swing to complete one oscillation, which is the definition of frequency.
• Option B: Increases. This is incorrect because the frequency of oscillation decreases when a person stands up on a swing.
• Option C: Becomes infinite. This is incorrect because the frequency of oscillation cannot become infinite.
• Option D: Does not change. This is incorrect because the frequency of oscillation does change when a person stands up on a swing.

The answer is Editor.

A conference is led by a chairman, who is responsible for overseeing the proceedings and ensuring that the meeting runs smoothly. Similarly, a newspaper is edited by an editor, who is responsible for overseeing the content of the newspaper and ensuring that it is accurate and unbiased.

The other options are incorrect because they do not have the same relationship to the original pair of words.

• A reporter is someone who reports on news events. They are not responsible for overseeing the proceedings of a conference.
• A distributor is someone who distributes newspapers to newsstands and other outlets. They are not responsible for the content of the newspaper.
• A printer is someone who prints newspapers. They are not responsible for the content of the newspaper.

If quantity demanded is completely unresponsive to changes in price, demand is perfectly inelastic.

Inelastic demand is a situation in which the quantity demanded of a good or service changes very little in response to a change in price. Unit elastic demand is a situation in which the quantity demanded of a good or service changes proportionally to a change in price. Elastic demand is a situation in which the quantity demanded of a good or service changes more than proportionally to a change in price.

Perfectly inelastic demand is a situation in which the quantity demanded of a good or service does not change at all in response to a change in price. This is the most extreme form of inelastic demand.

Here are some examples of perfectly inelastic demand:

• Essential goods, such as food and water. People will still need to buy these goods even if the price goes up.
• Goods with few substitutes. If there are no other goods that can be used in place of a good, then the demand for that good will be perfectly inelastic.
• Goods that are a small part of a person's budget. If a good only makes up a small part of a person's budget, then they may not be very sensitive to changes in price.

Perfectly inelastic demand is rare, but it does exist. It is important to understand perfectly inelastic demand because it can have a significant impact on the economy. For example, if the demand for a good is perfectly inelastic, then a change in the price of that good will have a large impact on the total revenue that producers earn.

The correct answer is: 11.

The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) is an intergovernmental organization consisting of 11 of the 15 former constituent republics of the Soviet Union. The CIS was established on December 8, 1991, by the leaders of Belarus, Russia, and Ukraine. The other eight republics that joined the CIS were Armenia, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan. Georgia joined the CIS in 1993, but suspended its participation in 2008.

The CIS was founded with the goal of promoting economic cooperation and political integration among its member states. However, the CIS has been largely ineffective in achieving these goals. The organization has been plagued by internal divisions and disagreements, and it has failed to develop into a strong regional bloc.

Despite its shortcomings, the CIS remains an important forum for dialogue and cooperation among its member states. The CIS has played a role in resolving several disputes between its member states, and it has provided a platform for economic cooperation. The CIS is likely to continue to play an important role in the region in the years to come.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 11. This is the correct answer. The CIS consists of 11 of the 15 former constituent republics of the Soviet Union.
• Option B: 10. This is incorrect. The CIS consists of 11 member states.
• Option C: 12. This is incorrect. The CIS consists of 11 member states.
• Option D: 9. This is incorrect. The CIS consists of 11 member states.

The correct answer is C. A parachute has a larger surface area and air resistance is more.

When a parachute is opened, it creates a large surface area that is exposed to the air. This creates drag, which opposes the motion of the parachute through the air. The greater the surface area of the parachute, the greater the drag force. This drag force slows the descent of the parachute.

A stone, on the other hand, has a much smaller surface area. This means that there is less drag force acting on the stone, and it falls much more quickly than the parachute.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because the weight of the parachute does not affect its rate of descent. Option B is incorrect because there are no special mechanisms present in a parachute that cause it to descend slowly. Option D is incorrect because the parachute does descend slowly, and this is due to the fact that it has a large surface area and air resistance is more.

The correct answer is: Both A & B.

The Bhakti movement was a Hindu devotional movement that originated in South India in the 6th century CE. It was a major turning point in Hindu history, as it led to the development of new forms of worship and literature. The movement was started by the Saiva Nayanars and the Vaisnava Alvars, who were saints who devoted their lives to the worship of Shiva and Vishnu, respectively. The Bhakti movement had a profound impact on Tamil culture, and its influence can still be seen today.

The Saiva Nayanars were a group of 63 saints who lived in Tamil Nadu between the 6th and 10th centuries CE. They were devoted to the worship of Shiva, and their hymns and poems are some of the most important texts in Tamil literature. The Saiva Nayanars were known for their intense devotion to Shiva, and they often performed extreme acts of penance in order to show their love for him.

The Vaisnava Alvars were a group of 12 saints who lived in Tamil Nadu between the 7th and 9th centuries CE. They were devoted to the worship of Vishnu, and their hymns and poems are some of the most important texts in Tamil literature. The Vaisnava Alvars were known for their intense devotion to Vishnu, and they often performed extreme acts of penance in order to show their love for him.

The Bhakti movement had a profound impact on Tamil culture. It led to the development of new forms of worship, such as the singing of hymns and the performance of rituals. It also led to the development of new forms of literature, such as the devotional poetry of the Saiva Nayanars and the Vaisnava Alvars. The Bhakti movement also had a significant impact on the development of Hinduism, as it led to the spread of the worship of Shiva and Vishnu to new parts of India.

The Bhakti movement is still influential today. Its teachings are still practiced by millions of Hindus around the world. The Bhakti movement is a reminder of the power of devotion, and its teachings continue to inspire people to live their lives with love and compassion.

The four-tier panchayat system was replaced by three-tier system according to the Panchayat Act,1973. The Bengal Self-Government Act III, 1885 was passed by Lt. Governor Sir Ashley Eden. The West Bengal Panchayat Act, 1957 for the first time introduced the principle of adult franchise in the rural self-governing bodies. The West Bengal Zila Parishad Act, 1963 introduced Anchalik Parishad and the Zila Parishad.

The correct answer is D. A huge attraction.

A cricket match that is a big draw is one that is well-attended and popular. It is a game that people are excited to watch and that generates a lot of interest. This can be due to the quality of the teams playing, the importance of the match, or simply the fact that it is a well-advertised event.

A game without any result is not a big draw, as there is no excitement or suspense in the outcome. A keen contest is a close game that is exciting to watch, but it may not be a big draw if it is not well-attended or well-advertised. A lovely spectacle is a beautiful or impressive sight, but it may not be a big draw if it is not also exciting or suspenseful.

The correct answer is: C. Finance Minister.

The Finance Minister is the head of the Ministry of Finance and is responsible for the formulation and implementation of the government's fiscal policy. The Finance Minister is also responsible for presenting the annual budget to the Parliament.

The RBI Governor is the head of the Reserve Bank of India, which is the central bank of India. The RBI Governor is responsible for the formulation and implementation of the monetary policy of the country.

The Budget Minister is a minister in the government who is responsible for the preparation and presentation of the annual budget. The Budget Minister is not a member of the Cabinet and does not have the same level of authority as the Finance Minister.

The Finance Secretary is the top civil servant in the Ministry of Finance. The Finance Secretary is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the Ministry and for providing advice to the Finance Minister.

The correct answer is A. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was a Dutch draper and microscope maker who is generally credited with being the first person to see bacteria. He made simple microscopes with a single lens that could magnify objects up to 270 times. In 1674, he wrote a letter to the Royal Society of London describing the "animalcules" he had seen in a drop of water. These were the first bacteria ever observed.

Louis Pasteur was a French chemist and microbiologist who is considered one of the founders of modern medicine. He is best known for his work on fermentation, pasteurization, and vaccines. He did not see bacteria through a microscope.

Robert Hooke was an English physicist, anatomist, and microscopist who is best known for his work on microscopy. He is credited with being the first person to observe cells. He did not see bacteria through a microscope.

Robert Virchow was a German physician and pathologist who is considered one of the founders of modern pathology. He is best known for his cell theory, which states that all living things are made up of cells. He did not see bacteria through a microscope.

The correct answer is: C. Daman and Diu

Konkani is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by about 2.5 million people, mainly in the Indian state of Goa and in the neighboring states of Maharashtra and Karnataka. It is also spoken by significant populations in the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Oman, Kuwait, Bahrain, Saudi Arabia, the United Kingdom, the United States, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa.

Konkani is the official language of the Indian union territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. It is also one of the 22 scheduled languages of India.

Konkani is written in the Devanagari script. The language has a rich literary tradition, dating back to the 13th century.

Konkani is a pluricentric language, with three main dialects: Goan Konkani, Mangalorean Konkani, and Bhatkari Konkani.

Goan Konkani is the dialect spoken in the state of Goa. It is the most widely spoken dialect of Konkani, and is the official language of the state.

Mangalorean Konkani is the dialect spoken in the coastal districts of Karnataka. It is the second most widely spoken dialect of Konkani.

Bhatkari Konkani is the dialect spoken in the northern parts of Karnataka and the southern parts of Maharashtra. It is the least widely spoken dialect of Konkani.

Konkani is a beautiful and expressive language, with a rich history and culture. It is a language that is worth learning and preserving.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Chandigarh is the capital of the Indian state of Punjab. It is a union territory, which means that it is directly administered by the central government of India. Konkani is not an official language of Chandigarh.
• B. Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a union territory of India. It is located on the west coast of India, between Gujarat and Maharashtra. Konkani is one of the official languages of Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
• C. Daman and Diu is a union territory of India. It is located on the west coast of India, between Gujarat and Maharashtra. Konkani is one of the official languages of Daman and Diu.
• D. Delhi is the capital of India. It is a union territory, which means that it is directly administered by the central government of India. Konkani is not an official language of Delhi.

The correct answer is D. Nitro chloroform.

TNT, TNG, and cyclotrimethylene trinitrate are all explosives. TNT is trinitrotoluene, a yellow, crystalline solid that is used in explosives, including landmines, artillery shells, and bombs. TNG is trinitroglycerin, a colorless, oily liquid that is used in explosives, including dynamite and rocket propellants. Cyclotrimethylene trinitrate is also known as RDX, cyclonite, or hexogen, a white, crystalline solid that is used in explosives, including plastic explosives and rocket propellants.

Nitro chloroform is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and a refrigerant. It is not an explosive.

The correct answer is A. Horizontal.

A horizontal demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service does not change as the price of the good or service changes. This means that consumers are willing to buy the same amount of the good or service regardless of the price.

A vertical demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service is zero at any price above a certain level. This means that consumers are not willing to buy any of the good or service at a price above that level.

A positively sloped demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service increases as the price of the good or service decreases. This means that consumers are willing to buy more of the good or service at a lower price.

A negatively sloped demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service decreases as the price of the good or service increases. This means that consumers are willing to buy less of the good or service at a higher price.

In the case of the question, the quantity demanded of the commodity remains unchanged regardless of changes in its price. This means that the demand curve for the commodity is horizontal.

The correct answer is: A. There is no context of previous budget.

Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is an approach to budgeting in which every expense item is justified for each new budget period, rather than being automatically continued from the previous period. This means that every expense must be justified, regardless of whether it was budgeted for in the previous period.

ZBB is a bottom-up budgeting process, which means that it starts with individual departments or units and then aggregates their budgets into a total budget for the organization. This is in contrast to top-down budgeting, which starts with the organization's overall budget and then allocates funds to individual departments or units.

ZBB is a more rigorous and time-consuming budgeting process than traditional budgeting methods. However, it can lead to more efficient and effective use of resources.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: There is no context of previous budget. This is the correct answer. In ZBB, every expense item is justified for each new budget period, rather than being automatically continued from the previous period. This means that every expense must be justified, regardless of whether it was budgeted for in the previous period.
• Option B: Working plans are prepared. Working plans are prepared in all budgeting methods, not just ZBB.
• Option C: Operating budget is not prepared. The operating budget is a financial plan that outlines the organization's expected revenues and expenses for the upcoming fiscal year. It is prepared in all budgeting methods, not just ZBB.
• Option D: No target is fixed. A target is always fixed in budgeting, regardless of the method used. The target is usually the organization's financial goal for the upcoming fiscal year.

The correct answer is: A. 1922.

Purchasing power parity (PPP) is a theory of exchange rates that states that in the long run, exchange rates between currencies will adjust in such a way that the purchasing power of money will be the same in each country. This means that if a basket of goods costs $100 in the United States and €100 in Europe, then the exchange rate between the US dollar and the euro should be $1 = €1.

The PPP theory was first proposed by Gustav Cassel in 1922. Cassel was a Swedish economist who was interested in the problem of hyperinflation. He argued that the exchange rate between two currencies should be based on the relative purchasing power of those currencies.

The PPP theory has been used to explain exchange rate movements in the past. However, it is not always a reliable predictor of future exchange rates. This is because there are many factors that can affect exchange rates, including interest rates, inflation, and political stability.

Despite its limitations, the PPP theory is a useful tool for understanding exchange rates. It can help to explain why exchange rates change over time and to identify undervalued or overvalued currencies.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the year in which Gustav Cassel proposed the PPP theory.

The correct answer is: A) Local governance and development.

The Gram Panchayat is the grassroots level of the Panchayati Raj system and is responsible for local governance and development. It is a local self-government institution that is elected by the people of the village. The Gram Panchayat is responsible for a variety of functions, including:

* Planning and implementing development projects
* Providing basic services such as water, sanitation, and education
* Maintaining law and order
* Resolving disputes

The Gram Panchayat is an important institution for rural development. It provides a platform for the people of the village to participate in decision-making and to hold their leaders accountable. The Gram Panchayat is also a key player in the implementation of government programs and schemes.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Law and order is a responsibility of the state government.
* Revenue collection is a responsibility of the central government.
* Judicial administration is a responsibility of the judiciary.

The correct answer is A. Milnda Panha.

The Milña Pañha (Pali; Sanskrit: Milindapañha, "Questions of Milinda") is a dialogue between the Buddhist monk Nagasena and the Greek king Menander I of Bactria. It is one of the most important texts of Theravada Buddhism.

The text is divided into 38 chapters, each of which deals with a different topic. The topics covered include the nature of reality, the existence of God, the nature of the soul, and the path to enlightenment.

The Milña Pañha is a valuable source of information about early Buddhism. It provides insights into the Buddhist worldview and the Buddhist way of life. It is also a fascinating example of the interaction between Buddhism and other cultures.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• B. Sutta Pitaka is the first of the three pitakas (baskets) of the Pali Canon, the sacred texts of Theravada Buddhism. It contains the Buddha's discourses, or suttas.
• C. Vinayapitaka is the second of the three pitakas of the Pali Canon. It contains the rules of monastic discipline, or vinaya.
• D. Buddhhacharita is a Sanskrit text that tells the story of the Buddha's life.

Yuvraj Singh made his ODI debut for India against Australia in Nairobi, Kenya on 13 December 1999. He scored 11 runs off 18 balls in that match.

Option A is correct.

Option B is incorrect. Mumbai is a city in India, but Yuvraj Singh did not make his ODI debut there.

Option C is incorrect. London is a city in England, but Yuvraj Singh did not make his ODI debut there.

Option D is incorrect. Lahore is a city in Pakistan, but Yuvraj Singh did not make his ODI debut there.

The correct answer is (a) Swaminathan Committee.

The Swaminathan Committee was set up in 2004 by the Indian government to suggest ways to double the farmers' income by 2022. The committee submitted its report in 2006, and its recommendations included increasing the productivity of crops, improving the infrastructure for agriculture, and providing financial assistance to farmers.

The Rangarajan Committee was set up in 2012 to suggest ways to revive the Indian economy. The committee submitted its report in 2013, and its recommendations included reducing the fiscal deficit, increasing the investment rate, and improving the infrastructure.

The Narsimham Committee was set up in 1991 to suggest ways to liberalize the Indian economy. The committee submitted its report in 1991, and its recommendations included devaluing the rupee, reducing import tariffs, and privatizing state-owned enterprises.

The Ashok Dalwi Committee was set up in 2015 to suggest ways to improve the lives of farmers in India. The committee submitted its report in 2016, and its recommendations included providing financial assistance to farmers, improving the infrastructure for agriculture, and providing training to farmers.

The correct answer is B. Decreasing.

Agriculture is the primary source of livelihood for more than half of India's population. However, its contribution to the country's GDP has been declining in recent years. In 2019, agriculture contributed only 15.8% to India's GDP, down from 26.6% in 1991.

There are several reasons for this decline. First, India's economy has been growing rapidly in recent years, and the service sector has been the main driver of this growth. Second, agriculture has been facing a number of challenges, including low productivity, water scarcity, and climate change. Third, the government has been investing more in other sectors, such as manufacturing and infrastructure.

Despite the decline in its contribution to the GDP, agriculture remains an important sector of the Indian economy. It provides employment to millions of people and is a major source of food for the country. The government has taken a number of steps to revive the agricultural sector, including providing subsidies, investing in irrigation and research, and promoting agricultural exports.

Option A is incorrect because the contribution of agriculture to the Indian economy is declining. Option C is incorrect because the contribution of agriculture to the Indian economy is not constant. Option D is incorrect because the contribution of agriculture to the Indian economy is not none of the above.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**

The feudatory states of Bengal contributed to the region's diverse cultural heritage through patronage of arts and crafts, construction of temples and palaces, and development of regional languages and literature.

Patronage of arts and crafts: The feudatory states of Bengal were patrons of arts and crafts. They supported artists and craftsmen, and commissioned works of art and architecture. This patronage helped to create a vibrant and diverse cultural scene in Bengal.

Construction of temples and palaces: The feudatory states of Bengal also constructed temples and palaces. These buildings were often lavishly decorated, and they served as important centers of religious and cultural activity.

Development of regional languages and literature: The feudatory states of Bengal also played a role in the development of regional languages and literature. They supported writers and poets, and they commissioned works of literature in regional languages. This patronage helped to promote the use of regional languages, and it contributed to the development of a rich and vibrant literary tradition in Bengal.

In conclusion, the feudatory states of Bengal contributed to the region's diverse cultural heritage through patronage of arts and crafts, construction of temples and palaces, and development of regional languages and literature.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "No sooner he had returned home then his mother felt happy" is grammatically correct and uses the correct idiom. The idiom "no sooner...than" means "as soon as." In this case, the sentence is saying that as soon as the man returned home, his mother felt happy.

The other options are all incorrect. Option A, "had he returned home when," is not idiomatic. The correct idiom is "no sooner...than." Option B, "he had returned home than," is the same as the original sentence, but it is not necessary to repeat the word "he." Option C, "did he return home than," is not idiomatic. The correct idiom is "no sooner...than."

Therefore, the correct answer is D. No improvement.

The correct answer is A. Collagen.

Collagen is a protein that is the main structural component of skin, bones, and connective tissues. It is a fibrous protein that is made up of long chains of amino acids. Collagen is responsible for the strength and elasticity of skin and other tissues.

Carbohydrates are a type of molecule that is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. They are the main source of energy for the body. Carbohydrates are found in foods such as bread, pasta, rice, and potatoes.

Polymers are large molecules that are made up of repeating units of smaller molecules. They are found in a variety of materials, including plastics, rubber, and nylon.

Nucleic acids are molecules that are responsible for storing and transmitting genetic information. They are found in the nucleus of cells.

In conclusion, the major ingredient of leather is collagen. Collagen is a protein that is the main structural component of skin, bones, and connective tissues. It is a fibrous protein that is made up of long chains of amino acids. Collagen is responsible for the strength and elasticity of skin and other tissues.

The correct answer is: A) Mohammed Salim.

Mohammed Salim was born in 1888 in Kolkata, India. He was a pioneer of Indian football and was the first Indian to play professional football in England. He played for the Mohun Bagan club in Kolkata and was a member of the Indian national team. He was also a member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris.

Gosta Pal was born in 1887 in Kolkata, India. He was a football player and coach who played for the Mohun Bagan club in Kolkata and the Indian national team. He was also a member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris.

Sailen Manna was born in 1924 in Kolkata, India. He was a football player who played for the East Bengal club in Kolkata and the Indian national team. He was also a member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1948 Summer Olympics in London.

Chuni Goswami was born in 1941 in Kolkata, India. He was a football player who played for the East Bengal club in Kolkata and the Indian national team. He was also a member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1962 Asian Games in Jakarta.

Mohammed Salim is considered the pioneer of Indian football because he was the first Indian to play professional football in England. He played for the Fulham club in London from 1910 to 1914. He was also the first Indian to play for the Indian national team. He played for the Indian national team from 1911 to 1924. He was a member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris.

The correct answer is (d), Kerala.

Kerala has the highest sex ratio in India, with 1,084 females per 1,000 males. This is followed by Tamil Nadu (1,004), Manipur (994), and Meghalaya (991).

There are a number of factors that contribute to Kerala's high sex ratio. One factor is the state's relatively high level of education and employment for women. Another factor is the state's strong social safety net, which provides support for women and children. Finally, Kerala's culture values women and girls, which helps to promote a positive attitude towards female births.

Kerala's high sex ratio has a number of benefits. It means that there are more women available for marriage and employment, which can help to boost the state's economy. It also means that there are more women to care for children and the elderly, which can help to reduce the burden on families and the state. Finally, it means that there are more women to participate in decision-making, which can help to promote a more just and equitable society.

The correct answer is A. 21435.

The first option, 21435, is the only option that has the word "loyal" in the correct position. The second option, 21543, has the word "loyal" in the third position, but the word "person" is in the fifth position. The third option, 54231, has the word "person" in the first position, but the word "loyal" is in the fourth position. The fourth option, 25431, has the word "person" in the second position and the word "loyal" in the fifth position.

The word "loyal" means "faithful to a person or cause." The word "person" means "a human being."

The correct answer is B. Cerebrum.

The cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain, accounting for about 85% of its mass. It is divided into two hemispheres, the left and right hemispheres, which are connected by a bundle of nerve fibers called the corpus callosum. The cerebrum is responsible for higher-order functions such as thought, memory, language, and consciousness.

The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. It is located at the back of the brain, below the cerebrum. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and balance.

The olfactory bulb is a small, bulb-shaped structure located at the base of the brain. It is responsible for the sense of smell.

The midbrain is a small, narrow structure located between the cerebrum and the hindbrain. It is responsible for a variety of functions, including vision, hearing, and movement.

The correct answer is A. Histology.

Histology is the study of tissues, which are groups of cells that are similar in structure and function. Tissues are the basic building blocks of organs, which are the structures that carry out the functions of the body.

Anatomy is the study of the structure of the body, including the organs and tissues. It is a branch of biology that deals with the form and structure of organisms and their parts.

Ecology is the study of the relationships between organisms and their environment. It is a branch of biology that deals with the interactions between organisms and their physical and biological surroundings.

Taxonomy is the science of classifying organisms. It is a branch of biology that deals with the naming and classification of organisms.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A. Histology. Histology is the study of tissues, which are groups of cells that are similar in structure and function. Tissues are the basic building blocks of organs, which are the structures that carry out the functions of the body.

The correct answer is: D. pesticides.

Methyl isocyanate (MIC) is a highly toxic chemical used in the production of pesticides. It is a colorless, flammable liquid with a strong, irritating odor. MIC is a very dangerous chemical and can be fatal if inhaled, ingested, or absorbed through the skin.

The Bhopal disaster was a chemical disaster that occurred on December 2, 1984, in Bhopal, India. It is considered one of the world's worst industrial disasters. The disaster was caused by a leak of methyl isocyanate from a Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant. The leak killed an estimated 2,000 people immediately and an estimated 15,000 to 20,000 people in the following years. It is estimated that over 500,000 people were exposed to the gas.

The Bhopal disaster was a major human tragedy and a significant environmental disaster. It is a reminder of the dangers of industrial pollution and the importance of safety measures in chemical plants.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Dyes are colored substances that are used to color fabrics, paper, and other materials.
• Detergents are cleaning agents that are used to remove dirt and grime from surfaces.
• Explosives are substances that are used to create explosions.

The correct answer is A) Coordinating disaster preparedness and response. The West Bengal State Disaster Management Authority (WBSDMA) is a statutory body constituted by the Government of West Bengal under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The WBSDMA is responsible for coordinating all disaster management activities in the state, including preparedness, response, mitigation, and rehabilitation. The WBSDMA works in close coordination with other government agencies, non-governmental organizations, and the private sector to ensure that the state is prepared for and can respond effectively to any disaster.

Option B is incorrect because promoting tourism is not a core function of the WBSDMA. The WBSDMA does not have any specific mandate to promote tourism in the state.

Option C is incorrect because controlling industrial development is not a core function of the WBSDMA. The WBSDMA does not have any specific mandate to control industrial development in the state.

Option D is incorrect because managing agricultural activities is not a core function of the WBSDMA. The WBSDMA does not have any specific mandate to manage agricultural activities in the state.

The correct answer is (c). Adultery is a ground for both judicial separation and divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Judicial separation is a legal process that allows a married couple to live apart without getting divorced. It is a temporary measure that can be used to give the couple time to try to resolve their differences or to provide for the care of any children they may have.

Divorce is a legal process that ends a marriage. It is a permanent solution that should only be considered after all other options have been exhausted.

Adultery is defined as sexual intercourse between a married person and someone who is not their spouse. It is a ground for divorce or judicial separation if it is proved that the adultery was committed without the consent or connivance of the other spouse and that it caused or is likely to cause the other spouse to suffer mental or physical cruelty.

In order to obtain a divorce or judicial separation on the grounds of adultery, the petitioner must file a petition with the court and provide evidence to support their claim. The court will then consider the evidence and make a decision.

If the court grants the petition, the marriage will be dissolved or the couple will be judicially separated. The court may also make orders regarding the division of property, child custody, and maintenance.

The correct answer is: A. Equal pay for equal work.

Mahatma Gandhi was a staunch advocate of equality and social justice. He believed that all people are equal, regardless of their caste, religion, or gender. He also believed that everyone should have the opportunity to earn a living wage and to live a dignified life.

The directive principle of equal pay for equal work is in line with Gandhi's philosophy of equality. It ensures that all workers are paid the same wage for the same work, regardless of their gender, caste, or religion. This principle helps to promote social justice and to ensure that everyone has the opportunity to earn a living wage.

The other options are not directly related to Gandhi's moral philosophy. Free legal aid and advice is important, but it is not a matter of equality. Ban on cow slaughter is a religious issue, and conservation of historical monuments is a cultural issue. These issues are important, but they are not directly related to Gandhi's moral philosophy of equality.

The correct answer is (a) Santhal.

Sarhul is a major festival of the Santhal tribe of Jharkhand, India. It is a harvest festival that is celebrated in the month of Chaitra (March–April). The festival marks the beginning of the new agricultural year and is a time for thanksgiving to the gods for a good harvest.

The festival is celebrated with great pomp and show. People wear their best clothes and dance and sing to the beat of drums. The main attraction of the festival is the worship of the Sarhul tree, which is considered to be sacred by the Santhals. The tree is decorated with flowers and leaves and offerings are made to it.

The festival is also a time for social gatherings and feasting. People visit each other's houses and exchange gifts. The festival is a time of joy and celebration for the Santhals and it is a time to renew their bonds with their community and their culture.

The other options are incorrect because they are not tribes that celebrate the Sarhul festival. The Bhil tribe celebrates the Bhaubeej festival, the Munda tribe celebrates the Karma festival, and the Tharu tribe celebrates the Maghi festival.

The correct answer is B. Ten.

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. It has 15 members, five of which are permanent members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and ten of which are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.

The non-permanent members of the UNSC are elected by the General Assembly on a regional basis, with five seats each for Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, and Western Europe and Others. The ten non-permanent members are elected every year, and no country can serve more than two consecutive terms.

The UNSC is responsible for maintaining international peace and security. It has the power to adopt resolutions that are binding on all UN member states. The UNSC also has the power to establish peacekeeping operations and to authorize the use of force.

The UNSC is often referred to as the "most powerful body in the world" because of its ability to adopt resolutions that are binding on all UN member states. However, the UNSC has been criticized for its lack of effectiveness, particularly in the face of vetoes by the permanent members.

The correct answer is D. Rs.20.

Average fixed cost (AFC) is calculated by dividing fixed cost (FC) by output (Q). Since fixed cost does not change with output, AFC will always be the same regardless of the level of output. In this case, the firm's AFC is Rs.20 at 6 units of output, so it will also be Rs.20 at 4 units of output.

Option A is incorrect because it is the total fixed cost, not the average fixed cost.

Option B is incorrect because it is the average variable cost, not the average fixed cost.

Option C is incorrect because it is the average total cost, not the average fixed cost.

The correct answer is (d). Solid carbon dioxide is called dry ice. It is a solid form of carbon dioxide that is used in a variety of applications, including refrigeration, food preservation, and fire suppression. Dry ice is non-toxic and non-flammable, and it sublimates (turns directly from a solid to a gas) at -78.5 degrees Celsius, making it an ideal cooling agent for a variety of purposes.

(a) Dehydrated ice is not a real thing. It is a term that is sometimes used to describe dry ice, but it is not a technical term.

(b) Solid hydrogen peroxide is a white solid that is used in a variety of applications, including rocket fuel, explosives, and hair bleach. It is not commonly known as dry ice.

(c) Solid water is ice. It is a solid form of water that is commonly found in nature. It is not commonly known as dry ice.

The correct answer is: D. apathy

Sympathy is the feeling of understanding and wanting to help someone who is in a difficult situation. Enmity is the feeling of hatred or hostility towards someone. Cruelty is the act of being deliberately unkind or harmful to someone. Abhorrence is the feeling of intense disgust or hatred. Apathy is the lack of interest or concern.

Apathy is the opposite of sympathy because it is a lack of interest or concern for someone who is in a difficult situation. Sympathy, on the other hand, is a feeling of understanding and wanting to help someone who is in a difficult situation.

Enmity, cruelty, and abhorrence are all negative emotions that can be directed towards someone who is in a difficult situation. However, they are not the opposite of sympathy because they do not necessarily involve a lack of interest or concern. For example, someone who is cruel to someone else may still feel sympathy for them, but they may choose to express their sympathy in a negative way.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Antonym of SYMPATHY" is: D. apathy.

The correct answer is A. Nadia.

Nadia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is one of the most important districts in the state in terms of agriculture. The district is known for its production of rice, jute, and bananas. Bananas are the most important fruit crop in Nadia. The district accounts for about 20% of the total banana production in West Bengal.

Darjeeling is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the northern part of the state. The district is known for its tea production. Darjeeling tea is one of the most popular teas in the world. The district also produces a variety of other crops, including rice, potatoes, and apples.

Purulia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the western part of the state. The district is known for its coal production. Purulia is one of the largest coal-producing districts in India. The district also produces a variety of other crops, including rice, jute, and sugarcane.

Cooch Behar is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the northern part of the state. The district is known for its tea production. Cooch Behar tea is one of the most popular teas in the world. The district also produces a variety of other crops, including rice, potatoes, and apples.

The correct answer is (c).

A decile is a value that divides a ranked data set into ten equal parts. The first decile (D1) is the value that divides the bottom 10% of the data set from the top 90%. The second decile (D2) is the value that divides the bottom 20% of the data set from the top 80%, and so on.

In this case, the scores are:

43, 56, 35, 47, 48, 52, 66, 57, 46, 39, 43, 47, 61, 55, 50, 49, 39, 40

The deciles are:

D1 = 39
D2 = 43
D3 = 46
D4 = 47
D5 = 48
D6 = 50
D7 = 52
D8 = 55
D9 = 56
D10 = 61

The most popular decile is D4, which has 5 scores: 46, 47, 48, 50, and 52.

The other deciles have fewer scores:

D1 has 1 score: 39
D2 has 2 scores: 43 and 46
D3 has 2 scores: 47 and 48
D5 has 2 scores: 50 and 52
D6 has 1 score: 55
D7 has 1 score: 56
D8 has 1 score: 61
D9 has 1 score: 66

Therefore, the most popular decile is D4.

The correct answer is (b). Adhai Din ka Jhopra is a mosque in Ajmer, Rajasthan, India. It was built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1199 AD, shortly after the Muslim conquest of India. The mosque is named after the fact that it was built in two and a half days. It is one of the oldest mosques in India and is a fine example of early Islamic architecture.

The other options are incorrect. Delhi is the capital of India and is located in the northern part of the country. Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana and is located in the southern part of the country. Agra is a city in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for the Taj Mahal.

The correct answer is: D. Neither I nor II is strong.

Argument I is not strong because it is based on a generalization that is not always true. Some people above the age of 65 are still very dynamic and have a strong will power. Argument II is not strong because it is based on the assumption that people who are physically and mentally active are always good leaders. There are many examples of people who are physically and mentally active but are not good leaders.

In conclusion, neither argument I nor II is strong enough to support the statement that there should be an upper age limit of 65 years for contesting Parliamentary/ Legislative Assembly elections.

The correct answer is: A. Fusion reactions.

Fusion reactions are the process by which two or more atomic nuclei come close enough to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles (neutrons or protons). The difference in mass between the reactants and products is manifested as the release of large amounts of energy.

In the Sun, hydrogen atoms are fused together to form helium atoms. This process releases a tremendous amount of energy, which powers the Sun and provides light and heat to Earth.

Fission reactions are the opposite of fusion reactions. In fission reactions, a large atomic nucleus splits into two or more smaller nuclei. This process also releases a large amount of energy.

Combustion reactions are chemical reactions that occur between a fuel and an oxidizer. The fuel is usually a hydrocarbon, such as gasoline or propane. The oxidizer is usually oxygen. The products of a combustion reaction are carbon dioxide, water vapor, and heat.

Chemical reactions are the changes that occur when atoms or molecules interact with each other. These changes can involve the formation of new substances, the breaking down of existing substances, or the rearrangement of atoms or molecules.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Solar energy is due to" is A. Fusion reactions.

The correct answer is (b), Pampas.

The Pampas are a vast grassland that covers parts of Argentina, Uruguay, and southern Brazil. They are home to a variety of wildlife, including deer, armadillos, and rheas. The Pampas are also an important agricultural region, where crops such as wheat, corn, and soybeans are grown.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Selvas are tropical rainforests that are found in South America.
(c) Prairies are grasslands that are found in North America.
(d) Steppes are grasslands that are found in Europe, Asia, and North America.

The correct answer is (a).

The order of the words is:

1. Family
2. Community
3. Member
4. Locality
5. Country

A family is a group of people who are related to each other by blood or marriage. A community is a group of people who live in the same area and share common interests. A member is a person who belongs to a group. A locality is a place where people live. A country is a large area of land with its own government.

In this order, the words form a logical progression. A family is the smallest unit of society, and it is from this unit that communities are formed. Communities are made up of individuals who share common interests, and these individuals are members of the community. Localities are places where communities are located, and countries are made up of a number of localities.

The other options are not as logical. In option (b), the word "community" comes before the word "family." This is not a logical order, as a family is a smaller unit than a community. In option (c), the word "member" comes before the word "community." This is also not a logical order, as a member is a part of a community. In option (d), the word "locality" comes before the word "family." This is also not a logical order, as a locality is a larger unit than a family.

The correct answer is (c), Sikandar Lodi.

Sikandar Lodi was the second ruler of the Lodi dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He was born in 1488 and ascended to the throne in 1498. He ruled for 14 years until his death in 1517.

Sikandar Lodi was a great military leader and expanded the Lodi empire. He built many new forts and cities, including Agra. Agra was originally a small town, but Sikandar Lodi made it his capital and expanded it into a major city.

The other options are incorrect. Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire and ruled from 1526 to 1530. Akbar was the third Mughal emperor and ruled from 1556 to 1605. Aramshah was a general in the Mughal army and briefly ruled Agra in 1540.

Sikandar Lodi was a great ruler and his legacy can still be seen in Agra today. The city is home to many historical monuments, including the Taj Mahal, which is one of the Seven Wonders of the World.

The correct answer is (a) Amethi.

The Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT) is a government-funded technical university located in Amethi district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It was established in 2008 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India. The university offers undergraduate and postgraduate programs in petroleum engineering, chemical engineering, and other related fields.

The university is named after Rajiv Gandhi, the former Prime Minister of India. It is located on a 100-acre campus in Amethi, which is about 100 kilometers from Lucknow, the capital of Uttar Pradesh. The campus has state-of-the-art facilities for teaching, research, and student life.

The university has a strong focus on research and innovation. It has a number of research centers and laboratories, and it collaborates with leading research institutions in India and abroad. The university also has a strong focus on entrepreneurship and has set up a number of incubation centers to support start-ups.

The Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology is a premier institute of higher education in petroleum engineering and related fields. It is committed to providing quality education and research to its students and to contributing to the development of the petroleum industry in India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the locations of the Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology.

The correct answer is (a) S.B.I.

The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest bank in India and the largest public sector bank in the world. It was founded in 1865 and is headquartered in Mumbai. SBI has over 24,000 branches and over 50,000 ATMs in India. It also has a presence in 36 countries across the world.

SBI received the 'Core Banking System Initiative Award, 2014' for its implementation of the Core Banking Solution (CBS) project. The CBS project was a major undertaking that involved the integration of all of SBI's branches and ATMs into a single, centralized system. The project was completed in 2013 and has resulted in significant improvements in efficiency and customer service.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the largest banks in India. PNB is the second largest public sector bank in India, BMB is the third largest private sector bank in India, and BOB is the fifth largest public sector bank in India.

The correct answer is D. Bat.

Bats are the only mammals that can use echolocation to navigate and hunt. They emit high-pitched sounds that bounce off objects and return to them, allowing them to create a mental map of their surroundings. This ability is essential for bats, as many of them live in dark caves or forests where vision is limited.

Rats, squirrels, and cats can all hear ultrasonic sounds, but they do not use them for echolocation. Rats and squirrels use ultrasonic sounds to communicate with each other, while cats use them to hunt prey.

Ultrasonic sounds are sounds that are above the range of human hearing. The human ear can hear sounds between 20 and 20,000 hertz, while ultrasonic sounds are typically above 20,000 hertz.

Bats emit ultrasonic sounds by contracting their vocal cords. The sound waves travel through the air and bounce off objects, such as insects, trees, and rocks. The bats then use the echoes to create a mental map of their surroundings.

Bats use echolocation for a variety of purposes, including navigation, hunting, and avoiding predators. They can use echolocation to find their way in the dark, to locate food, and to avoid obstacles.

Echolocation is a fascinating and important ability that allows bats to thrive in a variety of environments.

The correct answer is (d), Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu has the highest literacy rate in India, with 96.03% of the population over the age of 7 being literate. This is followed by Kerala (94.00%), Lakshadweep (93.26%), Puducherry (91.30%), and Goa (88.70%).

Tripura has a literacy rate of 87.81%, Mizoram has a literacy rate of 88.13%, and the national average literacy rate is 74.04%.

The literacy rate is the percentage of the population aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding. It is a key indicator of a country's development and progress. A high literacy rate is associated with a number of benefits, including economic growth, improved health outcomes, and reduced crime rates.

There are a number of factors that contribute to a high literacy rate, including access to education, quality of education, and cultural values. In Tamil Nadu, the government has made education a priority, and there are a number of initiatives in place to promote literacy. These include free education for all children, scholarships for students from poor families, and adult literacy programs.

The high literacy rate in Tamil Nadu has had a number of positive impacts on the state. It has led to economic growth, as more people are able to participate in the workforce. It has also improved health outcomes, as people are better able to understand and follow health advice. And it has reduced crime rates, as people are less likely to commit crimes when they have the opportunity to get an education and find a job.

The high literacy rate in Tamil Nadu is a testament to the state's commitment to education and its people's desire to learn. It is a valuable asset that will continue to benefit the state for many years to come.

The correct answer is: A. has been

The sentence is in the present perfect tense, which is used to talk about things that started in the past and continue to the present. The other options are not in the present perfect tense.

• B. was is in the simple past tense, which is used to talk about things that happened at a specific time in the past.
• C. had is in the past perfect tense, which is used to talk about things that happened before another event in the past.
• D. is is in the simple present tense, which is used to talk about things that happen regularly or repeatedly.

In this case, the sentence is talking about a new housing estate that was built and has become very noisy. The new housing estate is still there and is still noisy, so the present perfect tense is the correct tense to use.

The correct answer is 3124.

The first word is "bag". This is a noun that refers to a container for carrying things.

The second word is "is". This is a verb that indicates existence or presence.

The third word is "whose". This is a pronoun that asks or indicates the ownership of something.

The fourth word is "this". This is a pronoun that refers to something that is close at hand or being discussed.

The correct order of the words is 3124. This is because the word "whose" comes after the word "bag" because it is asking about the ownership of the bag. The word "is" comes after the word "whose" because it is indicating that the bag belongs to someone. The word "this" comes last because it refers to the bag that is being discussed.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order of the words. Option A, 2413, is incorrect because the word "is" comes before the word "whose". Option B, 4231, is incorrect because the word "whose" comes after the word "is". Option C, 3214, is incorrect because the word "is" comes after the word "this".

The correct answer is A. Nuclear fission.

Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a large atomic nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei. This process releases a large amount of energy, which can be used to generate electricity. Nuclear fission is the process that is used in nuclear reactors.

Nuclear fusion is the process of combining two or more small atomic nuclei into a larger nucleus. This process also releases a large amount of energy, but it is much more difficult to achieve than nuclear fission. Nuclear fusion is the process that powers the sun and other stars.

Cold fusion is a hypothetical process in which nuclear fusion occurs at room temperature. This process has never been conclusively demonstrated, and it is generally considered to be a pseudoscience.

Superconductivity is a phenomenon in which certain materials lose all electrical resistance when they are cooled to very low temperatures. Superconductivity can be used to create powerful magnets and to transmit electricity with very little loss.

I hope this helps!

The answer is C. Hear.

The other four words (A. Walk, B. Pull, D. Jump, and E. Run) are all actions that can be performed by humans. Hear, on the other hand, is a sense that humans have.

Walk is the act of moving one's legs in a regular way in order to travel from one place to another. Pull is the act of using force to draw something towards oneself. Jump is the act of moving one's body off the ground by using one's legs. Run is the act of moving one's legs very quickly in order to travel from one place to another. Hear is the ability to perceive sound.

The correct answer is D.

The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a good or service. It is calculated by dividing the percentage change in the quantity demanded by the percentage change in the price.

A demand curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity demanded. The slope of the demand curve indicates how responsive consumers are to changes in price. A flatter demand curve indicates that consumers are more responsive to changes in price, while a steeper demand curve indicates that consumers are less responsive to changes in price.

The elasticity of demand is important because it can help businesses to understand how changes in price will affect their sales. For example, if a business knows that the demand for its product is elastic, it will be more likely to lower its prices in order to increase sales. Conversely, if a business knows that the demand for its product is inelastic, it will be more likely to raise its prices in order to increase profits.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. The distinction between changes in demand and changes in amount demanded. This is not what the elasticity of demand describes. Changes in demand refer to a shift in the demand curve, while changes in the amount demanded refer to a movement along the demand curve.
• B. A change in the incomes of the buyers in response to change in the prices of products they sell. This is not what the elasticity of demand describes. The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a good or service, not to changes in their income.
• C. The slope of the demand curve. This is not what the elasticity of demand describes. The slope of the demand curve indicates how responsive consumers are to changes in price, but the elasticity of demand is a more precise measure of this responsiveness.
• D. The responsiveness of price to changes in the quantity demanded. This is what the elasticity of demand describes. The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a good or service.

The correct answer is (c). The UNHCR reported that the number of refugees and migrants in Europe reached 2 million in 2015. This was a significant increase from the previous year, when the number was 1.5 million. The majority of the refugees and migrants came from Syria, Iraq, and Afghanistan. They were fleeing war, persecution, and poverty. Many of them made the dangerous journey across the Mediterranean Sea in search of a better life in Europe. The influx of refugees and migrants has put a strain on European countries, which are struggling to provide them with food, shelter, and medical care. It has also led to tensions between European countries, as they try to agree on how to deal with the crisis.

Option (a) is incorrect because the number of refugees and migrants in Europe reached 2 million in 2015, not 1 million.

Option (b) is incorrect because the number of refugees and migrants in Europe reached 2 million in 2015, not 1.5 million.

Option (d) is incorrect because the number of refugees and migrants in Europe reached 2 million in 2015, not 3 million.

The correct answer is C. Limited exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition.

The industrial policy of India since 1991 has been characterized by a number of reforms, including:

• Enormous expansion of the private sector: The government has reduced its role in the economy and allowed the private sector to play a greater role.
• Redefining the role of public sector: The government has retained control of some key industries, but it has also allowed the private sector to participate in these industries.
• Pruning of the list of items reserved for SSI units: The government has reduced the number of items that are reserved for small-scale industries, which has allowed large-scale industries to enter these markets.
• Increased exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition: The government has reduced tariffs and other barriers to trade, which has made it easier for foreign companies to compete in the Indian market.

These reforms have had a significant impact on the Indian economy. They have led to increased economic growth, higher levels of investment, and greater employment opportunities.

The option C, Limited exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition, is not a salient feature of industrial policy since 1991. In fact, the opposite is true. The government has taken a number of steps to increase the exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition, including reducing tariffs and other barriers to trade. This has made it easier for foreign companies to compete in the Indian market, which has forced Indian companies to become more efficient and competitive.

The Ganges-Brahmaputra delta is also known as the Sunderban delta or the Bengal delta or the Ganges delta. It is situated in Asia where the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers discharge into the Bay of Bengal. It covers a surface area of about 100 sq km. Kolkata nad Haldia in India and Mongla and Chittagong in Bangladesh are the principal sea ports of this delta.

The primary source of power generation in West Bengal is thermal power plants. In 2020, thermal power plants generated 86.8% of the state's electricity, followed by hydroelectric power plants (10.3%), solar power plants (2.4%), and wind power plants (0.5%).

Thermal power plants use coal, oil, or natural gas to generate electricity. Coal is the most common fuel used in thermal power plants in West Bengal. Coal is burned in a furnace to heat water, which turns into steam. The steam then drives a turbine, which generates electricity.

Hydroelectric power plants use the power of moving water to generate electricity. Water flows through a turbine, which drives a generator to produce electricity. Hydroelectric power plants are a renewable source of energy, but they can only be built in certain locations where there is a source of flowing water.

Solar power plants use the sun's energy to generate electricity. Solar panels convert sunlight into electricity. Solar power plants are a clean and renewable source of energy, but they can only be built in locations with a lot of sunlight.

Wind power plants use the wind to generate electricity. Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy of the wind into electricity. Wind power plants are a clean and renewable source of energy, but they can only be built in locations with a lot of wind.

The government of West Bengal is working to increase the use of renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power. The state has set a goal of generating 20% of its electricity from renewable sources by 2022.

The correct answer is (b), Chandrashekhar Kambar.

Chandrashekhar Kambar is an Indian Kannada writer and poet. He was born in 1938 in the village of Kambar in the Bagalkot district of Karnataka. He is known for his work in Kannada literature, including poetry, novels, short stories, and essays. He has also translated works from other languages into Kannada.

Kambar was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2010 for his contribution to Kannada literature. The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award in India. It is awarded annually to an Indian writer for their outstanding contribution to literature.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Amarkant is an Indian Hindi poet and writer. He was born in 1925 in the village of Bichpuri in the Agra district of Uttar Pradesh. He is known for his work in Hindi literature, including poetry, novels, short stories, and essays. He has also translated works from other languages into Hindi.

(c) Mannu Bhandari is an Indian Hindi writer. She was born in 1931 in the village of Bhadgaon in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. She is known for her work in Hindi literature, including novels, short stories, and essays. She has also translated works from other languages into Hindi.

(d) Shrilal Shukla is an Indian Hindi writer. He was born in 1932 in the village of Utraula in the Lakhimpur Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh. He is known for his work in Hindi literature, including novels, short stories, and essays. He has also translated works from other languages into Hindi.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{3}{4}}$.

The probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is the same as the probability that both $X$ and $Y$ are less than $frac{1}{2}$. The probability that $X$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2}$, and the probability that $Y$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is also $frac{1}{2}$, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent. Therefore, the probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2} times frac{1}{2} = boxed{frac{1}{4}}$.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: $frac{3}{4}$. This is the correct answer. The probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is the same as the probability that both $X$ and $Y$ are less than $frac{1}{2}$. The probability that $X$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2}$, and the probability that $Y$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is also $frac{1}{2}$, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent. Therefore, the probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2} times frac{1}{2} = boxed{frac{1}{4}}$.
• Option B: $frac{9}{{16}}$. This is not the correct answer. The probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is the same as the probability that both $X$ and $Y$ are less than $frac{1}{2}$. The probability that $X$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2}$, and the probability that $Y$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is also $frac{1}{2}$, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent. Therefore, the probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2} times frac{1}{2} = boxed{frac{1}{4}}$. This is not equal to $frac{9}{{16}}$.
• Option C: $frac{1}{4}$. This is not the correct answer. The probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is the same as the probability that both $X$ and $Y$ are less than $frac{1}{2}$. The probability that $X$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2}$, and the probability that $Y$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is also $frac{1}{2}$, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent. Therefore, the probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2} times frac{1}{2} = boxed{frac{1}{4}}$. This is not equal to $frac{1}{4}$.
• Option D: $frac{2}{3}$. This is not the correct answer. The probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is the same as the probability that both $X$ and $Y$ are less than $frac{1}{2}$. The probability that $X$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2}$, and the probability that $Y$ is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is also $frac{1}{2}$, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent. Therefore, the probability that max [X, Y] is less than $frac{1}{2}$ is $frac{1}{2} times frac{1}{2} = boxed{frac{1}{4}}$. This is not equal to $frac{2}{3}$.

The correct answer is D. Disciplin. The correct spelling is discipline.

A kiln is a furnace used for firing pottery or other ceramic wares. Masculine is an adjective that means relating to or characteristic of men or males. Muslin is a thin, soft cotton fabric.

Discipline is a noun that means training that corrects or improves someone's behavior. It can also mean a branch of knowledge or learning.

The correct answer is (c), M.S. Dhoni.

M.S. Dhoni was named the ‘ODI Cricketer of the year’ at the ICC Annual Awards function held in September, 2012. He was awarded the prize for his outstanding performance in the ODI format of the game in the year 2012. He scored 1,224 runs in 29 ODIs at an average of 55.62, including 3 centuries and 7 half-centuries. He also took 12 wickets with his right-arm off-spin bowling.

Kumar Sangakkara was the runner-up for the award. He scored 1,173 runs in 28 ODIs at an average of 52.41, including 2 centuries and 7 half-centuries.

Michael Clarke was third in the list. He scored 1,074 runs in 27 ODIs at an average of 43.00, including 2 centuries and 6 half-centuries.

Virat Kohli was fourth in the list. He scored 1,012 runs in 26 ODIs at an average of 42.81, including 2 centuries and 6 half-centuries.

The correct answer is: D. expertise, derivative

The word "expertise" means "special skill or knowledge in a particular area." The word "derivative" means "coming from or based on something else." In this case, the author is saying that the man was known for his great skill in a particular area, but his books were not original because they were based on the work of others.

The other options are not as good fits for the sentence. Option A, "advice, unconscious," does not make sense because the author is not talking about the man's advice. Option B, "skill, independent," does not make sense because the author is not talking about the man's independence. Option C, "knowledge, ignorant," does not make sense because the author is not talking about the man's ignorance. Option E, "dependence, indicative," does not make sense because the author is not talking about the man's dependence.

Basantautsav is the soul of Shantiniketan. In this festival, a procession is taken out in Shantiniketan which is called Doljatra. It is greeted not only with colours, but also song, music and dances. Men and women in traditional get-up yellow dress and ornaments of flowers, dance to the tunes of Rabindra Sangeet.

The correct answer is A) Bishnupur.

Bishnupur is a town in the Bankura district of West Bengal, India. It is famous for its terracotta temples, which were built during the 17th and 18th centuries. The temples are decorated with intricate terracotta sculptures depicting scenes from Hindu mythology.

Bolpur is a town in Birbhum district of West Bengal, India. It is known for its association with the poet Rabindranath Tagore, who lived there for many years. The town is also home to the Visva-Bharati University, which was founded by Tagore.

Murshidabad is a city in Murshidabad district of West Bengal, India. It was the capital of the Nawabs of Bengal from 1704 to 1770. The city is known for its historical monuments, including the Hazarduari Palace and the Katra Mosque.

Haldia is a port city in Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal, India. It is located on the Hooghly River, about 120 kilometers from Kolkata. The city is a major industrial and commercial center.

The correct answer is: A. Ring Skating

Ring skating is a type of roller skating that is performed on a circular track. The track is usually made of wood or concrete and is surrounded by a fence. Ring skating is a popular activity for both children and adults. It is a great way to get exercise and have fun.

Diamond cricket is a type of cricket that is played on a diamond-shaped field. The field is usually made of grass and is surrounded by a fence. Diamond cricket is a popular activity for both children and adults. It is a great way to get exercise and have fun.

Field cycling is a type of cycling that is performed on a field. The field is usually made of grass and is surrounded by a fence. Field cycling is a popular activity for both children and adults. It is a great way to get exercise and have fun.

Bull tennis is a type of tennis that is played on a court with a bull in the middle. The court is usually made of grass and is surrounded by a fence. Bull tennis is a popular activity for both children and adults. It is a great way to get exercise and have fun.

However, bull tennis is not a real sport. It is a made-up sport that is often used as a joke.

The correct answer is: C. as and when necessary.

The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) is a biennial meeting of the heads of government of the Commonwealth of Nations. The first CHOGM was held in London in 1971, and the most recent was held in Kigali, Rwanda, in June 2022.

The CHOGM is the supreme decision-making body of the Commonwealth, and it is responsible for setting the Commonwealth's agenda and priorities. The meeting is attended by the heads of government of all 54 Commonwealth member states, as well as the Commonwealth Secretary-General.

The CHOGM is a forum for the leaders of the Commonwealth to discuss issues of common interest, such as democracy, development, and climate change. The meeting also provides an opportunity for the leaders to build relationships and strengthen ties between their countries.

The CHOGM is held every two years, but it can be held more frequently if necessary. The next CHOGM will be held in Australia in 2024.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the CHOGM is not held once a year.
• Option B is incorrect because the CHOGM is not held biannually.
• Option D is incorrect because the CHOGM is not held at intervals of three years.

The correct answer is C. Both a and b.

Gravitational forces are the weakest of the four fundamental forces in nature, but they have an infinite range. This means that they can act on objects that are very far apart, such as the Earth and the Sun. Gravitational forces also obey the inverse square law, which means that the force between two objects is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This means that the force of gravity between two objects gets weaker as the distance between them increases.

Option A is incorrect because gravitational forces are not the strongest forces in nature. The strong nuclear force is the strongest force in nature, followed by the electromagnetic force, the weak nuclear force, and then the gravitational force.

Option B is incorrect because gravitational forces do not always observe the inverse square law. For example, the gravitational force between two objects that are very close together is not exactly inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This is because the objects are also affected by the strong and electromagnetic forces, which can distort the gravitational field.

Option D is incorrect because both options A and B are correct.

The correct answer is (a) 25.

BSE-GREENEX is a benchmark index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) that tracks the performance of companies in the renewable energy sector. The index was launched in 2015 and currently includes 25 companies.

The companies in the index are selected based on a set of criteria, including their market capitalization, liquidity, and financial performance. The index is reviewed on a quarterly basis and companies may be added or removed from the index based on their performance.

The BSE-GREENEX is a useful tool for investors who want to track the performance of the renewable energy sector. The index can also be used as a benchmark for performance comparisons between companies in the sector.

Here is a brief description of each option:

(a) 25: This is the correct answer. The BSE-GREENEX currently includes 25 companies.
(b) 40: This is not the correct answer. The BSE-GREENEX currently includes 25 companies.
(c) 50: This is not the correct answer. The BSE-GREENEX currently includes 25 companies.
(d) 100: This is not the correct answer. The BSE-GREENEX currently includes 25 companies.

The correct answer is: A. Ghiyas ud din Balban.

Ghiyas ud din Balban was the first Muslim ruler to impose the Jaziya on the Brahmins. He was the Sultan of Delhi from 1266 to 1287. He was a strong and able ruler who restored order and stability to the Delhi Sultanate. He was also a devout Muslim who imposed the Jaziya on the Brahmins as a way of asserting his authority and to raise revenue.

The Jaziya was a tax that was imposed on non-Muslims in the Islamic world. It was a form of jizya, which is a tax that is imposed on non-Muslims who live in a Muslim state. The Jaziya was a controversial tax and was often seen as a form of religious persecution.

Aram Shah was the son of Balban and ruled for a short period of time from 1287 to 1289. He was not a strong ruler and was overthrown by his cousin Kaiqubad.

Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor who ruled from 1658 to 1707. He was a devout Muslim and imposed the Jaziya on Hindus. He was also a controversial ruler and was often seen as a religious extremist.

Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the third Sultan of the Tughlaq dynasty who ruled from 1351 to 1388. He was a strong and able ruler who restored order and stability to the Delhi Sultanate. He was also a devout Muslim but did not impose the Jaziya on the Brahmins.

The correct answer is (c) Dehradun.

Dehradun was the capital of British Garhwal from 1815 to 1947. It was chosen as the capital because it was a centrally located town with good access to the surrounding hills. It was also a relatively safe town, as it was located away from the main trade routes.

Pauri was the capital of Garhwal before the British took over. It is a town located in the Garhwal Himalayas. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its temples and scenic views.

Tehri is a town located in the Garhwal Himalayas. It is the capital of the present-day state of Uttarakhand. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its temples and scenic views.

Nainital is a town located in the Kumaon Himalayas. It is the summer capital of the state of Uttarakhand. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its lakes and scenic views.

The correct answer is: A. to

The word "heir" means "a person who inherits property or a title from someone who has died." In this case, the throne is the property that is being inherited. The word "to" is used to indicate that the heir is the person who is entitled to inherit the throne.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence. The word "with" would imply that the heir is someone who is associated with the throne, but not necessarily someone who is entitled to inherit it. The word "him" would imply that the heir is a specific person, but the sentence does not provide any information about who the heir is. The word "over" would imply that the heir is someone who has control over the throne, but the sentence does not indicate that the heir has any power or authority.

The correct answer is (a) Jagat Chand.

Jagat Chand was the ruler of the Kahlur state in the 17th century. He was a contemporary of Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. Dara Shikoh was a learned man and a Sufi mystic. He was also a rival to his younger brother Aurangzeb for the Mughal throne. In 1658, Aurangzeb defeated Dara Shikoh in the Battle of Samugarh and became the new Mughal emperor. Dara Shikoh fled to Kahlur and sought refuge with Jagat Chand. However, Jagat Chand refused to give him refuge and handed him over to Aurangzeb's forces. Dara Shikoh was executed in 1659.

Baj Bahadur Chand was the ruler of the Kahlur state from 1678 to 1703. He was the son of Jagat Chand. Baj Bahadur Chand was a powerful ruler and he expanded the territory of the Kahlur state. He was also a patron of the arts and literature.

Roopchand was the ruler of the Kahlur state from 1703 to 1708. He was the son of Baj Bahadur Chand. Roopchand was a weak ruler and he was unable to maintain the power of the Kahlur state. He was defeated by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1708 and the Kahlur state was annexed to the Mughal empire.

Kalyan Chand was the ruler of the Kahlur state from 1708 to 1712. He was the son of Roopchand. Kalyan Chand was a minor when he ascended the throne and his mother ruled as regent. Kalyan Chand was a weak ruler and he was unable to maintain the power of the Kahlur state. He was defeated by the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah I in 1712 and the Kahlur state was annexed to the Mughal empire.

The correct answer is (b), Brussels.

The G7 summit is an annual meeting of the heads of government of seven major industrialized countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The summits are usually held in the country of the current G7 presidency.

The 2014 G7 summit was held on June 4–5, 2014, in Brussels, Belgium. The theme of the summit was "Economic Growth and Jobs." The leaders discussed a range of issues, including the global economy, the Syrian civil war, and the fight against terrorism.

The other options are incorrect. Oofa is not a real place. Durban is a city in South Africa, and Loskebas is a town in Norway.

The correct answer is: C. Between1500 B.C.-1000 B.C.

The Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) culture was a prehistoric culture that existed in the northwestern Indian subcontinent from about 1500 to 1000 BCE. It is named after the distinctive ochre-colored pottery that is associated with it. The OCP culture is thought to have originated in the Ganges-Yamuna Doab region of India, and it spread to other parts of the subcontinent, including the Indus Valley and the Deccan Plateau. The OCP culture was a farming culture, and its people lived in villages. They were skilled in pottery, and they also made tools and weapons from stone, bone, and copper. The OCP culture declined around 1000 BCE, and it was replaced by the Painted Grey Ware culture.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: The OCP culture did not prevail between 1200 B.C. and 1000 B.C.
• Option B: The OCP culture did not prevail between 1300 B.C. and 1000 B.C.
• Option D: The OCP culture did not prevail between 1800 B.C. and 1000 B.C.

Mother Teresa founded the Home of the Pure Heart (Nirmal Hriday) at Kalighar in 1952, which is a home for the sick, destitute and dying.

The correct answer is B. 1956.

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is a government department of India that is responsible for the country's atomic energy program. It was established on 10 August 1956 by the Atomic Energy Act, 1948. The DAE is headed by the Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Atomic Energy. The current Secretary is Dr. K. N. Vyas.

The DAE's main objectives are to:

• Develop and harness atomic energy for peaceful purposes;
• Ensure the safety and security of nuclear installations;
• Promote the use of nuclear energy in the country's development;
• Conduct research in the field of atomic energy;
• Train personnel in the field of atomic energy;
• Disseminate information on atomic energy.

The DAE has a number of research and development laboratories, including the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), the Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), and the Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC). It also has a number of nuclear power plants, including the Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS), the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS), and the Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS).

The DAE is a key player in India's nuclear energy program. It has played a major role in the development of the country's nuclear power plants, and it is also responsible for the country's nuclear weapons program. The DAE is a well-respected organization, and it has made significant contributions to the development of India's atomic energy program.

Option A is incorrect because the Department of Atomic Energy was established in 1956, not 1950.

Option C is incorrect because the Department of Atomic Energy was established in 1956, not 1964.

Option D is incorrect because the Department of Atomic Energy was established in 1956, not 1970.

The correct answer is: World No Tobacco Day.

World No Tobacco Day is observed on 31 May every year to raise awareness about the harmful effects of tobacco use and to encourage people to quit smoking. The day was first observed in 1987 by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Tobacco use is the leading cause of preventable death in the world, accounting for more than 7 million deaths each year. Tobacco use is a major risk factor for a number of chronic diseases, including cancer, heart disease, stroke, and lung diseases.

Quitting smoking is the best thing you can do for your health. Quitting smoking can reduce your risk of developing chronic diseases, and it can also improve your overall health and well-being.

If you are thinking about quitting smoking, there are a number of resources available to help you. You can talk to your doctor, or you can call the National Cancer Institute's Smoking Quitline at 1-800-QUIT-NOW (1-800-784-8669).

World No Tobacco Day is an important opportunity to raise awareness about the harmful effects of tobacco use and to encourage people to quit smoking. By quitting smoking, you can improve your health and well-being, and you can also help to reduce the burden of tobacco-related disease on your family and on society as a whole.

Here is a brief description of each option:

• International Nurse Day is celebrated on 12 May every year to recognize the contributions of nurses to healthcare.
• Indian Air Force Day is celebrated on 8 October every year to commemorate the Indian Air Force's role in the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947.
• World Turtle Day is celebrated on 23 May every year to raise awareness about the conservation of turtles and tortoises.
• World No Tobacco Day is observed on 31 May every year to raise awareness about the harmful effects of tobacco use and to encourage people to quit smoking.

Jaspal Rana is an Indian former sport shooter. He is the first Indian to win a gold medal in the 10 m air pistol event at the World Shooting Championships. He is also the first Indian to win a gold medal in the 10 m air pistol event at the Asian Games.

The correct answer to the question "Jaspal Rana is associated with which sport?" is C. Shooting.

Option A, Weight Lifting, is incorrect because Jaspal Rana is not a weightlifter. He is a shooter.

Option B, Boxing, is incorrect because Jaspal Rana is not a boxer. He is a shooter.

Option D, Archery, is incorrect because Jaspal Rana is not an archer. He is a shooter.

The rivers of North Bengal are formed by the melting of ice. Hence, they are also called Snowfed rivers. The important rivers of the northern part of West Bengal are Mahananda, Teesta, Torsa, Jaldhaka, Kaljani and Raidak. The rivers of the Western plateau region of West Bengal are rainfed rivers as they usually have water during the rainy season. Some important rivers of this region are Ajay, Mayurakshi, Damodar, Rupnarayan, Haldi and Subarnarekha. The rivers of the South or Sundarbans REgion are fed by the tides. During low tides, they get more or less dry but during high tides, they overflow their banks. Some important rivers of this region are Ichamati, Raimangal, Saptamukhi, Matla, Gosaba, Hariabhanga, Thakuran, etc.

The correct answer is: D. Baby

A cat is an adult animal of the species Felis catus, while a kitten is a young cat. Similarly, a woman is an adult human female, while a baby is a young human.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the same relationship as cat and kitten. A puppy is a young dog, a colt is a young horse, and a calf is a young cow. While all of these animals are young, they are not the same species as their adult counterparts.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "'Cat' is related to 'Kitten' in the same way as 'Woman' is related to: A. Puppy B. Colt C. Calf D. Baby" is D. Baby.

The correct answer is (a) Saral Nahar Rai.

Saral Nahar Rai is a site located in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a prehistoric site that has been dated to the Mesolithic period. The site is known for its human burials, which have been found in single and multiple graves. The human skeletons found at Saral Nahar Rai are well-preserved and provide valuable information about the physical characteristics of the people who lived in the area during the Mesolithic period.

The other options are incorrect. Damdama is a site located in the Gurgaon district of Haryana, India. It is a prehistoric site that has been dated to the Neolithic period. The site is known for its stone tools and pottery. Mahadaha is a site located in the Etah district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a prehistoric site that has been dated to the Chalcolithic period. The site is known for its copper tools and pottery. Langhnaj is a site located in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, India. It is a prehistoric site that has been dated to the Harappan period. The site is known for its terracotta figurines and beads.

The correct answer is (A).

To mobilize means to prepare and organize (troops or other resources) for war or other conflict.

To summon means to call someone to come to a particular place, especially in order to give them an order or to answer a question.

To prepare means to make or get ready for something that is going to happen.

To arouse means to cause someone to feel a strong emotion, especially anger or excitement.

In this case, the troops were mobilized to take control of the tensed situation. This means that they were prepared and organized for war or other conflict. They were not summoned, as this would imply that they were called to come to a particular place. They were also not prepared, as this would imply that they were getting ready for something that was going to happen. Finally, they were not aroused, as this would imply that they were feeling a strong emotion, such as anger or excitement.

The correct answer is D. Nek Chand.

Nek Chand Saini (1924–2015) was an Indian artist, sculptor, and environmentalist who created the Rock Garden in Chandigarh, India. The Rock Garden is a sprawling complex of over 40 acres (16 ha) of gardens, sculptures, and buildings made from recycled materials. It is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Chandigarh.

Nek Chand was born in a village in Punjab, India. He worked as a road inspector for the government of Punjab. In his spare time, he would collect stones and other materials from the roadside and build sculptures in his backyard. In 1957, he began to build a garden on a piece of land that he had acquired from the government. He worked on the garden in secret for over 18 years, until it was discovered in 1976.

The Rock Garden is made from a variety of materials, including stones, broken glass, pottery, and metal. It is divided into several sections, each with its own theme. The main section of the garden is called the "Forest of Stone." It is a maze of paths and tunnels that are lined with sculptures of animals, birds, and people. The other sections of the garden include the "Garden of Love," the "Garden of Meditation," and the "Garden of Reflection."

The Rock Garden is a popular tourist attraction. It is open to the public and admission is free. The garden is open from 9:00 am to 5:00 pm, seven days a week.

The odd one out is C, IO. The other options, AE, AI, EI, and OU, are all digraphs, which are two letters that represent a single sound. The letter combination IO does not represent a single sound in English. It can be used to represent two different sounds: the long "i" sound as in "ice" or the long "o" sound as in "go."

A digraph is a pair of letters that represent a single sound. Some common digraphs in English include:

• ch: as in "chip"
• sh: as in "ship"
• th: as in "thin"
• wh: as in "white"
• ea: as in "eat"
• ai: as in "rain"
• ei: as in "eight"
• oi: as in "oil"
• ou: as in "out"

Digraphs are important because they allow us to represent a wider range of sounds than we could with just the 26 letters of the alphabet.

The correct answer is (b).

Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) gives the High Court the power to quash any criminal proceeding, if it is satisfied that it is not maintainable or that it is being pursued mala fide or for an ulterior purpose. The High Court can also exercise this power to prevent abuse of the process of court.

The Supreme Court has held that the inherent power under Section 482 of CrPC is a discretionary power and should be exercised sparingly and with caution. The Court has also held that the power should not be used to interfere with the discretion of the trial court unless there is a clear abuse of the process of court.

The Session Court is a subordinate court and does not have the power to quash a criminal proceeding under Section 482 of CrPC. Only the High Court has this power.

The option (a) is incorrect because the Supreme Court is not the only court that can exercise the inherent power under Section 482 of CrPC. The High Court also has this power.

The option (c) is incorrect because the Session Court is a subordinate court and does not have the power to quash a criminal proceeding under Section 482 of CrPC. Only the High Court has this power.

The option (d) is incorrect because not all criminal courts have the power to quash a criminal proceeding under Section 482 of CrPC. Only the High Court has this power.

The answer is D. Scrub: Polish.

In the other pairs, the first word is a less intense version of the second word. A flurry is a light snowfall, while a blizzard is a heavy snowfall. Moisten means to make something slightly wet, while drench means to soak something completely. Prick means to pierce something with a sharp object, while stab means to pierce something with a sharp object forcefully.

However, scrub and polish are not related in this way. Scrubbing is a vigorous cleaning action, while polishing is a gentler action that is used to make something shiny.

The correct answer is (a). The Earth is located between Venus and Mars in the Solar System. It is the third planet from the Sun and the only astronomical object known to harbor life. The Earth is the fifth largest planet in the Solar System and the largest of the four terrestrial planets. It is a terrestrial planet with a solid surface, and is the only planet in the Solar System known to have active plate tectonics. The Earth's atmosphere is composed mostly of nitrogen and oxygen, and it has a surface temperature of about 15 degrees Celsius. The Earth is home to a wide variety of life, including plants, animals, and humans.

Option (b) is incorrect because Mars is located between the Earth and Jupiter. Option (c) is incorrect because Venus is located between the Earth and Mercury. Option (d) is incorrect because Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun.

The state gets 90% of its rainfall from Bay of Bengal branch of South-West monsoon. Around 10-15 June, the whole of West Bengal comes under the influence of South-West monsoon and heavy rainfall occurs in all parts of the state till September.

The correct answer is: A. to

The word "to" is used to indicate the direction of movement or attention. In this case, the wife is looking in the direction of her husband.

The word "at" is used to indicate a specific point in time or space. In this case, the wife is not looking at a specific point in time or space, but rather in the general direction of her husband.

The word "after" is used to indicate a period of time following a particular event. In this case, the wife is not looking after her husband in the sense of caring for him, but rather in the sense of following him.

The word "upon" is used to indicate a position on top of something. In this case, the wife is not looking upon her husband in the sense of admiring him, but rather in the sense of looking down at him.

In conclusion, the correct answer is "to" because it is the only word that indicates the direction of movement or attention.

The correct answer is: Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry of the Government of India for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes (STs). It was established in 1956 with the objective of promoting the socio-economic development of STs and protecting their interests. The ministry is responsible for implementing a number of schemes and programmes for the welfare of STs, including education, health, housing, employment, and livelihood generation.

The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the maintenance of internal security and law and order in the country. It is not directly involved in the welfare of STs.

The Ministry of Finance is responsible for the formulation and implementation of the country's financial policies. It is not directly involved in the welfare of STs.

The Ministry of Agriculture is responsible for the development of the agriculture sector in the country. It is not directly involved in the welfare of STs.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "eagle" is a common noun, which means that it refers to a general class of things, not a specific thing. In this case, the speaker is saying that they have never seen an eagle before, so they are not referring to a specific eagle. Therefore, no article is needed.

The other options are incorrect because they are all articles. An article is a word that is used to modify a noun. The three types of articles are "a", "an", and "the". "A" and "an" are indefinite articles, which means that they are used to refer to a general class of things, not a specific thing. "The" is a definite article, which means that it is used to refer to a specific thing.

In this case, the speaker is saying that they have never seen an eagle before, so they are not referring to a specific eagle. Therefore, no article is needed.

The answer is Chhau.

Chhau is a genre of Indian folk dance that originated in the eastern Indian states of Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. It is known for its energetic movements and acrobatic displays, often accompanied by drums. The dance is performed by both men and women, and it is often used to tell stories from Hindu mythology.

Gambhira is a folk dance from West Bengal that is performed during the harvest festival of Durga Puja. The dance is characterized by its slow, rhythmic movements and its use of simple props, such as sticks and bells.

Baul is a folk music and dance tradition from West Bengal that is characterized by its use of devotional songs and its emphasis on spiritual enlightenment. The dance is often performed in a circle, and it is accompanied by singing and the playing of instruments such as the sitar and the tabla.

Dhali is a folk dance from West Bengal that is performed during the festival of Holi. The dance is characterized by its lively movements and its use of colorful costumes.

The odd one out is Force.

• Volt is a unit of electric potential difference or electromotive force.
• Power is the rate at which energy is transferred or converted.
• Volume is the amount of space enclosed by a three-dimensional object.

Force is not a measure of energy or power. It is a measure of how much an object is being pushed or pulled.

As per Census 2011, literacy rate in West Bengal is 76.26% which is higher than the national average of 74%. Male literacy rate is 81.69% and female literacy rate is 70.54%.

The correct answer is: B. Capital goods

Capital goods are goods that are used to produce other goods and services. They are also known as investment goods. Examples of capital goods include machines, tools, and buildings.

The production of capital goods leads to higher production in the future because it increases the amount of productive resources available. This can lead to increased output of consumer goods, agricultural goods, and other goods and services.

Consumer goods are goods that are used to satisfy human wants directly. Examples of consumer goods include food, clothing, and entertainment.

Agricultural goods are goods that are produced by agriculture. Examples of agricultural goods include crops, livestock, and dairy products.

Public goods are goods that are non-rival and non-excludable. This means that one person's consumption of a public good does not reduce the amount available for others to consume, and it is difficult to prevent people from using a public good. Examples of public goods include national defense, law enforcement, and public parks.

The correct answer is B. 0.0002 µ bar.

The least audible sound for most of the human ear is 0.0002 µ bar, which is also known as the threshold of hearing. This is the lowest sound pressure level that a human ear can detect at 1 kHz. The threshold of hearing varies from person to person, and it also decreases with age.

Option A is incorrect because it is too high. The threshold of hearing is much lower than 10.0 µ bar.

Option C is incorrect because it is too low. The threshold of hearing is not 0.005 µ bar.

Option D is incorrect because it is too high. The threshold of hearing is not 5.0 µ bar.

Dakhineswar Kali Temple was constructed in 1847 and was established in 1855 over 25 acres of land.

The correct answer is: A. Pyrex glass

Pyrex glass is a type of glass that is made with borosilicate, which is a type of glass that is resistant to thermal shock. This makes Pyrex glass ideal for use in lenses, as it can withstand the high temperatures that are often used in lens manufacturing.

Flint glass is a type of glass that is made with lead oxide, which gives it a high refractive index. This makes flint glass ideal for use in lenses that require a high degree of magnification.

Ordinary glass is a type of glass that is made with silica, soda ash, and lime. It is not as resistant to thermal shock as Pyrex glass, and it does not have as high a refractive index as flint glass. This makes ordinary glass less ideal for use in lenses.

Cobalt glass is a type of glass that is made with cobalt oxide. It is a deep blue color, and it is often used in decorative items. It is not as commonly used in lenses as other types of glass.

The correct answer is (c).

Good faith within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) means an act in fact done honestly. It is a subjective test, i.e., it depends on the intention of the person doing the act. If the person believes that he is acting honestly, then he will be considered to have acted in good faith, even if his belief is wrong.

The other options are incorrect because they are objective tests. For example, (a) an act done with due care and attention is not necessarily an act done in good faith. A person may act with due care and attention, but still have a dishonest intention. Similarly, (b) an actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law is not necessarily an act done in good faith. A person may believe that his act is not contrary to law, but still have a dishonest intention. Finally, (d) an act done under bonafide belief is not necessarily an act done in good faith. A person may act under bonafide belief, but still have a dishonest intention.

In conclusion, the correct answer is (c). Good faith within the meaning of the IPC means an act in fact done honestly.

The correct answer is C. Guard.

The relationship between "safe" and "secure" is that "safe" is a state of being protected from harm, while "secure" is a state of being protected from unauthorized access. The relationship between "protect" and "guard" is similar, in that "protect" is an action that prevents harm from coming to someone or something, while "guard" is an action that keeps someone or something safe from harm.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. "Conserve" means to protect something from being lost or damaged, but it does not mean to protect something from harm. "Sure" means to be certain or confident, but it does not mean to be protected from harm. "Lock" means to fasten something with a lock, but it does not mean to protect something from harm.

The correct answer is: C. a cartel

A cartel is a formal agreement among competing firms to fix prices, limit production, or share markets. Cartels are illegal in most countries, but they can be very profitable for the firms involved.

A non-collusive oligopoly is an oligopoly in which the firms do not cooperate with each other. In a non-collusive oligopoly, each firm acts independently and tries to maximize its own profits. This can lead to a situation where the firms produce too little output and charge too high prices.

Price leadership is a situation in which one firm in an oligopoly sets the price for the industry, and the other firms follow. Price leadership can be either explicit or implicit. Explicit price leadership occurs when the leading firm announces its price and the other firms follow. Implicit price leadership occurs when the leading firm sets a price and the other firms simply match it.

A concentrated industry is an industry in which a small number of firms have a large share of the market. Concentrated industries are often characterized by oligopoly or monopoly.

In conclusion, a group of firms that gets together to make price and output decisions is called a cartel.

The correct answer is: A. Wrestling

The Burdhwan Trophy is a wrestling tournament held in Burdwan, West Bengal, India. It is one of the oldest wrestling tournaments in India, and is held every year since 1934. The tournament is open to all wrestlers, regardless of age or weight category.

The Burdhwan Trophy is a prestigious tournament, and is considered to be one of the most important wrestling tournaments in India. The tournament has produced many world-class wrestlers, including Sushil Kumar, Yogeshwar Dutt, and Bajrang Punia.

The Burdhwan Trophy is a great opportunity for wrestlers to showcase their skills and compete against the best wrestlers in India. The tournament is also a great opportunity for wrestlers to learn from each other and improve their skills.

The Burdhwan Trophy is a major event in the Indian wrestling calendar, and is eagerly awaited by wrestlers and fans alike. The tournament is a great showcase for Indian wrestling, and helps to promote the sport in India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Boxing is a combat sport in which two people, usually wearing protective gloves, throw punches at each other for a pre-agreed number of rounds in a boxing ring.
• Weightlifting is a strength sport in which athletes attempt to lift the maximum weight above their head.
• Kabaddi is a contact team sport played between two teams of seven players, where each player tries to score points by tagging members of the opposing team and then returning to their own half of the court without being tackled by the opposing team.

The correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.

The statement says that economic equality is a necessary condition for political freedom and democracy. However, it does not say that political freedom and democracy are sufficient conditions for economic equality. In other words, the statement does not say that if a country has political freedom and democracy, then it will also have economic equality.

Conclusion I is a logical consequence of the statement. If economic equality is a necessary condition for political freedom and democracy, then political freedom and democracy cannot exist without economic equality. However, conclusion II is not a logical consequence of the statement. The statement does not say that economic equality is the only way to achieve political freedom and democracy. There may be other ways to achieve political freedom and democracy, even if economic equality does not exist.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Only conclusion II follows.

The answer is 143.

The sequence is a simple alternating addition and subtraction of 182. Starting with 563, 182 is added to get 745. Then 182 is subtracted to get 563. This pattern repeats, with 182 being added and subtracted alternately.

Option A, 672, is incorrect because it is not the next number in the sequence. Option B, 386, is incorrect because it is not the next number in the sequence. Option C, 279, is incorrect because it is not the next number in the sequence. Option D, 143, is the correct answer because it is the next number in the sequence.

The correct answer is: C. Appointed by the Speaker.

The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the Chief of its Secretariat and is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Secretary General is responsible for the day-to-day functioning of the Lok Sabha and its Secretariat. He/She is also responsible for the maintenance of order and decorum in the House.

The Secretary General is a non-political post and is appointed on the basis of merit. He/She is usually a senior Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer. The Secretary General is assisted by a number of Deputy Secretaries, Under Secretaries, and Section Officers.

The Secretary General is a key figure in the functioning of the Lok Sabha. He/She plays a vital role in ensuring that the House functions smoothly and efficiently.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Elected by the Lok Sabha. This is not the correct answer because the Secretary General is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the Lok Sabha itself.
• Option B: Elected by both Houses of Parliament. This is also not the correct answer because the Secretary General is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by both Houses of Parliament.
• Option C: Appointed by the Speaker. This is the correct answer because the Secretary General is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Option D: Appointed by the President. This is not the correct answer because the Secretary General is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the President.

The correct answer is: A. PQRS

The sentence is about people who believe that sports is a kind of religion. The first clause, "There are still those devotees of sport," introduces the topic of the sentence. The second clause, "who support the emphasis laid on school games," provides additional information about the people who believe that sports is a kind of religion. The third clause, "and for whom sports is a kind of religion," completes the sentence by stating the belief that sports is a kind of religion.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the correct sequence of ideas. Option B, PSQR, puts the second clause first, which does not make sense because the second clause provides additional information about the people who believe that sports is a kind of religion. Option C, RPSQ, puts the third clause first, which does not make sense because the third clause completes the sentence by stating the belief that sports is a kind of religion. Option D, RQPS, puts the third clause second, which does not make sense because the third clause completes the sentence by stating the belief that sports is a kind of religion.

The correct answer is $boxed{{text{a}}^2}{{text{b}}^2} - {left( {overrightarrow {text{a}} cdot overrightarrow {text{b}} } right)^2}$.

The cross product of two vectors $overrightarrow {text{a}}$ and $overrightarrow {text{b}}$ is denoted by $overrightarrow {text{a}} times overrightarrow {text{b}}$. The magnitude of the cross product is given by the formula

$$left| {overrightarrow {text{a}} times overrightarrow {text{b}} } right| = sqrt{{text{a}}^2{{text{b}}^2} - {left( {overrightarrow {text{a}} cdot overrightarrow {text{b}} } right)^2}}$$

Therefore, the square of the magnitude of the cross product is given by

$${left| {overrightarrow {text{a}} times overrightarrow {text{b}} } right|^2} = {text{a}}^2{{text{b}}^2} - {left( {overrightarrow {text{a}} cdot overrightarrow {text{b}} } right)^2}$$

Option A is incorrect because it does not include the factor of $-1$ in front of the dot product. Option B is incorrect because it does not include the square of the magnitudes of the vectors. Option C is incorrect because it does not include the negative sign in front of the dot product. Option D is incorrect because it includes the dot product instead of the cross product.

The correct answer is (c), Rio de Janeiro. The 2016 Summer Olympics, officially known as the Games of the XXXI Olympiad, were an international multi-sport event held from 5 to 21 August 2016 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It was the first Summer Olympics to be held in South America, and the second time the Summer Olympics were held in a Portuguese-speaking country, after Lisbon in 1920. The Games were officially opened by Brazilian President Dilma Rousseff at the Maracanã Stadium, and closed by International Olympic Committee (IOC) President Thomas Bach. A total of 206 nations competed in 306 events in 28 sports.

The correct answer is C. Distinguish between certain colours.

A color-blind person is someone who has difficulty distinguishing between certain colors. This is caused by a defect in the cones, which are the cells in the eye that are responsible for color vision. There are three types of cones, each of which is sensitive to a different range of wavelengths of light. People who are color-blind have cones that are either missing or not working properly. This can make it difficult for them to see certain colors, or to distinguish between different shades of the same color.

Option A is incorrect because color-blind people can still see distant objects. However, they may have difficulty distinguishing between certain colors in the distance.

Option B is incorrect because color-blind people can still see black. However, they may have difficulty distinguishing between black and other dark colors.

Option D is incorrect because color-blind people can still have persistence of vision. Persistence of vision is the phenomenon where an image continues to appear in the eye after the stimulus has been removed. This is caused by the persistence of retinal images, which is the time it takes for the cells in the retina to stop firing after they have been stimulated by light.

The correct answer is A) Jute.

Jute is a major cash crop in West Bengal. It is a long, soft, and strong fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including burlap, gunny cloth, and jute bags. Jute is also used to make paper, textiles, and other products.

Coffee is a major cash crop in many countries around the world, but it is not a major cash crop in West Bengal. Coffee is a tropical plant that is grown in warm, humid climates. West Bengal does not have the climate that is ideal for growing coffee.

Sugarcane is a major cash crop in some countries, but it is not a major cash crop in West Bengal. Sugarcane is a tropical plant that is grown in warm, humid climates. West Bengal does not have the climate that is ideal for growing sugarcane.

Rubber is a major cash crop in some countries, but it is not a major cash crop in West Bengal. Rubber is a tropical plant that is grown in warm, humid climates. West Bengal does not have the climate that is ideal for growing rubber.

The correct answer is C. Enterprise : Success.

In the other three pairs, the first word is a cause or result of the second word. Crime is punished, judgment is advocated, and exercise leads to health. However, enterprise does not always lead to success. There are many factors that can contribute to success, such as luck, hard work, and talent.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each pair:

• Crime : Punishment
  Crime is an act that is considered to be wrong or harmful, and punishment is the act of imposing a penalty on someone who has committed a crime. The purpose of punishment is to deter people from committing crimes, to rehabilitate criminals, and to express society's disapproval of criminal behavior.

• Judgement : Advocacy
  Judgment is the act of forming an opinion or evaluation about something, and advocacy is the act of supporting or recommending something. Judgment is often based on evidence and reasoning, while advocacy is often based on personal beliefs or values.

• Exercise : Health
  Exercise is physical activity that is done regularly to maintain or improve one's health. Exercise can help to improve cardiovascular health, reduce the risk of obesity and other chronic diseases, and improve mental health.

• Enterprise : Success
  Enterprise is the ability to start and run a business or other organization. Success is the accomplishment of an aim or purpose. Enterprise does not always lead to success. There are many factors that can contribute to success, such as luck, hard work, and talent.

The correct answer is: B. 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956

The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, inserted Article 155A in the Constitution, which provides that the President may, by warrant under his hand and seal, appoint the same person to be Governor of two or more States.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, did not make any provision for the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
• The 4th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1955, did not make any provision for the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
• The 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963, did not make any provision for the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.

The correct answer is A) Bituminous.

Bituminous coal is a type of coal that is intermediate in rank between lignite and anthracite. It is a solid fossil fuel formed from ancient plant material that has been subjected to heat and pressure over millions of years. Bituminous coal is the most abundant type of coal in the world, and it is used to generate electricity, produce steel, and make chemicals.

Lignite is a type of coal that is lower in rank than bituminous coal. It is a soft, brown coal that is formed from plant material that has been subjected to heat and pressure for a shorter period of time than bituminous coal. Lignite is used to generate electricity and produce chemicals.

Anthracite is a type of coal that is higher in rank than bituminous coal. It is a hard, black coal that is formed from plant material that has been subjected to heat and pressure for a longer period of time than bituminous coal. Anthracite is used to generate electricity and produce steel.

Peat is a type of coal that is the lowest in rank. It is a soft, brown coal that is formed from plant material that has been subjected to heat and pressure for a very short period of time. Peat is used to generate electricity and produce chemicals.

The correct answer is: B. cartel

A cartel is a formal agreement among competing firms to coordinate their actions in order to achieve a common goal, such as increasing profits or controlling prices. Cartels are often illegal, but they can be very effective in raising prices and reducing competition.

A trust is a type of business organization in which the controlling interest in a company is held by a small group of trustees. Trusts were once common in the United States, but they have since been largely replaced by other forms of business organization, such as corporations.

A joint-stock company is a type of business organization in which ownership is divided into shares that can be bought and sold. Joint-stock companies are the most common form of business organization in the world.

A pure monopoly is a market structure in which there is only one seller of a good or service. Pure monopolies are rare, but they can occur when a company has a natural monopoly, such as a utility company that owns the only water or electricity lines in an area.

In the case of the leading firms in an industry combining to carry out a common policy in their interests, but that they keep their own, separate identities, the correct answer is a cartel. This is because a cartel is a formal agreement among competing firms to coordinate their actions in order to achieve a common goal, such as increasing profits or controlling prices.

The correct answer is: A) Anushilan Samiti.

Anushilan Samiti was a revolutionary organisation founded in 1886 by Shyamaprasad Mukherjee and Bhupendranath Dutta. It was one of the first organisations to promote revolutionary activities against British rule in India. Khudiram Bose was a member of the Anushilan Samiti and was involved in several revolutionary activities, including the attempt to assassinate British magistrate Kingsford in 1908. He was hanged for his involvement in the assassination attempt.

The other options are incorrect.

* Jugantar was a revolutionary organisation founded in 1906 by Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Kumar Ghosh. It was also involved in revolutionary activities against British rule in India.
* Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organisation founded in 1913 by Lala Hardayal. It was based in the United States and Canada and was involved in revolutionary activities against British rule in India.
* Hindustan Republican Association was a revolutionary organisation founded in 1924 by Chandrashekhar Azad. It was involved in revolutionary activities against British rule in India.

The odd one out is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The other three options, $text{A}$, $text{B}$, and $text{C}$, all have the same pattern: the first two letters are the same, and the third letter is one letter after the second letter. For example, in $text{HJN}$, the first two letters are both "H", and the third letter is "J", which is one letter after "H". In $text{JLP}$, the first two letters are both "J", and the third letter is "L", which is one letter after "J". In $text{PRU}$, the first two letters are both "P", and the third letter is "R", which is one letter after "P".

However, in $text{QSW}$, the first two letters are "Q" and "S", and the third letter is "W", which is two letters after "S". This does not follow the same pattern as the other three options.

The correct answer is A) Khadar.

Khadar is a type of alluvial soil found in the floodplains of rivers. It is a relatively young soil, and is typically very fertile. Khadar soils are often used for agriculture.

Barind is a type of soil found in the uplands of West Bengal. It is a relatively old soil, and is typically not as fertile as Khadar soils. Barind soils are often used for grazing.

Regur is a type of soil found in the Deccan Plateau of India. It is a relatively old soil, and is typically not as fertile as Khadar or Barind soils. Regur soils are often used for agriculture, but they require a lot of irrigation.

Bhabhar is a type of soil found in the arid regions of India. It is a relatively old soil, and is typically not as fertile as Khadar, Barind, or Regur soils. Bhabhar soils are often used for grazing.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Old alluvial deposits found in certain parts of West Bengal are known locally as:" is A) Khadar.

The correct answer is (a).

The frequency of 1 is 19, the frequency of 2 is 22, and the frequency of 3 is 31. This means that on 19 days, there was 1 accident, on 22 days, there were 2 accidents, and on 31 days, there were 3 accidents. In total, on 72 days, there were 3 or less accidents. However, we need to subtract the number of days with 0 accidents, which is 19. Therefore, on 8 days, there were 3 or less accidents.

Option (b) is incorrect because it is the total number of days in the period. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the total number of accidents that occurred. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the total number of days with 3 or less accidents, plus the number of days with 0 accidents.

The correct answer is (b). Chikungunya is a viral disease. It is caused by an alphavirus transmitted to people by infected Aedes mosquitoes. The most common symptoms of chikungunya are fever, severe joint pain, headache, muscle pain, joint swelling, or rash. The illness is usually mild with symptoms lasting for 2-7 days. However, some people may experience joint pain for several months or even years after infection. There is no specific treatment for chikungunya. Treatment is aimed at relieving the symptoms.

(a) Bacterial diseases are caused by bacteria. Bacteria are single-celled organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including pneumonia, strep throat, and tuberculosis.

(c) Fungal diseases are caused by fungi. Fungi are multicellular organisms that can cause a variety of diseases, including athlete's foot, ringworm, and candidiasis.

(d) None of the above is a correct answer.

The correct answer is: A. None is strong

Argument I is not strong because it is based on an appeal to emotion. The statement that "nobody should be allowed to end his/her life at his/her will as this goes against the basic tenets of humanity" is an emotional appeal, not a logical argument. There is no evidence to support the claim that ending one's life is "against the basic tenets of humanity."

Argument II is not strong because it is based on a false dilemma. The statement that "patients undergoing terrible suffering and having absolutely no chance of recovery should be liberated from suffering through mercy death" implies that there are only two options: either patients undergo terrible suffering and die, or they are killed through mercy death. However, there are other options, such as providing patients with palliative care to ease their suffering.

Argument III is not strong because it is based on a circular argument. The statement that "even mercy death is a sort of killing and killing can never be legalized" is circular because it defines mercy death as a type of killing and then concludes that killing can never be legalized. This argument does not provide any evidence to support the claim that killing can never be legalized.

In conclusion, none of the arguments are strong.