WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-21

The correct answer is (a) Dr. Radha Krishnan.

Dr. Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of India and the second President of India. He was a philosopher, statesman, and diplomat. He was known for his scholarship and his contributions to Indian philosophy. He was also a strong advocate for secularism and democracy.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India. He was a lawyer and a freedom fighter. He was known for his integrity and his commitment to the Indian Constitution.

Dr. Zakir Hussain was the third President of India. He was a scholar and a politician. He was known for his commitment to education and his promotion of communal harmony.

Dr. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President of India. He was a scientist and a missile scientist. He was known for his contributions to the development of India's nuclear and missile programs.

Dr. Radhakrishnan was the only President of India who was also a philosopher. He was known for his scholarship and his contributions to Indian philosophy. He was also a strong advocate for secularism and democracy.

The correct answer is A. Each innings time limit is 75 minutes.

In a T20 match, each team has a maximum of 20 overs to bat. The batting team can have a maximum of 11 players on the field at any time. The bowling team can have a maximum of 4 bowlers, each of whom can bowl a maximum of 4 overs.

The fielding team is not allowed to change the field restrictions during the first 6 overs of the innings. This means that the batting team will have to face the same fielders for the first 6 overs.

If a batsman is dismissed, he has to leave the field immediately. The next batsman in the batting order has to come to the crease and start batting. If the batsman fails to reach the crease after being dismissed, the bowling team will be awarded 5 runs as penalty.

The batting team has to score as many runs as possible in the allotted 20 overs. The team with the highest score at the end of the match wins.

Option A is not correct because the time limit for each innings is 20 overs, not 75 minutes.

The correct answer is A) Anandalok.

Anandalok is a Bengali monthly film magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1971 by Anjan Ghosh and is one of the most popular Bengali film magazines. The magazine covers a wide range of topics related to Bengali cinema, including interviews with actors, directors, and producers; reviews of new films; and articles on the history of Bengali cinema.

Sananda is a Bengali weekly news magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1982 by Subroto Roy and is one of the most popular Bengali news magazines. The magazine covers a wide range of topics related to Bengali politics, society, and culture.

Unish Kuri is a Bengali monthly children's magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1978 by Sunil Gangopadhyay and is one of the most popular Bengali children's magazines. The magazine covers a wide range of topics related to children's literature, including stories, poems, and articles on science and nature.

Saptahik Bartaman is a Bengali weekly newspaper published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1985 by Prabhat Khabar and is one of the most popular Bengali newspapers. The newspaper covers a wide range of topics related to Bengali politics, society, and culture.

The correct answer is: A. International Year of Astronomy

The United Nations declared 2009 as the International Year of Astronomy (IYA2009) to celebrate the 400th anniversary of the first use of a telescope by Galileo Galilei. The IYA2009 was a worldwide initiative that aimed to promote astronomy and its importance to society. It was a year-long celebration of astronomy that included events and activities for people of all ages and backgrounds.

The IYA2009 was a success, with over 100 million people participating in events and activities around the world. It helped to raise awareness of astronomy and its importance to society, and it inspired a new generation of astronomers.

The IYA2009 was also a significant event in the history of astronomy. It was the first time that the United Nations had declared a year dedicated to astronomy, and it helped to promote astronomy as a global science.

The IYA2009 was a major success, and it helped to inspire a new generation of astronomers. It also helped to promote astronomy as a global science.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option B: The United Nations did not declare 2009 as the International Year of Natural Fibres.
• Option C: The United Nations did not declare 2009 as the International Year of Reconciliation.

The innermost region of a flame has the highest temperature. This is because the fuel and oxygen are mixed together in this region and the chemical reaction that produces the flame is most intense. The temperature of the flame decreases as you move away from the center, due to the loss of heat to the surrounding air.

Option A is the correct answer.

Option B is incorrect because the innermost region of the flame has the highest temperature.

Option C is incorrect because the innermost region of the flame has the highest temperature, not the medium temperature.

Option D is incorrect because the temperature of the flame decreases as you move away from the center, not increases.

The correct answer is (a) Trees and shrubs rooted in earth.

Immovable property is a type of property that cannot be moved from one place to another. It includes land, buildings, and other structures that are permanently attached to the land. Trees and shrubs are rooted in the earth and cannot be moved without damaging them, so they are considered to be immovable property.

Growing crops are not considered to be immovable property because they can be harvested and moved to another location. Grass is also not considered to be immovable property because it is a living thing that can be transplanted. Standing timber is considered to be immovable property because it is a part of the land.

Here is a table that summarizes the information above:

| Option | Description |
|---|---|
| (a) Trees and shrubs rooted in earth | Trees and shrubs are rooted in the earth and cannot be moved without damaging them, so they are considered to be immovable property. |
| (b) Growing crops | Growing crops can be harvested and moved to another location, so they are not considered to be immovable property. |
| (c) Grass | Grass is a living thing that can be transplanted, so it is not considered to be immovable property. |
| (d) Standing timber | Standing timber is a part of the land, so it is considered to be immovable property. |

A vector field is irrotational if its curl is zero. The curl of a vector field is defined as follows:

$$nabla times overrightarrow {rm{F}} = left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{x}}}} frac{partial {rm{F}}z}{{partial {rm{y}}}} - frac{partial {rm{F}}_y}{{partial {rm{x}}}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{z}}} + left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{y}}}} frac{partial {rm{F}}x}{{partial {rm{z}}}} - frac{partial {rm{F}}_z}{{partial {rm{y}}}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{x}}} + left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{z}}}} frac{partial {rm{F}}y}{{partial {rm{x}}}} - frac{partial {rm{F}}_x}{{partial {rm{z}}}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{y}}}$$

Substituting the given vector field into the curl operator, we get:

$$nabla times overrightarrow {rm{F}} = left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{x}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{y}}}} left( -{{rm{k}}1}{rm{z}} right) - frac{partial }{{partial {rm{y}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{x}}}} left( {{rm{k}}_2}{rm{x}} - 2{rm{z}} right) right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{z}}} + left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{y}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{z}}}} left( {{rm{k}}3}{rm{y}} + {rm{z}} right) - frac{partial }{{partial {rm{z}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{y}}}} left( 3{rm{y}} - {{rm{k}}_1}{rm{z}} right) right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{x}}} + left( {frac{partial }{{partial {rm{z}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{x}}}} left( -2{rm{z}} right) - frac{partial }{{partial {rm{x}}}} frac{partial }{{partial {rm{z}}}} left( {{rm{k}}3}{rm{y}} + {rm{z}} right) right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{y}}}$$

Simplifying, we get:

$$nabla times overrightarrow {rm{F}} = left( { -{{rm{k}}2} + 3{{rm{k}}_3}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{x}}} + left( { -{{rm{k}}3}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{y}}} + left( { -{{rm{k}}1}} right){{rm{hat a}}{rm{z}}}$$

For the vector field to be irrotational, the curl must be zero. Therefore, we must have:

$${ -{{rm{k}}_2} + 3{{rm{k}}_3}} = 0$$
$${ -{{rm{k}}_3}} = 0$$
$${ -{{rm{k}}_1}} = 0$$

Solving for ${rm{k}}_1$, ${rm{k}}_2$, and ${rm{k}}_3$, we get:

$${rm{k}}_1 = 0.3$$
$${rm{k}}_2 = 3.0$$
$${rm{k}}_3 = 0.5$$

Therefore, the correct answer is $boxed{{rm{k}}_1 = 0.3, {rm{k}}_2 = 3.0, {rm{k}}_3 = 0.5}}$.

The correct answer is (c).

Section 82 of the T.P. Act provides that when there is a conflict between marshalling and contribution, marshalling shall prevail. This means that if a creditor has a right to both marshalling and contribution, they must first exercise their right to marshalling before they can exercise their right to contribution.

Marshalling is the process of applying the proceeds of a sale of property to the debts secured by that property in the order of priority in which those debts are ranked. Contribution is the process of one creditor seeking to recover from another creditor a share of the amount that the first creditor has paid to a common debtor.

The reason why marshalling is given priority over contribution is that it is fairer to the debtor. If a creditor is allowed to first seek contribution from another creditor, the debtor may end up having to pay twice for the same debt. This is because the first creditor will have already been paid by the debtor, and the second creditor will then be able to recover their share of the debt from the debtor.

However, there are some exceptions to the rule that marshalling takes priority over contribution. For example, if a creditor has a security interest in property that is not subject to marshalling, they will be able to seek contribution from another creditor even if the debtor has already paid the first creditor.

In conclusion, Section 82 of the T.P. Act provides that when there is a conflict between marshalling and contribution, marshalling shall prevail. This means that if a creditor has a right to both marshalling and contribution, they must first exercise their right to marshalling before they can exercise their right to contribution. The reason why marshalling is given priority over contribution is that it is fairer to the debtor. However, there are some exceptions to this rule.

The correct answer is ardent.

• Ardent means having or showing a strong feeling of love, enthusiasm, or determination.
• Arduous means difficult or demanding.
• Animated means full of life and energy.
• Adroit means skillful or clever.

In this context, the word "ardent" is the best choice because it describes Dr. Johnson's love for literature as being passionate and intense. The other words do not convey the same level of intensity.

Tripti Mitra acted in plays like Agun, Nabanna, Chaar Adhyay, Rakta Karabi, Daakghar and Raja, Aparajita, etc. She acted in films like Dharti Ke Lal, Pathik, Jukti Takko Aar Gappo, etc.

Sankar Prasad Mitra is the longest serving Chief Justice of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d). Se La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It is located on the National Highway 52, which connects Guwahati in Assam to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. The pass is at an elevation of 4,170 meters (13,681 feet) and is one of the highest motorable roads in the world.

Chang La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is located on the Leh-Manali Highway, which connects Leh in Ladakh to Manali in Himachal Pradesh. The pass is at an elevation of 5,360 meters (17,590 feet) and is one of the highest motorable roads in the world.

Rohtang Pass is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. It is located on the Manali-Leh Highway, which connects Manali in Himachal Pradesh to Leh in Ladakh. The pass is at an elevation of 3,979 meters (13,091 feet) and is one of the most popular tourist destinations in Himachal Pradesh.

Bomdi La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It is located on the National Highway 31, which connects Tezpur in Assam to Bomdila in Arunachal Pradesh. The pass is at an elevation of 4,035 meters (13,202 feet) and is one of the highest motorable roads in the world.

The correct answer is: A. QPRS

The house is about half a mile distant. It stands in front of us. It was built of stones which were dug out of its own site.

The sentence can be broken down into the following clauses:

1. The house is about half a mile distant.
2. The house stands in front of us.
3. The house was built of stones.
4. The stones were dug out of its own site.

The correct sequence of the clauses is QPRS. This is because the first clause (The house is about half a mile distant) provides the most general information about the house. The second clause (The house stands in front of us) provides more specific information about the house's location. The third clause (The house was built of stones) provides more specific information about the house's construction. The fourth clause (The stones were dug out of its own site) provides the most specific information about the house's construction.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical order of the clauses. For example, option B (QRPS) puts the second clause (The house stands in front of us) before the first clause (The house is about half a mile distant). This is not logical because the first clause provides more general information about the house than the second clause. Option C (QRSP) puts the third clause (The house was built of stones) before the second clause (The house stands in front of us). This is also not logical because the second clause provides more specific information about the house's location than the third clause. Option D (QSPR) puts the fourth clause (The stones were dug out of its own site) before the second clause (The house stands in front of us). This is also not logical because the second clause provides more specific information about the house's location than the fourth clause.

The correct answer is (b). Only two pairs are correctly matched.

The correct pairs are:

• Hokera Wetland - Punjab
• Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura

The incorrect pairs are:

• Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh (Renuka Lake is located in Himachal Pradesh)
• Sasthamkotta - Tamil Nadu Lake (Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala)

The correct answer is: B. preferable to

The word "preferable" means "more desirable or suitable." In this sentence, the speaker is saying that they prefer to travel by air than by train. The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the speaker's preference.

• Option A, "much more preferable than," is too strong. The speaker is not saying that they prefer air travel much more than train travel; they are simply saying that they prefer it.
• Option C, "more preferable to," is the same as option B, but it is wordier.
• Option D, "No correction required," is incorrect because the sentence does not need to be corrected. The speaker is using the word "preferable" correctly.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. preferable to

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

The phase difference between two points is given by:

$$Delta phi = frac{2pi}{lambda} Delta x$$

where $lambda$ is the wavelength and $Delta x$ is the path difference.

The frequency is given by:

$$f = frac{v}{lambda}$$

where $v$ is the velocity.

Therefore, the path difference is given by:

$$Delta x = frac{lambda}{2pi} Delta phi = frac{v}{2pi f} Delta phi$$

In this case, we are given that $v = 360 text{ m/s}$, $f = 500 text{ Hz}$, and $Delta phi = 120^circ$. Therefore, the path difference is:

$$Delta x = frac{360 text{ m/s}}{2pi times 500 text{ Hz} times 120^circ} = 12 text{ cm}$$

The correct answer is C. Exhaust.

To deplete something means to use it up or reduce its quantity. It can also mean to weaken or tire something out.

The other options are not synonyms of deplete.

• Destroy means to ruin or damage something completely.
• Finish means to bring something to an end.
• Vanish means to disappear completely.

Here are some examples of how the word deplete can be used in a sentence:

• The company depleted its resources by overspending.
• The drought depleted the water supply.
• The long journey depleted the travelers' energy.

The correct answer is (a). Dragon Fly is a machine that extracts moisture from the air to produce drinking water. It is a type of dehumidifier that uses a process called condensation to collect water vapor from the air. The water is then filtered and purified to make it safe to drink.

(b) is incorrect because the machine does not extract usable hydrocarbons from automobile exhaust.

(c) is incorrect because the machine does not extract edible oil from oil cake waste.

(d) is incorrect because the machine does not extract fiber from wood waste for use in textile industry.

The correct answer is A. Preamble.

The Preamble is the introductory statement of the Constitution of India. It sets out the aims and objectives of the Constitution. The Preamble states that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. It also states that India is committed to justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

The Preamble is the most important part of the Constitution. It is the foundation of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble sets out the basic values of the Indian Constitution. These values are:

• Sovereignty: India is a sovereign country. This means that India is not subject to any foreign power.
• Socialism: India is a socialist country. This means that the government plays an important role in the economy.
• Secularism: India is a secular country. This means that the government does not favor any religion.
• Democracy: India is a democratic country. This means that the people of India have the right to choose their leaders.
• Justice: India is committed to justice. This means that the government must ensure that everyone is treated fairly.
• Liberty: India is committed to liberty. This means that the people of India have the right to freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, and freedom of religion.
• Equality: India is committed to equality. This means that all people are equal before the law.
• Fraternity: India is committed to fraternity. This means that all people should treat each other with love and respect.

The Preamble is the foundation of the Indian Constitution. It sets out the basic values of the Indian Constitution. These values are sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

The correct answer is A. 120/sq. km.

Nagaland is a state in northeastern India. It has a population of 1.98 million people and a land area of 16,579 square kilometers. This gives it a population density of 120 people per square kilometer.

The population density of a place is the number of people living in a given area. It is usually expressed as the number of people per square kilometer. The population density of a place can be used to measure its level of urbanization, as well as its economic and social development.

The population density of Nagaland is relatively low compared to other states in India. This is due to a number of factors, including the state's mountainous terrain, its remote location, and its traditional tribal culture.

The low population density of Nagaland has a number of implications for the state's development. It means that the state has a relatively small workforce, which can make it difficult to attract investment and develop its economy. It also means that the state has a relatively small tax base, which can make it difficult to provide basic services to its people.

Despite these challenges, Nagaland is a beautiful and culturally rich state with a lot to offer its people. The state's government is working to address the challenges of its low population density and to develop its economy. With continued effort, Nagaland has the potential to become a prosperous and developed state.

The correct answer is D. 20 to 20,000 Hz.

The human hearing range is the range of frequencies that humans can hear. The lower limit is about 20 Hz, and the upper limit is about 20,000 Hz. This means that humans can hear sounds with frequencies between 20 and 20,000 cycles per second.

The human hearing range varies from person to person. Some people can hear higher frequencies than others. The hearing range also decreases with age. As people get older, they tend to lose the ability to hear high-pitched sounds.

The human hearing range is important for communication. We use sound to communicate with each other, and we need to be able to hear a wide range of frequencies in order to understand what is being said.

The human hearing range is also important for music. Music is made up of sounds of different frequencies, and we need to be able to hear all of these frequencies in order to appreciate music.

The human hearing range is a fascinating and important part of our lives. It allows us to communicate with each other, enjoy music, and experience the world around us.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 50 to 50,000 Hz. This is not the correct answer because the human hearing range is actually much smaller than this. Humans can only hear sounds with frequencies between 20 and 20,000 Hz.
• Option B: 40 to 40,000 Hz. This is not the correct answer because the human hearing range is actually much smaller than this. Humans can only hear sounds with frequencies between 20 and 20,000 Hz.
• Option C: 30 to 30,000 Hz. This is not the correct answer because the human hearing range is actually much smaller than this. Humans can only hear sounds with frequencies between 20 and 20,000 Hz.
• Option D: 20 to 20,000 Hz. This is the correct answer because this is the range of frequencies that humans can hear.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Copper, lead, and zinc are all non-ferrous metals that are found in the Earth's crust. They are all important industrial metals that are used in a variety of products, including electrical wiring, plumbing, and construction.

However, none of these metals are found in significant quantities in West Bengal. In fact, West Bengal is not known for its mineral resources at all. The state's economy is based on agriculture, manufacturing, and services.

There are a few small deposits of copper, lead, and zinc in West Bengal, but they are not commercially viable. The state's geology is not conducive to the formation of large deposits of these metals.

As a result, West Bengal is not a major producer of copper, lead, or zinc. These metals are all imported from other countries.

The correct answer is A. Pascal's law.

Pascal's law states that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid. This means that the pressure at any point in a fluid is equal to the pressure at any other point, regardless of the depth or shape of the container.

The expression $P = PQ+pgh$ can be derived from Pascal's law. The term $PQ$ represents the pressure at the surface of the fluid, and the term $pgh$ represents the pressure due to the weight of the fluid above the point in question.

Newton's law of motion states that a force is equal to the mass of an object times its acceleration. This law does not apply to fluids, as fluids do not have a definite shape.

Bernoulli's principle states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in static pressure or a decrease in potential energy. This principle does not apply to the pressure of a fluid at a given depth, as the speed of the fluid does not change with depth.

Archimedes' principle states that the buoyant force on an object in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This principle does not apply to the pressure of a fluid at a given depth, as the buoyant force does not change with depth.

The AYUSHMATI scheme run by the West Bengal Government, caters to provide maternity services to evry needy woman.

Madhabi Mukherjee was the heroine of the film 'Subarnarekha' which was directed by Ritwik Ghatak.

The minimum velocity required for a rocket to overcome earth's gravity and travel into space is 11.2 km/sec. This is called the escape velocity. It is the speed at which an object must travel in order to escape the gravitational pull of a planet or other celestial body.

The escape velocity is calculated by the formula:

$v_e = sqrt{frac{2GM}{r}}$

where:

• $v_e$ is the escape velocity
• $G$ is the gravitational constant
• $M$ is the mass of the planet or other celestial body
• $r$ is the distance from the object to the center of the planet or other celestial body

For Earth, the escape velocity is 11.2 km/sec. This means that if a rocket were to travel at this speed, it would escape Earth's gravity and travel into space.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the escape velocity of Earth. Option A is the escape velocity of Mars, option B is the escape velocity of the Moon, and option C is the escape velocity of Jupiter.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

A budget line is a line in a graph that shows all the combinations of goods and services that a consumer can afford given their income and the prices of the goods and services. It is also known as a consumption possibility curve or a price-consumption curve.

A demand line is a line in a graph that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded of that good. It is also known as a demand curve.

A price line is a line in a graph that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity supplied of that good. It is also known as a supply curve.

A supply line is a line in a graph that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity supplied of that good. It is also known as a supply curve.

In conclusion, a budget line is not the same as a demand line, a price line, or a supply line.

The correct answer is (c).

Exchange is a contract whereby the parties agree to transfer the ownership of certain properties to each other. The properties that are being exchanged must be of equal value.

Partition is the division of a property among co-owners.

Gift is a transfer of property without consideration.

Sale is a transfer of property for a consideration.

In exchange, the parties agree to transfer the ownership of certain properties to each other. The properties that are being exchanged must be of equal value. This is different from partition, where the property is divided among co-owners. In gift, the transfer of property is without consideration, while in sale, the transfer of property is for a consideration.

The correct answer is A. Doctors.

A college is an institution of higher learning where students can earn a degree. Teachers are the people who teach students at a college. A hospital is a place where people go to get medical care. Doctors are the people who provide medical care at a hospital.

The other options are not correct because:

• Patients are the people who receive medical care at a hospital.
• Medicine is the treatment that doctors use to cure or prevent diseases.
• Beds are the places where patients sleep at a hospital.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D. Limited.

A. Changeable is not the antonym of capacious. Capacious means large or spacious, while changeable means able or likely to change.

B. Foolish is not the antonym of capacious. Capacious means large or spacious, while foolish means lacking good sense or judgment.

C. Caring is not the antonym of capacious. Capacious means large or spacious, while caring means having or showing concern for the welfare of others.

D. Limited is the antonym of capacious. Capacious means large or spacious, while limited means restricted in amount, range, or scope.

In conclusion, the antonym of capacious is limited.

The correct answer is D. The West Bengal government borrows funds from the Reserve Bank of India, the market, and other financial institutions.

The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India. It is responsible for issuing currency, managing the country's foreign exchange reserves, and regulating the banking system. The Reserve Bank of India also provides loans to the government, both on a short-term and long-term basis.

The market refers to the financial markets, where governments can borrow money by issuing bonds or treasury bills. The interest rate that the government pays on these loans is determined by the market conditions.

Other financial institutions, such as commercial banks and development banks, can also provide loans to the government. These loans are typically used to finance specific projects, such as infrastructure development or social welfare programs.

The West Bengal government borrows funds from a variety of sources in order to finance its operations. The choice of source depends on a number of factors, such as the interest rate, the maturity of the loan, and the purpose of the loan.

The correct answer is: E. No Error

The sentence "Many a person have lost their life and all property in the riots" is grammatically correct. The word "many a" is a colloquialism that is used to refer to a large number of people. The verb "have lost" is in the plural form because it agrees with the subject "many a person." The phrase "their life" is a possessive pronoun that refers to the person who has lost their life. The phrase "and all property" is a prepositional phrase that modifies the verb "have lost." The sentence is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: "Many a person" is a colloquialism that is used to refer to a large number of people. It is not grammatically incorrect, but it is not considered formal English.
• Option B: "have lost" is the correct verb form to use with the subject "many a person." The verb "have lost" is in the plural form because it agrees with the subject.
• Option C: "their life" is a possessive pronoun that refers to the person who has lost their life. The possessive pronoun "their" is used because the person who has lost their life is unknown.
• Option D: "and all property" is a prepositional phrase that modifies the verb "have lost." The prepositional phrase "and all property" tells us what the person has lost.
• Option E: "No Error" is the correct answer because the sentence is grammatically correct.

The correct answer is: B. limestone and dolomite

Limestone and dolomite are the major minerals found in Uttar Pradesh. Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of calcium carbonate. It is used in the construction industry, as a flux in steelmaking, and in the manufacture of cement. Dolomite is a sedimentary rock composed of calcium magnesium carbonate. It is used in the construction industry, as a flux in steelmaking, and in the manufacture of cement.

Copper and graphite are also found in Uttar Pradesh, but they are not as abundant as limestone and dolomite. Copper is a metal that is used in electrical wiring, plumbing, and construction. Graphite is a form of carbon that is used in pencils, lubricants, and batteries.

Rock phosphate is a mineral that is used in fertilizer. It is not found in large quantities in Uttar Pradesh.

Therefore, the correct answer is: B. limestone and dolomite

The correct answer is A. Muscle cells.

Muscle cells are the only cells in the human body that can contract and relax. This is because they contain special proteins called actin and myosin, which slide past each other when the cell is stimulated by a nerve impulse. This sliding motion causes the cell to shorten, which is what we call contraction. When the nerve impulse stops, the actin and myosin proteins slide back into place, and the cell relaxes.

Excretory cells are responsible for removing waste products from the body. They do this by filtering the blood and producing urine. Nervous cells are responsible for sending and receiving messages from the brain and spinal cord. Respiratory cells are responsible for exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs.

All of these cells are important for the body to function properly, but only muscle cells can contract and relax.

The correct answer is (a) Anamika.

Anamika is an Indian poet, writer, and translator. She is best known for her poetry, which is often described as experimental and feminist. She has won numerous awards for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi Poetry in 2020.

Ramesh Kuntal Megh is an Indian poet, writer, and critic. He is best known for his poetry, which is often described as lyrical and philosophical. He has won numerous awards for his work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi Poetry in 2014.

Chitra Mudgal is an Indian poet, writer, and journalist. She is best known for her poetry, which is often described as political and social. She has won numerous awards for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi Poetry in 2006.

Nand Kishore Acharya is an Indian poet, writer, and critic. He is best known for his poetry, which is often described as romantic and lyrical. He has won numerous awards for his work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi Poetry in 1999.

Nor-westers or Kal Baisakhi occurs in West Bengal in the hot summer monts. It occurs due to cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal. These thunderstorms and stormy winda are good for paddy and jute.

The correct answer is C. Temperature remains constant.

Boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure surrounding the liquid and the liquid changes into a vapor. At the boiling point, the liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor phase. The temperature of a boiling liquid does not change until all of the liquid has been converted into vapor.

A. Temperature increases is incorrect because the temperature remains constant at the boiling point.

B. Atmospheric pressure increases is incorrect because the atmospheric pressure does not affect the boiling point of a liquid. The boiling point of a liquid is only affected by the vapor pressure of the liquid.

D. Vapour pressure decreases is incorrect because the vapor pressure of a liquid increases at the boiling point.

The correct answer is: B. Hygrometer.

A hygrometer is a device used to measure the amount of water vapor in the air. There are many different types of hygrometers, but they all work by measuring the amount of water vapor in the air and converting it into a reading.

A hydrometer is a device used to measure the density of liquids. It does not measure humidity.

A psychometer is a device used to measure the wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures of the air. The wet-bulb temperature is the temperature of the air when it is saturated with water vapor. The dry-bulb temperature is the temperature of the air when it is not saturated with water vapor. The difference between the wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures can be used to calculate the relative humidity of the air.

An anemometer is a device used to measure wind speed. It does not measure humidity.

The answer is 2048.

The sequence is a list of powers of 2, starting with 2^0 = 1, 2^1 = 2, 2^2 = 4, 2^3 = 8, 2^4 = 16, 2^5 = 32, 2^6 = 64, 2^7 = 128, 2^8 = 256, 2^9 = 512, 2^10 = 1024, 2^11 = 2048.

Option A, 2042, is not a power of 2.

Option B, 2046, is not a power of 2.

Option C, 2048, is a power of 2.

Option D, 2056, is not a power of 2.

The correct answer is (b).

The total age of the family three years ago was $6 times 19 = 114$ years. The total age of the family now is $114 + 3 times 6 = 126$ years. The total age of the family including the baby is $126 + 1 = 127$ years. The baby is 1 year old.

Option (a) is incorrect because 11/2 is not an integer.

Option (c) is incorrect because 2 is not an integer.

Option (d) is incorrect because the baby is 1 year old.

The correct answer is: B. composure.

Equanimity is the state of being calm and level-headed, even in difficult or challenging situations. The lady in the question is able to maintain her composure even after losing her jewels, which shows that she is a person of great strength and resilience.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the lady's state of mind. Temper refers to a person's mood or disposition, and it is often used to describe someone who is easily angered. Affability refers to a person's friendly and pleasant nature. Humour refers to a person's sense of fun or the ability to make others laugh.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Even the loss of her jewels did not disturb the lady's equanimity" is B. composure.

The correct answer is: C. It takes equal time for revolution around the earth and rotation on its own axis.

The Moon is tidally locked to the Earth, which means that the same side of the Moon always faces the Earth. This is because the Moon's gravity has caused it to slow down over time, until it is now rotating at the same rate that it is orbiting the Earth. This means that we always see the same face of the Moon, and the other side of the Moon is never visible from Earth.

Option A is incorrect because the Moon's size is not related to its tidal locking.

Option B is incorrect because the Moon's rotation is not in the opposite direction of the Earth's rotation.

Option D is incorrect because the Moon does not rotate at the same speed as the Earth around the Sun. The Moon takes about 27.3 days to orbit the Earth, while the Earth takes about 365.25 days to orbit the Sun.

The correct answer is A. refined.

Boorish means lacking good manners or social graces. It is the opposite of refined. A refined person is well-mannered and has good taste. They are also usually intelligent and cultured.

A funny person is someone who makes people laugh. They may be good at telling jokes or making witty remarks.

An eccentric person is someone who is unusual or unconventional in their behavior or appearance. They may have unusual interests or hobbies.

A friendly person is someone who is kind and approachable. They are usually good at making friends and are always willing to help others.

In the sentence "His boorish ways amused everyone," the word "amused" means "to cause someone to feel pleasure or enjoyment." In this case, the speaker is saying that everyone found the man's lack of good manners and social graces to be funny. This suggests that the man was not refined, but rather boorish.

The answer is D. VZBX.

In each of the other options, the letters are all in alphabetical order. In D, the letter "Z" comes after "X".

The correct answer is A. Habeas corpus.

Habeas corpus is a writ that orders a person to be brought before a court or judge to determine whether they are being held lawfully. It is a powerful tool that can be used to protect individual liberty.

Mandamus is a writ that orders a government official to take a certain action. It is used to ensure that government officials comply with the law.

Prohibition is a writ that orders a lower court to stop hearing a case. It is used to prevent lower courts from overstepping their authority.

Certiorari is a writ that orders a lower court to send its records to a higher court for review. It is used to allow a higher court to decide whether a lower court's decision was correct.

Habeas corpus is the only writ that can be issued only against a government official. This is because habeas corpus is used to protect individual liberty, and only government officials have the power to deprive individuals of their liberty.

The correct answer is (c), Godavari. The Godavari is the longest river in India, flowing eastwards from the Western Ghats to the Bay of Bengal. It is also one of the most important rivers in the country, both culturally and economically. The Godavari is known as the Ganga of the South because of its religious significance and its role in the lives of millions of people.

The Cauvery is the second longest river in India, flowing southwards from the Western Ghats to the Bay of Bengal. It is also an important river, both culturally and economically. However, it is not as sacred as the Godavari and is not known as the Ganga of the South.

The Krishna is the third longest river in India, flowing eastwards from the Western Ghats to the Bay of Bengal. It is also an important river, both culturally and economically. However, it is not as sacred as the Godavari and is not known as the Ganga of the South.

The Narmada is a river in central India, flowing westwards from the Vindhya Mountains to the Arabian Sea. It is an important river, both culturally and economically. However, it is not as sacred as the Godavari and is not known as the Ganga of the South.

The correct answer is (c), Alaknanda Nadi (Satopanth to Devprayag).

The Alaknanda is a river in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is one of the two main tributaries of the Ganges, the other being the Yamuna. The Alaknanda originates in the Garhwal Himalayas, at the confluence of the Dhauliganga and the Nandakini rivers. It flows for about 200 kilometers (120 mi) before joining the Bhagirathi River at Devprayag to form the Ganges.

The Alaknanda is a perennial river, meaning that it flows year-round. It is a major source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power in Uttarakhand. The river is also a popular destination for tourism, with many people visiting the Alaknanda Valley to go white-water rafting, trekking, and camping.

The other options are incorrect because they are not perennial rivers. The Kali Nadi is a seasonal river that flows only during the monsoon season. The Bhagirathi Nadi is a tributary of the Alaknanda River, and the Ram Ganga Nadi West is a tributary of the Yamuna River.

The Alaknanda is a beautiful and important river that plays a vital role in the lives of the people of Uttarakhand. It is a source of water, food, and livelihood for millions of people. The river is also a major tourist destination, and its beauty and natural splendor attract visitors from all over the world.

The correct answer is: A. upward to the right from the origin.

A luxury good is a good for which demand increases as income increases. This is because as people become wealthier, they are able to afford more luxury goods. The income-demand curve for a luxury good will therefore slope upward to the right from the origin.

Option B is incorrect because a vertical income-demand curve would indicate that demand for the good is not affected by income. This is not the case for a luxury good, as demand for a luxury good will increase as income increases.

Option C is incorrect because an upward-sloping income-demand curve that only starts beyond a certain level of income would indicate that demand for the good is not affected by income until a certain level of income is reached. This is not the case for a luxury good, as demand for a luxury good will increase as income increases, regardless of the level of income.

Option D is incorrect because a horizontal income-demand curve would indicate that demand for the good is perfectly inelastic with respect to income. This is not the case for a luxury good, as demand for a luxury good will increase as income increases.

Clayey Saline Soil is found in Sunderbans and the coastal areas of West Bengal.

The correct answer is C. Kolkata.

Kolkata is the capital of West Bengal, India. It is the seventh most populous city in India and the third most populous metropolitan area in India. Kolkata is located on the eastern bank of the Hooghly River, which is a distributary of the Ganges River. The city is known for its colonial architecture, its intellectual and cultural heritage, and its food.

Durgapur is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the headquarters of Durgapur district and the Durgapur Urban Agglomeration. Durgapur is a major industrial city and is known for its steel mills.

Asansol is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the headquarters of Asansol district and the Asansol Urban Agglomeration. Asansol is a major industrial city and is known for its coal mines.

Siliguri is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the headquarters of Siliguri district and the Siliguri Metropolitan Area. Siliguri is a major commercial and transportation hub and is known as the "Gateway to North East India".

The correct answer is C. C - 60.

C60 is a fullerene, a type of allotrope of carbon with a cage-like structure. It is the most stable fullerene and is also known as buckminsterfullerene or buckyball. The structure of C60 is similar to that of a soccer ball, with 60 carbon atoms arranged in 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to any known allotropes of carbon.

The correct answer is: A. Change in Fundamental Rights.

A special majority is required to amend the Constitution of India. This means that a bill to amend the Constitution must be passed by a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament, and ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the states.

The Fundamental Rights are the basic rights and freedoms that are guaranteed to all citizens of India by the Constitution. They are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, and include the right to equality, the right to freedom, the right against exploitation, the right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and the right to constitutional remedies.

The Fundamental Rights are the most important part of the Constitution, and they are designed to protect the basic rights and freedoms of all citizens. They are also the most difficult to amend, as they require a special majority in Parliament.

The other options do not require a special majority in Parliament.

• Option B: Creation of New States can be done by a simple majority in Parliament.
• Option C: Abolition of Legislative Councils in State can be done by a simple majority in Parliament.
• Option D: Rules and Procedures in Parliament can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**

Khadya Sathi is a food security scheme that provides subsidized food grains to ration card holders, mid-day meals to school children, and nutritious food to pregnant and lactating women.

The scheme was launched in 2013 by the Government of India to provide food security to the poor and vulnerable sections of the population. It is one of the largest food security schemes in the world.

The scheme provides subsidized food grains to ration card holders at a price of Rs. 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3 per kg for rice. It also provides mid-day meals to school children in government and government-aided schools. The meals are cooked in schools and are provided to children free of cost.

The scheme also provides nutritious food to pregnant and lactating women. The food is provided through Anganwadi centers, which are located in rural and urban areas.

The scheme has been successful in providing food security to the poor and vulnerable sections of the population. It has also helped to improve the nutritional status of children and pregnant and lactating women.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Subsidized food grains to ration card holders. The scheme provides subsidized food grains to ration card holders at a price of Rs. 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3 per kg for rice.
* Option B: Mid-day meals to school children. The scheme provides mid-day meals to school children in government and government-aided schools. The meals are cooked in schools and are provided to children free of cost.
* Option C: Nutritious food to pregnant and lactating women. The scheme provides nutritious food to pregnant and lactating women through Anganwadi centers, which are located in rural and urban areas.

The correct answer is (a) Plassey.

The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757, near the village of Plassey, 150 km north of Calcutta, on the banks of the Hooghly River in Bengal, India. The battle was fought between the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj ud-Daulah, and the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive. The British won the battle, which marked the beginning of British rule in India.

Siraj ud-Daulah was the Nawab of Bengal from 1756 to 1757. He was a young and ambitious ruler who was not satisfied with the British East India Company's growing influence in Bengal. In 1756, he ordered the British to leave Calcutta, but they refused. This led to the Battle of Plassey.

Robert Clive was a British soldier and statesman who was instrumental in the British East India Company's rise to power in India. He was born in 1725 in Market Rasen, Lincolnshire, England. He joined the British East India Company in 1743 and served in India for many years. He was a brilliant military strategist and tactician, and he was also a skilled diplomat. He was killed in 1774 in England.

The Battle of Plassey was a turning point in the history of India. It marked the beginning of British rule in India, which lasted for nearly 200 years. The battle also showed the world the power of the British East India Company, which became one of the most powerful companies in the world.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the names of battles that Siraj ud-Daulah fought against the British East India Company.

The correct answer is A. Transition metals.

Transition metals are elements in the d-block of the periodic table. They are characterized by having partially filled d-orbitals. Iron (Fe), cobalt (Co), and nickel (Ni) are all transition metals.

Main group metals are elements in the s-block and p-block of the periodic table. They are characterized by having a full valence shell of electrons. Examples of main group metals include sodium (Na), potassium (K), and magnesium (Mg).

Alkali metals are elements in the first column of the periodic table. They are characterized by having one valence electron and a very low ionization energy. Examples of alkali metals include lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K).

Rare metals are elements that are relatively scarce in the Earth's crust. Examples of rare metals include platinum (Pt), rhodium (Rh), and palladium (Pd).

In conclusion, the group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best called as transition metals.

The correct answer is (c), radiator. A radiator is a heat exchanger that transfers heat from a fluid to a surrounding medium, such as air. In a car, the radiator is used to cool the engine coolant, which is a mixture of water and antifreeze. The coolant is circulated through the engine by the water pump, and then it passes through the radiator, where it is cooled by the air that is flowing through the radiator fins. The cooled coolant then returns to the engine, where it absorbs heat from the engine and carries it back to the radiator to be cooled again.

A polygraph is a device that measures and records various physiological changes such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin conductivity during an interview. It is often used in law enforcement to detect deception.

A turbine is a machine that converts kinetic energy into mechanical work. It is often used in power plants to generate electricity.

A quadrant is a quarter of a circle. It is often used in geometry to measure angles.

The correct answer is (a) Share market.

Inside trading is the buying or selling of a security based on non-public information about the security. This information could be about the company's financial performance, upcoming mergers or acquisitions, or other material events. Insider trading is illegal in most countries, as it gives those who have access to non-public information an unfair advantage over other investors.

Horse racing is a sport in which horses race against each other over a set course. Betting on horse races is a popular activity, and there is a lot of money that can be won or lost. However, there is no evidence that insider trading occurs in horse racing.

Taxation is the process of collecting money from individuals and businesses to fund the government. There are many different types of taxes, including income tax, property tax, and sales tax. Insider trading is not related to taxation.

International trade is the exchange of goods and services between countries. It is a major driver of economic growth, and it helps to promote efficiency and innovation. Insider trading is not related to international trade.

The correct answer is A. 1947.

The first industrial policy proposal was made in 1947 by the Economic Planning Council. The proposal called for the government to play a more active role in the economy, and to promote the development of heavy industry. The proposal was not implemented, but it laid the foundation for future industrial policies.

Option B is incorrect because the first industrial policy proposal was made in 1947, not 1948.

Option C is incorrect because the first industrial policy proposal was made in 1947, not 1949.

Option D is incorrect because the first industrial policy proposal was made in 1947, not 1950.

The correct answer is D. Vikram Pandit - IDBI.

O. P. Bhatt was the chairman of the State Bank of India (SBI) from 2006 to 2011. K. V. Kamath was the chairman of the ICICI Bank from 1996 to 2009. Aditya Puri was the managing director and chief executive officer of the HDFC Bank from 1994 to 2020. Vikram Pandit was the chief executive officer of Citigroup from 2007 to 2012. He was never the chairman or CEO of IDBI.

The IDBI Bank was founded in 1964 as the Industrial Development Bank of India. It is a state-owned development financial institution in India. The bank provides financial assistance to industrial projects in India. It also provides financial assistance to small and medium enterprises.

The correct answer is: B. 11

The European Court of Human Rights (ECHR) is a human rights court established by the Council of Europe. It is composed of 47 judges, one from each member state of the Council of Europe. The judges are elected by the Parliamentary Assembly of the Council of Europe for a term of nine years.

The ECHR has jurisdiction to hear cases concerning the interpretation and application of the European Convention on Human Rights. The Convention is a human rights treaty that guarantees a wide range of rights, including the right to life, the right to liberty and security of person, the right to freedom from torture and inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment, the right to freedom of expression, and the right to a fair trial.

The ECHR is an important institution in the protection of human rights in Europe. It has played a significant role in developing the interpretation of the European Convention on Human Rights and in ensuring that the rights guaranteed by the Convention are respected by the member states of the Council of Europe.

The following are the possible answers to the question:

• A. 5: This is incorrect because there are 11 judges in the European Court of Human Rights.
• B. 11: This is the correct answer because there are 11 judges in the European Court of Human Rights.
• C. 47: This is incorrect because there are 47 member states of the Council of Europe, but only 11 judges in the European Court of Human Rights.
• D. 15: This is incorrect because there are 11 judges in the European Court of Human Rights.

The correct answer is A. Ethine.

Ethyne, also known as acetylene, is a colorless, flammable gas with the chemical formula C2H2. It is the simplest alkyne and the simplest hydrocarbon with a triple bond. Ethyne is used as a fuel, a chemical intermediate, and a lighting gas.

Propane, butane, and methyl are all hydrocarbons that are not used as illuminated gases. Propane is a colorless, odorless gas that is used as a fuel for heating, cooking, and powering engines. Butane is a colorless, flammable gas that is used as a fuel in lighters and camping stoves. Methyl is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and a fuel.

Ethyne is used as an illuminated gas because it is a very flammable gas that burns with a bright flame. It is also a relatively inexpensive gas. Ethyne is used in a variety of applications, including:

• Lighting: Ethyne is used in gas lamps and lanterns.
• Welding: Ethyne is used in oxyacetylene welding.
• Cutting: Ethyne is used in oxyacetylene cutting.
• Heating: Ethyne is used in blowtorches and other heating devices.
• Chemical synthesis: Ethyne is used in the production of a variety of chemicals, including acetaldehyde, acetic acid, and vinyl chloride.

The correct answer is: A. Incomplete metabolism of bilirubin.

Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is normally removed from the body by the liver and excreted in the bile. However, if the liver is not able to remove bilirubin effectively, it can build up in the blood and cause jaundice.

Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes. It is most commonly caused by liver disease, but it can also be caused by other conditions, such as blood disorders, infections, and certain medications.

If you are experiencing jaundice, it is important to see a doctor to determine the cause and get treatment.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Incomplete metabolism of bilirubin: This is the most common cause of jaundice. When red blood cells break down, bilirubin is produced. Bilirubin is a waste product that needs to be removed from the body. The liver is responsible for removing bilirubin from the blood. If the liver is not able to remove bilirubin effectively, it can build up in the blood and cause jaundice.
• B. Complete metabolism of biliverdin: Biliverdin is a green pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is converted to bilirubin by the liver. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is normally removed from the body by the liver and excreted in the bile.
• C. Incomplete metabolism of biliverdin: This is a rare cause of jaundice. It can occur when there is a problem with the enzyme that converts biliverdin to bilirubin.
• D. Complete metabolism of bilirubin: This is not a cause of jaundice.

Ballabhpur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Birbhum district of West Bengal. It is located between Ajay and Damodar rivers.

The correct answer is: B. him

The pronoun "him" is used to refer to a male person. In the sentence "No, I have never met him," the speaker is saying that they have never met a male person.

The pronoun "it" is used to refer to inanimate objects. In the sentence "No, I have never met it," the speaker could be saying that they have never met a robot, a computer, or a car.

The pronoun "them" is used to refer to two or more people or things. In the sentence "No, I have never met them," the speaker could be saying that they have never met two or more people, or that they have never met a group of people.

The pronoun "her" is used to refer to a female person. In the sentence "No, I have never met her," the speaker is saying that they have never met a female person.

In this case, the speaker is most likely saying that they have never met a male person.

The odd one out is C, REB. The other options are all acronyms for common English words or phrases. AOT stands for "at the outset," CPA stands for "certified public accountant," TIW stands for "to each his own," and QUD stands for "question under discussion." REB, on the other hand, is not an acronym for any common English word or phrase. It is possible that it is an acronym for a technical term in a particular field, but without more information, it is impossible to say for sure.

The correct answer is D. Velocity.

Velocity is the rate of change of position with respect to time. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The magnitude of velocity is speed.

Uniform motion is motion in which the velocity is constant. This means that the object is moving at a constant speed in a straight line.

If the velocity of an object is constant, then its acceleration is zero. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. If the velocity is constant, then there is no change in velocity, and therefore no acceleration.

Force is a push or pull that causes an object to accelerate. If the velocity of an object is constant, then there is no acceleration, and therefore no force is required to keep the object moving.

Therefore, the answer to the question "During uniform motion of an object along a straight line, its __ remains constant with time" is D. Velocity.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Bengal was a diverse region in the Gupta period, with a variety of religious beliefs and practices. Buddhism, Jainism, and Hinduism were all major religions in the region, and each had a significant impact on the culture and society of Bengal.

Buddhism was the dominant religion in Bengal during the early Gupta period. The region was home to many important Buddhist monasteries and temples, and Buddhist scholars and teachers played a leading role in the development of Buddhist thought. However, the popularity of Buddhism began to decline in the late Gupta period, and by the end of the period, Hinduism had become the dominant religion in Bengal.

Jainism was also a major religion in Bengal during the Gupta period. The region was home to many important Jain monasteries and temples, and Jain scholars and teachers played a leading role in the development of Jain thought. However, the popularity of Jainism also began to decline in the late Gupta period, and by the end of the period, it was a minority religion in Bengal.

Hinduism was the dominant religion in Bengal by the end of the Gupta period. The region was home to many important Hindu temples and shrines, and Hindu scholars and teachers played a leading role in the development of Hindu thought. Hinduism continued to be the dominant religion in Bengal for centuries to come.

It is important to note that the religious landscape of Bengal was not static during the Gupta period. The popularity of different religions waxed and waned over time, and there was a great deal of religious syncretism, with people from different religious backgrounds often borrowing and adapting ideas from each other.

West Bengal Fisheries Policy 2014, aims to set up fishermen's cooperative societies and Self-Help groups. Under this policy, the state government leases out available land and water resources on soft terms. It also provides consultancy services from ICAR for inland fisheries and CMFRI for marine/salt water fisheries.

The correct answer is D. Rich in humus.

The Terai region of West Bengal is a vast plain that lies at the foot of the Himalayas. It is a region of tropical monsoon climate, with hot, humid summers and cool, dry winters. The soil in the Terai is rich in humus, which is a dark, organic material that is formed from the decomposition of plant and animal matter. Humus is important because it helps to improve the fertility of the soil and it also helps to retain moisture.

The other options are incorrect. Sandy soils are not very fertile and they do not retain moisture well. Highly acidic soils can be toxic to plants. Marshy and waterlogged soils are not suitable for agriculture.

The correct answer is A) Mystic and spiritual songs.

Baul singers are a type of folk singer from Bengal, India. They are known for their mystic and spiritual songs, which often deal with themes of love, loss, and the search for truth. Baul songs are often accompanied by instruments such as the dotara, a two-stringed lute, and the khamak, a small drum.

Classical music is a genre of music that has been developed over centuries and is characterized by its complex melodies and harmonies. Film songs are songs that are written and performed for use in films. Patriotic songs are songs that express love and devotion to one's country.

While Baul singers may perform classical music, film songs, or patriotic songs, they are best known for their mystic and spiritual songs.

The correct answer is D. 80.

The force applied to the body is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration. The acceleration is equal to the change in velocity divided by the time interval over which the change occurs. In this case, the velocity changes from 12 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 seconds, so the acceleration is $frac{20 text{ m/s} - 12 text{ m/s}}{4 text{ s}} = 2.5 text{ m/s}^2$. The mass of the body is 5 kg, so the force applied to it is $F = ma = 5 text{ kg} times 2.5 text{ m/s}^2 = 12.5 text{ N}$. Since the force is in the direction of the acceleration, the magnitude of the force is $|F| = 12.5 text{ N}$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the magnitude of the acceleration, not the force. Option B is incorrect because it is the initial velocity of the body. Option C is incorrect because it is the average velocity of the body.

The correct answer is A. Christopher Columbus.

Christopher Columbus was an Italian explorer and navigator who completed four voyages across the Atlantic Ocean, opening the way for the widespread European exploration and colonization of the Americas. He has been credited for discovering the New World.

Vasco da Gama was a Portuguese explorer who was the first European to sail directly from Europe to India. He is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Age of Discovery.

James Cook was a British explorer and navigator who is best known for his three voyages to the Pacific Ocean. He is considered to be one of the greatest explorers of all time.

None of the other options are correct.

The answer is: B. Typewriter

A piano is a musical instrument played using a keyboard. It is a member of the chordophone family, which also includes the guitar, harp, and harpsichord. The piano is a stringed instrument, and the sound is produced by striking the strings with felt-covered hammers.

A typewriter is a mechanical or electromechanical machine for writing characters on paper by striking them with a series of keys. The keys strike a ribbon with ink, which then prints the character onto the paper. Typewriters were once widely used, but they have been largely replaced by computers.

A computer is an electronic device that can be programmed to carry out sequences of arithmetic or logical operations automatically. Modern computers can perform generic sets of operations known as programs. These programs enable computers to perform a wide range of tasks.

A calculator is a small electronic device that is used to perform arithmetic calculations. Calculators are typically used for simple calculations, such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division. However, some calculators can also perform more complex calculations, such as trigonometric functions and logarithms.

The word that is different from the rest is "typewriter". This is because the other three words are all electronic devices, while a typewriter is a mechanical device.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The pancreas is a glandular organ located in the abdomen. It is both an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland. As an endocrine gland, it secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream. As an exocrine gland, it secretes pancreatic juice into the small intestine.

Insulin is a hormone that helps the body use glucose for energy. Glucagon is a hormone that helps the body store glucose. Pancreatic juice is a digestive fluid that helps the body break down food.

The pancreas is a vital organ that plays a role in many important bodily functions. It is important to keep the pancreas healthy by eating a healthy diet and getting regular exercise.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**.

Bhai Dooj, Raksha Bandhan, and Bhai Phota are all festivals that celebrate the bond between brothers and sisters. Bhai Dooj is a Hindu festival that is celebrated on the second day of the bright half of the month of Kartik (October-November). On this day, sisters pray for the well-being of their brothers and tie a rakhi (a sacred thread) on their wrists. Raksha Bandhan is a Hindu and Sikh festival that is celebrated on the full moon day of the month of Shravan (August-September). On this day, sisters tie a rakhi on their brothers' wrists and pray for their well-being. Bhai Phota is a Marathi festival that is celebrated on the second day of the bright half of the month of Magh (January-February). On this day, sisters pray for the well-being of their brothers and feed them a special meal.

These festivals are a way for brothers and sisters to express their love and affection for each other. They are also a way for sisters to seek blessings from their brothers for their well-being and happiness.

Murshidabad comes under Division 1 - Kolkata portal division of West Bengal.

The correct answer is A. 1780-84 A.D.

The Second Anglo-Mysore War was a conflict fought between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Mysore from 1780 to 1784. The war was fought over control of the Carnatic region of southern India. The British were led by General Eyre Coote, while the Mysore forces were led by Hyder Ali and his son Tipu Sultan.

The war began when Hyder Ali invaded the Carnatic in 1780. He captured several British forts and towns, and inflicted heavy losses on the British forces. The British were eventually able to turn the tide of the war, and they defeated Hyder Ali at the Battle of Porto Novo in 1781. However, the war dragged on for another three years, and it was not until 1784 that the Treaty of Mangalore was signed, ending the conflict.

The Second Anglo-Mysore War was a costly conflict for both sides. The British lost thousands of soldiers, and they also spent a great deal of money on the war. The Mysore kingdom was also devastated by the war, and it lost much of its territory.

The Second Anglo-Mysore War was a significant event in the history of India. It showed that the British East India Company was a powerful force in the region, and it also led to the rise of Tipu Sultan, who would become one of the most formidable opponents of the British in India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the actual dates of the Second Anglo-Mysore War.

The correct answer is: B. Charcoal

Charcoal is a form of carbon that is produced by heating wood or other organic materials in a low-oxygen environment. It is a black, porous solid that is used in a variety of applications, including water filtration, odor removal, and fuel.

Graphite is a form of carbon that is made up of layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It is a soft, black solid that is used in a variety of applications, including lubricants, electrodes, and semiconductors.

Coke or coal is a solid fuel that is produced by heating coal in the absence of air. It is a black, porous solid that is used in a variety of applications, including iron and steel production, and electricity generation.

Carbon black is a fine, black powder that is produced by incomplete combustion of organic materials. It is used in a variety of applications, including rubber tires, printing inks, and plastics.

Charcoal is the only allotrope of carbon that is used to absorb impurities and bad odors from water and other substances. This is because charcoal has a large surface area and a high porosity, which allows it to trap impurities and odors.

The correct answer is: A. Decreases.

As a liquid is heated, the molecules gain energy and move faster. This causes them to spread out, which decreases the density of the liquid.

Option B is incorrect because the density of a liquid increases as the pressure increases. This is because the molecules are forced closer together by the increased pressure.

Option C is incorrect because the density of a liquid does change when it is heated.

Option D is incorrect because the density of a liquid does not depend on the pressure. The pressure only affects the density of a liquid if the pressure is high enough to cause a phase change.

In 1996, Raja Sen's debut featute film 'Damu' was awarded with Best Children's Film.

The correct answer is C. Sensitive.

An overstrung person is easily upset or disturbed. They may be very emotional and react strongly to even minor things. They may also be easily overwhelmed and find it difficult to cope with stress.

The other options are not synonyms of overstrung.

• Concerned means to worry about something or someone.
• Active means to be busy and doing things.
• Energetic means to have a lot of energy and be full of life.

A person who is overstrung may be concerned, active, or energetic, but they are not necessarily any of those things.

The correct answer is (b), London.

The G20 summit is an annual meeting of the heads of government and finance ministers of the 20 major economies in the world. The first G20 summit was held in 1999 in Berlin, Germany. The G20 summit is hosted by a different country each year. The 2009 G20 summit was held in London, United Kingdom, on April 2-3, 2009. The theme of the 2009 G20 summit was "Leadership to Restore Global Growth and Stability." The main topics of discussion at the 2009 G20 summit were the global financial crisis, the global economic recession, and climate change.

The other options are incorrect. (a) Geneva is the capital of Switzerland. (c) Paris is the capital of France. (d) Rome is the capital of Italy.

The correct answer is: B. Eleanor Catton.

Eleanor Catton won the Man Booker Prize 2013 for her novel "The Luminaries". The novel is a historical mystery set in the 1860s gold rush in New Zealand. It is told in three parts, each of which is narrated by a different character. The novel has been praised for its complex plot, its rich characters, and its beautiful prose.

Haruki Murakami is a Japanese novelist, short story writer, and essayist. He is best known for his novels "Norwegian Wood" and "Kafka on the Shore". Murakami has won numerous awards, including the World Fantasy Award and the Frank O'Connor International Short Story Award.

Malala Yousafzai is a Pakistani activist for female education and the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She was shot in the head by the Taliban in 2012 for her activism, but survived and continued her work. She is the co-founder of the Malala Fund, which advocates for girls' education around the world.

Vikram Seth is an Indian author of novels, poetry, and travelogues. He is best known for his novel "A Suitable Boy". Seth has won numerous awards, including the Sahitya Akademi Award and the Commonwealth Writers' Prize.

The district with highest rural population is Bankura (91.66%) and lowest rural population is Kolkata (0%).

The answer is D. Oasis.

An island is a piece of land surrounded by water on all sides. A coast is the land along the edge of an ocean or sea. A harbour is a sheltered area of water where ships can dock. A peninsula is a piece of land that is surrounded by water on three sides. An oasis is a small area of vegetation in a desert.

Oasis is the only option that is not a landform. The other options are all landforms.

The correct answer is A. Soccer - Football.

Soccer and football are two names for the same game. It is a team sport played between two teams of 11 players on a rectangular field with a goal at each end. The object of the game is to score by kicking or heading the ball into the other team's goal. The team that scores more goals by the end of the game wins.

Golf and polo are two different games. Golf is a club-and-ball sport in which players use various clubs to hit balls into a series of holes on a course in as few strokes as possible. Polo is a team sport played on horseback in which the objective is to score goals against an opposing team.

Billiards and carrom are two different games. Billiards is a family of cue sports that includes games such as pool, snooker, and carom billiards. Carom is a tabletop game played with a cue and two or four carrom coins.

Volleyball and squash are two different games. Volleyball is a team sport in which two teams of six players are separated by a net. Each team tries to score points by grounding a ball on the other team's court under organized rules. Squash is a racket sport that is played by two or four players in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball.

The correct answer is (c) Banwarilal Purohit.

Banwarilal Purohit is an Indian politician who is the current Governor of Punjab. He was appointed to the position on 20 August 2021. He is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has served as a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament, since 2012.

Purohit was born in the village of Bichhi in the Jhalawar district of Rajasthan. He studied at the Government College, Jhalawar, and the University of Rajasthan, Jaipur. He was a member of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) from a young age and joined the BJP in 1980.

Purohit has held various positions in the BJP, including the president of the Rajasthan unit of the party (2008-2010) and the general secretary of the party (2010-2012). He was elected to the Rajya Sabha in 2012.

Purohit is a controversial figure. He has been accused of making communal speeches and of being involved in the Babri Masjid demolition case. He has also been accused of corruption.

Despite the controversies surrounding him, Purohit is a popular figure in the BJP. He is seen as a strong leader and a loyal party worker. He is expected to play a key role in the BJP's efforts to win the 2022 Punjab Assembly elections.

The other options are:

(a) Kalraj Mishra is the Governor of Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Bandaru Dattatrey is the Governor of Andhra Pradesh.
(c) Ganeshi Lal is the Governor of Odisha.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

In the given question, we are given the following definitions:

• $A * B$ means $A$ is the sister of $B$.
• $A $ B$ means $B$ is the mother of $A$.
• $A + B$ means $A$ is the brother of $B$.
• $A = B$ means $B$ is the father of $A$.

We are asked to find the option that means $M$ is the maternal uncle of $N$.

A maternal uncle is the brother of one's mother. In other words, a maternal uncle is a man who is related to you through your mother.

Looking at the options, we can see that $boxed{text{C}}$ is the only option that satisfies this definition. In $boxed{text{C}}$, $N$ is the brother of $P$, and $P$ is the mother of $M$. Therefore, $M$ is the maternal uncle of $N$.

The other options do not satisfy the definition of a maternal uncle. In $boxed{text{A}}$, $M$ is the father of $N$, but $N$ is not the brother of $P$. In $boxed{text{B}}$, $N$ is the brother of $P$, but $P$ is not the mother of $M$. In $boxed{text{D}}$, none of the relationships are correct.

The correct answer is: D. prices of exports rise proportionately.

Devaluation of currency is a decrease in the value of a currency relative to other currencies. This can happen for a number of reasons, such as inflation, a decrease in demand for the currency, or an increase in supply of the currency.

When a currency is devalued, it makes exports more competitive in international markets. This is because the price of exports in foreign currency terms decreases. This can lead to an increase in demand for exports and an increase in exports.

In addition, devaluation can make imports more expensive. This is because the price of imports in domestic currency terms increases. This can lead to a decrease in demand for imports and a decrease in imports.

Overall, devaluation can lead to an increase in exports and a decrease in imports. This can improve a country's trade balance and boost economic growth.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: prices of domestic goods remain constant. This would not be beneficial for a country because it would mean that the country's exports would become more expensive in foreign currency terms. This would lead to a decrease in demand for exports and a decrease in exports.
• Option B: prices of exports remain constant. This would be beneficial for a country because it would mean that the country's exports would become more competitive in international markets. This would lead to an increase in demand for exports and an increase in exports.
• Option C: prices of imports remain constant. This would not be beneficial for a country because it would mean that the country's imports would become cheaper in domestic currency terms. This would lead to an increase in demand for imports and an increase in imports.
• Option D: prices of exports rise proportionately. This would be beneficial for a country because it would mean that the country's exports would become more competitive in international markets. This would lead to an increase in demand for exports and an increase in exports.

The correct answer is (c).

The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is always 180°. Therefore, if one of the angles is 100°, the other two angles must add up to 80°. The angle bisectors of two angles of a triangle divide the angles into two equal parts. Therefore, the angle between the angle bisectors of the other two angles is 120°.

Option (a) is incorrect because the sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is always 180°. Therefore, if one of the angles is 100°, the other two angles must add up to 80°. The angle bisectors of two angles of a triangle divide the angles into two equal parts. Therefore, the angle between the angle bisectors of the other two angles is 120°, not 80°.

Option (b) is incorrect because the angle between the angle bisectors of the other two angles is 120°, not 100°.

Option (d) is incorrect because the angle between the angle bisectors of the other two angles is 120°, not 140°.

The correct answer is: C. Concurrent list

Economic planning is a concurrent subject in the Indian Constitution. This means that both the central government and the state governments have the power to make laws on this subject.

The Union List contains subjects that are of national importance and are to be handled by the central government. The State List contains subjects that are of local importance and are to be handled by the state governments. The Concurrent List contains subjects that are of both national and local importance and can be handled by both the central government and the state governments.

Economic planning is a concurrent subject because it is of both national and local importance. The central government has the power to make laws on economic planning, such as the Five Year Plans. The state governments also have the power to make laws on economic planning, such as the State Planning Commissions.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because economic planning is not a Union subject.
• Option B is incorrect because economic planning is not a State subject.
• Option D is incorrect because economic planning is a concurrent subject.

The correct answer is (c).

The number of handshakes is equal to the number of people in the party multiplied by the number of people in the party minus one, divided by two. This is because each person shakes hands with everyone else in the party, except for themselves. So, if there are $n$ people in the party, the number of handshakes is $n(n-1)/2$.

In this case, the total number of handshakes is 22. So, there must be 11 people in the party.

Option (a) is incorrect because 11 is not divisible by 2.

Option (b) is incorrect because 12 is not divisible by 2.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is not one of the possible answers.

The correct answer is C. Liver.

A gland is an organ that produces and releases one or more substances for use in the body. The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. Gastrine is a hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes and hormones that regulate blood sugar levels.

The liver is a large organ that performs many essential functions in the body, including:

• Metabolizing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
• Producing bile, which helps to digest fats
• Storing vitamins and minerals
• Detoxifying the blood
• Regulating blood sugar levels

The liver is not a gland because it does not produce hormones or other substances that are released into the bloodstream.

The correct answer is C. chemically unreactive.

Inert gases are elements in group 18 of the periodic table. They are also called noble gases or rare gases. They are monatomic gases at standard temperature and pressure and have very low chemical reactivity. They are not miscible with water and are chemically unreactive.

Option A is incorrect because inert gases are not miscible with water. They are nonpolar molecules and do not form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

Option B is incorrect because inert gases are stable. They have full valence shells and do not need to gain or lose electrons to form stable compounds.

Option D is incorrect because inert gases are chemically unreactive. They do not form compounds with other elements easily.

The last telegram was sent in India on July 30, 2013.

The telegram service was started in India in 1853 and was a popular way of communication for many years. However, with the advent of newer technologies such as the telephone and the internet, the use of telegrams declined. In 2013, the Indian government decided to discontinue the telegram service.

The last telegram was sent on July 30, 2013, by a man named B.K. Sharma to his son in Mumbai. The telegram read, "Happy birthday, son. Love, Dad."

The closure of the telegram service was a symbolic moment, marking the end of an era in Indian communication. However, the telegram service will always be remembered as a part of India's history.

Option A is incorrect because the last telegram was sent on July 30, 2013, not June 14, 2013.

Option B is incorrect because the last telegram was sent on July 30, 2013, not July 14, 2013.

Option C is incorrect because the last telegram was sent on July 30, 2013, not August 1, 2013.

The correct answer is (c) In 26 Lacs.

The Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was granted by the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II to the East India Company in 1765 in exchange for a yearly regular payment of 26 lakhs of rupees. This was a significant event in the history of the British East India Company, as it gave them control over the revenue collection of these three provinces. This control over revenue collection gave the Company a great deal of power in these provinces, and it was a major step towards the Company's eventual control over India.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the yearly regular payment was 26 lakhs of rupees, not 10 lakhs of rupees. Option (b) is incorrect because the yearly regular payment was 26 lakhs of rupees, not 20 lakhs of rupees. Option (d) is incorrect because the yearly regular payment was 26 lakhs of rupees, not 30 lakhs of rupees.

The answer is A. Cloth.

Cloth is a general term for a textile material made from fibers that are spun into yarn and then woven or knitted together. It can be used to make a variety of items, including clothing, bedding, and furniture.

Trousers, jackets, shirts, and t-shirts are all types of clothing that are made from cloth. However, cloth is not a type of clothing in itself. It is the material from which clothing is made.

Therefore, cloth does not belong in the group of clothing items.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The vector normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$ is the gradient of the surface evaluated at that point. The gradient of a surface is a vector that points in the direction of the greatest rate of change of the surface. The gradient of the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ is

$$nabla f = begin{bmatrix} 4z - 3y 2x - 3z -4 end{bmatrix}$$

Evaluating the gradient at the point $(1, -1, 2)$ gives

$$nabla f(1, -1, 2) = begin{bmatrix} 4 - 3 2 - 3 -4 end{bmatrix} = boxed{7i - 5j + 8k}$$

Therefore, the vector that is normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$ is $boxed{7i - 5j + 8k}$.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: $2i - 3j + 8k$ is not normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$. To see this, we can take the dot product of $2i - 3j + 8k$ with the gradient of the surface at the point $(1, -1, 2)$. The dot product of two vectors is zero if and only if the vectors are orthogonal. Therefore, if $2i - 3j + 8k$ were normal to the surface, the dot product would be zero. However, the dot product is

$$(2i - 3j + 8k) cdot nabla f(1, -1, 2) = 2 cdot 4 - 3 cdot 3 + 8 cdot 8 = 41 > 0$$

Therefore, $2i - 3j + 8k$ is not normal to the surface.

• Option B: $2i + 3j + 4k$ is not normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$. The same argument as for option A shows that $2i + 3j + 4k$ is not normal to the surface.

• Option C: $7i - 3j + 8k$ is normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$. This is because the dot product of $7i - 3j + 8k$ with the gradient of the surface at the point $(1, -1, 2)$ is zero.

• Option D: $7i - 5j + 8k$ is normal to the surface $2xz^2 - 3xy - 4x = 7$ at the point $(1, -1, 2)$. This is because the dot product of $7i - 5j + 8k$ with the gradient of the surface at the point $(1, -1, 2)$ is zero.

The correct answer is (c).

Section 92 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on the principle of "Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". This principle means that an act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty. In other words, a person cannot be held liable for a crime unless they intended to commit it.

Section 92 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 states that "A person is not liable for an act done by him in a state of intoxication, unless such intoxication was caused by his own wilful act." This means that if a person is intoxicated and commits a crime, they will not be held liable for the crime if they did not intend to commit it.

The other options are not based on the principle of "Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". Section 81 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 states that "A person is not liable for an act done by him in good faith, and under a reasonable belief that he had authority to do it." Section 87 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 states that "A person is not liable for an act done by him in obedience to the order of a competent authority." Section 94 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 states that "A person is not liable for an act done by him in the exercise of a right."

The correct answer is: A. Sammed Shikhar.

Sammed Shikhar is a mountain in the Indian state of Jharkhand. It is the highest peak in the Vindhya Range and is considered to be a holy place by Jains. According to Jain tradition, it is the place where Abhinandannath, the 12th Tirthankara, attained Nirvana.

Shri Keshriyaji Tirtha is a Jain temple complex in the Indian state of Gujarat. It is one of the most important pilgrimage sites for Jains. The temple complex is dedicated to the 22nd Tirthankara, Neminath.

Parasnath is a mountain in the Indian state of Jharkhand. It is the second highest peak in the Vindhya Range and is considered to be a holy place by Jains. According to Jain tradition, it is the place where Parshvanatha, the 23rd Tirthankara, attained Nirvana.

Sarnath is a town in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located near Varanasi and is considered to be one of the most important Buddhist pilgrimage sites. According to Buddhist tradition, it is the place where Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon after attaining enlightenment.

The correct answer is (c), Dinabandhu Mitra.

Dinabandhu Mitra was a Bengali writer, playwright, and journalist. He is considered one of the pioneers of modern Bengali literature. His most famous work is the play Nil Darpan, which was published in 1859. Nil Darpan is a powerful indictment of the indigo plantation system in Bengal during the British Raj. It was banned by the British government, but it had a major impact on the Indian independence movement.

Tara Nath Bandopadhyay was a Bengali poet and writer. He is best known for his epic poem Mahabharata, which he wrote in Bengali.

Tara Nath Ghosh was a Bengali writer and journalist. He is best known for his novel Kamala, which was published in 1866.

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was a Bengali writer, novelist, essayist, and journalist. He is considered one of the greatest writers in Bengali literature. His most famous work is the novel Anandamath, which was published in 1882. Anandamath is a story about a group of Bengali revolutionaries who fight against the British Raj.

The correct answer is (a) Gandhary.

The prehistoric castes of the Himalayan region are:

• Yaksha: A race of nature spirits or demigods in Hindu mythology. They are often depicted as being half-human and half-animal, and they are said to live in the forests and mountains.
• Kinnar: A race of people who are said to be half-human and half-bird. They are often depicted as being beautiful and graceful, and they are said to live in the mountains and forests.
• Shak: A race of people who are said to be half-human and half-snake. They are often depicted as being powerful and wise, and they are said to live in the mountains and forests.

Gandhary is not a prehistoric caste of the Himalayan region. It is a caste of people who are said to be descended from the Gandharvas, a race of musicians and dancers in Hindu mythology. The Gandharvas are said to live in the heavens, and they are often depicted as being beautiful and handsome.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Ministry of Water Resources is responsible for the development and regulation of the country's water resources. It covers a wide range of activities, including:

• Sartorial planning, coordination and policy guidelines: The Ministry develops and implements policies and guidelines for the development and management of water resources. It also coordinates the activities of different government departments and agencies involved in water resources management.
• Technical examination and techno- appraisal of project providing central assistance to specific projects: The Ministry examines and appraises technical proposals for water resources projects and provides central assistance to those that are approved.
• Facilitation of external assistance in resolution of interstate water disputes: The Ministry facilitates the use of external assistance for the resolution of interstate water disputes. It also provides technical and financial assistance to states for the implementation of water resources projects.
• Policy formulation and implementation: The Ministry formulates and implements policies for the development and management of water resources. It also monitors the implementation of these policies and makes necessary adjustments.
• Research and development: The Ministry supports research and development activities in the field of water resources. It also promotes the use of new technologies for the development and management of water resources.
• Training and capacity building: The Ministry provides training and capacity building to government officials, engineers, and other professionals involved in water resources management.
• Public awareness and outreach: The Ministry undertakes public awareness and outreach activities to promote the conservation and efficient use of water resources.

The Ministry of Water Resources plays a vital role in the development and management of the country's water resources. Its activities have a significant impact on the lives of millions of people in India.

The correct answer is (d).

The President of India, Pranab Mukherjee, addressed the Vidhan Sabha of Uttarakhand for the first time on 21 May 2015. This was the first time that a President had addressed the Vidhan Sabha of any state in the Hindi-speaking belt.

The President's address was significant for a number of reasons. First, it was a sign of the growing importance of Uttarakhand in the national political landscape. Second, it was a recognition of the state's unique challenges and opportunities. Third, it was an opportunity for the President to connect with the people of Uttarakhand and to share his vision for the state's future.

The President's address was well-received by the people of Uttarakhand. They appreciated the President's recognition of the state's importance and his commitment to its development. They also welcomed the President's call for unity and harmony in the state.

The President's address was a major boost for the state of Uttarakhand. It helped to raise the state's profile and to attract investment. It also helped to build a sense of pride and unity among the people of Uttarakhand.

The other options are incorrect because the President of India did not address the Vidhan Sabha of those states in May 2015.

The correct answer is D.

The Zamindars of Bengal were a class of hereditary landholders who played a complex role in the socio-economic and political landscape of the region. They were often balancing their own interests with the needs of their tenants, agricultural production with industrial development, and traditional customs with modern reforms.

The Zamindars were originally appointed by the Mughal Empire to collect taxes from the peasants. However, over time, they became increasingly powerful and independent. They often used their power to exploit their tenants and to enrich themselves. However, they also played a role in maintaining law and order in the countryside.

The Zamindars were abolished by the British in the 19th century. However, their legacy continues to be felt in Bengal today. The Zamindars were a powerful and influential class, and their role in the region's history is complex and multifaceted.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: The Zamindars were often balancing their own interests with the needs of their tenants. They wanted to collect as much revenue as possible from their tenants, but they also needed to keep their tenants happy in order to maintain their own power and position.
* Option B: The Zamindars were also balancing agricultural production with industrial development. They wanted to make sure that their land was producing as much food as possible, but they also wanted to invest in new industries that would bring in more revenue.
* Option C: The Zamindars were also balancing traditional customs with modern reforms. They wanted to maintain their traditional way of life, but they also knew that they needed to adapt to the changing world around them.

Michael Madhusudan Dutt introduced blank verse (Amritrakshar Chhanda) and sonnets in Bengali language.

The correct answer is (d) All the above rights.

Foreigners are entitled to the same fundamental rights as citizens of India, except for the right to vote and the right to hold public office. This is because the Constitution of India guarantees these rights to all persons, irrespective of their nationality.

The Right against Exploitation prohibits all forms of forced labour, child labour, and trafficking in human beings. The Right to Equality before Law prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. The Right to Life and Personal Liberty prohibits arbitrary arrest, detention, and torture.

Foreigners are also entitled to certain other rights, such as the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to peaceful assembly, and the right to form associations. However, these rights can be restricted in certain circumstances, such as when they are in conflict with the security of the State or the maintenance of public order.

In conclusion, foreigners are entitled to a wide range of rights under the Indian Constitution. These rights are essential for ensuring that they are treated fairly and justly in India.

The vision of the Academy of Fine Arts is to foster and encourage the Group Theatres in the state irrespective of theur reputation.

The correct answer is A. Cyprus - to maintain peace between the two dominant ethnic groups in the country.

The United Nations Peacekeeping Force in Cyprus (UNFICYP) was established in 1964 to maintain peace between the Greek Cypriot and Turkish Cypriot communities on the island of Cyprus. The force has been deployed ever since, and its mandate has been renewed every six months by the UN Security Council.

The main tasks of UNFICYP are to prevent a recurrence of fighting, to maintain law and order, and to contribute to a peaceful settlement of the Cyprus problem. The force also provides humanitarian assistance to the civilian population and monitors the ceasefire line between the two communities.

The UNFICYP is one of the longest-serving UN peacekeeping missions in the world. It has played a vital role in maintaining peace on the island of Cyprus, and its presence has helped to prevent a recurrence of violence.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• Option B: The UN Peacekeeping Force in Mozambique (UNOMOZ) was established in 1992 to supervise a referendum on the independence of Mozambique from Portugal. The referendum was held in 1994, and Mozambique gained its independence. UNOMOZ was then disbanded.
• Option C: The UN Observer Mission in El Salvador (ONUSAL) was established in 1991 to monitor the implementation of the peace agreement between the government of El Salvador and the Farabundo Martí National Liberation Front (FMLN). ONUSAL was disbanded in 1995.
• Option D: The UN Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established in 1978 to confirm the withdrawal of Israeli forces from Lebanon and to restore international peace and security in the area. UNIFIL has been deployed ever since, and its mandate has been renewed every six months by the UN Security Council. The main tasks of UNIFIL are to monitor the ceasefire line between Israel and Lebanon, to assist the Lebanese Armed Forces in their efforts to maintain security in southern Lebanon, and to protect civilians.

The correct answer is: C. Internal ear

Snakes have a very keen sense of hearing, and they can detect even very faint sounds. They do this by using their internal ear, which is located in their skull. The internal ear is a complex organ that contains a number of sensory cells that are sensitive to sound waves. When sound waves enter the ear, they cause the sensory cells to vibrate. These vibrations are then converted into electrical signals that are sent to the brain. The brain interprets these signals and allows the snake to hear.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. Tympanum is a membrane that is found in the middle ear of mammals and birds. It vibrates in response to sound waves, and these vibrations are then transmitted to the inner ear. Snakes do not have a tympanum.
• B. Body Snakes can feel vibrations through their body, but they do not use this sense to hear.
• D. Earth Snakes can also feel vibrations through the ground, but they do not use this sense to hear either.

The correct answer is: A. Article 237

Article 237 of the Constitution of India provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys. The article states that the President may, at the request of the Governments of two or more States, constitute a tribunal to adjudicate upon any dispute or difference between them regarding the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-state river or river valley. The tribunal shall consist of a chairman and two other members, one to be appointed by each of the Governments concerned. The chairman shall be a person who is, or has been, a judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court. The tribunal shall have the power to make such order as it deems fit, and its decision shall be final and binding on the Governments concerned.

The other options are incorrect because they do not deal with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys.

• Article 268 deals with the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.
• Article 272 deals with taxes on income other than agricultural income.
• Article 262 deals with the power of Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the Union List.

The correct answer is D. sufficient.

The word "sufficient" means "enough or as much as is needed." In the sentence "The scheme failed for want of adequate funds," the word "adequate" means "enough or as much as is needed." Therefore, the scheme failed because it did not have enough funds.

The other options are not correct because they do not mean "enough or as much as is needed." The word "necessary" means "required or essential." The word "recommended" means "suggested or advised." The word "required" means "obligatory or essential."

Here are some examples of how the word "sufficient" can be used in a sentence:

• I have sufficient money to buy a new car.
• The amount of food was sufficient for all the guests.
• The teacher gave the students sufficient time to complete the assignment.
• The company has sufficient resources to meet its goals.

The correct answer is (a) Bhishmchand.

Bhishmchand was the founder of the Chand dynasty of Kumaon. He ruled from 1110 to 1165 CE. He constructed the Khagmara fort in Almora in 1140 CE. The fort is located on a hilltop overlooking the city of Almora. It is a well-preserved example of 12th century architecture.

The other options are incorrect.

(b) Rudrachand was the son of Bhishmchand. He ruled from 1165 to 1193 CE. He is credited with expanding the Chand kingdom.

(c) Kalyanchand was the grandson of Bhishmchand. He ruled from 1193 to 1226 CE. He is known for his military conquests.

(d) Udaychand was the great-grandson of Bhishmchand. He ruled from 1226 to 1260 CE. He is known for his patronage of the arts and literature.

The correct answer is: B. Menander

Menander was a Greco-Bactrian king who ruled over the Indo-Greek Kingdom from around 165 to 130 BCE. He was one of the most successful and powerful Indo-Greek kings, and his kingdom stretched from Bactria in the north to the Indus River in the south. Menander was also a patron of the arts and literature, and he is known for his many contributions to Buddhist culture.

Menander was born in Bactria, which was then part of the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom. His father was Demetrius I, who was also a Greco-Bactrian king. Menander succeeded his father as king around 165 BCE.

Menander was a successful military commander, and he expanded the Indo-Greek Kingdom to its greatest extent. He defeated the Scythians, who were a major threat to the Indo-Greek Kingdom, and he also conquered parts of India.

Menander was also a patron of the arts and literature. He is known for his many contributions to Buddhist culture, and he is even said to have converted to Buddhism himself. Menander is also mentioned in the Buddhist text Milinda Panha, which is a dialogue between Menander and the Buddhist monk Nagasena.

Menander died around 130 BCE. He was succeeded by his son Strato I. Menander was a great king and a significant figure in Indo-Greek history. He is remembered for his military prowess, his patronage of the arts and literature, and his contributions to Buddhist culture.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Strato I was the son of Menander and the king of the Indo-Greek Kingdom from around 130 to 110 BCE.
• Demetrios I was the father of Menander and the king of the Indo-Greek Kingdom from around 200 to 180 BCE.
• Alexander the Great was a Macedonian king who conquered much of the known world in the 4th century BCE. He never ruled over the Indo-Greek Kingdom.

The correct answer is (d) 1988.

The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) was launched in India in 1988. It is a crop insurance scheme that provides financial assistance to farmers in the event of crop failure due to natural calamities. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.

The NAIS is a voluntary scheme, and farmers can opt to participate in it. The premium for the scheme is paid by the farmers, and the government provides a subsidy on the premium. The subsidy is higher for farmers who belong to the low-income group.

The NAIS is a comprehensive scheme that covers a wide range of crops. The scheme also covers a wide range of natural calamities, including floods, droughts, hailstorms, and pests.

The NAIS has been successful in providing financial assistance to farmers in the event of crop failure. The scheme has also helped to reduce the risk of crop failure and to improve the income of farmers.

The following are the options for the question:

(a) 1945: This is incorrect. The NAIS was launched in 1988, not 1945.
(b) 1980: This is incorrect. The NAIS was launched in 1988, not 1980.
(c) 1985: This is incorrect. The NAIS was launched in 1988, not 1985.
(d) 1988: This is the correct answer. The NAIS was launched in 1988.

The correct answer is: **A) 34th**

The 34th Bengal Native Infantry was a regiment of the Bengal Army of the East India Company. It was raised in 1776 and disbanded in 1857 after the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The 34th Bengal Native Infantry was one of the regiments that mutinied at Barrackpore on 29 March 1857. The mutiny was sparked by the cartridges that the British were issuing to the soldiers. The cartridges were greased with pig and cow fat, which was offensive to both Hindus and Muslims. The soldiers refused to use the cartridges, and the British refused to change them. This led to the mutiny, which spread throughout the Bengal Army and eventually led to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The 34th Bengal Native Infantry was disbanded after the mutiny. The soldiers who had mutinied were executed, and the regiment was never reformed.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the regiments that mutinied at Barrackpore. The 19th Bengal Native Infantry was not involved in the mutiny, and the 26th and 48th Bengal Native Infantry were disbanded after the mutiny, but they did not mutiny at Barrackpore.

The correct answer is D. Velocity of light.

According to the theory of relativity, the speed of light in a vacuum is the same for all observers, regardless of the motion of the light source or observer. This means that the speed of light is a constant, and it is not affected by gravity or any other force.

The other options are not always constant. The length of an object can change depending on the observer's frame of reference. Time can also change depending on the observer's frame of reference. And space can also change depending on the observer's frame of reference.

The theory of relativity is a very complex theory, and it is not possible to explain it in detail in a short answer. However, I hope this explanation has given you a basic understanding of the theory and why the speed of light is a constant.

The correct answer is (d), China.

China is the world's third-largest economy, with a GDP of $14.72 trillion in 2020. It is also the world's most populous country, with over 1.4 billion people. China's economy has been growing rapidly in recent years, and it is expected to continue to grow in the future.

Japan is the world's fourth-largest economy, with a GDP of $5.1 trillion in 2020. It is also a developed country with a high standard of living. Japan's economy has been struggling in recent years, but it is expected to recover in the future.

Malaysia is the world's 33rd-largest economy, with a GDP of $362 billion in 2020. It is a developing country with a growing economy. Malaysia is a member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

India is the world's sixth-largest economy, with a GDP of $2.94 trillion in 2020. It is also the world's second-most populous country, with over 1.3 billion people. India's economy has been growing rapidly in recent years, and it is expected to continue to grow in the future.

The correct answer is: C. Both A and B

South Indian temples are characterized by their tall towers with curving sides that taper at the top, called gopurams. These towers are often decorated with intricate carvings and sculptures. The gopurams are the most visible part of a South Indian temple, and they serve as a gateway to the inner sanctum of the temple.

In addition to the gopurams, South Indian temples also have gateway towers shaped like trapezoidal pyramids. These towers are called vimanas, and they are located over the inner sanctum of the temple. The vimanas are often decorated with gold and silver, and they are considered to be sacred objects.

Both the gopurams and the vimanas are important features of South Indian temples. They serve as a gateway to the inner sanctum of the temple, and they are considered to be sacred objects.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Tall towers with curving sides that taper at the top. This is a correct description of the gopurams of South Indian temples.
• Option B: Gateway towers shaped like trapezoidal pyramids. This is a correct description of the vimanas of South Indian temples.
• Option C: Both A and B. This is the correct answer, as both gopurams and vimanas are important features of South Indian temples.
• Option D: None of the above. This is an incorrect answer, as both gopurams and vimanas are important features of South Indian temples.

The correct answer is: A. Together for Peace : Respect, Safety and Dignity for All

The International Day of Peace is observed on 21 September every year. It is a day dedicated to strengthening the ideals of peace, non-violence, and tolerance. The theme for 2017 was "Together for Peace: Respect, Safety and Dignity for All". This theme was chosen to highlight the importance of respect, safety, and dignity for all people, regardless of their race, religion, nationality, or gender.

The United Nations General Assembly established the International Day of Peace in 1981. The day is a time to reflect on the importance of peace and to promote efforts to achieve it. The UN Secretary-General issues a message for the day, which is delivered at peace events around the world.

The International Day of Peace is a reminder that peace is possible and that we all have a role to play in achieving it. By working together, we can create a more peaceful world for all.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Together for Peace : Respect, Safety and Dignity for All. This option is the correct answer because it is the theme that was chosen for the International Day of Peace in 2017. The theme highlights the importance of respect, safety, and dignity for all people, regardless of their race, religion, nationality, or gender.
• Option B: United for Peace : Respect, Safety and Dignity for All. This option is similar to Option A, but it uses the word "United" instead of "Together". The word "United" suggests that people from all over the world need to work together to achieve peace.
• Option C: Together for Peace : Respect, Dignity and Safety for All. This option is similar to Option A, but it lists the three values in a different order. The order of the values does not change the meaning of the option.
• Option D: Together for Peace : Dignity, Respect and Safety for All. This option is similar to Option A, but it lists the three values in a different order. The order of the values does not change the meaning of the option.

The correct answer is: A. Collusion among rival firms.

A kinked demand curve is a theoretical concept that explains how firms in an oligopoly market may behave. The curve is kinked at the current price, and firms are willing to lower their prices to increase output, but they are not willing to raise their prices, even if demand increases. This is because firms in an oligopoly market are interdependent, and they know that if one firm raises its prices, the other firms will not follow suit, and the firm will lose market share.

Collusion is an agreement between firms to fix prices or output. It is illegal in most countries, but it can be difficult to detect and enforce. Collusion can lead to higher prices and lower output for consumers.

Average variable cost curves show the average cost of producing a unit of output when some costs are fixed. Short-run average cost curves show the average cost of producing a unit of output when all costs are variable. Long-run average cost curves show the average cost of producing a unit of output when all costs are variable and firms have had time to adjust their plant size and other inputs.

None of these concepts are directly related to the kinked demand curve.

Rimbick is the ending point of Singalila Ridge, Sandakphu Trek.

The correct answer is (c), LTE. LTE stands for Long Term Evolution, and it is a 4th generation (4G) mobile technology. It is a standard for wireless communication of high-speed data for mobile phones and data terminals. LTE is the successor to 3G UMTS and the predecessor to 5G NR.

GPRS stands for General Packet Radio Service, and it is a 2.5G mobile technology. It is a packet-switched technology, which means that data is transmitted in small packets rather than in a continuous stream. GPRS is slower than 3G and 4G technologies, but it is still widely used in developing countries.

HSPA stands for High Speed Packet Access, and it is a 3G mobile technology. It is an upgrade to UMTS, and it offers higher speeds than UMTS. HSPA is widely used in Europe and Asia.

(d), All of these, is not the correct answer because GPRS is not a 4G mobile technology.

The correct answer is (c), Shah Jahan.

Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1628 to 1658. He was the son of Jahangir and Mumtaz Mahal. Shah Jahan was crowned in Agra in 1628, after the death of his father. However, he was not satisfied with the coronation and wanted to have a grand coronation. He decided to have a second coronation in Delhi in 1632. The second coronation was a grand affair and was attended by many dignitaries from all over the world.

Akbar was the third Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1556 to 1605. He was the son of Humayun and Hamida Banu Begum. Akbar was crowned in Kalanaur in 1556, after the death of his father. He was a great ruler and is considered to be one of the greatest emperors of India.

Jahangir was the fourth Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1605 to 1627. He was the son of Akbar and Mariam-uz-Zamani. Jahangir was crowned in Agra in 1605, after the death of his father. He was a great patron of art and literature.

Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1658 to 1707. He was the son of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal. Aurangzeb was crowned in Delhi in 1658, after the death of his father. He was a great warrior and is considered to be one of the greatest military commanders of India.

The correct answer is: A) Subsidized food grains to the poor.

The Khadya Sathi scheme is a government program that provides subsidized food grains to the poor. The scheme was launched in 2013 and aims to provide food security to the poor and vulnerable sections of the population. Under the scheme, beneficiaries are entitled to purchase 5 kg of wheat and 2 kg of rice per month at a subsidized rate of Rs. 2/- per kg and Rs. 3/- per kg, respectively. The scheme is implemented through the Public Distribution System (PDS) and is available to all households below the poverty line (BPL).

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option B is incorrect because the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
* Option C is incorrect because the National Health Mission (NHM) provides free healthcare services to the poor and vulnerable sections of the population.
* Option D is incorrect because the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provides employment opportunities to rural youth.

The correct answer is B. Blood.

Chlorophyll is a green pigment that is found in plants. It is responsible for absorbing sunlight and using it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Haemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. It is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body.

The relationship between chlorophyll and plants is that chlorophyll is necessary for plants to photosynthesize. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Glucose is a type of sugar that plants use for energy. Oxygen is a gas that is released into the atmosphere.

The relationship between haemoglobin and blood is that haemoglobin is necessary for blood to carry oxygen. Blood is a fluid that circulates through the body. It carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and carbon dioxide from the rest of the body to the lungs.

The other options are not correct because they do not have the same relationship to haemoglobin as chlorophyll has to plants.

• Option A, haemorrhage, is a medical term for bleeding. It is not necessary for haemoglobin to cause bleeding.
• Option C, oxygen, is a gas that is carried by haemoglobin. However, oxygen is not the same thing as haemoglobin.
• Option D, red, is the colour of haemoglobin. However, colour is not the same thing as function.

The correct answer is A. I did neither.

The sentence "He did not respond to her inquiring, I did not neither" is grammatically incorrect. The correct way to say this is "He did not respond to her inquiring, nor did I."

The word "neither" is used to refer to two or more things that are the same. In this case, the two things are "He did not respond to her inquiring" and "I did not respond to her inquiring." Since these two things are the same, we can use the word "neither" to refer to them both.

The word "nor" is used to join two or more negative statements. In this case, the two negative statements are "He did not respond to her inquiring" and "I did not respond to her inquiring." Since these two statements are both negative, we can use the word "nor" to join them together.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correctly express the meaning of the sentence. Option B, "nor did I," is the correct way to say this sentence. Option C, "I did either," is incorrect because it does not make sense to say that you did both respond to her inquiring and not respond to her inquiring. Option D, "No improvement," is incorrect because the sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is: D. none of the above

The word "blue" is a common noun, which means it is not specific to any particular blue object. It is not a definite article (a or the), which are used to refer to specific objects. It is also not a demonstrative pronoun (this or that), which are used to refer to objects that are close to the speaker or listener.

In the sentence "He told me that blue was his favorite color," the word "blue" is a predicate adjective. It modifies the noun "color," which is the object of the verb "told." The sentence means that the person told the speaker that his favorite color is blue.

Here are some examples of how the words "a," "the," and "this" are used:

• I saw a blue car. (The word "a" is used to refer to a general blue car.)
• I saw the blue car. (The word "the" is used to refer to a specific blue car that the speaker has already mentioned.)
• I saw this blue car. (The word "this" is used to refer to a blue car that is close to the speaker.)

The correct answer is (b), Rajaram.

Shambhuji was the elder son of Shivaji Maharaj, the founder of the Maratha Empire. He was killed by Aurangzeb's forces in 1689. Rajaram was Shambhuji's younger son. He succeeded his father as the Maratha leader in 1689. He ruled the Maratha Empire until his death in 1700.

Jijabai was the mother of Shivaji Maharaj and grandmother of Rajaram. She was a strong and influential figure in the Maratha Empire. She played a key role in the early years of the empire, and her advice and support were invaluable to her son and grandson.

Tarabai was the wife of Rajaram. She was a powerful and ambitious woman. After Rajaram's death, she ruled the Maratha Empire as regent for her son, Shivaji II. She was a capable ruler, but she was also ruthless and unpopular. She was eventually overthrown by her son in 1707.

The correct answer is D. Mayor.

A mayor is the head of a municipal corporation, which is a local government body that is responsible for the administration of a city or town. The mayor is elected by the citizens of the city or town and is responsible for setting policy, overseeing the city's budget, and appointing department heads.

The other options are incorrect. The prime minister is the head of the national government, the sarpanch is the head of a village panchayat, and the governor is the head of a state government.

The correct answer is: B. Ptylin

Ptyalin is an enzyme found in saliva that begins the process of breaking down starch into sugars. It is a salivary amylase, which is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates. Ptyalin is produced by the salivary glands and is found in the saliva. It is active in the mouth and begins the process of breaking down starch into sugars. The sugars are then absorbed by the body.

Renin is an enzyme that is produced by the kidneys. It is involved in the production of angiotensin II, which is a hormone that helps to regulate blood pressure. Tenin is an enzyme that is found in the stomach. It is involved in the breakdown of proteins. Resin is a sticky substance that is produced by plants. It is used to protect the plants from damage.

Ptyalin is the only enzyme listed that is found in saliva. Renin, tenin, and resin are not found in saliva.

The correct answer is: A. Were / were / in 1995.

The verb "to be" is conjugated in the plural form ("were") because the subject of the sentence is "they." The preposition "in" is used to indicate the location of something. The year "1995" is the specific location in which they were born.

The other options are incorrect because they do not agree with the subject of the sentence or the preposition used. Option B is incorrect because the verb "to be" is conjugated in the singular form ("was") instead of the plural form ("were"). Option C is incorrect because the preposition "in" is used to indicate the location of something, but the year "1995" is not a location. Option D is incorrect because the verb "to be" is conjugated in the singular form ("was") instead of the plural form ("were"), and the preposition "in" is used to indicate the location of something, but the year "1995" is not a location.

The correct answer is: D. H. C. S. Bisht.

H. C. S. Bisht was the first person outside Indian Navy to become the Director General of Indian Coast Guard. He was appointed to the post in 2016 and served until 2019.

Krishna Chaudhary was the first Director General of Indian Coast Guard. He was appointed to the post in 1978 and served until 1981.

Rajendra Singh was the second Director General of Indian Coast Guard. He was appointed to the post in 1981 and served until 1985.

Prabhakaran Paleri was the third Director General of Indian Coast Guard. He was appointed to the post in 1985 and served until 1989.

H. C. S. Bisht was born in 1952 in Uttarakhand, India. He joined the Indian Coast Guard in 1974 and rose through the ranks to become the Director General in 2016. He is a recipient of the Padma Shri, India's fourth highest civilian award.

The correct answer is (c). Section 9 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 deals with the grant of driving license.

Section 6 of the Act deals with the registration of motor vehicles. Section 8 of the Act deals with the driving of motor vehicles. Section 10 of the Act deals with the penalties for contravention of the Act.

Section 9 of the Act states that a person shall not drive a motor vehicle on a public road unless he holds a driving licence granted under this Act. A driving licence may be granted to any person who, on an application made by him in the prescribed form and accompanied by the prescribed fee, satisfies the prescribed conditions. The prescribed conditions include the following:

• The applicant must be a citizen of India.
• The applicant must have attained the age of 18 years.
• The applicant must have passed a test of driving a motor vehicle of the class for which the licence is applied.
• The applicant must not have been convicted of any offence under the Act or any other law for the time being in force relating to the use of motor vehicles.

The driving licence shall be granted for a period of five years. The driving licence may be renewed for a further period of five years on an application made by the holder of the licence in the prescribed form and accompanied by the prescribed fee.

The driving licence may be suspended or cancelled by the licensing authority if the holder of the licence is found to have committed any of the following offences:

• Driving a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
• Driving a motor vehicle in a rash or negligent manner.
• Driving a motor vehicle without a valid driving licence.
• Using a driving licence which is not genuine or which has been obtained by fraud.

The correct answer is: A) Indika by Megasthenes.

Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya in the 4th century BC. He wrote a book called Indika, which is a valuable source of information about ancient India. In Indika, Megasthenes mentions the Gangaridai kingdom as a powerful military force in Bengal. He describes the Gangaridai as being a tall and handsome people with a long history of military conquest. He also mentions that the Gangaridai were skilled in the use of elephants in battle.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Option B, Arthashastra by Kautilya, is a treatise on statecraft and economics written by Kautilya, a minister to the Mauryan emperor Chandragupta Maurya. The Arthashastra does not mention the Gangaridai kingdom.
* Option C, Raghuvamsa by Kalidasa, is an epic poem written by Kalidasa, a Sanskrit poet and dramatist. The Raghuvamsa does not mention the Gangaridai kingdom.
* Option D, Mahabharata, is an ancient Indian epic poem. The Mahabharata does not mention the Gangaridai kingdom.

The correct answer is (a).

The National Commission on Urbanisation was set up in 1985 by the Government of India to examine the problems of urbanisation in India and to suggest measures for their solution. The Commission was headed by M.N. Buch, a former Governor of Maharashtra. The Commission submitted its report in 1988.

The Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) is an Indian government body responsible for the development and management of India's nuclear energy program. The AEC was established in 1948 by the Government of India. The AEC is headed by the Chairman, who is appointed by the Prime Minister of India. The current Chairman of the AEC is M.R. Srinivasan.

The National Commission on Rural Labour was set up in 1967 by the Government of India to examine the problems of rural labour in India and to suggest measures for their solution. The Commission was headed by Raja Chelliahon. The Commission submitted its report in 1969.

The Urban Art Commission is a non-profit organisation that promotes the development of urban art in India. The Commission was founded in 2000 by H.Y. Sharda. The Commission organises exhibitions, workshops, and other events to promote urban art.

Sundarban Plains covers the Southern part of North and South 24-Parganas.

The correct answer is (b). Option (a) is incorrect because option of puberty is available to the wife only. Option (c) is incorrect because option of puberty is not available to the husband. Option (d) is incorrect because option of puberty is not available to the husband and wife both with approval of guardian.

Option (b) is the correct answer because option of puberty is available to the wife only. Option of puberty is a right that is given to a Muslim woman who has not reached puberty at the time of her marriage. This right allows her to annul her marriage if she does not want to continue with it. The option of puberty can be exercised by the woman herself or by her guardian on her behalf.

The option of puberty is a safeguard for young Muslim women who are married off at a young age. It gives them the opportunity to terminate their marriage if they do not want to continue with it. This is important because it allows young women to have a say in their own lives and to make their own choices about their future.

Uttam Kumar won 15th National Film Award for Best Actor for the films 'Chiriyakhana' and 'Antony Firingee'.

The correct answer is: C. Either 1 or 2.

Statement 1: The son of D is the grandson of C.

This statement tells us that D is a father, and C is a grandfather. This means that D and C are related in some way, and that D is older than C. However, it does not tell us how D and C are related. D could be C's son, C's grandson, C's nephew, or C's cousin.

Statement 2: B is the sister of D.

This statement tells us that B and D are siblings. This means that they have the same parents. This also means that B and C are related, because they have a child in common. However, it does not tell us how B and C are related. B could be C's daughter, C's granddaughter, C's niece, or C's cousin.

In order to determine how B is related to C, we need more information. Either statement 1 or statement 2 is sufficient to determine that B is related to C, but neither statement is necessary.

The correct answer is D. Light energy to electrical energy.

A photoelectric cell is a device that converts light energy into electrical energy. It does this by using a semiconductor material, such as silicon, to absorb light. When light is absorbed by the semiconductor, it creates an electric current. This current can be used to power devices or to store energy in a battery.

Option A is incorrect because a photoelectric cell does not convert mechanical energy to electric energy.

Option B is incorrect because a photoelectric cell does not convert heat energy to mechanical energy.

Option C is incorrect because a photoelectric cell does not convert light energy to chemical energy.

The correct answer is C. 35 years.

The President of India is the head of state of India. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both houses of Parliament, the legislative assemblies of all states and the legislative councils of the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.

The President must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age, and qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

The President holds office for a term of five years and is eligible for re-election.

The President is the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces. The President appoints the Prime Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers. The President also has the power to dissolve Parliament and to appoint the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

The President is a constitutional head and has only limited powers. The real executive power is exercised by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

The President is a symbol of national unity and is respected by all Indians.

The correct answer is C. Wriggle.

To wriggle is to move along with quick, short twistings. It is often used to describe the movement of snakes or worms, but it can also be used to describe the movement of people or other animals. For example, a person might wriggle their way through a crowd, or a fish might wriggle its way through the water.

The other options are not as accurate descriptions of the movement of quick, short twistings. Swagger is to walk with a proud or self-confident gait. Stumble is to walk or move in an unsteady or clumsy way. Crawl is to move on one's hands and knees.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**

The Banashree scheme is a government-run scheme that aims to empower women by providing them with livestock loans, training in livestock management, and marketing support for livestock products. The scheme was launched in 2010 and has since benefited over 1 million women.

The scheme provides women with loans to purchase livestock, such as cows, goats, and chickens. The loans are provided at a low interest rate and are repayable over a period of five years. The scheme also provides women with training in livestock management, so that they can properly care for their animals and produce high-quality products. In addition, the scheme provides marketing support for women's livestock products, so that they can sell their products at a fair price.

The Banashree scheme has been successful in empowering women and improving their livelihoods. The scheme has helped women to increase their income, improve their food security, and reduce their dependence on men. The scheme has also helped to improve the status of women in society and promote gender equality.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Livestock loans. The Banashree scheme provides women with loans to purchase livestock, such as cows, goats, and chickens. The loans are provided at a low interest rate and are repayable over a period of five years.
* Option B: Training in livestock management. The scheme also provides women with training in livestock management, so that they can properly care for their animals and produce high-quality products.
* Option C: Marketing support for livestock products. The scheme also provides marketing support for women's livestock products, so that they can sell their products at a fair price.

The correct answer is: **B) Chota Nagpur Plateau**

The Rajmahal Hills are a mountain range in eastern India, located in the state of Jharkhand. They are an extension of the Chota Nagpur Plateau, which is a large plateau that covers parts of Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh. The Rajmahal Hills are a popular tourist destination, known for their scenic beauty and their many historical and archaeological sites.

The Aravalli Range is a mountain range in northwestern India. It is the oldest mountain range in India, and it is thought to have formed over 2 billion years ago. The Aravalli Range is not an extension of the Rajmahal Hills.

The Vindhya Range is a mountain range in central India. It is a major geological feature of the Indian subcontinent, and it is thought to have formed over 250 million years ago. The Vindhya Range is not an extension of the Rajmahal Hills.

The Satpura Range is a mountain range in central India. It is a major geological feature of the Indian subcontinent, and it is thought to have formed over 250 million years ago. The Satpura Range is not an extension of the Rajmahal Hills.

The correct answer is: C. 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Increasing returns to scale imply that the marginal product of a variable factor will eventually increase, but not always. For example, if a firm doubles all of its inputs, it may initially experience increasing returns to scale as the firm becomes more efficient. However, as the firm continues to grow, it may eventually reach a point where it becomes more difficult to manage and coordinate the production process, leading to decreasing returns to scale.

Statement 2 is correct. Constant returns to scale imply that the marginal product of a variable factor will always remain constant. This means that if a firm doubles all of its inputs, it will also double its output.

Statement 3 is correct. Managerial diseconomies are one of the main causes of decreasing returns to scale. As a firm grows, it becomes more difficult to manage and coordinate the production process. This can lead to inefficiencies and a decrease in output.

Therefore, the only statement that is correct is statement 2.

The correct answer is (d), M.K. Gandhi.

M.K. Gandhi was the first President of All India Untouchability League (later changed to Harijan Sewak Samaj). He was a lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist, and civil rights activist who employed nonviolent civil disobedience to lead the successful campaign for India's independence from British rule, and in turn inspired movements for civil rights and freedom across the world. The honorific title Mahatma—meaning "high-souled"—was bestowed on him first in 1914 in South Africa, and became widely used in India in the 1920s. He is internationally honored as the Father of India.

B.R. Ambedkar was a leader of the Dalit community in India and campaigned against social discrimination against them. He was also the principal architect of the Constitution of India.

G.D. Birla was an Indian industrialist and philanthropist. He was one of the most prominent Indian businessmen of the 20th century and was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.

Jotiba Phule was a social reformer and thinker who campaigned against caste discrimination in India. He is considered to be the father of the Indian social reform movement.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

A recession is a period of declining economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months, normally visible in real GDP, real income, employment, industrial production, and wholesale-retail sales. The recession phase of the business cycle is typically associated with falling gross domestic product (GDP), rising unemployment, and declining asset prices.

Recessions are caused by a variety of factors, including financial crises, asset bubbles, and economic shocks. They can also be caused by government policies, such as austerity measures or tax cuts.

The effects of a recession can be severe, both on individuals and on the economy as a whole. Individuals may lose their jobs, their homes, and their savings. The economy may experience a decline in investment, production, and trade.

There are a number of things that can be done to mitigate the effects of a recession. Governments can provide fiscal stimulus, such as tax cuts or spending increases. They can also provide monetary stimulus, such as lowering interest rates.

Recessions are a normal part of the business cycle. However, they can be severe and have a long-term impact on the economy. It is important to understand the causes of recessions and the policies that can be used to mitigate their effects.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Slowing down of economic activity over a limited period: A recession is a period of declining economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months.
• B. Period that results from accumulation of unsold goods, owing to fall in demand: A recession can be caused by a fall in demand, which leads to businesses producing less and workers being laid off. This can lead to a further fall in demand, as people have less money to spend.
• C. Period during which unemployment may rise and demand and output may fall, leading to slump in trade: A recession is typically associated with rising unemployment, as businesses cut back on production and workers are laid off. This can lead to a further fall in demand, as people have less money to spend.

The correct answer is: Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

Total revenue (TR) is the total amount of money that a company receives from selling its goods or services. Marginal revenue (MR) is the additional revenue that a company receives from selling one more unit of its goods or services.

When MR is negative, it means that the company is losing money by selling one more unit of its goods or services. This is because the cost of producing the additional unit is greater than the revenue that the company receives from selling it.

When MR is zero, it means that the company is neither making nor losing money by selling one more unit of its goods or services. This is because the cost of producing the additional unit is equal to the revenue that the company receives from selling it.

When MR is positive, it means that the company is making money by selling one more unit of its goods or services. This is because the revenue that the company receives from selling the additional unit is greater than the cost of producing it.

Therefore, TR starts declining when MR is negative. This is because when MR is negative, the company is losing money by selling one more unit of its goods or services. As a result, the total amount of money that the company receives from selling its goods or services will start to decline.

MR can be zero or even negative. This is because the cost of producing a good or service can sometimes be greater than the revenue that the company receives from selling it. In this case, the company will lose money by selling the good or service.

TR stops increasing when MR = 0. This is because when MR is zero, the company is neither making nor losing money by selling one more unit of its goods or services. As a result, the total amount of money that the company receives from selling its goods or services will not increase any further.

The correct answer is A. a smooth curve.

A Leontief isoquant is a smooth curve because it represents the combinations of two inputs that produce the same level of output. The curve is smooth because there is no substitution between the two inputs. In other words, if you want to produce more output, you need to use more of both inputs.

Option B is incorrect because a line with no kinks would represent a situation where there is perfect substitution between the two inputs. This is not the case in a Leontief production function, where the two inputs are complementary.

Option C is incorrect because a line with many kinks would represent a situation where there is imperfect substitution between the two inputs. This is not the case in a Leontief production function, where the two inputs are complementary.

Option D is incorrect because a line parallel to the axis with a kink would represent a situation where one input is completely useless. This is not the case in a Leontief production function, where both inputs are necessary to produce output.

The correct answer is: A. They have an open circulatory system.

Annelids are a group of segmented worms that have a closed circulatory system. This means that their blood is contained within blood vessels, which transport it throughout the body. The blood is pumped by a heart, which is located in the anterior part of the body. The blood carries oxygen and nutrients to the tissues, and removes waste products.

Annelids also have a nerve net, which is a network of nerves that controls their movement and other bodily functions. The nerve net is not as complex as the nervous system of vertebrates, but it is still able to coordinate the activities of the different parts of the body.

Annelids perform gas exchange across their skin. This means that they take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide through their skin. The skin of annelids is thin and moist, which allows for the exchange of gases.

Annelids do not have pseudocoeloms. A pseudocoelom is a fluid-filled cavity that lies between the digestive tract and the body wall. Annelids have a true coelom, which is a fluid-filled cavity that is lined with mesoderm. The coelom provides support and protection for the internal organs.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: A. They have an open circulatory system.

The correct answer is: B. Number of employees.

The balance of trade receivables is the amount of money that a company is owed by its customers. It is affected by the level of sales, the credit terms offered to customers, and the collection policy of the company. The number of employees does not affect the balance of trade receivables.

The level of sales is the most important factor that affects the balance of trade receivables. The higher the level of sales, the higher the balance of trade receivables. This is because the company will have more customers who owe it money.

The credit terms offered to customers also affect the balance of trade receivables. The longer the credit terms, the higher the balance of trade receivables. This is because the company will have to wait longer for its customers to pay their bills.

The collection policy of the company also affects the balance of trade receivables. A strict collection policy will result in a lower balance of trade receivables. This is because the company will be more aggressive in collecting its debts.

The number of employees does not affect the balance of trade receivables. This is because the number of employees does not affect the level of sales, the credit terms offered to customers, or the collection policy of the company.

The correct answer is C. Hindi as official language.

Article 343 of the Indian Constitution states that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union. It also provides for the use of English for all official purposes until such time as the President of India issues a notification declaring that Hindi has become the official language for all purposes.

Option A is incorrect because Article 81 of the Indian Constitution deals with the number of seats for the Lok Sabha.

Option B is incorrect because Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the number of seats for the Rajya Sabha.

Option D is incorrect because Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deals with the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is (a).

Section 78 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides for the statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession. The section states that a mortgagee in possession is bound to:

• Keep the property in good repair;
• Pay all taxes, assessments, and other outgoings;
• Collect the rents and profits;
• Account for the rents and profits;
• Keep proper accounts;
• Not make any permanent improvements without the consent of the mortgagor;
• Not sell the property without the consent of the court.

Section 76 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the appointment of a receiver by the court. Section 77 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the rights of a mortgagee in possession. Section 79 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the sale of mortgaged property.

A mortgagee in possession is a person who has taken possession of mortgaged property after the mortgagor has defaulted on the mortgage. The mortgagee in possession is responsible for managing the property and collecting the rents and profits. The mortgagee in possession is also responsible for paying the taxes, assessments, and other outgoings on the property. The mortgagee in possession is not entitled to make any permanent improvements to the property without the consent of the mortgagor. The mortgagee in possession is also not entitled to sell the property without the consent of the court.

The correct answer is: A. Article 23

Article 23 of the Constitution of India prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour. It states that "traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law."

Article 23 is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution. It is a right that is essential for the dignity and freedom of the individual. The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is a fundamental right because it protects the individual from being treated as a commodity or a slave. It also protects the individual's right to freedom and liberty.

Article 23 is also important because it is a part of the international human rights framework. The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is a right that is recognized in international human rights law. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights all prohibit traffic in human beings and forced labour.

The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is a fundamental right that is essential for the dignity and freedom of the individual. It is also an important right that is recognized in international human rights law.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.
• Option B: Article 43 provides for the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
• Option C: Article 33 provides for the right to freedom of speech and expression.
• Option D: Article 231 provides for the amendment of the Constitution.

The correct answer is: Only argument II is strong.

Argument I is a weak argument because it does not provide any evidence to support its claim. The political party in power should have the freedom to decide the number of ministers to be appointed, but this does not mean that there should not be a maximum limit. In fact, there are several reasons why there should be a maximum limit on the number of ministers in the Central Government.

First, a large number of ministers can lead to inefficiency and corruption. When there are too many ministers, it can be difficult to coordinate their work and ensure that they are all working towards the same goals. This can lead to duplication of effort, waste of resources, and even corruption.

Second, a large number of ministers can be expensive. Each minister has a salary and benefits, and they also have staff and offices. The cost of maintaining a large number of ministers can be a significant burden on the government budget.

Third, a large number of ministers can make it difficult for the government to function effectively. When there are too many ministers, it can be difficult for the Prime Minister to keep track of what they are all doing. This can lead to confusion and a lack of coordination.

For these reasons, there should be a maximum limit on the number of ministers in the Central Government. Argument II provides strong evidence to support this claim. It argues that the number of ministers should be restricted to a certain percentage of the total number of seats in the parliament to avoid unnecessary expenditure. This is a sound argument because it is based on the principle of efficiency and economy.

Argument I, on the other hand, does not provide any evidence to support its claim. It simply asserts that the political party in power should have the freedom to decide the number of ministers to be appointed. This is not a strong argument because it does not take into account the other factors that I have mentioned above.

In conclusion, only argument II is strong. Argument I is weak because it does not provide any evidence to support its claim.

The correct answer is D. 1000.

The series is a list of cubes of the first 10 natural numbers. The first number in the series is 1, which is the cube of 1. The second number in the series is 8, which is the cube of 2. The third number in the series is 27, which is the cube of 3. The fourth number in the series is 64, which is the cube of 4. The fifth number in the series is 125, which is the cube of 5. The sixth number in the series is 216, which is the cube of 6. The seventh number in the series is 343, which is the cube of 7. The eighth number in the series is 512, which is the cube of 8. The ninth number in the series is 729, which is the cube of 9. The tenth number in the series is 1024, which is the cube of 10.

1000 is not a cube of any natural number. Therefore, it is not a number in the series.

The correct answer is D. 1,2,3 and 4.

The Indian Constitution is based on the principles of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. These principles are enshrined in the preamble to the Constitution, which states that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic.

The principle of justice refers to the need for a just and fair society. This includes the need for equality before the law, the right to equality of opportunity, and the right to freedom from discrimination.

The principle of liberty refers to the need for individual freedom. This includes the right to freedom of speech, the right to freedom of assembly, and the right to freedom of religion.

The principle of equality refers to the need for equality of all citizens. This includes the right to equality before the law, the right to equal protection of the laws, and the right to equal opportunities.

The principle of fraternity refers to the need for a sense of brotherhood and sisterhood among all citizens. This includes the need for unity and solidarity, and the need to promote social harmony.

These principles are essential for the creation of a democratic society. They provide a foundation for a just, fair, and equal society in which all citizens can live with dignity and respect.

The correct answer is (d). The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 has retrospective effect from 19th September 2018. This means that the provisions of the Act can be applied to cases of triple talaq that took place before the Act came into force.

The Act was passed by the Parliament of India on 30th July 2019 and came into force on 19th September 2019. The Act makes triple talaq, or instant divorce, a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment of up to three years and a fine. It also provides for the payment of maintenance to the divorced woman and her children.

The Act has been welcomed by many as a step towards protecting the rights of Muslim women. However, it has also been criticized by some who argue that it interferes with the religious freedom of Muslims.

The Act has been challenged in the Supreme Court of India. The Court is currently hearing a petition challenging the constitutional validity of the Act. The Court is expected to give its verdict in the near future.

The options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect because the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 does not have retrospective effect from those dates.

The correct answer is D. Palaeocene.

The Palaeocene is the lowermost and oldest epoch of the Tertiary Period of geologic time, lasting from approximately 66 million to 56 million years ago. It follows the Cretaceous Period and is followed by the Eocene Epoch. The Palaeocene is the first epoch of the Paleogene Period.

The Palaeocene was a time of great change on Earth. The dinosaurs had become extinct at the end of the Cretaceous Period, and the mammals were beginning to diversify and fill the ecological niches that had been left vacant. The first primates and horses appeared during the Palaeocene.

The climate of the Palaeocene was warm and humid, with a global average temperature that was about 5 degrees Celsius warmer than today. The Earth's continents were still largely in their current positions, but there was more land in the Southern Hemisphere than there is today.

The Palaeocene ended with the Paleocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum, a period of rapid global warming that lasted for about 100,000 years. The cause of the Paleocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum is still debated, but it may have been caused by a sudden release of methane from the Earth's crust.

The Palaeocene is a relatively short epoch, but it was a time of great change on Earth. The dinosaurs had become extinct, and the mammals were beginning to diversify and fill the ecological niches that had been left vacant. The first primates and horses appeared during the Palaeocene, and the climate was warm and humid. The Palaeocene ended with the Paleocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum, a period of rapid global warming.

The correct answer is A. Guanine - cytosine.

Adenine and thymine are complementary bases, as are guanine and cytosine. This means that adenine always pairs with thymine, and guanine always pairs with cytosine. This complementary base pairing is essential for the stability of DNA.

Adenine and thymine are both purines, which are nitrogenous bases that have a double ring structure. Guanine and cytosine are both pyrimidines, which are nitrogenous bases that have a single ring structure. The two types of bases are complementary because they have different shapes and sizes. Adenine is slightly larger than thymine, and guanine is slightly larger than cytosine. This difference in size allows the bases to fit together perfectly.

The complementary base pairing of adenine and thymine, and guanine and cytosine, is also essential for the replication of DNA. When DNA replicates, the two strands of DNA separate and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand. The new strands are complementary to the original strands, and this ensures that the genetic information is passed on accurately.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Which describes the correct pairing of DNA bases?" is A. Guanine - cytosine.

The correct answer is: A. 11 December.

The International Day of Remembrance of the Victims of Slavery and the Transatlantic Slave Trade is observed on 25 December each year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2007 to commemorate the victims of slavery and the transatlantic slave trade. The day is also an opportunity to raise awareness of the lasting impact of slavery and the transatlantic slave trade on individuals, families, and communities around the world.

The transatlantic slave trade was a brutal and dehumanizing system that enslaved millions of people from Africa and transported them to the Americas. The trade began in the 15th century and continued for over 400 years. During that time, an estimated 12 million Africans were enslaved and transported to the Americas. The transatlantic slave trade had a devastating impact on Africa, both economically and socially. It also had a profound impact on the Americas, where it created a system of racial inequality that continues to this day.

The International Day of Remembrance of the Victims of Slavery and the Transatlantic Slave Trade is an important opportunity to remember the victims of this horrific system and to reflect on its legacy. It is also a time to recommit ourselves to the fight against racism and discrimination.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the dates on which the International Day of Remembrance of the Victims of Slavery and the Transatlantic Slave Trade is observed.

The correct answer is $boxed{0}$.

To solve this, we can use the chain rule. The chain rule says that if $u$ is a function of $v$ and $v$ is a function of $x$, then $frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial u}{partial v} cdot frac{partial v}{partial x}$.

In this case, we have $u = log left( {frac{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}{{{text{x}} + {text{y}}}}} right)$, so $v = frac{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}{{{text{x}} + {text{y}}}}}$ and $x$ is the independent variable.

Therefore, we can use the chain rule to find $frac{partial u}{partial x}$ as follows:

begin{align}
frac{partial u}{partial x} &= frac{partial u}{partial v} cdot frac{partial v}{partial x}
&= frac{2x}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}} - frac{2y}{{{x^2} + {y^2}}}
&= frac{2x - 2y}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= frac{2(x - y)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
end{align}

Similarly, we can find $frac{partial u}{partial y}$ as follows:

begin{align}
frac{partial u}{partial y} &= frac{partial u}{partial v} cdot frac{partial v}{partial y}
&= frac{2y}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}} - frac{2x}{{{x^2} + {y^2}}}
&= frac{2y - 2x}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= frac{2(y - x)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
end{align}

Therefore, the value of $text{x} cdot frac{partial u}{partial x} + text{y} cdot frac{partial u}{partial y}$ is:

begin{align}
text{x} cdot frac{partial u}{partial x} + text{y} cdot frac{partial u}{partial y} &= text{x} cdot frac{2(x - y)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}} + text{y} cdot frac{2(y - x)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= frac{2(x^2 - xy + y^2)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}} + frac{2(xy - x^2 + y^2)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= frac{2(x^2 + y^2 - x^2 - y^2)}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= frac{0}{{{{text{x}}^2} + {{text{y}}^2}}}
&= 0
end{align}

C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize in 1930 in the field of Physics.

The probability of getting both aces is $frac{4}{52}cdotfrac{4}{52}=frac{1}{169}$.

The first card can be any card, so the probability of getting an ace is $frac{4}{52}$. The second card can also be any card, so the probability of getting an ace is also $frac{4}{52}$. However, we need to multiply these probabilities because the events are dependent. The probability of getting two aces is the probability of getting an ace on the first draw and then getting an ace on the second draw, given that the first draw was an ace.

The other options are incorrect because they do not take into account the fact that the cards are drawn with replacement.

The correct answer is (a) Russia.

Nihilism is a philosophy that rejects all traditional values and beliefs. It originated in Russia in the 19th century, and was influenced by the work of philosophers such as Friedrich Nietzsche and Max Stirner. Nihilists believe that there is no objective meaning or purpose to life, and that all values are relative. They often advocate for radical social change, and have been associated with terrorism and other forms of violence.

The other options are incorrect. America, China, and Mongolia are all countries where nihilism has been present, but it did not originate in any of these countries.

The correct answer is D. inconsistency.

An altercation is a heated argument or fight. A discussion is a formal or informal exchange of ideas. Resonance is a strong, full sound. Alternative is a choice between two or more things. Consonance is agreement or harmony.

In the sentence "it was altercation throughout and there was no discussion," the word "altercation" suggests that there was a lot of arguing and fighting. The word "discussion" suggests that there was a lot of talking and exchanging ideas. The two words are contradictory, which makes the sentence inconsistent.

The correct answer is: A. Six months.

An ordinance is a law passed by a state governor. It is a temporary law that can be used to address a specific issue or problem. If an ordinance is not approved by the state legislature within six months, it will expire.

Option B is incorrect because an ordinance is valid for six months, not six weeks.

Option C is incorrect because an ordinance is a temporary law, not a permanent law.

Option D is incorrect because an ordinance is valid for six months, not one week.

The correct answer is (a) Jaipur.

The National conference of the Presiding Officers of the Legislative Bodies of the States was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan from 26 to 28 September 2011. The conference was inaugurated by the then President of India, Pratibha Patil. The theme of the conference was "Legislative Reforms: Challenges and Opportunities". The conference was attended by over 300 delegates from all over India.

The conference discussed a number of issues related to legislative reforms, including the need to make legislatures more efficient and effective, the need to improve the quality of legislation, and the need to make legislatures more accessible to the public. The conference also adopted a number of resolutions on these issues.

The conference was a success and helped to promote the cause of legislative reforms in India.

Option (b), Jodhpur, is incorrect because the National conference of the Presiding Officers of the Legislative Bodies of the States was not held in Jodhpur in September 2011.

Option (c), Sawai Madhopur, is incorrect because the National conference of the Presiding Officers of the Legislative Bodies of the States was not held in Sawai Madhopur in September 2011.

Option (d), Udaipur, is incorrect because the National conference of the Presiding Officers of the Legislative Bodies of the States was not held in Udaipur in September 2011.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The sentence is about Thomas, who is a specific person. We know that he has a window in his room, because he opens it after hearing his alarm clock go off. We do not need to use an article because the window is specific.

A is incorrect because "a" is used to refer to a general or unspecified thing. In this case, we are talking about a specific window, so we do not need to use "a."

B is incorrect because "an" is used to refer to a singular, uncountable thing. In this case, we are talking about a specific window, so we do not need to use "an."

C is incorrect because "the" is used to refer to a specific thing that has already been mentioned. In this case, we are talking about a specific window that has not been mentioned before, so we do not need to use "the."

The correct answer is: A. Two.

A non-money bill is a bill that does not deal with the raising or spending of money. It is discussed in both houses of the Parliament, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The bill is first introduced in the Lok Sabha, where it is debated and voted on. If the bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is then sent to the Rajya Sabha for consideration. The Rajya Sabha can either pass the bill, reject it, or amend it. If the Rajya Sabha passes the bill, it is sent to the President for assent. If the Rajya Sabha rejects the bill, or passes it with amendments that are not acceptable to the Lok Sabha, the bill is returned to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration. The Lok Sabha can then either accept the Rajya Sabha's amendments, or reject them and send the bill back to the Rajya Sabha for further consideration. This process can continue until the bill is passed by both houses of the Parliament.

Option B is incorrect because a non-money bill is discussed in both houses of the Parliament, not three times.

Option C is incorrect because a non-money bill is discussed in both houses of the Parliament, not four times.

Option D is incorrect because a non-money bill is discussed in both houses of the Parliament, not once.

The correct answer is C. of.

The preposition "of" is used to indicate that someone is accused of doing something. In this case, the speaker is accusing the person of stealing his aunt's necklace.

The other options are not correct because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

• The preposition "for" is used to indicate the purpose of something. For example, "I went to the store for milk."
• The preposition "with" is used to indicate that someone is doing something together with someone else. For example, "I went to the store with my friend."
• The preposition "on" is used to indicate that something is happening at a particular time or place. For example, "I went to the store on Tuesday."

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is (a). Gurushikhar is situated in the Aravali Range. The Aravali Range is a mountain range in northwestern India. It is the oldest mountain range in India and is about 500 million years old. The Aravali Range runs from the Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan to the Delhi Ridge in Haryana. The highest peak in the Aravali Range is Gurushikhar, which is located in Rajasthan. Gurushikhar is a sacred mountain for Hindus and is said to be the place where the Hindu god Vishnu meditated.

The other options are incorrect. The Assam Himalaya is a mountain range in northeastern India. The Vindhyan Range is a mountain range in central India. The Satpura Range is a mountain range in central India.

The correct answer is: A) Bengali television.

The Anandalok Puraskar is an annual award given to the best in Bengali television. It was instituted in 1992 by the Ananda Bazar Patrika Group, one of the largest media conglomerates in India. The awards are given in a variety of categories, including Best Actor, Best Actress, Best Supporting Actor, Best Supporting Actress, Best Director, Best Serial, Best Show, and Best Newcomer.

The Anandalok Puraskar is one of the most prestigious awards in Bengali television. It is considered a great honor to be nominated for an Anandalok Puraskar, and winning one is a career-defining moment for any Bengali actor or actress.

The other options are incorrect because:

* The Anandalok Puraskar is not an award for Bengali cinema. The most prestigious award for Bengali cinema is the National Film Award for Best Feature Film in Bengali.
* The Anandalok Puraskar is not an award for Bengali music. The most prestigious award for Bengali music is the Filmfare Award for Best Music Director – Bengali.
* The Anandalok Puraskar is not an award for Bengali literature. The most prestigious award for Bengali literature is the Sahitya Akademi Award in Bengali.

The correct answer is: C. 1 and 3

Statement 1 is correct. Two immiscible liquids can be separated by a separating funnel. The liquids are poured into the funnel and the funnel is then left to stand. The denser liquid will sink to the bottom of the funnel, while the less dense liquid will float on top. The liquids can then be poured off separately.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Chromatography is a technique that can be used to separate mixtures of compounds. However, it is not the latest technique for purification, isolation and separation of organic compounds. The latest technique is called high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).

Statement 3 is correct. Oils can be purified by steam distillation. Steam distillation is a process that uses steam to vaporize a liquid. The vapor is then condensed back into a liquid, which is purified from the original liquid.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 1 and 3.

Under Sabuj Sathi scheme, bicycles are distributed to the students of class IX to XII in all government/government aided schools.

The correct answer is (b), Sleeping sickness.

Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease that is spread to humans through the bite of infected tsetse flies. The disease is caused by a protozoan parasite called Trypanosoma brucei. There are two forms of sleeping sickness: African trypanosomiasis and American trypanosomiasis. African trypanosomiasis is more common and more severe than American trypanosomiasis.

The symptoms of sleeping sickness vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, the symptoms may include fever, headache, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. In the later stages, the symptoms may include confusion, seizures, coma, and death.

There is no cure for sleeping sickness, but it can be treated with medication. Treatment is most effective if it is started early in the course of the disease.

Filariasis is a parasitic disease that is spread to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The disease is caused by a nematode worm called Wuchereria bancrofti. Filariasis can cause a number of health problems, including lymphedema, hydrocele, and elephantiasis.

Malaria is a parasitic disease that is spread to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The disease is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium. Malaria can cause a number of health problems, including fever, chills, anemia, and death.

Dengue fever is a viral disease that is spread to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The disease is caused by a virus called dengue virus. Dengue fever can cause a number of health problems, including fever, headache, muscle aches, and rash.

The correct answer is A. The West Bengal Public Service Commission is responsible for the recruitment and selection of civil servants in the state of West Bengal, India. It is an independent body that conducts competitive examinations to select candidates for various government jobs. The Commission is also responsible for conducting interviews and making recommendations to the government on the appointment of civil servants.

Option B is incorrect because the Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections in India.

Option C is incorrect because the police and other law enforcement agencies are responsible for maintaining law and order.

Option D is incorrect because the state government is responsible for providing healthcare services.

The correct answer is D. The Sena dynasty, which ruled over Bengal in the 12th century, is known for its patronage of Hindu scholars and poets, construction of magnificent temples, and military conquests.

The Sena dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled over Bengal from the 11th to the 13th centuries. The dynasty was founded by Vijayasena, who conquered Bengal from the Pala dynasty in 1070. The Senas were patrons of Hindu culture and learning, and they built many temples and monasteries. They were also successful military commanders, and they extended the boundaries of their kingdom.

The Sena dynasty came to an end in 1206, when it was overthrown by the Muslim ruler Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khilji. However, the Senas left a lasting legacy on Bengal, and their rule is still remembered today.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Patronage of Hindu scholars and poets. The Senas were patrons of Hindu culture and learning. They built many temples and monasteries, and they supported Hindu scholars and poets.
* Option B: Construction of magnificent temples. The Senas built many temples and monasteries, including the famous Dakshineswar Kali Temple.
* Option C: Military conquests. The Senas were successful military commanders, and they extended the boundaries of their kingdom.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: B. Centrioles

Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles found in the centrosome of animal cells. They are involved in the formation of the spindle apparatus, which is necessary for cell division.

The centromere is a region of a chromosome that contains the kinetochore, which is the attachment site for the spindle microtubules. The centromere is not involved in the initiation of cell division.

The centrosome is a structure located near the nucleus of animal cells. It contains two centrioles, which are involved in the formation of the spindle apparatus. The centrosome is not involved in the initiation of cell division.

Ribosomes are small organelles that are found in the cytoplasm of all cells. They are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes are not involved in the initiation of cell division.

The correct answer is D. Bleaching powder.

Baking soda, washing soda, and baking powder are all common household items that have a variety of uses. However, none of them are effective at disinfecting drinking water. Bleaching powder, on the other hand, is a powerful disinfectant that can be used to kill harmful bacteria and viruses in water.

Baking soda is a white, crystalline powder that is used as a leavening agent in baking. It is also used as a cleaning agent and a deodorizer. Baking soda is not effective at disinfecting drinking water because it does not kill harmful bacteria and viruses.

Washing soda is a white, crystalline powder that is used as a laundry detergent and a cleaning agent. It is also used to make soap and glass. Washing soda is not effective at disinfecting drinking water because it does not kill harmful bacteria and viruses.

Baking powder is a white, powdery substance that is used as a leavening agent in baking. It is a combination of baking soda, cream of tartar, and cornstarch. Baking powder is not effective at disinfecting drinking water because it does not kill harmful bacteria and viruses.

Bleaching powder is a white, powdery substance that is used as a disinfectant and a bleaching agent. It is a mixture of calcium hypochlorite and hydrated lime. Bleaching powder is effective at disinfecting drinking water because it kills harmful bacteria and viruses.

To disinfect drinking water with bleach, add 1/8 teaspoon of bleach per gallon of water. Stir the water well and let it stand for 30 minutes. After 30 minutes, the water is safe to drink.

The correct answer is A. at.

The preposition "at" is used to indicate a specific location. In this case, the speaker is indicating that their house is located at the end of the street.

The preposition "on" is used to indicate a location on a surface. In this case, the speaker is not indicating that their house is located on the surface of the street, but rather at the end of the street.

The preposition "of" is used to indicate possession or association. In this case, the speaker is not indicating that their house is a possession of the street, but rather that it is located at the end of the street.

The preposition "over" is used to indicate a location above or across something. In this case, the speaker is not indicating that their house is located above or across the street, but rather at the end of the street.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The Bhangar movement is a social movement in West Bengal, India, that began in 2017 in protest against the acquisition of land for industrial projects. The movement has been led by the Bhangar gram panchayat (village council) and has been supported by a number of civil society organizations.

The movement has been successful in delaying the acquisition of land for the projects and has raised awareness of the issue of land acquisition in India. The movement has also highlighted the lack of basic amenities in the area and the environmental impact of the proposed projects.

The Bhangar movement is an important example of a social movement that is fighting for the rights of marginalized communities. The movement has been able to achieve some success, but it continues to face challenges from the government and the companies that are planning the industrial projects.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

A) Land acquisition for industrial projects: The Bhangar movement is opposed to the acquisition of land for industrial projects. The movement argues that the acquisition of land is not in the interest of the local community and that it will lead to displacement and environmental degradation.

B) Environmental pollution: The Bhangar movement is also concerned about the environmental impact of the proposed industrial projects. The movement argues that the projects will pollute the air, water, and soil in the area.

C) Lack of basic amenities: The Bhangar movement is also concerned about the lack of basic amenities in the area. The movement argues that the government has not provided adequate housing, education, healthcare, and other basic services to the local community.

D) All of the above: The Bhangar movement is opposed to land acquisition for industrial projects, environmental pollution, and the lack of basic amenities. The movement argues that these issues are interconnected and that they are all harmful to the local community.

The correct answer is: C) Jalpaiguri.

Sitalpati mats are traditionally made in the Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal, India. The mats are made from the leaves of the sisal plant, which is a type of agave. The leaves are dried and then woven together to create a soft, comfortable mat. Sitalpati mats are often used in homes and offices as a cooling surface. They are also used as a traditional gift in India.

The other options are incorrect. Cooch Behar is a district in West Bengal, India. Malda is a district in West Bengal, India. Darjeeling is a district in West Bengal, India. However, sitalpati mats are not traditionally made in any of these districts.

The correct answer is B. Virginia Thrasher. She was 16 years old when she won the gold medal in the 10-meter air rifle event at the 2016 Summer Olympics in Rio de Janeiro.

Deepa Karmakar was 22 years old when she competed in the vault event at the 2016 Summer Olympics. Gaurika Singh was 15 years old when she competed in the 100-meter freestyle event at the 2016 Summer Olympics. Emily Seebohn was 21 years old when she competed in the 100-meter backstroke event at the 2016 Summer Olympics.

Virginia Thrasher was born on January 13, 1998, in Springfield, Virginia. She started shooting when she was 10 years old. She won the gold medal in the 10-meter air rifle event at the 2016 Summer Olympics, becoming the youngest American to win a gold medal in shooting. She also won the gold medal in the 10-meter air rifle event at the 2015 Pan American Games.

The correct answer is: A. Pannalal Patel

Pannalal Patel (1926-2012) was an Indian poet and writer from Gujarat, India. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2015 for his contribution to Gujarati literature.

Patel was born in the village of Bhavnagar in Gujarat. He started writing poetry at a young age and published his first collection of poems, "Anant", in 1947. He went on to publish several more collections of poems, as well as novels, short stories, and essays.

Patel's work is known for its lyrical beauty and its exploration of themes such as love, loss, and the human condition. He is considered one of the most important Gujarati writers of the 20th century.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Umashankar Joshi (1911-1988) was an Indian poet, writer, and critic from Gujarat. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 1968 for his contribution to Gujarati literature.
• Raghuveer Chaudhari (1938-2007) was an Indian poet, writer, and critic from Gujarat. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 1998 for his contribution to Gujarati literature.
• Rama Jain (1923-2012) was an Indian writer and social activist from Gujarat. She was awarded the Padma Shri in 1987 for her contributions to literature and social work.

The correct answer is (d), solar cells. Solar cells are a type of renewable energy source that converts sunlight into electricity. They are clean and do not produce any emissions, making them a good choice for keeping the environment clean.

Petroleum products are a non-renewable energy source that is derived from fossil fuels. They are a major source of air pollution and greenhouse gases, which contribute to climate change.

Forest products are a renewable energy source, but they can be harmful to the environment if they are not harvested sustainably. Deforestation can lead to soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and climate change.

Nuclear fission is a non-renewable energy source that produces radioactive waste. This waste can be harmful to the environment if it is not properly disposed of.

In conclusion, solar cells are the best energy source for keeping the environment clean. They are clean, renewable, and do not produce any emissions.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Seismic surveying, echo sounder, and side-scan sonar are all methods that have been used to map the topography of the ocean basins.

Seismic surveying uses sound waves to create a picture of the ocean floor. Echo sounder uses sound waves to measure the depth of the ocean. Side-scan sonar uses sound waves to create a picture of the ocean floor along the side of the ship.

These methods have been used to map the topography of the ocean basins, including the mid-ocean ridges, abyssal plains, and trenches.

The mid-ocean ridges are long, linear mountain ranges that run through the middle of the ocean basins. They are formed by the upwelling of magma from the Earth's mantle.

The abyssal plains are flat, low-lying areas of the ocean floor. They cover about 50% of the Earth's surface.

The trenches are deep, narrow depressions in the ocean floor. They are formed by the subduction of one tectonic plate under another.

The knowledge about the topography of the ocean basins has been used to understand the Earth's geology and to map the distribution of resources, such as oil and gas.