WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-22

The correct answer is: A. advice of the prime minister.

The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister. This is because the Prime Minister is the head of the government and is responsible to the Lok Sabha. If the Prime Minister loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, the President can dissolve the House and call for fresh elections.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary and is not involved in the political process.
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament and cannot recommend its own dissolution.
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament and cannot recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is (a) Section 130.

Section 130 of the Indian Evidence Act states that an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused. An accomplice is a person who is guilty of the same offence as the accused, or of an offence which is a necessary part of the offence charged against the accused, or of an offence which is a probable consequence of the commission of the offence charged against the accused.

Section 130 of the Indian Evidence Act is important because it allows accomplices to testify against each other. This can be helpful in cases where there is no other evidence available, or where the evidence is weak. However, it is important to note that accomplice testimony is not always reliable, and should be considered carefully by the court.

The other options are incorrect because they do not state that an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused. Section 131 of the Indian Evidence Act states that a person who is an accused is not a competent witness against himself. Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act states that a person who is an interested witness is not a competent witness. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act states that a person who is an incompetent witness is not a competent witness.

The correct answer is C. cholera.

Vibrio cholerae is a bacterium that causes cholera, an acute diarrheal illness that can be life-threatening if left untreated. The bacterium is spread through contaminated food or water. Symptoms of cholera include watery diarrhea, vomiting, and muscle cramps. In severe cases, cholera can lead to dehydration, shock, and death.

Tetanus is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium tetani. The bacterium produces a toxin that causes muscle stiffness and spasms. Tetanus can be fatal if left untreated.

Influenza is a respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, runny or stuffy nose, muscle aches, and fatigue. Influenza can be serious, especially for young children, older adults, and people with certain chronic health conditions.

Typhoid fever is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi. The bacterium is spread through contaminated food or water. Symptoms of typhoid fever include fever, headache, cough, muscle aches, and loss of appetite. In severe cases, typhoid fever can lead to pneumonia, meningitis, and death.

The correct answer is: B. compassionate

A ruthless person is cruel and unfeeling. A compassionate person is kind and caring.

The other options are not antonyms of ruthless.

• Mindful means to be aware and attentive.
• Majestic means grand and impressive.
• Merciful means forgiving or lenient.

The correct answer is D. have been working.

The sentence is about the conservation volunteers' work habits. It says that they are working cheerfully in the sunshine all morning, unlike yesterday when they had to work in the rain. This suggests that they have been working for some time, and that they are enjoying their work.

The other options are not as likely. Option A, worked, is in the past tense, but the sentence is about the present. Option B, are refusing, is in the present tense, but it does not make sense to say that the volunteers are refusing to work. Option C, will be working, is in the future tense, but the sentence is about the present. Option E, will have worked, is in the future perfect tense, but it does not make sense to say that the volunteers will have worked all morning.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. have been working.

The correct answer is D. Grief. The correct spelling is grief.

Mischeif is a noun that means "mischief." Belief is a noun that means "a state of mind in which one accepts something as true." Thief is a noun that means "a person who steals." Grief is a noun that means "deep sorrow, especially caused by the death of someone close."

The word grief is spelled incorrectly in the question. The correct spelling is grief.

The correct answer is C. reduced.

The word "pruned" means to cut back or reduce something. In this case, the non-plan expenditure has been reduced due to a lack of funds.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the word "pruned."

• Option A, prolonged, means to make something last longer. This is not the case in this situation, as the non-plan expenditure has been reduced.
• Option B, expanded, means to make something larger or more extensive. This is also not the case in this situation, as the non-plan expenditure has been reduced.
• Option D, included, means to put something into a group or list. This is not the case in this situation, as the non-plan expenditure has been reduced.

The correct answer is: A. spread

The American policy of containment did much to escalate the conflict in Vietnam. The policy of containment was designed to prevent the spread of communism, and the United States saw Vietnam as a key battleground in the Cold War. The US government provided billions of dollars in military and economic aid to South Vietnam, and sent hundreds of thousands of troops to fight in the war. The American intervention in Vietnam had a devastating impact on the country, and it is estimated that over 3 million people were killed. The war also divided the American public, and it is considered one of the most controversial foreign policy decisions in US history.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the impact of the American policy on the Vietnam War. Option B, "develop," is incorrect because the American policy did not help to develop the conflict. Option C, "reduce," is incorrect because the American policy did not help to reduce the conflict. Option D, "end," is incorrect because the American policy did not help to end the conflict.

The correct answer is: C. Rung : Ladder

A sedan is a type of automobile. A rung is a step on a ladder. In both cases, the first word is a part of the second word.

Marble is a type of stone. A statue is a sculpture. In this case, the first word is not a part of the second word.

A rocker is a type of chair. In this case, the first word is not a part of the second word.

A hanger is a device for hanging clothes. An aeroplane is a type of aircraft. In this case, the first word is not a part of the second word.

The Man Booker Prize is the biggest literary award of Britain. It is a British literary prize awarded annually for the best original novel written in English and published in the United Kingdom. The prize is administered by the Booker Prize Foundation and sponsored by the investment company Crankstart. The winner is chosen by a panel of judges and receives a prize of £50,000.

The David Cohen Award is a British literary prize awarded annually to a living British writer in recognition of a lifetime's achievement in literature. The prize is administered by the Royal Society of Literature and is worth £40,000.

The Kalinya Award is a British literary prize awarded annually to a British writer of Caribbean descent. The prize is administered by the Kalinya Foundation and is worth £10,000.

The Owen Global Prize is a British literary prize awarded annually to a British writer for a novel that has been translated into English. The prize is administered by the Owen Foundation and is worth £25,000.

The Golden Bear Award is a German film award given at the Berlin International Film Festival. The award is given to the best film in the main competition. The award is worth €50,000.

The correct answer is (b) Hearsay Evidence.

Hearsay evidence is not admissible in court because it is not considered to be reliable. Hearsay evidence is a statement made by someone other than the witness who is testifying in court, and it is offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted in the statement. For example, if a witness testifies that they heard someone else say that the defendant committed the crime, this would be hearsay evidence.

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not allow hearsay evidence to be admitted in court unless there is an exception to the rule. One exception is if the declarant is unavailable to testify. Another exception is if the hearsay evidence is relevant and reliable.

Oral evidence is evidence that is given by a witness in court. This type of evidence is often considered to be the most reliable type of evidence, because the witness is able to be cross-examined by the opposing party.

Primary evidence is evidence that is the original document or object. For example, if a witness is trying to prove that a contract was signed, the original contract would be considered primary evidence.

Expert evidence is evidence that is given by an expert witness. An expert witness is someone who has special knowledge or experience in a particular area. Expert witnesses are often called to testify in court cases involving complex issues.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The answer is B. Bacteria.

Bread is made by fermenting dough with yeast, which is a type of fungus. Curd is made by fermenting milk with bacteria.

A. Fungi is incorrect because fungi are not used to make curd.
C. Germs is incorrect because germs is a general term that can refer to any type of microorganism, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
D. Virus is incorrect because viruses are not used to make curd.

The correct answer is C. benzene.

Methane (CH4) is a simple alkane with a single carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms. Propane (C3H8) is a simple alkane with three carbon atoms bonded to eight hydrogen atoms. Butane (C4H10) is a simple alkane with four carbon atoms bonded to ten hydrogen atoms. Benzene (C6H6) is an aromatic hydrocarbon with a ring-carbon chain structure.

Aromatic hydrocarbons are a type of hydrocarbon that contains a benzene ring. A benzene ring is a six-membered ring of carbon atoms with alternating single and double bonds. The double bonds in a benzene ring are not like the double bonds in other hydrocarbons. They are delocalized, which means that the electrons in the double bonds are shared by all six carbon atoms in the ring. This delocalization makes benzene and other aromatic hydrocarbons very stable.

Benzene is a colorless, flammable liquid with a sweet smell. It is used as a solvent, a fuel, and a starting material for the synthesis of other chemicals. It is also a known carcinogen.

The correct answer is (a). The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is given the rank of a Cabinet Minister in the Government of India. This is because the Planning Commission is a very important body in the Indian government. It is responsible for planning the country's economic development. The Deputy Chairman is the second-highest-ranking official in the Planning Commission, after the Chairman. He is responsible for overseeing the work of the Commission and for ensuring that its plans are implemented.

The other options are incorrect. A Supreme Court Judge is the highest-ranking judicial officer in India. The Chairman of a Parliamentary Committee is a member of Parliament who is appointed to chair a committee that is responsible for examining a particular issue. A Secretary to the Government of India is a senior civil servant who is responsible for a particular department of the government.

The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is a very important position in the Indian government. The person who holds this position is responsible for overseeing the work of the Planning Commission and for ensuring that its plans are implemented. The Planning Commission is a very important body in the Indian government. It is responsible for planning the country's economic development.

The correct answer is: A. Independent goods.

Independent goods are goods that are not related to each other in terms of demand. A change in the price of one good will not have any effect on the demand for the other good.

For example, let's say that the price of coffee goes up. This will not have any effect on the demand for tea, because coffee and tea are independent goods. People who drink coffee will not suddenly start drinking tea instead, and people who drink tea will not suddenly start drinking coffee instead.

The cross elasticity of price of demand is a measure of how responsive the demand for one good is to a change in the price of another good. It is calculated by taking the percentage change in the quantity demanded of one good and dividing it by the percentage change in the price of the other good.

If the cross elasticity of price of demand is zero, then the goods are said to be independent goods. This means that a change in the price of one good will not have any effect on the demand for the other good.

The other options are incorrect because they are all types of goods that are related to each other in terms of demand.

• Luxury goods are goods that people are willing to spend a lot of money on, even when their income is low.
• Substitute goods are goods that can be used in place of each other. A change in the price of one substitute good will cause a change in the demand for the other substitute good.
• Complementary goods are goods that are used together. A change in the price of one complementary good will cause a change in the demand for the other complementary good.

The correct answer is North.

An azimuth is an angle measured clockwise from north, typically between 0 and 360 degrees. It is used to describe the direction of a line or object relative to north.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the points from where an azimuth originates. South, east, and west are all compass directions, but they are not the starting points for azimuth measurements.

The correct answer is D. A. C. Pigou.

A. Marshall gave a production-oriented definition of economics, while B. Adam Smith gave a wealth-oriented definition. C. Robbins gave a scarcity-oriented definition.

A. C. Pigou was a British economist who is best known for his work on welfare economics. He argued that the government should intervene in the economy to correct market failures and promote economic efficiency.

Pigou's welfare-oriented definition of economics is as follows:

"Economics is the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses, to produce commodities over time and in such a way as to satisfy as many individual wants as possible."

This definition emphasizes the importance of efficiency and equity in the allocation of resources. It also highlights the role of the government in promoting economic welfare.

The correct answer is: A) Fish populations.

Pollution from industrial and agricultural sources can negatively impact fish populations in a number of ways. For example, pollution can contaminate the water that fish live in, making it difficult for them to find food and reproduce. Pollution can also kill fish directly, or make them more susceptible to disease. In addition, pollution can damage fish habitats, such as coral reefs and wetlands, which fish rely on for food and shelter.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option B: Large-scale fish processing can also be negatively impacted by pollution, as pollution can contaminate the fish that are being processed. However, this is not the primary way in which pollution impacts fish populations.
* Option C: Mechanized fishing can also damage fish habitats, as it can destroy coral reefs and other sensitive ecosystems. However, this is not the primary way in which pollution impacts fish populations.
* Option D: Tourism in coastal areas can be negatively impacted by pollution, as pollution can make beaches and other tourist attractions less attractive. However, this is not the primary way in which pollution impacts fish populations.

The correct answer is (c) Shanghai.

ICICI Bank opened its first branch in China in Shanghai in 2007. The bank has since expanded its presence in China, with branches in Beijing, Guangzhou, and Shenzhen.

ICICI Bank is a leading private sector bank in India. It is the largest private sector bank in India by assets and market capitalization. The bank has a presence in over 18 countries, including the United States, the United Kingdom, and China.

ICICI Bank offers a wide range of products and services, including retail banking, corporate banking, investment banking, and treasury services. The bank is a major player in the Indian financial market.

ICICI Bank's expansion into China is part of its strategy to become a global player. The bank is looking to tap into the growing Chinese economy and to provide its services to Chinese businesses and individuals.

ICICI Bank's entry into China has been welcomed by the Chinese government. The government is keen to attract foreign investment and to develop its financial sector. ICICI Bank is seen as a reliable and reputable partner for Chinese businesses.

ICICI Bank's expansion into China is a positive development for both the bank and for the Chinese economy. The bank will be able to tap into the growing Chinese market, while the Chinese government will benefit from ICICI Bank's expertise and experience.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "puppy" is a common noun, which means it refers to a general class of things. Common nouns are not usually preceded by articles.

In this case, the speaker is not referring to a specific puppy, but rather to a puppy in general. Therefore, the article "a" or "an" would not be appropriate.

The article "the" would also be incorrect, because it is used to refer to a specific person, place, thing, or idea. In this case, the speaker is not referring to a specific puppy, so the article "the" would not be appropriate.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. no article.

The correct answer is: D. adjust his sales in the two markets, so that his MR in each market just equals his marginal cost.

A profit-maximizing monopolist will always produce at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. This is true regardless of whether the monopolist is selling in one market or two markets. In the case of two markets, the monopolist will adjust his sales in each market so that the marginal revenue in each market is equal to the marginal cost. This will ensure that the monopolist is maximizing his profits in each market.

Option A is incorrect because the monopolist will not always charge a higher price in the less selling market. If the demand in the less selling market is more elastic, then the monopolist will actually charge a lower price in that market.

Option B is incorrect because the monopolist will not always charge a higher price in the more selling market. If the demand in the more selling market is more elastic, then the monopolist will actually charge a lower price in that market.

Option C is incorrect because the monopolist will not always charge the same price in both markets. The monopolist will charge the price that maximizes his profits in each market, which may not be the same price in both markets.

The correct answer is: B. Padshah Nama

Abdul Hamid Lahori was a Mughal historian who served as the court historian of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. He is best known for his work the Padshah Nama, which is a chronicle of Shah Jahan's reign. The Padshah Nama is a valuable source of information about the Mughal Empire and its history.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Muntakhab-ul-Tawarikh is a history of the world written by Muhammad Qasim Hindu Shah.
• Alamgir Nama is a history of the reign of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb written by Muhammad Amin Qazvini.
• Muntakhab-ul-Lubab is a history of the Mughal Empire written by Abdul Qadir Badauni.

The correct answer is: C. were destroyed / were built

The Houses of Parliament were destroyed by fire in 1834. They were rebuilt later.

Option A is incorrect because the Houses of Parliament were not built after the fire. They were rebuilt.

Option B is incorrect because the Houses of Parliament were not being destroyed when the fire started. They were destroyed.

Option D is incorrect because the Houses of Parliament are not destroyed. They were rebuilt.

The answer is A. Mariana.

The other four options are waterfalls. The Mariana Trench is the deepest part of the ocean.

• Niagara Falls is located on the border between the United States and Canada. It is one of the most popular tourist destinations in the world.
• Angel Falls is the highest waterfall in the world. It is located in Venezuela.
• Gersoppa Falls is the second highest waterfall in India. It is located in the state of Karnataka.
• Victoria Falls is the largest waterfall in the world by volume. It is located on the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe.

The correct answer is (c). The World Conference on Human Rights and Peace, 2013 was held in Washington, D.C., United States. The conference was organized by the United Nations and brought together representatives from governments, civil society organizations, and the private sector to discuss ways to promote and protect human rights and peace around the world.

Option (a), China, is incorrect because the World Conference on Human Rights and Peace, 2013 was not held in China. China has a poor record on human rights, and the Chinese government has been accused of widespread human rights abuses, including torture, arbitrary detention, and censorship.

Option (b), Pakistan, is incorrect because the World Conference on Human Rights and Peace, 2013 was not held in Pakistan. Pakistan has a poor record on human rights, and the Pakistani government has been accused of widespread human rights abuses, including torture, arbitrary detention, and extrajudicial killings.

Option (d), Bangladesh, is incorrect because the World Conference on Human Rights and Peace, 2013 was not held in Bangladesh. Bangladesh has a poor record on human rights, and the Bangladeshi government has been accused of widespread human rights abuses, including torture, arbitrary detention, and extrajudicial killings.

In West Bengal, the district with highest literacy rate is East Midnapore (87.6%) followed by Kolkata (87.14%) and North 24 Parganas (84.95%). The lowest literacy rate is in North Dinajpur (60.13%).

The correct answer is (a) Akbar.

Akbar was the Mughal emperor who ruled over India from 1556 to 1605. He was the third Mughal emperor, after his father Humayun and grandfather Babur. Akbar was a great military leader and statesman, and he expanded the Mughal Empire to its greatest extent. He was also a patron of the arts and sciences, and he built many beautiful buildings and monuments.

The British East India Company was formed in London in 1600. It was a trading company that was granted a monopoly on trade with India by the British Crown. The company played a major role in the colonization of India, and it eventually became the dominant power in the country.

The other options are incorrect because they were not the emperors of India when the British East India Company was formed. Jahangir was the emperor of India from 1605 to 1627. Shah Jahan was the emperor of India from 1628 to 1658. Aurangzeb was the emperor of India from 1658 to 1707.

The correct answer is B. Hockey. Dhyan Chand was an Indian field hockey player who is widely regarded as one of the greatest field hockey players of all time. He was a member of the Indian national team that won three consecutive Olympic gold medals in 1928, 1932, and 1936. He was also the captain of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 1932 Summer Olympics. Dhyan Chand was born in Allahabad, India, in 1905. He started playing hockey at a young age and quickly became one of the best players in India. He was known for his speed, dribbling skills, and goal-scoring ability. He was also a very skillful passer and was able to create scoring opportunities for his teammates. Dhyan Chand retired from international hockey in 1948. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 1956. He died in 1979 at the age of 74.

Option A is incorrect because football is a different sport than hockey. Football is a team sport that is played between two teams of 11 players. The object of the game is to score by kicking or heading the ball into the other team's goal. Hockey is a team sport that is played between two teams of 11 players. The object of the game is to score by hitting the ball into the other team's goal with a hockey stick.

Option B is the correct answer because Dhyan Chand was a field hockey player. Field hockey is a team sport that is played between two teams of 11 players. The object of the game is to score by hitting the ball into the other team's goal with a hockey stick.

Option C is incorrect because badminton is a different sport than hockey. Badminton is a racket sport that is played between two or four players. The object of the game is to hit a shuttlecock with a racket so that it passes over a net and lands in the other player's court.

Option D is incorrect because tennis is a different sport than hockey. Tennis is a racket sport that is played between two or four players. The object of the game is to hit a tennis ball with a racket so that it passes over a net and lands in the other player's court.

Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveler who lived from 1304 to 1368. He is considered one of the greatest travelers of all time, having visited over 40 countries in Africa, Asia, and Europe.

He was born in Tangier, Morocco, and began his travels at the age of 21. He made his first pilgrimage to Mecca, and then continued on to India, China, and Southeast Asia. He also visited many parts of Africa, including Egypt, Ethiopia, and Somalia.

Ibn Battuta's travels were motivated by a number of factors, including his religious faith, his curiosity about the world, and his desire to make a name for himself. He was also a keen observer of the people and cultures he encountered, and his writings provide a valuable record of the world as it was in the 14th century.

Ibn Battuta's travels were not without their challenges. He faced many dangers, including bandits, wild animals, and disease. He also had to deal with the difficulties of travel in a time before modern transportation. However, he persevered and eventually returned to Morocco after 29 years on the road.

Ibn Battuta's travels had a profound impact on his life and on the world. He became a celebrity in his own time, and his writings were widely read and admired. He also inspired many other travelers, including Marco Polo. Ibn Battuta's legacy is one of adventure, discovery, and cultural understanding.

The correct answer to the question "Ibn-e-Batuta was a traveler from:" is C. Morocco.

The correct answer is (b) aab.

The series is made up of two alternating sequences: aba and ba. The first sequence starts with "a" and ends with "b", and the second sequence starts with "b" and ends with "a". The third and fourth letters of each sequence are the same.

In the first sequence, the third letter is "b" and the fourth letter is "a". In the second sequence, the third letter is "a" and the fourth letter is "b". Therefore, the third and fourth letters of the missing word must be "a" and "b", respectively. The only option that satisfies this condition is (b) aab.

Option (a) aaa is incorrect because the third and fourth letters are both "a". Option (c) bab is incorrect because the third letter is "b" and the fourth letter is "a". Option (d) baa is incorrect because the third letter is "a" and the fourth letter is "a".

The answer is D. VTPJ.

In each of the other options, the first, third, and fifth letters are in alphabetical order. In D, the first and third letters are in alphabetical order, but the fifth letter is not.

The correct answer is (b). Jonas Salk developed the first polio vaccine in 1955.

Paul Ehrlich developed the first effective treatment for syphilis in 1910.

Louis Pasteur developed the first vaccine for rabies in 1885.

Joseph Lister developed the antiseptic technique in 1867.

The correct answer is Carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen present in all living organisms. They are the main source of energy for the body and are also used to build and repair tissues.

Proteins are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. They are essential for the growth and repair of tissues, and for the production of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies.

Fats are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are a source of energy for the body, and are also used to build and repair tissues.

Minerals are inorganic substances that are essential for the proper functioning of the body. They are found in the blood, bones, and other tissues.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Proteins are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. They are essential for the growth and repair of tissues, and for the production of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies. Proteins are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. There are 20 different types of amino acids, and the human body can produce 11 of them. The other 9 amino acids must be obtained from food. Proteins are found in all living things, and they play a vital role in many different processes in the body.
• Carbohydrates are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are the main source of energy for the body and are also used to build and repair tissues. Carbohydrates are made up of sugar molecules, which are linked together in different ways. There are three main types of carbohydrates: simple carbohydrates, complex carbohydrates, and fiber. Simple carbohydrates are made up of one or two sugar molecules. They are found in foods like sugar, honey, and fruit juice. Complex carbohydrates are made up of many sugar molecules. They are found in foods like bread, pasta, rice, and potatoes. Fiber is a type of complex carbohydrate that the body cannot digest. It is found in foods like fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
• Fats are organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are a source of energy for the body, and are also used to build and repair tissues. Fats are made up of fatty acids, which are the building blocks of fats. There are two main types of fatty acids: saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids. Saturated fatty acids are found in animal products like meat, dairy, and eggs. Unsaturated fatty acids are found in plant-based foods like vegetable oils, nuts, and seeds.
• Minerals are inorganic substances that are essential for the proper functioning of the body. They are found in the blood, bones, and other tissues. Minerals are needed for many different processes in the body, including metabolism, nerve function, and muscle contraction. There are many different types of minerals, and each one plays a different role in the body. Some of the most important minerals include calcium, iron, magnesium, potassium, and sodium.

The correct answer is: A. Inter-state rivers

The concurrent list is a list of subjects that both the central government and the state governments have the power to legislate on. The list is set out in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Inter-state rivers are one of the subjects on the concurrent list. This means that both the central government and the state governments can make laws about inter-state rivers. However, if there is a conflict between the laws made by the central government and the state governments, the law made by the central government will prevail.

The other options are not on the concurrent list. Labor unions are a subject on the union list, which means that only the central government can make laws about labor unions. Citizenship is a subject on the state list, which means that only the state governments can make laws about citizenship. Local governance is a subject that is not included in any of the three lists. This means that both the central government and the state governments can make laws about local governance, but there is no guarantee that their laws will be consistent with each other.

The correct answer is (b).

Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with apportionment by time. It states that where a person is entitled to a share in property, and the property is not divisible in kind, the share shall be apportioned among the persons entitled to it in proportion to the time during which they have been entitled to it.

For example, let's say that A, B, and C are all entitled to a share in a property. A has been entitled to the share for 5 years, B has been entitled to the share for 3 years, and C has been entitled to the share for 2 years. In this case, A's share would be 5/10 of the property, B's share would be 3/10 of the property, and C's share would be 2/10 of the property.

Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with apportionment by contribution. It states that where a person is entitled to a share in property, and the property is divisible in kind, the person may require the other persons entitled to the property to contribute to the expenses of partition.

Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with apportionment by sale. It states that where a person is entitled to a share in property, and the property is not divisible in kind, the person may require the other persons entitled to the property to sell the property and divide the proceeds.

Section 38 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with apportionment by agreement. It states that where a person is entitled to a share in property, the person may agree with the other persons entitled to the property to apportion the property in any way they see fit.

The main tourist attractions in South 24 Parganas district are Gangasagar, Sunderban, Bakkhali, Diamond Harbour, Sajnekhali Bird Sanctuary, Jambudwip, Fraserganj beach, etc.

The correct answer is (a) Sachin Tendulkar.

Sachin Tendulkar was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in March 2010. He is the highest run-scorer of all time in international cricket, and is widely considered to be one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He is also the only player to have scored 100 international centuries.

Sunil Gavaskar was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2003. He is the first batsman to score 10,000 runs in Test cricket, and is widely considered to be one of the greatest opening batsmen of all time.

Kapil Dev was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2013. He is the highest wicket-taker of all time for India in Test cricket, and is widely considered to be one of the greatest all-rounders of all time.

Anil Kumble was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2015. He is the second-highest wicket-taker of all time for India in Test cricket, and is widely considered to be one of the greatest spinners of all time.

The correct answer is: **C) Moderate rates and complex structure**

West Bengal's tax system is characterized by moderate rates and a complex structure. The state has a number of different taxes, including income tax, sales tax, and property tax. The rates of these taxes are generally moderate, but the structure of the system can be complex, making it difficult for taxpayers to understand and comply with the law.

The state government has been working to simplify the tax system in recent years, but there is still room for improvement. Taxpayers should be aware of the complex structure of the system and should seek professional advice if they have any questions.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: High rates and complex structure. This option is not correct because West Bengal's tax rates are generally moderate.
* Option B: Low rates and simple structure. This option is not correct because West Bengal's tax structure is complex.
* Option C: Moderate rates and complex structure. This option is correct because West Bengal's tax rates are generally moderate and the structure of the system is complex.
* Option D: Low rates and complex structure. This option is not correct because West Bengal's tax rates are generally moderate.

The correct answer is: A) North Bengal.

The Rajbanshi community is an ethnic group native to the Indian state of West Bengal. They are the largest tribal group in West Bengal, and they primarily reside in the northern part of the state. The Rajbanshi people speak a language called Rajbanshi, which is a member of the Indo-Aryan language family. They are predominantly Hindu, and their culture is a mix of Hindu and tribal traditions.

The Rajbanshi people have a long and rich history. They are believed to be descendants of the ancient Kshatriya caste, and they have played an important role in the history of West Bengal. The Rajbanshi people have fought for their rights and identity throughout their history, and they continue to be a vibrant and important part of the fabric of West Bengal.

Option B is incorrect because the Rajbanshi people do not primarily reside in South Bengal. Option C is incorrect because the Rajbanshi people do not primarily reside in Western Bengal. Option D is incorrect because the Rajbanshi people do not primarily reside in Central Bengal.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{1}{27}}$.

The probability of event A happening, given that event B has already happened, is called the conditional probability of A given B, and is denoted by $P(A|B)$. It can be calculated using the following formula:

$$P(A|B) = frac{P(A cap B)}{P(B)}$$

In this case, event A is "all three balls are red" and event B is "the first ball is red". We are asked to find the probability of event A given event B.

The probability of event A happening is the number of ways to choose 3 red balls out of 12 balls divided by the total number of ways to choose 3 balls out of 12 balls, which is $frac{4 times 3 times 2}{12 times 11 times 10} = frac{1}{27}$.

The probability of event B happening is the number of ways to choose 1 red ball out of 4 red balls divided by the total number of ways to choose 1 ball out of 12 balls, which is $frac{4}{12} = frac{1}{3}$.

Therefore, the probability of event A given event B is $frac{frac{1}{27}}{frac{1}{3}} = boxed{frac{1}{27}}$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the probability of event A happening without considering event B.

Option B is incorrect because it is the probability of event B happening without considering event A.

Option C is incorrect because it is the probability of event A and event B happening together.

Kolkata Metro Rail Service is India's first metro railway that was started on 24th October, 1984.

The correct answer is (d), Tharu.

The Tharu are an ethnic group native to the Terai region of Nepal and India. They are the largest ethnic group in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. The Tharu are a scheduled tribe in India, which means they are officially recognized as a group that has been historically discriminated against.

The Tharu are a predominantly agricultural people. They grow rice, wheat, maize, and other crops. They also raise cattle, buffalo, and goats. The Tharu are known for their traditional music and dance.

The Tharu are a matrilineal society, which means that property and inheritance are passed down through the female line. The Tharu are also a polyandrous society, which means that a woman can have multiple husbands.

The Tharu are a diverse group with a rich culture. They are a significant part of the population of Uttarakhand and Nepal.

The other options are incorrect because they are not scheduled tribes that reside in Bijnor district.

(a) Baiga are an ethnic group native to the central Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand. They are a scheduled tribe in India.

(b) Kharwar are an ethnic group native to the central Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. They are a scheduled tribe in India.

(c) Mahigir are an ethnic group native to the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. They are a scheduled caste in India.

The correct answer is C. are playing.

The sentence is in the present continuous tense, which is used to describe actions that are happening right now. The other options are not in the present continuous tense.

A. play is in the simple present tense, which is used to describe actions that happen regularly or repeatedly.
B. will play is in the future tense, which is used to describe actions that will happen in the future.
D. is playing is also in the present continuous tense, but it is singular, while the subject of the sentence is plural.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. are playing.

Rishi Bankim Library and Museum is situated in a section of the ancestral house of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, the novelist of Bengali literature. It is located at Naihati in North 24 Parganas district.

The correct answer is: A. SQPR

The first sentence, "We now know that the oceans are very deep," sets the stage for the rest of the paragraph. The second sentence, "Much of it is fairly flat," provides some general information about the ocean floor. The third sentence, "However, there are great mountain ranges as well," introduces the main topic of the paragraph, which is the Indian Ridge. The fourth sentence, "For example, the Indian ocean has a range called the Indian Ridge," provides a specific example of a mountain range in the ocean. The fifth sentence, "This reaches from the India to the Antarctic," provides more information about the Indian Ridge. The sixth sentence, "On average the bottom is 2.5 miles to 3.5 miles down," provides some additional information about the ocean floor.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical order of the information in the paragraph. Option B, PQSR, puts the sentence about the Indian Ridge before the sentence that introduces it. Option C, RSQP, puts the sentence about the average depth of the ocean floor before the sentence that provides general information about the ocean floor. Option D, QPRS, puts the sentence about the Indian Ridge after the sentence that provides additional information about the ocean floor.

The correct answer is (d) Punjab.

Punjab has the highest area under tube-well irrigation in India. In 2019-20, the area under tube-well irrigation in Punjab was 3.2 million hectares, which is about 70% of the total cultivated area in the state. The high level of tube-well irrigation in Punjab is due to a number of factors, including the state's relatively dry climate, the availability of groundwater, and the high cost of surface water irrigation.

Bihar, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh are also major states for tube-well irrigation, but their levels of tube-well irrigation are lower than Punjab's. In 2019-20, the area under tube-well irrigation in Bihar was 1.8 million hectares, the area under tube-well irrigation in Haryana was 1.6 million hectares, and the area under tube-well irrigation in Uttar Pradesh was 2.4 million hectares.

The high level of tube-well irrigation in Punjab has a number of benefits. It allows farmers to grow a variety of crops, even during dry periods. It also helps to improve crop yields and reduce the risk of crop failure. However, tube-well irrigation also has some negative impacts. It can lead to the depletion of groundwater resources and the contamination of groundwater with agricultural chemicals.

The correct answer is: A. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

Gobar gas is a mixture of methane, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen. It is produced by the anaerobic decomposition of animal manure. Coal gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, and nitrogen. It is produced by the destructive distillation of coal. Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen. It is produced by the partial combustion of coal or coke. Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is produced by the reaction of steam with hot coke.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1. This is the correct answer. Gobar gas is a mixture of methane, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen. It is produced by the anaerobic decomposition of animal manure. Coal gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, and nitrogen. It is produced by the destructive distillation of coal. Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen. It is produced by the partial combustion of coal or coke. Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is produced by the reaction of steam with hot coke.
• Option B: a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1. This is incorrect. Gobar gas is not a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen. It is a mixture of methane, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen.
• Option C: a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3. This is incorrect. Coal gas is not a mixture of methane and carbon monoxide. It is a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, and nitrogen.
• Option D: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1. This is incorrect. Producer gas is not a mixture of methane, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen. It is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen.

The correct answer is (d) Tungabhadra.

The Tungabhadra River is a major river in the Indian states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It is formed by the confluence of the Krishna and Bhima rivers, and flows through the Deccan Plateau before joining the Krishna River near Vijayawada. The Tungabhadra River is a major source of irrigation and hydroelectric power in the region.

The Gandikota canyon is a deep gorge carved out by the Tungabhadra River. It is located in the Anantapur district of Andhra Pradesh, about 150 kilometers from Hyderabad. The canyon is about 10 kilometers long and 300 meters deep. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic beauty and historical significance.

The other options are incorrect because they are not rivers that flow through the Gandikota canyon. The Cauvery River is a major river in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala. The Manjira River is a tributary of the Godavari River. The Pennar River is a tributary of the Krishna River.

The correct answer is: C. recline : chair

A bristle is a short, stiff hair or fiber, especially one on an animal's body or on a brush. A brush is a tool with bristles attached to a handle, used for cleaning, grooming, or applying cosmetics.

A recline is to lie back in a relaxed position. A chair is a piece of furniture with a back and four legs, for one person to sit on.

The relationship between bristle and brush is similar to the relationship between recline and chair. A bristle is a part of a brush, just as a recline is a position that can be taken in a chair.

The other options are not correct because they do not have the same relationship as bristle and brush.

• Arm and leg are both parts of the human body.
• Stage and curtain are both parts of a theater.
• Key and piano are both musical instruments.
• Art and sculpture are both forms of expression.

Bhagirathi flows through Murshidabad, Malda, Nadia, while Hooghly flows through the districts of Hooghly, Howrah and 24 Parganas of West Bengal.

Petra Kvitova won the Wimbledon 2011 Women's Singles titles.

Maria Sharapova was the defending champion, but lost in the quarterfinals to Petra Kvitova.

Venus Williams was the No. 2 seed, but lost in the second round to Tsvetana Pironkova.

Serena Williams was the No. 1 seed, but lost in the fourth round to Marion Bartoli.

Kvitova, who was the No. 8 seed, defeated Marion Bartoli in the final, 6-3, 6-4.

Kvitova became the first Czech woman to win Wimbledon since Jana Novotna in 1998.

She was also the first unseeded woman to win Wimbledon since Venus Williams in 2007.

Kvitova's victory was a surprise to many, as she had never won a Grand Slam title before.

However, she had been playing well in the lead-up to Wimbledon, and she was able to raise her game when it mattered most.

Kvitova's victory was a major breakthrough for her, and it helped to establish her as one of the top players in the world.

She went on to win two more Grand Slam titles, at the Australian Open in 2014 and 2019.

Kvitova is a talented and versatile player, and she is a threat to win any tournament she enters.

She is a powerful hitter, and she has a good all-around game.

Kvitova is a fierce competitor, and she is always up for a challenge.

She is a popular figure on the tour, and she is known for her friendly and outgoing personality.

Kvitova is a role model for many young players, and she is an inspiration to everyone who follows her career.

The correct answer is B. Square metre.

Density of population is the number of people per unit area. It is usually expressed as people per square kilometre or people per square mile. The density of population can be used to compare the population of different countries or regions. It can also be used to track changes in population over time.

The other options are incorrect because they are not units of area. A square foot is a unit of area in the imperial and US customary systems of measurement. A square inch is a unit of area in the imperial and US customary systems of measurement. A square kilometre is a unit of area in the metric system.

The correct answer is A) Santal.

The Santhal rebellion was a major uprising of the Santhal people against British rule in India. It took place in the Chhotanagpur Plateau region of Jharkhand, Bihar, and Odisha from 1855 to 1856. The rebellion was led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, two brothers who were inspired by the teachings of the Hindu saint Guru Gobind Singh.

The Santhal people were a tribal community who lived in the Chhotanagpur Plateau. They were a poor and oppressed people who were subjected to forced labor and land alienation by the British. The rebellion was a reaction to these injustices.

The Santhal rebels attacked British outposts and killed many British officials. They also destroyed property and crops. The rebellion was eventually suppressed by the British, but it had a significant impact on British rule in India.

The Santhal rebellion was a major turning point in the history of the Santhal people. It led to the establishment of the Santhal Parganas district in 1872, which is now a part of Jharkhand. The rebellion also helped to raise awareness of the plight of the Santhal people and led to some improvements in their condition.

The other options are incorrect because they are not tribal communities that were at the forefront of the Santhal rebellion.

The correct answer is: All of the above

The show of impact is a hindrance to the development of low-income countries because it affects propensity to consume, the choice of technology, and the selection of projects.

Propensity to consume is the willingness and ability of consumers to spend money on goods and services. When people are worried about their future, they are less likely to spend money. This can lead to a decrease in demand for goods and services, which can hurt the economy.

The choice of technology is important because it can affect the productivity of a country. If a country chooses the wrong technology, it can lead to a decrease in productivity and economic growth.

The selection of projects is also important because it can affect the development of a country. If a country selects the wrong projects, it can lead to a waste of resources and a decrease in economic growth.

In conclusion, the show of impact is a hindrance to the development of low-income countries because it affects propensity to consume, the choice of technology, and the selection of projects.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

• Propensity to consume: The propensity to consume is the willingness and ability of consumers to spend money on goods and services. It is affected by a number of factors, including income, wealth, and expectations about the future. When people are worried about their future, they are less likely to spend money. This can lead to a decrease in demand for goods and services, which can hurt the economy.
• The choice of technology: The choice of technology is important because it can affect the productivity of a country. If a country chooses the wrong technology, it can lead to a decrease in productivity and economic growth. For example, if a country chooses to use outdated technology, it will be at a disadvantage compared to countries that use newer, more efficient technology.
• The selection of projects: The selection of projects is also important because it can affect the development of a country. If a country selects the wrong projects, it can lead to a waste of resources and a decrease in economic growth. For example, if a country selects projects that are not feasible or that are not aligned with its development goals, it will not be able to achieve its development objectives.

The Minerva theatre was established in 1893 in Calcutta. It was established at the site on Beadon Street replacing Great National Theatre. The first play held on this stage was 'Macbeth'. It was initially owned by Nagendra Bhusan Mukhopadhayay.

The correct answer is: A. Equal to; average total cost is minimized.

Marginal cost is the cost of producing one additional unit of a good or service. Average variable cost is the total variable cost divided by the number of units produced. Average total cost is the total cost divided by the number of units produced.

When marginal cost is equal to average variable cost, average total cost is minimized. This is because the additional cost of producing one more unit is equal to the average cost of producing all the units that have already been produced. This means that the company is producing at the most efficient level.

Option B is incorrect because when marginal cost is less than average variable cost, the company is producing at a loss. This is because the company is spending more money to produce each additional unit than it is making from selling that unit.

Option C is incorrect because when marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, the company is making a profit. This is because the company is making more money from selling each additional unit than it is spending to produce that unit.

Option D is incorrect because average variable cost is minimized when marginal cost is equal to average variable cost.

The correct answer is C. repel.

• Attract means to draw someone or something to you by a physical or emotional force.
• Entice means to tempt someone to do something by offering them something they want.
• Reject means to refuse to accept something or someone.
• Distract means to draw someone's attention away from something.

Of these, repel is the most opposite of attract. To repel something is to push it away, while to attract something is to draw it near.

WBSEB was formed on 1st May, 1955 and dissolved on 31st March 2007. It has now been reconstructed and split into two companies namely West Bengal State Electricity Transmission Company Limited (WBSETCL) and West Bengal State Electricity Distribution Company Limited (WBSEDCL).

The correct answer is D. Media Access Control.

A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment. MAC addresses are 48-bit numbers, usually written in the form of six hexadecimal digits separated by colons, for example: 00:11:22:33:44:55.

MAC addresses are assigned by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) to network interface controller (NIC) manufacturers. The IEEE assigns a block of MAC addresses to each manufacturer, who then assigns individual MAC addresses to their products.

MAC addresses are used in the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the Data Link Layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical network medium.

MAC addresses are used in a variety of networking protocols, including Ethernet, Token Ring, and Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI).

Option A is incorrect. A computer made by Apple is called a Mac.

Option B is incorrect. Memory address corruption is a type of computer error that occurs when data is written to the wrong memory address.

Option C is incorrect. Mediocre Apple Computer is not a valid term.

The correct answer is (a) Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti.

Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti was a Sufi saint who lived in the 12th century. He was born in Chishti Sharif, a village in the Indian state of Rajasthan. He is considered to be the founder of the Chishti order of Sufism in India.

Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti came to India in 1192, after the Muslim conquest of the country. He settled in Ajmer, Rajasthan, where he established a khanqah (a Sufi monastery). He attracted many disciples, both Hindus and Muslims.

Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti was a preacher of peace and tolerance. He taught that all religions are paths to God. He also taught that Muslims should respect the customs and traditions of the Hindus.

Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti died in 1236. He is buried in Ajmer, where his tomb is a popular pilgrimage site.

The other options are incorrect because:

(b) Hamiduddin Nagauri was a Sufi saint who lived in the 13th century. He was a disciple of Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti.

(c) Kutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki was a Sufi saint who lived in the 12th century. He was a disciple of Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti.

(d) Nizamuddin Aulia was a Sufi saint who lived in the 13th century. He was a disciple of Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj Shakar.

The correct answer is D. There is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.

A market demand schedule is a table that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity of that good that consumers are willing and able to buy at each price. The law of demand states that, all other things being equal, the quantity demanded of a good will decrease as the price of the good increases. This is because consumers are generally willing to buy more of a good when it is cheaper, and less of a good when it is more expensive.

Option A is incorrect because it states that as the product's price falls, consumers buy less of the good. This is the opposite of what the law of demand states.

Option B is incorrect because it states that there is a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded. This is also the opposite of what the law of demand states.

Option C is incorrect because it states that as a product's price rises, consumers buy less of other goods. This is not necessarily true. Consumers may buy more of other goods if the price of the good in question rises, but this is not always the case.

The correct answer is (A).

The word "bound" means "going or intended to go to a particular place." In this sentence, the ship is going to Singapore, so the correct answer is "to."

The word "for" can be used to mean "intended for a particular purpose," but it cannot be used to describe the destination of a ship.

The word "towards" can be used to mean "in the direction of," but it is not as specific as the word "to."

The word "into" can be used to mean "to the inside of," but it is not appropriate to use it to describe the destination of a ship.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Sandesh, rasgulla, and mishti doi are all traditional sweet delicacies associated with the festival of Durga Puja. Sandesh is a sweet made from milk and sugar, and it is often flavored with cardamom or pistachios. Rasgulla is a sweet made from milk curds that are boiled in sugar syrup until they are soft and spongy. Mishti doi is a sweet yogurt that is made from milk that has been curdled with yogurt culture. It is often flavored with cardamom or saffron.

Durga Puja is a major Hindu festival that celebrates the victory of the goddess Durga over the demon Mahishasura. It is a ten-day festival that is celebrated in the month of October or November. The festival is marked by prayers, rituals, and feasting. Sweets are an important part of the Durga Puja celebrations, and they are offered to the goddess Durga as a sign of devotion.

Sandesh, rasgulla, and mishti doi are all popular sweets that are enjoyed during Durga Puja. They are all made from milk, and they are all sweet and delicious. These sweets are a symbol of the joy and happiness that is associated with the Durga Puja festival.

The correct answer is (d). As per the census 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04%. This means that 74.04% of the population of India aged 7 and above can read and write. The literacy rate has increased significantly since the 1951 census, when it was only 18.33%. This increase is due to a number of factors, including the expansion of education, the improvement of economic conditions, and the government's focus on literacy programs.

Option (a) is incorrect because the literacy rate in 2011 was 74.04%, not 70%. Option (b) is incorrect because the literacy rate in 2011 was 74.04%, not 79%. Option (c) is incorrect because the literacy rate in 2011 was 74.04%, not 71%.

Some famous works of Bibhutibhusan Bandhopadhyay are Pathr Panchali, Aparajita, Adarsh Hindu Hotel, Ichhamati, Debjan, Ashani Sanket, Kedar Raja, Kajol, etc.

The correct answer is D. Manipur.

Loktak Lake is a large freshwater lake in Manipur, India. It is the largest freshwater lake in northeastern India and the second largest in India after Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. The lake is home to a variety of plant and animal life, including the endangered sangai deer.

The lake is facing a number of environmental problems, including pollution, deforestation, and encroachment. These problems are threatening the lake's ecosystem and the livelihoods of the people who depend on it.

The lake is polluted by sewage, industrial waste, and agricultural runoff. This pollution is killing fish and other aquatic life and making the water unsafe for drinking or bathing.

Deforestation is also a major problem. Trees are being cut down to make way for agriculture, development, and fuelwood. This deforestation is leading to soil erosion and the loss of habitat for wildlife.

Encroachment is another problem. People are building houses and other structures on the lake's shores. This encroachment is reducing the size of the lake and making it more difficult for fish to spawn.

These environmental problems are threatening the lake's ecosystem and the livelihoods of the people who depend on it. It is important to take steps to protect the lake and its resources.

Option A is incorrect because Orissa is a state in eastern India.

Option B is incorrect because Assam is a state in northeastern India.

Option C is incorrect because Kerala is a state in southern India.

The answer is B. Roof.

A den is a shelter or resting place for animals, typically a cave or hollow tree. A burrow is a hole or tunnel dug in the ground by an animal for habitation or as a means of escape. A nest is a structure built by a bird or other animal for laying eggs and sheltering its young. A roof is the covering of a building or other structure that protects it from the weather.

Roof is the only option that is not a place where animals live. The other options are all places where animals live or build their homes.

The correct answer is (d). The United States has become the largest oil producing nation as per latest data released in July, 2014.

The United States has been increasing its oil production in recent years due to the development of new technologies, such as hydraulic fracturing (fracking). Fracking is a process that allows oil and gas to be extracted from shale rock formations. The United States is now the world's largest producer of shale oil.

Saudi Arabia is the world's second-largest oil producer. The country has a long history of oil production and is a member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). OPEC is a cartel of oil-producing countries that sets production quotas in an effort to control the global oil market.

Russia is the world's third-largest oil producer. The country has a large oil industry and is a major exporter of oil. Russia is not a member of OPEC.

Iran is the world's fourth-largest oil producer. The country has a large oil industry and is a major exporter of oil. Iran is a member of OPEC.

The United States, Saudi Arabia, Russia, and Iran are the world's four largest oil producers. The United States has become the largest oil producing nation as per latest data released in July, 2014.

The correct answer is (b) Format.

The Format menu is used to change the appearance of text, tables, and other objects in a document. The Border and Shading command is located on the Format menu, and it allows you to add borders and shading to text, tables, and other objects.

The Insert menu is used to add new elements to a document, such as text, tables, images, and hyperlinks. The View menu is used to control the appearance of the document on screen, such as the zoom level, the document layout, and the rulers. The Tools menu is used to access various tools and utilities, such as the spelling checker, the grammar checker, and the thesaurus.

The correct answer is: D. Kathak

Thillana is a rhythmic composition in Kathak, a classical Indian dance form. It is a fast-paced piece that is often performed at the end of a recital. Thillanas are typically based on a tala (rhythm cycle) and use a variety of footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions.

Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the Andhra Pradesh region of India. It is known for its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive facial expressions. Kuchipudi dances are often based on stories from Hindu mythology.

Odissi is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the Odisha region of India. It is known for its slow, graceful movements and intricate hand gestures. Odissi dances are often based on stories from Hindu mythology.

Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the Tamil Nadu region of India. It is known for its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive facial expressions. Bharatanatyam dances are often based on stories from Hindu mythology.

Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the northern regions of India. It is known for its fast-paced footwork, intricate hand gestures, and expressive facial expressions. Kathak dances are often based on stories from Hindu mythology.

In West Bengal, the district with highest literacy rate is East Midnapore (87.6%) followed by Kolkata (87.14%) and North 24 Parganas (84.95%). The lowest literacy rate is in North Dinajpur (60.13%).

The correct answer is: Only I is implicit.

The statement "Delink degrees with jobs. Then, boys will think twice before joining colleges" implies that boys join college education for getting jobs. This is because if degrees are not required for jobs, then boys will have less incentive to go to college.

The statement does not imply that a degree is of no use for getting a job. It is possible that a degree is still useful for getting a job, even if it is not required.

The statement also does not imply that girls do not try for jobs. It is possible that girls try for jobs just as much as boys, even if degrees are not required for jobs.

Therefore, only assumption I is implicit in the statement.

The odd word in the given alternatives is "veranda". A room, chamber, and cabin are all enclosed spaces, while a veranda is an open-air structure.

A room is a part of a building that is used for a particular purpose, such as sleeping, eating, or working. A chamber is a smaller room, often used for private or special purposes. A cabin is a small house or hut, typically one that is used for temporary accommodation. A veranda is a roofed porch or gallery attached to the outside of a building.

The correct answer is C. from.

The preposition "from" is used to indicate the source or cause of something. In this case, the speaker is saying that the woman is suffering from a heart disease. This means that the heart disease is the cause of her suffering.

The other options are not correct because they do not indicate the source or cause of the woman's suffering. Option A, "about," is used to indicate a topic or subject. Option B, "in," is used to indicate a location or position. Option D, "on," is used to indicate a surface or area.

Here are some examples of how the preposition "from" can be used in other sentences:

• She suffers from a lack of sleep.
• He suffers from anxiety.
• They suffer from poverty.
• The child suffers from abuse.

The correct answer is: A. Mhow.

The Army Headquarters is located in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh. It is the highest operational and administrative command of the Indian Army. The headquarters is responsible for the planning, execution, and coordination of all military operations of the Indian Army. It also provides administrative support to the Army, including logistics, training, and personnel management.

The Army Headquarters was established in 1895 at Shimla. It was moved to Mhow in 1929. The headquarters is headed by the Chief of Army Staff, who is the highest-ranking officer in the Indian Army. The Chief of Army Staff is assisted by a number of staff officers, who are responsible for different aspects of the Army's operations and administration.

The Army Headquarters is a large and complex organization. It is divided into a number of departments, each of which is responsible for a different aspect of the Army's operations. The departments include the Directorate General of Military Operations, the Directorate General of Military Intelligence, the Directorate General of Logistics, the Directorate General of Training, and the Directorate General of Personnel.

The Army Headquarters is also responsible for the training of officers and soldiers of the Indian Army. The headquarters has a number of training institutions, including the National Defence Academy, the Indian Military Academy, and the Officers Training Academy.

The Army Headquarters is a vital part of the Indian Army. It is responsible for the planning, execution, and coordination of all military operations of the Indian Army. It also provides administrative support to the Army, including logistics, training, and personnel management.

The correct answer is: B. Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents.

Amalgams are alloys that contain mercury as one of the components. They are typically used in dentistry, as fillings for teeth. Amalgams are also used in some industrial applications, such as in electrical contacts and switches.

Option A is incorrect because amalgams are not necessarily highly colored. The color of an amalgam depends on the other metals that are present in the alloy.

Option C is incorrect because amalgams do not necessarily have great resistance to abrasion. The resistance to abrasion of an amalgam depends on the other metals that are present in the alloy.

Option D is incorrect because amalgams do not necessarily contain carbon. The only metal that is always present in an amalgam is mercury.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

The resistance of a wire is given by the equation $R = rho frac{l}{A}$, where $rho$ is the resistivity of the material, $l$ is the length of the wire, and $A$ is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

The resistivity of copper is a constant, so the resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Since the two wires have the same length, but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2, the cross-sectional area of wire 1 is four times that of wire 2. Therefore, the resistance of wire 1 is one-fourth the resistance of wire 2.

When the two wires are joined together in series, the total resistance is the sum of the individual resistances. Therefore, the total resistance is $R_1 + R_2 = R + frac{R}{4} = boxed{frac{5R}{4}}$.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: $2R$. This is the resistance of wire 2. However, the two wires are joined together in series, so the total resistance is not $2R$.
• Option B: $R/2$. This is the resistance of wire 1. However, the two wires are joined together in series, so the total resistance is not $R/2$.
• Option C: $frac{5R}{4}$. This is the correct answer. The resistance of wire 1 is $R$, and the resistance of wire 2 is $frac{R}{4}$. When the two wires are joined together in series, the total resistance is $R + frac{R}{4} = frac{5R}{4}$.
• Option D: $3R/4$. This is not the correct answer. The resistance of wire 1 is $R$, and the resistance of wire 2 is $frac{R}{4}$. When the two wires are joined together in series, the total resistance is $R + frac{R}{4} = frac{5R}{4}$.

The answer is $boxed{10}$.

All the other numbers are prime numbers, while 10 is not. A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers.

The correct answer is: A. until they arrive

The sentence is in the present tense, so the verb "arrive" should also be in the present tense. The other options are in the future tense, which is not correct in this context.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• A. until they arrive This is the correct answer. The sentence is in the present tense, so the verb "arrive" should also be in the present tense.
• B. until they will arrive This option is incorrect because it uses the future tense. The sentence is about a current situation, so the future tense is not appropriate.
• C. until they will have arrived This option is also incorrect because it uses the future perfect tense. The future perfect tense is used to talk about events that will have happened by a specific time in the future. In this sentence, there is no specific time mentioned, so the future perfect tense is not appropriate.
• D. No improvement This option is incorrect because it does not change the sentence. The sentence is already correct, so there is no need to improve it.

The correct spelling is "capricious."

"Capricious" means "subject to sudden and unpredictable changes of mood or behavior." It comes from the Latin word "capriccio," which means "whim."

"Capricious" is often used to describe people who are unpredictable or unreliable. It can also be used to describe things that are changeable or unstable.

For example, you might say that someone is "capricious" if they are always changing their mind about what they want to do. Or, you might say that the weather is "capricious" if it is constantly changing from sunny to cloudy to rainy.

The other options are incorrect spellings of the word "capricious." "Capricious" is the only correct spelling.

The correct answer is (d). Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress. He was elected in 1885.

(a) Abdul Kalam Azad was the second Muslim President of the Indian National Congress. He was elected in 1923.

(b) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and politician. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as the Minister of Food and Agriculture in the first Indian cabinet.

(c) M.A. Ansari was a prominent Indian Muslim leader and freedom fighter. He was the President of the All India Muslim League from 1920 to 1923.

Badruddin Tyabji was born in Bombay in 1844. He was educated at the Elphinstone College and the Bombay University. He was a lawyer by profession. He was a member of the Bombay Legislative Council from 1885 to 1892. He was also a member of the Imperial Legislative Council from 1892 to 1901.

Tyabji was a strong advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as its President in 1885. He was also a member of the All India Muslim League.

Tyabji was a staunch nationalist. He opposed British rule in India. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as its President in 1885. He was also a member of the All India Muslim League.

Tyabji was a great patriot and a true son of India. He dedicated his life to the service of his country. He was a great leader and a great statesman. He will always be remembered as one of the greatest leaders of India.

The correct answer is D. Octopus is a mollusc.

Molluscs are a large and diverse group of invertebrates that includes snails, clams, octopuses, and squid. They are characterized by a soft body that is often protected by a hard shell. Molluscs have a variety of body plans, but they all share some common features, such as a radula, a foot, and a mantle.

The radula is a tongue-like organ that is used for scraping food. The foot is a muscular organ that is used for locomotion. The mantle is a sheet of tissue that covers the body and secretes the shell.

Molluscs are found in all aquatic environments, as well as on land. They are an important part of the marine food web, and they are also a source of food for humans.

Option A: Arthropods are invertebrates that have a segmented body, jointed appendages, and an exoskeleton. They include insects, spiders, crustaceans, and millipedes.

Option B: Echinoderms are invertebrates that have a radial body plan, an endoskeleton, and tube feet. They include starfish, sea urchins, and sand dollars.

Option C: Hemichordates are invertebrates that have a notochord, a hollow nerve cord, and gill slits. They include acorn worms and pterobranchs.

The correct answer is: B) 6 years.

As per the West Bengal School Education Department's School Education Programme (SEP) 2023, the minimum age for admission to Class I is 6 years on or before 31st March of the year of admission.

Option A: 5 years is incorrect because the minimum age for admission to Class I is 6 years.

Option C: 7 years is incorrect because the minimum age for admission to Class I is 6 years.

Option D: 8 years is incorrect because the minimum age for admission to Class I is 6 years.

The correct answer is (d).

The Emission Reduction Purchase Agreement (ERPA) signed with the World Bank in May 2011 is a 10-year agreement between the World Bank and the Government of India for securing carbon credits for a project in Himachal Pradesh. The agreement is based on the principle of "one tonne of carbon-di¬oxide equivalent (tCO2e) = one credit unit".

Under the ERPA, the World Bank will purchase carbon credits from the Government of India for a period of 10 years. The credits will be generated from a project in Himachal Pradesh that aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The project will involve the installation of a hydropower plant and the promotion of energy efficiency measures.

The ERPA is a significant step in the fight against climate change. It will help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and promote sustainable development in India.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) The agreement has been signed between the World Bank and the Government of India. This is correct. The ERPA was signed by the World Bank and the Government of India on May 12, 2011.
(b) The agreement shall be valid for the 10 years. This is correct. The ERPA is a 10-year agreement.
(c) The agreement is for securing carbon credits for a project of Himachal Pradesh. This is correct. The ERPA is for securing carbon credits for a project in Himachal Pradesh that aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
(d) As per the agreement, one tonne of Carbon-di¬oxide will be equivalent to one credit unit. This is incorrect. Under the ERPA, one tonne of carbon-di¬oxide equivalent (tCO2e) = one credit unit.

The correct answer is: D. 1833

Slavery was abolished in Britain in 1833, with the Slavery Abolition Act. This act abolished slavery throughout the British Empire, including in the Caribbean and the Americas. The act was passed by Parliament after a long campaign by abolitionists, who argued that slavery was morally wrong and that it was damaging to the British economy.

The Slavery Abolition Act was a major step forward in the fight against slavery, but it did not end the practice overnight. It took many years for slavery to be completely abolished throughout the world. However, the act of 1833 was a significant milestone, and it helped to pave the way for the eventual end of slavery worldwide.

Option A: 1830 is incorrect because slavery was not abolished in Britain in 1830. The Slavery Abolition Act was passed in 1833.

Option B: 1837 is incorrect because slavery was not abolished in Britain in 1837. The Slavery Abolition Act was passed in 1833.

Option C: 1843 is incorrect because slavery was not abolished in Britain in 1843. The Slavery Abolition Act was passed in 1833.

The correct answer is (b) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium.

E. coli is a rod-shaped bacterium that is commonly found in the lower intestines of warm-blooded organisms. It is a facultative anaerobe, meaning that it can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. E. coli is a model organism for molecular biology research, and it is also used in the production of recombinant proteins.

Agrobacterium is a genus of Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria that are able to transfer DNA to plants. This ability has been exploited in genetic engineering to introduce genes into plants. Agrobacterium is used in the production of genetically modified crops.

Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are both chemoautotrophic bacteria that oxidize ammonia to nitrite and nitrate, respectively. They are important in the nitrogen cycle, and they are also used in the production of nitric acid.

Azotobacter and Rhizobium are both nitrogen-fixing bacteria. They are able to convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, which can be used by plants. Azotobacter is a free-living bacterium, while Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacterium that lives in the roots of legumes.

Diplococcus is a genus of Gram-positive, cocci bacteria that are often found in pairs. They are not typically used in genetic engineering.

Jyotirmoyee Sikdar was born on 11th December,1969 in Nadia district of WestBengal. She won bronze medal in 800m and 1500m in Asian Atheletics Championships in 1998 and gold medal in Asian Games 1998. She was awarded in Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 1998-99 and Padma Shri in 2003.

The correct answer is (a) Pig iron.

Pig iron is a type of iron that is produced by smelting iron ore in a blast furnace. It is a very impure form of iron, containing about 4% carbon. Wrought iron is a type of iron that is produced by hammering and rolling molten iron. It is a very pure form of iron, containing less than 0.1% carbon. Steel is a type of iron that is produced by adding carbon to pig iron. The amount of carbon in steel can vary, but it is typically between 0.05% and 2.11%. Alloy steel is a type of steel that contains other elements, such as chromium, nickel, or manganese. These elements are added to improve the strength, toughness, or corrosion resistance of the steel.

Pig iron is the most carbon-rich of the four options, followed by steel, wrought iron, and alloy steel.

The correct answer is: A. The volume of the thorax decreases.

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, the volume of the thorax decreases. This causes the pressure in the lungs to decrease, which in turn causes the lungs to expand and fill with air.

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. When the diaphragm contracts, it flattens out and increases the volume of the chest cavity. The external intercostal muscles are located between the ribs. When they contract, they lift the ribs up and out, which also increases the volume of the chest cavity.

As the volume of the chest cavity increases, the pressure in the lungs decreases. This is because the pressure of the air in the lungs is always equal to the pressure of the air outside the lungs. When the pressure in the lungs decreases, the air outside the lungs pushes into the lungs, causing them to expand and fill with air.

The opposite is also true. When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, the volume of the thorax decreases. This causes the pressure in the lungs to increase, which in turn causes the lungs to contract and empty of air.

The correct answer is C. Helium.

Noble gases are elements in group 18 of the periodic table. They are very stable and do not react with other elements. They are also called inert gases or rare gases.

Hydrogen is a gas that is found in the Earth's atmosphere. It is the lightest element in the universe. Hydrogen is a flammable gas and can be used to create energy.

Oxygen is a gas that is found in the Earth's atmosphere. It is necessary for life. Oxygen is a colorless, odorless gas that is essential for combustion.

Carbon dioxide is a gas that is found in the Earth's atmosphere. It is a greenhouse gas and can contribute to climate change. Carbon dioxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced when fossil fuels are burned.

The correct answer is: A. Current

The brightness of a bulb depends on the current flowing through it. The higher the current, the brighter the bulb will be. This is because the current is what heats up the filament inside the bulb, which causes it to emit light.

Voltage is the electrical potential difference between two points. It is the force that pushes the current through the circuit. However, voltage does not directly affect the brightness of the bulb. If you increase the voltage, the current will increase, but the brightness of the bulb will only increase up to a point. After that, the filament will start to burn out and the brightness will decrease.

Therefore, the answer to the question "Brightness of bulb depends on voltage or current?" is current.

The correct answer is: C. 14 days

A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also, when no action is taken by the Upper House within 14 days.

A money bill is a bill which contains a provision for imposing or altering any tax or for the variation of the amount of any tax, or the imposition of any new surcharge or cess, or the abolition, remission, refund, alteration or regulation of any duty, whether general or local, or for the variation of the incidence of any such duty, or for the reduction of any such duty to nil.

The Constitution of India provides that a money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments to a money bill, but the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept these recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not pass a money bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also.

This provision is intended to ensure that the government can raise the necessary revenue to meet the expenses of the government. It also ensures that the Lok Sabha, which is directly elected by the people, has the final say on money bills.

The correct answer is (b).

The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14 January 1761, near Panipat, about 97 km (60 mi) north of Delhi, between the Maratha Empire and the invading Afghan army of Ahmad Shah Durrani. The battle was a decisive victory for the Afghans, who routed the Maratha army and killed their leader, Sadashivrao Bhau. The battle marked the end of the Maratha Empire's expansionist ambitions and led to the decline of their power.

The Mughals were a Muslim dynasty that ruled over most of India from the 16th to the 18th centuries. They were founded by Babur, a descendant of Timur and Genghis Khan, who invaded India from Central Asia in 1526. The Mughals were a powerful and sophisticated empire, and they built many beautiful palaces and monuments. However, they were also autocratic and oppressive, and their rule was often marked by violence and instability. The Mughal Empire began to decline in the 18th century, and it finally collapsed in 1857.

The British East India Company was a British trading company that was founded in 1600. The company was granted a monopoly on trade with India by the British Crown, and it quickly became one of the most powerful companies in the world. The British East India Company began to expand its influence in India in the 18th century, and it eventually became the dominant power in the subcontinent. The company ruled India for nearly 200 years, from 1757 to 1947.

The Rohillas were a Pashtun tribe that lived in the Rohilkhand region of northern India. They were a powerful and warlike tribe, and they often clashed with the Mughal Empire. In 1774, the Rohillas were defeated by the British East India Company, and their territory was annexed to the British Raj.

The Marathas were a Hindu warrior caste that originated in the Deccan region of India. They were a powerful and independent force in India for centuries, and they often clashed with the Mughal Empire. In the 18th century, the Marathas emerged as the dominant power in India, and they expanded their empire to include much of the subcontinent. However, the Maratha Empire began to decline in the late 18th century, and it was finally defeated by the British East India Company in the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.

The correct answer is A. Geneva.

The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. It was established on 7 April 1948, and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The WHO is responsible for providing leadership on global health matters, shaping the health research agenda, setting norms and standards, articulating evidence-based policy options, providing technical support to countries, and monitoring and assessing the health situation.

The WHO's headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland. The building was designed by the Swiss architect Le Corbusier and was completed in 1966. The headquarters is a large complex that includes offices, laboratories, and conference facilities. It is also home to the WHO's library and archives.

The WHO's headquarters is a symbol of the organization's commitment to global health. It is a place where people from all over the world come together to work on improving health for everyone.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. Washington is the headquarters of the World Bank.
• C. New York is the headquarters of the United Nations.
• D. Rome is the headquarters of the Food and Agriculture Organization.

The odd one out is C. SFiK.

All the other options have the first and third letters in alphabetical order.

A. APoQ - A comes before P and Q comes after O.
B. DXeM - D comes before E and M comes after X.
D. OWjB - O comes before W and J comes after B.
E. CquL - C comes before Q and L comes after U.

In C. SFiK, S comes before F and I comes after K.

The correct answer is A. M. M. Swaminathan.

M. S. Swaminathan is an Indian geneticist, plant breeder, agricultural scientist, and academic. He is known as the "Father of the Green Revolution in India". He played a key role in the introduction of high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice in India, which helped to increase food production and improve the lives of millions of people.

B. B. Kurien is an Indian agricultural economist and social worker. He is known as the "Father of the White Revolution in India". He played a key role in the development of the dairy industry in India, which helped to improve the lives of millions of people.

C. B. V. Rao is an Indian agricultural scientist and academic. He is known for his work on the development of new varieties of rice.

D. Venkateshwar Rao is an Indian agricultural scientist and academic. He is known for his work on the development of new varieties of wheat.

The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural development in the 1960s and 1970s that increased agricultural production worldwide. It was led by Norman Borlaug, an American agricultural scientist, who developed high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice. The Green Revolution helped to increase food production and improve the lives of millions of people around the world.

The correct answer is: C. 12th

Sebastian Vettel won the Formula 1 Indian Grand Prix held at Greater Noida on October 27, 2013. This was his 12th win in Formula 1.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because Sebastian Vettel had already won 9 races before the Indian Grand Prix.
• Option B is incorrect because Sebastian Vettel had already won 10 races before the Indian Grand Prix.
• Option D is incorrect because Sebastian Vettel had already won 11 races before the Indian Grand Prix.

Amartya Sen was awarded with the Nobel Prize for Economics in the year 1998 for his contribution in the field of Welfare economics.

The correct answer is: B. Punctilious : Careful

Vainglorious means excessively proud of oneself or one's achievements. Self-respecting means having or showing a proper sense of one's own dignity or worth.

Perfidious means treacherous or deceitful. Loyal means faithful to a person or cause.

Lascivious means having or showing an excessive interest in or desire for sexual activity. Modest means having or showing a moderate or humble estimate of one's own importance or abilities.

Cantankerous means bad-tempered and quarrelsome. Querulous means complaining or whining.

Punctilious means excessively attentive to minor details or rules. Careful means taking pains to do or avoid something carefully.

Punctilious and careful are similar in that they both mean to be attentive to detail. However, punctilious is more specific in that it refers to attention to minor details or rules, while careful can refer to attention to any detail.

The other options are not similar to the original pair of words in the same way. Perfidious and loyal are opposites, while lascivious and modest are not opposites. Cantankerous and querulous are similar in that they both mean to be bad-tempered, but they are not opposites.

The correct answer is C. the price-mechanism.

In a free-enterprise economy, the problems of what, how and for whom are solved by the price-mechanism. The price-mechanism is a system in which the prices of goods and services are determined by the interaction of supply and demand. This system allows for the efficient allocation of resources and the satisfaction of consumer wants.

A planning committee is a group of people who are responsible for planning the economy of a country. They do this by setting production targets, allocating resources, and determining prices. A planning committee is not used in a free-enterprise economy.

The elected representatives of the people are responsible for making laws and policies. They do not have a direct role in solving the problems of what, how and for whom in a free-enterprise economy.

None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is: B. 570, 225

The Paleozoic Era is the first of three geologic eras of the Phanerozoic eon, spanning 541 to 252 million years ago. It is the longest of the Phanerozoic eras, and is subdivided into six periods: the Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, and Permian.

The Paleozoic Era began with the Cambrian Explosion, a period of rapid diversification of life that began about 541 million years ago. The Cambrian Explosion is marked by the appearance of the first complex animals, including trilobites, brachiopods, and echinoderms.

The Paleozoic Era ended with the Permian–Triassic extinction event, the most severe extinction event in Earth's history. The Permian–Triassic extinction event occurred about 252 million years ago, and resulted in the extinction of about 96% of all marine species and 70% of all terrestrial vertebrate species.

Option A is incorrect because it states that the Paleozoic Era starts at 500 million years ago. However, the Paleozoic Era actually starts at 570 million years ago.

Option C is incorrect because it states that the Paleozoic Era ends at 150 million years ago. However, the Paleozoic Era actually ends at 252 million years ago.

Option D is incorrect because it states that the Paleozoic Era starts at 470 million years ago and ends at 225 million years ago. However, the Paleozoic Era actually starts at 570 million years ago and ends at 252 million years ago.

The correct answer is A. Instant Messaging.

Instant messaging is a text-based communication method between two or more people that is typically carried out over the Internet using instant messaging software. Instant messaging is often used for quick, informal conversations. It is a real-time communication method, which means that messages are sent and received immediately.

E-mail is a method of exchanging digital messages from one computer user to another over a computer network. E-mail is a text-based communication method, but it can also include attachments such as images, documents, and spreadsheets. E-mail is not a real-time communication method, which means that messages are not sent and received immediately.

Usenet is a global discussion system that consists of thousands of newsgroups. Newsgroups are organized by topic, and users can post messages to newsgroups and read messages that have been posted by other users. Usenet is not a real-time communication method, which means that messages are not sent and received immediately.

A mailing list is a list of email addresses that are used to send messages to a group of people. Mailing lists are often used to distribute information to a group of people who are interested in a particular topic. Mailing lists are not a real-time communication method, which means that messages are not sent and received immediately.

The correct answer is: D. 28 m x 16 m

The International Basketball Federation (FIBA) sets the official dimensions of the basketball court for international competitions, including the Olympics and World Tournaments. The court is a rectangular area with a flat, hard surface. The length of the court is 28 meters (92 feet), and the width is 16 meters (52 feet). The court is divided into two halves by a mid-court line. The free throw line is 5.8 meters (19 feet) from the backboard and 1.8 meters (6 feet) from the side lines. The three-point line is 6.75 meters (22 feet 1.75 inches) from the basket for international games and 7.24 meters (23 feet 9 inches) for NBA games. The basket is 3.05 meters (10 feet) high and is attached to a backboard that is 1.8 meters (6 feet) wide and 1.05 meters (3 feet 5 inches) high.

Option A is incorrect because the length of the court is 28 meters, not 27 meters.

Option B is incorrect because the width of the court is 16 meters, not 15 meters.

Option C is incorrect because the length of the court is 28 meters, not 26 meters.

The dimensions of the basketball court are important because they affect the game in a number of ways. For example, the length of the court determines how far players have to run to get from one end to the other. The width of the court determines how much space players have to maneuver. The distance of the free throw line from the basket determines how difficult it is to make a free throw. The distance of the three-point line from the basket determines how difficult it is to make a three-point shot.

The correct answer is: B. equal to government income.

Government expenditure is the total amount of money that the government spends on goods and services. Government income is the total amount of money that the government receives from taxes, fees, and other sources. In an economy that is in equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, government expenditure must be equal to government income. This is because, in equilibrium, the total amount of money that is spent in the economy must equal the total amount of money that is earned in the economy. If government expenditure were greater than government income, then the government would be spending more money than it was taking in, and the economy would be in a state of deficit. If government expenditure were less than government income, then the government would be taking in more money than it was spending, and the economy would be in a state of surplus.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: zero. This is not possible, because government expenditure is always positive. Even if the government does not spend any money on goods and services, it will still have to spend money on things like salaries and pensions for its employees.
• Option B: equal to government income. This is the correct answer, as explained above.
• Option C: larger than government income. This is not possible, because the government cannot spend more money than it takes in. If it did, it would have to borrow money, which would add to the national debt.
• Option D: negative. This is also not possible, because the government cannot spend more money than it has. If it did, it would have to print more money, which would cause inflation.

The correct answer is D. All of these.

India is a republic because it is a democratic country, a parliamentary democracy, and the head of the state is elected for a definite period.

A republic is a form of government in which the head of state is not a monarch and the people hold power. In a republic, the people elect their leaders, who then make decisions on their behalf.

A parliamentary democracy is a type of republic in which the head of government is the prime minister, who is elected by the members of parliament. The prime minister then appoints a cabinet, which is responsible for running the country.

The head of state in India is the president, who is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of parliament and the legislative assemblies of the states. The president serves for a term of five years.

Therefore, India is a republic because it is a democratic country, a parliamentary democracy, and the head of the state is elected for a definite period.

The correct answer is: A. positive.

Marginal revenue is the additional revenue that a firm earns from selling one more unit of its product. It is calculated by taking the change in total revenue and dividing it by the change in quantity sold.

The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. It is calculated by taking the percentage change in quantity demanded and dividing it by the percentage change in price.

When the elasticity of demand is equal to one, then consumers are perfectly responsive to changes in price. This means that if the price of a product goes up by 1%, then the quantity demanded will go down by 1%.

In this case, the marginal revenue will be positive. This is because the firm will earn more revenue from selling one more unit of its product, even though the price of the product has gone up.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B: negative. This is not possible when the elasticity of demand is equal to one.
• Option C: zero. This is only possible when the elasticity of demand is infinite.
• Option D: infinity. This is not possible.

The correct answer is (b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President of India. He was a scientist and aeronautical engineer who played a major role in the development of India's missile and nuclear weapons programs. He was also a popular author and motivational speaker.

The Wings of Fire: An Autobiography is an autobiographical book written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. It was first published in 1999. The book chronicles Kalam's life from his childhood in Rameswaram to his time as President of India. It is a story of courage, determination, and hard work.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India. He was a lawyer and freedom fighter who played a major role in the Indian independence movement.

(c) K.R. Narayanan was the 10th President of India. He was a diplomat and politician who served as the Indian Ambassador to the United States and the United Nations.

(d) R. Venkatraman was the 9th President of India. He was a lawyer and politician who served as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the Finance Minister of India.

The correct answer is (a) Carbon dioxide.

Carbon dioxide is the most important greenhouse gas because it is the most abundant. It is also the most long-lived, meaning it stays in the atmosphere for a long time. Other greenhouse gases, such as methane and nitrous oxide, are also important, but they are not as abundant as carbon dioxide.

Water vapor is also a greenhouse gas, but it is not as important as carbon dioxide because it is not as long-lived. Water vapor is also constantly being exchanged between the atmosphere and the Earth's surface, so its concentration in the atmosphere is not as stable as carbon dioxide.

Ozone is a greenhouse gas, but it is not as important as carbon dioxide because it is not as abundant. Ozone is also constantly being created and destroyed in the atmosphere, so its concentration is not as stable as carbon dioxide.

In conclusion, carbon dioxide is the most important greenhouse gas because it is the most abundant, the most long-lived, and the most stable.

The correct answer is: C. Both 1 and 2

When the percentage change in demand is greater than that of price, then demand is relatively inelastic. This is because the quantity demanded is not very sensitive to changes in price. For example, if the price of bread goes up by 10%, but the quantity demanded only goes down by 2%, then demand is relatively inelastic.

When the demand remains unchanged at all price variation, it is perfectly inelastic. This is because the quantity demanded is completely unresponsive to changes in price. For example, if the price of water goes up by 100%, but the quantity demanded remains the same, then demand is perfectly inelastic.

Both of these statements are correct.

The correct answer is (b). Compulsory sterilization was forced in India during the Emergency period of 1975-1977.

The Emergency was a 21-month period of Indian history from 25 June 1975 to 21 March 1977 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi used her powers under Article 352 of the Constitution of India to suspend civil liberties and rule by decree. During this time, the government launched a family planning program that included forced sterilization. Millions of men were sterilized, often without their consent. The program was widely condemned as a human rights violation.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the Emergency did not begin until 1975. Option (c) is incorrect because the Emergency ended in 1977. Option (d) is incorrect because it does not include the year 1975, which is when the Emergency began.

The correct answer is: A) Productivity.

Improved breeds of livestock are bred to be more productive than their wild counterparts. This means that they can produce more meat, milk, or eggs in a shorter amount of time. This can lead to increased profits for farmers and a more reliable food supply for consumers.

However, there are some potential downsides to using improved breeds of livestock. For example, they may be more susceptible to disease than their wild counterparts. They may also require more specialized care and feeding, which can increase the cost of rearing them. Additionally, the use of improved breeds of livestock can sometimes lead to environmental problems, such as pollution from animal waste.

Overall, the use of improved breeds of livestock has both potential benefits and drawbacks. It is important to weigh these factors carefully before deciding whether or not to use them.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Productivity. Improved breeds of livestock are bred to be more productive than their wild counterparts. This means that they can produce more meat, milk, or eggs in a shorter amount of time. This can lead to increased profits for farmers and a more reliable food supply for consumers.
* Option B: Cost of rearing. Improved breeds of livestock may require more specialized care and feeding, which can increase the cost of rearing them.
* Option C: Environmental pollution. The use of improved breeds of livestock can sometimes lead to environmental problems, such as pollution from animal waste.
* Option D: Vulnerability to disease. Improved breeds of livestock may be more susceptible to disease than their wild counterparts.

The correct answer is (b), 1.0.

The coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigerator is defined as the ratio of the heat removed from the refrigerated space to the work input. In an ideal refrigerator, the COP is given by the following equation:

COP = $frac{T_{L}}{T_{H} - T_{L}}$

where $T_{L}$ is the temperature of the refrigerated space and $T_{H}$ is the temperature of the heat source.

In this case, the temperature of the refrigerated space is 200 K and the temperature of the heat source is 400 K. Therefore, the COP is:

COP = $frac{200}{400 - 200} = 1.0$

The other options are incorrect because they do not take into account the temperature of the refrigerated space and the heat source.

The correct answer is: **A) Large salt lakes**

Bankura district is located in the western part of West Bengal, India. It is known for its large salt lakes, which are a major source of salt for the region. The lakes are also a popular tourist destination, and are home to a variety of birds and other wildlife.

Hilly terrain is not a major feature of Bankura district. The district is located on the Ganges Plain, which is a relatively flat area. There are some hills in the western part of the district, but they are not as high as the hills in other parts of West Bengal.

Tropical rainforests are also not a major feature of Bankura district. The district is located in the Ganges Plain, which is a tropical savanna climate. There are some forests in the district, but they are not as dense as the rainforests in other parts of India.

Mangrove swamps are also not a major feature of Bankura district. The district is located on the Ganges Plain, which is a riverine delta. There are some mangrove swamps in the district, but they are not as extensive as the mangrove swamps in other parts of India.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

Subhas Chandra Bose, Chittaranjan Das, and Mahatma Gandhi were all key figures in the Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movements in Bengal.

Subhas Chandra Bose was a Bengali Indian nationalist who was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as its president from 1938 to 1939. Bose was also the founder of the All India Forward Bloc, a political party that advocated for socialism and Indian independence.

Chittaranjan Das was a Bengali Indian lawyer, politician, and freedom fighter. He was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement and was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. Das was also the founder of the Swaraj Party, a political party that advocated for swaraj, or self-rule, for India.

Mahatma Gandhi was a preeminent leader of Indian nationalism in British-ruled India. Employing nonviolent civil disobedience, Gandhi led India to independence and inspired movements for civil rights and freedom across the world. The honorific title Mahatma—meaning "high-souled"—was bestowed on him first in 1914 in South Africa, and became widely used in India in the 1920s. He is internationally honored as the Father of India.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was a mass protest movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. The movement was aimed at achieving swaraj, or self-rule, for India. The Civil Disobedience Movement was a mass protest movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930. The movement was aimed at achieving purna swaraj, or complete independence, for India.

All three leaders played a key role in the Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movements in Bengal. They were all charismatic and inspiring leaders who were able to mobilize large numbers of people to participate in the movements. They were also all committed to non-violence and believed that it was the only way to achieve independence for India.

The correct answer is B. Latent heat.

Latent heat is the heat absorbed or released by a substance during a change of state, such as solid to liquid or liquid to gas. The latent heat of vaporization is the heat required to change a liquid into a gas at a constant temperature. The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2260 kJ/kg. This means that it takes 2260 kJ of heat to vaporize 1 kg of water at 100 °C.

Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree Celsius. The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g/°C. This means that it takes 4.184 J of heat to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

Absolute heat is the total heat content of a substance. It is equal to the specific heat of the substance times the mass of the substance times the change in temperature.

Relative heat is a measure of the intensity of heat. It is equal to the absolute heat divided by the temperature of the substance.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is B. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India. It was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI is the banker to the Government of India, the custodian of India's foreign exchange reserves, and the lender of last resort to the banking system. It also regulates the country's monetary policy and financial system.

The Central Bank of India (CBI) is a private sector bank in India. It was founded in 1911 by a group of Indian businessmen and industrialists. The CBI is headquartered in Mumbai.

The State Bank of India (SBI) is a state-owned banking and financial services company in India. It is the largest commercial bank in India and the largest employer in the country. The SBI is headquartered in Mumbai.

The Punjab National Bank (PNB) is a state-owned banking and financial services company in India. It is the second largest commercial bank in India after the State Bank of India. The PNB is headquartered in New Delhi.

Therefore, the central banking functions in India are performed by the Reserve Bank of India only.

The correct answer is: A) Transgender persons.

The 2011 Census was the first time that data was collected on the transgender population in the United States. The data was collected through a voluntary survey that was sent to approximately 10 million households. The survey asked respondents to identify their sex at birth and their gender identity. The data collected through the survey will be used to better understand the transgender population and to develop programs and services that meet their needs.

The other options are incorrect because they were all collected in previous censuses. Internet usage was first collected in the 2000 Census, ownership of mobile phones was first collected in the 2005 Census, and migration patterns were first collected in the 1990 Census.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* A) Transgender persons: Transgender people are people whose gender identity is different from the sex they were assigned at birth. Transgender people may identify as male, female, or non-binary.
* B) Internet usage: Internet usage refers to the use of the Internet to access information, communicate with others, and conduct transactions.
* C) Ownership of mobile phones: Ownership of mobile phones refers to the number of people who own a mobile phone.
* D) Migration patterns: Migration patterns refer to the movement of people from one place to another.

The correct answer is (d) STEP.

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social security programme that provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is a programme that aims to promote self-employment and livelihoods among rural poor households.

The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) is a programme that aims to provide quality secondary education to all children in the age group of 14-18 years in rural areas.

The Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Programme (STEP) is a programme that aims to provide training and support to youth to acquire skills and become entrepreneurs.

Of the above, only STEP is not employment related.

The correct answer is: A. Longitudinal waves.

Compressions and rarefactions are regions of high pressure and low pressure, respectively, that are created when a longitudinal wave travels through a medium. The particles in the medium move back and forth in the same direction as the wave is traveling.

Transverse waves, on the other hand, create regions of high and low pressure that are perpendicular to the direction of the wave's travel. The particles in the medium move up and down or side to side as the wave passes through.

Neither option C nor D is correct because compressions and rarefactions are not characteristic of both longitudinal and transverse waves.

The correct answer is: Alkaline metals.

Hydrogen has one electron in its valence shell, which is the outermost shell of an atom. Alkaline metals also have one electron in their valence shell. This means that hydrogen and alkaline metals have similar chemical properties. For example, both hydrogen and alkaline metals are very reactive and can easily form bonds with other elements.

Alkaline earth metals have two electrons in their valence shell. Inert gases have eight electrons in their valence shell. Halogens have seven electrons in their valence shell.

Here is a table showing the electron configuration of each of the elements mentioned in the question:

Element | Electron configuration
------- | --------
Hydrogen | 1s1
Alkaline metals | ns1
Alkaline earth metals | ns2
Inert gases | ns2np6
Halogens | ns2np5

As you can see, hydrogen has the same electron configuration as the alkaline metals. This is why hydrogen is often classified as an alkali metal.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Scarcity of resources is a fundamental economic problem. There are not enough resources to satisfy all human wants. This means that people must make choices about how to use their resources.

Alternative uses is another cause of economic problems. Resources can be used for many different purposes. For example, land can be used to grow crops, build houses, or mine for minerals. The decision of how to use land is an economic problem.

Unlimited wants is the third cause of economic problems. People have unlimited wants, but resources are limited. This means that people must always make choices about what to do with their limited resources.

In conclusion, the three causes of economic problems are scarcity of resources, alternative uses, and unlimited wants.

The correct answer is: B. 2001 - 2010

The United Nations General Assembly declared the period 2001-2010 as the "Decade to Roll Back Malaria in Developing Countries, particularly in Africa". The goal of the Decade was to reduce malaria deaths by 50% and malaria cases by 75% by 2010.

The Decade was a success in reducing malaria deaths and cases. The number of malaria deaths fell from 839,000 in 2000 to 435,000 in 2010. The number of malaria cases fell from 247 million in 2000 to 198 million in 2010.

However, the Decade did not achieve its goal of eliminating malaria in Africa. Malaria remains a major public health problem in Africa, with an estimated 219 million cases and 435,000 deaths in 2010.

The Decade to Roll Back Malaria was a significant step forward in the fight against malaria. It helped to raise awareness of the disease, increase funding for malaria control, and develop new tools and strategies for malaria prevention and treatment. However, more work is needed to eliminate malaria in Africa.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the years that the United Nations General Assembly declared as the "Decade to Roll Back Malaria in Developing Countries, particularly in Africa".

The correct answer is (c).

When the moon size is half of the full moon, it is called a quarter moon. A quarter moon occurs when the moon is 90 degrees from the sun in the sky. This means that the sun, the earth, and the moon are in a straight line, with the earth in the middle.

Option (a), 45 degrees, is incorrect because the moon would be too close to the sun to be visible. Option (b), 90 degrees, is correct because the moon is 90 degrees from the sun in the sky. Option (d), 270 degrees, is incorrect because the moon would be on the opposite side of the earth from the sun.

The correct answer is C. A natural monopoly is a market situation in which a single firm can supply the market output more efficiently than many firms. This is because the production of a good or service in a natural monopoly has high fixed costs and low marginal costs. This means that the average cost of production decreases as the firm produces more output. As a result, a single firm can produce the good or service at a lower cost than multiple firms.

Option A is incorrect because it does not specify that the firm must be able to produce the good or service more efficiently than multiple firms. Option B is incorrect because it does not specify that the firm must be the only supplier of the good or service. Option D is incorrect because it is the only option that is not a correct description of a natural monopoly.

The correct answer is (d) Champawat.

Champawat is a district in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand, India. It is the northernmost district of the state and is bordered by Pithoragarh district to the south, Bageshwar district to the west, the Tibet Autonomous Region of China to the north, and Nepal to the east. The district headquarters is the town of Champawat.

According to the 2011 Census of India, the population of Champawat district is 276,439. This makes it the least populous district in Uttarakhand. The district has a population density of 14 people per square kilometer.

The majority of the population of Champawat district is Hindu. There are also small Muslim, Buddhist, and Christian minorities.

The main language spoken in Champawat district is Kumaoni. Hindi and English are also spoken.

The economy of Champawat district is based on agriculture. The main crops grown are rice, wheat, maize, and barley. The district is also home to a number of small industries, including handloom weaving, carpet making, and stone carving.

Champawat district is a beautiful and scenic region. The district is home to a number of mountains, including Nanda Devi, the highest mountain in India. The district is also home to a number of rivers, including the Alaknanda River and the Gori Ganga River.

Champawat district is a popular tourist destination. The district is home to a number of temples, including the Nanda Devi Temple and the Jageshwar Temple. The district is also home to a number of national parks, including the Nanda Devi National Park and the Jim Corbett National Park.

The correct answer is (a) Purandhar.

The Battle of Purandhar was fought on 10 November 1656 between the Maratha Empire led by Shivaji Maharaj and the Mughal Empire led by Afzal Khan. The battle took place near the town of Purandhar in the present-day state of Maharashtra, India.

The Mughals had been trying to conquer the Maratha territories for several years, and the Battle of Purandhar was a major turning point in the conflict. The Marathas were victorious, and Afzal Khan was killed in the battle. This victory helped to secure the Maratha Empire and allowed Shivaji Maharaj to expand his territory.

The Battle of Purandhar was a significant event in Indian history. It was the first time that a Hindu power had defeated a Muslim power in a major battle. The victory helped to inspire other Hindu powers to resist the Mughal Empire, and it also helped to spread the Maratha Empire.

The Battle of Purandhar was a complex battle with many different factors that contributed to the Maratha victory. Some of the key factors included the Maratha's superior military tactics, their knowledge of the terrain, and their strong morale. The Marathas were also able to take advantage of the Mughals' overconfidence and lack of preparation.

The Battle of Purandhar was a decisive victory for the Maratha Empire. It helped to secure the Maratha territories and allowed Shivaji Maharaj to expand his empire. The victory also helped to inspire other Hindu powers to resist the Mughal Empire. The Battle of Purandhar was a significant event in Indian history, and it is still remembered today as a symbol of Maratha resistance to Mughal rule.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the names of battles that Shivaji Maharaj fought against the Mughals.

The correct answer is (c).

Malafide is an adjective that means done in bad faith or with malicious intent. It is derived from the Latin word "malus," meaning "bad," and "fides," meaning "faith."

Option (a), erroneous, means wrong or incorrect. This is not the meaning of malafide.

Option (b), good faith, means honest intention or belief. This is the opposite of the meaning of malafide.

Option (d), intention, means a plan or purpose. This is not the same as malafide, which refers to the quality of being done in bad faith.

The correct answer is: A. P and A are cousins.

C is the mother of A, and Z is the mother of Q. This means that Q is the aunt of A. P is the son of Z, which makes him the nephew of Q. This also makes him the cousin of A.

Option B is incorrect because P is the nephew of Q, not her uncle. Option C is incorrect because Q is the aunt of A, not her grandfather. Option D is incorrect because C and P are not sisters.

The correct answer is: D. Elgin.

The system of Budget was introduced in India during the Viceroyalty of Lord Elgin. He was the Viceroy of India from 1862 to 1863. He introduced the system of Budget in order to improve the financial management of the Indian government. The system of Budget required the government to present a detailed account of its income and expenditure to the Indian Parliament. This system helped to improve transparency and accountability in the Indian government.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A: Canning was the Viceroy of India from 1856 to 1862. He did not introduce the system of Budget.
• Option B: Dalhousie was the Viceroy of India from 1848 to 1856. He did not introduce the system of Budget.
• Option C: Ripon was the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. He did not introduce the system of Budget.

The correct answer is (a). The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 was passed by the Parliament of India on 18 February 2014 and approved and signed by the President on 20 March 2014. The Act bifurcated the state of Andhra Pradesh into two new states, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The new state of Telangana came into existence on 2 June 2014.

(b) is incorrect because the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill was not approved and signed by the President in February 2014.

(c) is incorrect because the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill was not approved and signed by the President in January 2014.

(d) is incorrect because the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill was not approved and signed by the President in April 2014.

The correct answer is: A. Only one input is fixed and all other inputs are kept variable.

The law of variable proportions states that in the short run, when one input is fixed and all other inputs are increased, there will be a point at which the marginal product of the variable input will decline.

Option B is incorrect because all factors cannot be kept constant in the short run. At least one factor must be fixed in order to measure the marginal product of the variable input.

Option C is incorrect because the law of variable proportions does not state that all inputs must vary in the same proportion. In fact, the law states that the marginal product of the variable input will decline even if all other inputs are increased in the same proportion.

Option D is incorrect because the law of variable proportions is a valid economic principle. It is a well-established theory that has been supported by empirical evidence.

The correct answer is: C. Pankaj Roy

The highest first wicket partnership in Test Match Cricket was between two Indians: one is V.Mankad, who is the other?

• Subhash Gupte was an Indian cricketer who played from 1946 to 1962. He was a left-arm spinner who took 149 wickets in 46 Tests. He was not the other batsman in the highest first wicket partnership in Test Match Cricket.
• Sunil Gavaskar was an Indian cricketer who played from 1971 to 1987. He was a right-handed opening batsman who scored 10,122 runs in 125 Tests. He was not the other batsman in the highest first wicket partnership in Test Match Cricket.
• Chetan Chauhan was an Indian cricketer who played from 1979 to 1992. He was a right-handed opening batsman who scored 6,155 runs in 86 Tests. He was not the other batsman in the highest first wicket partnership in Test Match Cricket.

The highest first wicket partnership in Test Match Cricket was between Vinoo Mankad and Pankaj Roy. They put on 413 runs for the first wicket against England at Lord's in 1952.

The correct answer is (a) Mariam Bint.

Mariam Bint Abdulrahman Al-Suhaimi was elected to the Local Council of Mecca in Saudi Arabia in 2021. She is the first woman to be elected to this position.

Mariam Bint Abdulrahman Al-Suhaimi is a Saudi businesswoman and politician. She is the founder and CEO of the Al-Suhaimi Group, a conglomerate with interests in construction, real estate, and tourism. She is also the president of the Saudi Businesswomen's Council.

Mariam Bint Abdulrahman Al-Suhaimi is a strong advocate for women's rights in Saudi Arabia. She has been a vocal critic of the country's male guardianship system, which requires women to have the permission of a male guardian to travel, work, or marry. She has also called for greater representation of women in government and business.

Mariam Bint Abdulrahman Al-Suhaimi's election to the Local Council of Mecca is a significant step forward for women's rights in Saudi Arabia. It is a sign that the country is slowly moving towards greater gender equality.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the names of the first woman elected to the Local Council of Mecca in Saudi Arabia.

The correct answer is A. Ampere.

An ampere (A) is the SI unit of electric current. It is the rate of flow of electric charge. One ampere is equal to one coulomb of charge per second.

A coulomb (C) is the SI unit of electric charge. It is the charge transported in one second by a current of one ampere.

An ampere-second (A⋅s) is a unit of electric charge. It is the charge transported by a current of one ampere in one second.

The rate of flow of electric charge is measured in amperes. This is because the ampere is defined as the rate of flow of one coulomb of charge per second.

The correct answer is: D. Economic

Drought is a natural hazard that can have a significant impact on the economy. It can lead to crop failures, water shortages, and power outages, all of which can have a negative impact on businesses and individuals. In addition, drought can also lead to social unrest and conflict, as people compete for scarce resources.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Natural
  Drought is a natural hazard, meaning that it is caused by natural processes such as changes in weather patterns.

• B. Financial
  Drought can have a significant impact on the financial sector, as businesses and individuals may be unable to repay loans or make other financial commitments.

• C. Social
  Drought can lead to social unrest and conflict, as people compete for scarce resources.

• D. Economic
  Drought can have a significant impact on the economy, as it can lead to crop failures, water shortages, and power outages, all of which can have a negative impact on businesses and individuals.

The correct answer is Bhangar.

Bhangar is a type of old alluvial deposit found in parts of West Bengal. It is a relatively hard, compact soil that is good for agriculture.

Laterites are a type of soil that is formed in tropical and subtropical regions. They are rich in iron and aluminum oxides, and they are often red or yellow in color. Laterites are not good for agriculture, as they are very poor in nutrients.

Barind is a region in West Bengal that is characterized by its flat, sandy soil. The Barind is not suitable for agriculture, as the soil is too sandy and does not hold water well.

Terai is a region in West Bengal that is located at the foot of the Himalayas. The Terai is characterized by its dense forests and its wet, tropical climate. The Terai is not suitable for agriculture, as the soil is too wet and prone to flooding.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Old alluvial deposits found in parts of West Bengal are known as:" is Bhangar.

The correct answer is A. 6.

A basketball team consists of 12 players, but only 5 players are on the court at any given time. The other 7 players are on the bench and can be substituted into the game at any time.

The 5 players on the court are divided into 5 positions: point guard, shooting guard, small forward, power forward, and center. The point guard is responsible for dribbling the ball up the court and initiating the offense. The shooting guard is a good outside shooter and is often the team's leading scorer. The small forward is a versatile player who can play both inside and outside. The power forward is a strong player who is good at rebounding and defending. The center is the tallest player on the team and is usually the best rebounder.

The 12 players on a basketball team are divided into two groups: the starters and the bench players. The starters are the 5 players who start the game on the court. The bench players are the 7 players who are not on the court at the start of the game. The coach can substitute any of the bench players into the game at any time.

The number of players on a basketball team has changed over time. In the early days of basketball, there were only 9 players on each team. In 1936, the number of players was increased to 10. In 1951, the number of players was increased to 12. The number of players has remained at 12 ever since.

The number of players on a basketball team is important because it affects the way the game is played. With 5 players on the court at a time, each player has a lot of responsibility. They need to be able to dribble, pass, shoot, and defend. With 12 players on the team, the coach can substitute players in and out to keep them fresh and to match up with the other team's players.

The correct answer is: E. Cricket.

The Duleep Trophy is a first-class cricket tournament contested by teams representing India's five zonal cricket associations: Central Zone, East Zone, North Zone, South Zone, and West Zone. The tournament was started in 1961–62 in memory of Duleepsinhji, who was a prince of the princely state of Nawanagar in India and a former Test cricketer for England and India.

The Duleep Trophy is played on a home-and-away basis, with each team playing the other four teams once. The top two teams at the end of the league stage progress to the final, which is played over three days.

The Duleep Trophy is one of the most prestigious first-class cricket tournaments in India. It has been won by a number of famous Indian cricketers, including Sunil Gavaskar, Sachin Tendulkar, and Virat Kohli.

The other options are incorrect because they are not associated with the game of cricket.

• Hockey is a team sport in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball into the other team's goal using a hockey stick.
• Badminton is a racquet sport in which two or four players hit a shuttlecock with racquets across a net.
• Football is a team sport in which two teams of eleven players try to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms.
• Lawn tennis is a racket sport that can be played individually against a single opponent (singles) or between two teams of two players each (doubles).

The correct answer is C. The 26th Bengal Native Infantry regiment was the first to mutiny in 1857.

The 34th Bengal Native Infantry regiment was not involved in the mutiny.

The 19th Bengal Native Infantry regiment was involved in the mutiny, but it was not the first to mutiny.

The 48th Bengal Native Infantry regiment was involved in the mutiny, but it was not the first to mutiny.

The mutiny of 1857 was a major uprising against British rule in India. It began on May 10, 1857, when Indian soldiers in the Bengal Army refused to use new cartridges that they believed were greased with animal fat. The mutiny quickly spread to other parts of India, and by the end of 1857, it had become a full-scale rebellion. The British eventually suppressed the mutiny, but it had a profound impact on British rule in India.

The 26th Bengal Native Infantry regiment was stationed at Barrackpore, near Calcutta. On May 9, 1857, the regiment was ordered to use new cartridges that had been greased with animal fat. The soldiers refused to use the cartridges, believing that they were a violation of their religious beliefs. The next day, the regiment mutinied. The mutiny quickly spread to other parts of India, and by the end of 1857, it had become a full-scale rebellion. The British eventually suppressed the mutiny, but it had a profound impact on British rule in India.

The correct answer is D. Ganga.

The Ganga is the longest river in India and the third-longest river in Asia. It is also one of the most important rivers in the world, both culturally and economically. The Ganga flows through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. In West Bengal, the Ganga forms the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, one of the largest deltas in the world.

The Damodar is a river in eastern India. It flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. The Damodar is a tributary of the Hooghly River.

The Teesta is a river in northeastern India and Bangladesh. It flows through the states of Sikkim, West Bengal, and Assam. The Teesta is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.

The Mahananda is a river in eastern India. It flows through the states of West Bengal and Bihar. The Mahananda is a tributary of the Ganga River.

The correct answer is C. Discus throw.

Vikas Gowda is an Indian track and field athlete who competes in the discus throw. He is the first Indian to win a medal in the discus throw at the World Championships, having won a bronze medal at the 2005 World Championships in Helsinki. He is also the first Indian to win a medal at the Asian Games in the discus throw, having won a silver medal at the 2006 Asian Games in Doha.

Wrestling is a combat sport involving grappling techniques such as clinch fighting, throws, joint locks, pins, and chokeholds. It is a popular sport in India, and India has produced many world-class wrestlers. However, Vikas Gowda is not a wrestler.

Sprint is a type of running race over a short distance. It is a popular sport in India, and India has produced many world-class sprinters. However, Vikas Gowda is not a sprinter.

Archery is a sport in which participants shoot arrows at targets from a distance. It is a popular sport in India, and India has produced many world-class archers. However, Vikas Gowda is not an archer.

Krira Guru Samman award is given to eminent coaches and trainers, who have devoted themselves for the cause of coaching and training in sports. This award carries a cash incentive of 1 lakh rupees each along with a citation.

The correct answer is: A. Teacher : Education

An apostate is a person who renounces a religious faith. A teacher is a person who helps others learn. Education is the process of learning and acquiring knowledge.

A traitor is a person who betrays their country. A country is a nation with its own government, territory, and people.

A potentate is a powerful ruler. A kingdom is a country ruled by a king or queen.

A jailer is a person who keeps prisoners in jail. Law is a system of rules that are enforced through social or governmental institutions to regulate behavior.

The relationship between apostate and religion is that an apostate is a person who renounces a religious faith. The relationship between teacher and education is that a teacher is a person who helps others learn. The relationship between traitor and country is that a traitor is a person who betrays their country. The relationship between potentate and kingdom is that a potentate is a powerful ruler. The relationship between jailer and law is that a jailer is a person who keeps prisoners in jail.

Of the four lettered pairs, only teacher and education have the same relationship as apostate and religion. A teacher is a person who helps others learn, just as an apostate is a person who renounces a religious faith.

The correct answer is: A. apathy

Apathy is a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern. It is a state of indifference or unconcern.

Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It is the ability to put yourself in someone else's shoes and see the world from their perspective.

Antipathy is a feeling of dislike or aversion. It is a strong negative feeling towards someone or something.

Sympathy is a feeling of pity or compassion for someone who is suffering. It is a feeling of sorrow or regret for someone else's misfortune.

In the given question, the two girls are always together. This suggests that they have a strong bond and feel a deep connection to each other. This is not consistent with the definitions of apathy, empathy, or antipathy. Sympathy is a possibility, but it is not the most likely explanation. The most likely explanation is that the two girls have a great affinity for each other.

The correct answer is (a) Amartya Sen.

Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher who won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998. He is known for his work on welfare economics, social choice theory, economic and social justice, economic theories of famines, and indexes of the measure of well-being of citizens of developing countries.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. The HDI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and is published annually as part of the Human Development Report.

The HDI was first published in 1990 and has been used to measure the progress of human development around the world ever since. The HDI is based on the following three indicators:

• Life expectancy at birth: This indicator measures the average number of years that a person is expected to live at birth.
• Mean years of schooling: This indicator measures the average number of years of schooling that a person has completed.
• Expected years of schooling: This indicator measures the average number of years of schooling that a child is expected to complete.

The HDI is calculated by taking the average of the three indicators, after they have been standardized to have a maximum value of 1 and a minimum value of 0. The HDI is then ranked on a scale from 0 to 1, with higher values indicating a higher level of human development.

The HDI has been criticized for a number of reasons, including the fact that it does not take into account a number of important factors, such as inequality, gender equality, and environmental sustainability. However, the HDI remains an important tool for measuring the progress of human development around the world.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{(C)}}$.

The double integral $int_0^a int_0^y f(x, y) , dx dy$ is the integral of the function $f(x, y)$ over the region in the $xy$-plane bounded by the lines $x = 0$, $x = a$, $y = 0$, and $y = a$. The order of integration does not matter in double integrals, so the integral is also equal to $int_0^a int_x^a f(x, y) , dy dx$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not integrate over the same region. Option $text{(A)}$ integrates over the region bounded by the lines $x = 0$, $x = y$, $y = 0$, and $y = a$. Option $text{(B)}$ integrates over the region bounded by the lines $x = 0$, $x = a$, $y = x$, and $y = a$. Option $text{(D)}$ integrates over the entire $xy$-plane.

The correct answer is (b), Balban.

Balban was a Turkic slave who became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266. He is known for his strong rule and for his policy of "blood and iron", which was designed to keep the peace and to prevent rebellion. Balban was a successful ruler, and he is credited with restoring order and stability to the Delhi Sultanate.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Iltutmish was the first Sultan of Delhi to be born in India. He was a successful ruler, and he is credited with expanding the Delhi Sultanate. However, he did not follow a policy of "blood and iron".

(c) Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji was the third Sultan of Delhi from the Khalji dynasty. He was a successful ruler, and he is credited with expanding the Delhi Sultanate. However, he did not follow a policy of "blood and iron".

(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the fifth Sultan of Delhi from the Tughlaq dynasty. He was a successful ruler, and he is credited with expanding the Delhi Sultanate. However, he did not follow a policy of "blood and iron".

The correct answer is (c).

Banaras Talkies is a Hindi novel written by Dibya Prakash Dubey. It was published in 2021. The novel is set in Banaras, India, and tells the story of a young man who dreams of becoming a filmmaker. The novel has been praised for its realistic portrayal of life in Banaras and its exploration of themes of love, loss, and hope.

Ashish Chaudhary is an Indian actor who has appeared in Hindi films and television shows. He is known for his work in the films "Dabangg" and "Kick".

Satya Vyas is an Indian author who has written several novels and short stories. He is known for his work in the Hindi language.

Anu Singh Chaudhary is an Indian politician who is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party. She is the MLA from the Raipur Rural constituency in Chhattisgarh.

Here is a brief description of each option:

(a) Ashish Chaudhary is an Indian actor who has appeared in Hindi films and television shows. He is known for his work in the films "Dabangg" and "Kick". The novel "Banaras Talkies" is not written by Ashish Chaudhary.

(b) Satya Vyas is an Indian author who has written several novels and short stories. He is known for his work in the Hindi language. The novel "Banaras Talkies" is not written by Satya Vyas.

(c) Dibya Prakash Dubey is an Indian author who has written several novels and short stories. He is known for his work in the Hindi language. The novel "Banaras Talkies" is written by Dibya Prakash Dubey.

(d) Anu Singh Chaudhary is an Indian politician who is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party. She is the MLA from the Raipur Rural constituency in Chhattisgarh. The novel "Banaras Talkies" is not written by Anu Singh Chaudhary.

The correct answer is C. approach.

To accost someone means to approach them in a hostile or aggressive way. In this case, the man is approaching the financier to ask for money for his new scheme. He is not trying to deceive the financier, nor is he trying to employ him or consult with him. He is simply trying to get his attention and ask for his help.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the man's intentions.

• To employ someone means to hire them to work for you. The man is not trying to hire the financier, he is trying to get his help.
• To consult someone means to ask their advice or opinion. The man is not asking the financier for advice, he is asking for his help.
• To deceive someone means to trick them or mislead them. The man is not trying to deceive the financier, he is trying to get his help.

The correct answer is: C. Force

Force is a push or pull that acts upon an object. It can cause the object to change its motion, or to deform. Force is always exerted by one object on another.

Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist any change in its motion. An object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.

Momentum is the product of an object's mass and velocity. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. Momentum is conserved, meaning that the total momentum of a system remains constant unless an external force acts on the system.

Velocity is the rate of change of an object's position with respect to time. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. Velocity is always in the same direction as the object's motion.

Of the above, only force can never occur singly in nature. This is because force is always exerted by one object on another. For example, if you push on a wall, the wall pushes back on you with an equal and opposite force.

The correct answer is A. To keep captive and demand concession.

To hold somebody to ransom means to capture someone and demand money or other concessions from their friends or family in exchange for their release.

Option B is incorrect because humiliation is not a necessary part of holding someone to ransom.

Option C is incorrect because offering a bribe is not the same as holding someone to ransom.

Option D is incorrect because blackmail is not the same as holding someone to ransom.

The correct answer is: Brother-in-law.

A brother-in-law is the husband of one's sister or the brother of one's spouse. In this case, X is the brother of A, who is married to B. Therefore, Y is the brother of A's spouse, making him B's brother-in-law.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B is not X's brother.
• B is not Y's brother.
• B and Y are not cousins.

The correct answer is C. Dignified.

August is the eighth month of the year in the Gregorian calendar, coming between July and September. It is the second of seven months to have a length of 31 days. The name August comes from Augustus Caesar, the first Roman emperor, who was born in this month.

August is often associated with summer, as it is the month when the summer holidays begin in many parts of the world. It is also the month when the United States celebrates Independence Day.

The word "august" can also be used to describe something that is impressive or impressive. For example, a person might be described as "august" if they are very respected or have a lot of authority.

The other options are:

• Common: Something that is common is something that is found or happens often. For example, a common bird might be a sparrow.
• Ridiculous: Something that is ridiculous is something that is very silly or funny. For example, a ridiculous idea might be to try to fly to the moon by flapping your arms.
• Petty: Something that is petty is something that is small or unimportant. For example, a petty argument might be about who gets to sit in the front seat of the car.

Murshidabad district in Bengal is famous for silk industry from medieval times. It is a major centre for theproduction of silk fabrics. Santipur, Fulia in Nadia district; Dhaniakhali and Begampur in Hooghly; Sanudragrah, Dhatrigam and Ketugram in Bardhaman and Bishnupur in Bankura are major silk producing centres of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (a) Himachal Pradesh.

Himachal Pradesh registered the lowest growth of population during the inter Census period 1991-2001. The growth rate of population in Himachal Pradesh was 13.8% during this period, which was lower than the national average of 21.9%. The low growth rate of population in Himachal Pradesh can be attributed to a number of factors, including low fertility rates, high literacy rates, and out-migration of people in search of employment.

Orissa registered a growth rate of population of 17.1% during the inter Census period 1991-2001. Andhra Pradesh registered a growth rate of population of 16.6% during this period. Kerala registered a growth rate of population of 9.4% during this period.

The low growth rate of population in Himachal Pradesh is a positive development, as it will help to reduce pressure on natural resources and infrastructure. The state government should continue to take steps to promote family planning and education, in order to further reduce the growth rate of population.

The correct answer is A) Darjeeling.

Darjeeling is a town in West Bengal, India, in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is known for its tea plantations, colonial architecture, and views of Mount Kanchenjunga. Tiger Hill is a mountain pass in Darjeeling, from which there are panoramic views of Mount Kanchenjunga, the third-highest mountain in the world. It is a popular tourist destination, and is especially crowded during the sunrise viewing hours.

Sundarbans is a vast mangrove forest delta in the Bay of Bengal. It is the largest mangrove forest in the world, and is home to a wide variety of wildlife, including tigers, elephants, and crocodiles. The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Dooars is a region in the foothills of the Himalayas, in the state of West Bengal, India. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its tea plantations, wildlife sanctuaries, and scenic beauty.

Kolkata is the capital of the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the third-most populous city in India, and is a major center of commerce, education, and culture. Kolkata is home to a number of historical landmarks, including the Victoria Memorial, the Howrah Bridge, and the Indian Museum.

Raja Sen made a documentary on Suchitra Mitra that won National Award for best film in the Arts/Culture section.

The three acts that governed the rural administration of West Bengal until 1957 are The Bengal Village Chowkidari Act, 1870, The Bengal Local Self-Government Act, 1885 and West Bengal Panchayat Act, 1957.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

To find the number of distinct extrema for a curve, we can use the following steps:

1. Find the critical points of the curve. These are the points where the derivative of the curve is equal to zero.
2. Evaluate the derivative of the curve at each critical point. If the derivative is positive at a critical point, then the curve has a local minimum at that point. If the derivative is negative at a critical point, then the curve has a local maximum at that point.
3. If the derivative changes sign between two critical points, then there must be an extremum between those points.

In this case, the derivative of the curve is $12x(x-1)(x-2)$. The critical points are $x=0$, $x=1$, and $x=2$. The derivative is positive at $x=0$ and $x=2$, and negative at $x=1$. Therefore, the curve has a local minimum at $x=0$ and a local maximum at $x=2$. There is no extremum between $x=0$ and $x=1$, or between $x=1$ and $x=2$. Therefore, there are $boxed{2}$ distinct extrema for the curve.

The correct answer is (d) Anil Baijal.

Anil Baijal is the 22nd and current Lieutenant Governor of Delhi. He was appointed to the position on 29 May 2016. Prior to his appointment, he was the Chief Secretary of Delhi from 2013 to 2016. He has also served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Urban Development and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation.

Kiran Bedi is a retired Indian police officer who served as the first woman to head the Delhi Police. She is also a social activist and politician who has served as the Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry.

Tejendra Khanna is a retired Indian Administrative Service officer who served as the 19th Chief Secretary of Delhi. He is also a former Vice-Chancellor of the University of Delhi.

Najeeb Jung was the 21st Lieutenant Governor of Delhi. He was appointed to the position on 14 December 2013 and resigned on 29 May 2016. Prior to his appointment, he was the Vice-Chancellor of the Jawaharlal Nehru University.

The answer is $boxed{frac{1}{2}}$.

In the proportion $frac{1}{4}:frac{1}{8}::frac{2}{3}:x$, the first and third terms are in the ratio $2:1$, and the second and fourth terms are in the ratio $4:1$. This means that the fourth term is equal to the product of the first and third terms, divided by the product of the second and third terms, or $frac{1}{4}timesfrac{2}{3}=frac{1}{2}$.

Option A, $frac{1}{4}$, is incorrect because it is the first term of the proportion, not the fourth term. Option B, $frac{1}{3}$, is incorrect because it is the second term of the proportion, not the fourth term. Option C, $frac{1}{2}$, is correct because it is the product of the first and third terms, divided by the product of the second and third terms. Option D, $frac{2}{7}$, is incorrect because it is not in the ratio $2:1$ with the first term of the proportion.

The correct answer is: **A) Cricket**

The Gitanjali Stadium is a multi-purpose stadium in Kolkata, India. It is primarily used for cricket and is the home ground of the East Zone cricket team. The stadium has a capacity of 25,000 people.

The stadium was built in 1936 and was originally called the Eden Gardens. It was renamed the Gitanjali Stadium in 2001 in honor of the Bengali poet Rabindranath Tagore.

The stadium has hosted many important cricket matches, including Test matches, One Day Internationals, and Twenty20 Internationals. It was also the venue for the final of the 2011 Cricket World Cup.

The stadium is located in the heart of Kolkata and is easily accessible by public transport. It is a popular tourist destination and is a must-see for any cricket fan.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option B is incorrect because the Gitanjali Stadium is not primarily used for football. The Salt Lake Stadium is the main football stadium in Kolkata.
* Option C is incorrect because the Gitanjali Stadium is not primarily used for hockey. The Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium is the main hockey stadium in India.
* Option D is incorrect because the Gitanjali Stadium is not primarily used for athletics. The Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Stadium is the main athletics stadium in Kolkata.

The correct answer is A. Australia.

Australia won the ICC Women's World Cup held in February, 2013. They defeated England in the final by 7 wickets. Australia was the defending champion and they were the favorites to win the tournament. They had a strong team with some of the best players in the world, including Meg Lanning, Ellyse Perry, and Sarah Taylor. Australia won all of their matches in the group stage and then defeated New Zealand in the semi-final. In the final, they faced England, who had also won all of their matches in the group stage. The match was close, but Australia eventually won by 7 wickets. This was Australia's seventh ICC Women's World Cup title.

Option B, India, did not win the ICC Women's World Cup held in February, 2013. They were eliminated in the group stage after losing to Australia, England, and New Zealand.

Option C, New Zealand, did not win the ICC Women's World Cup held in February, 2013. They were eliminated in the semi-final after losing to Australia.

Option D, England, did not win the ICC Women's World Cup held in February, 2013. They lost to Australia in the final.

The correct answer is C) Darjeeling.

Darjeeling is a town in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the foothills of the Himalayas, at an altitude of 2,205 meters (7,234 feet). Darjeeling is a popular tourist destination, known for its tea gardens, views of Mount Kanchenjunga, and colonial architecture.

Murshidabad is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 200 kilometers (120 miles) north of Kolkata. Murshidabad was the capital of the Nawabs of Bengal from 1704 to 1770. It is now a major commercial and industrial center.

Cooch Behar is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the northern part of the state, bordering Bhutan and Nepal. Cooch Behar was once an independent princely state, ruled by the Koch dynasty. It was annexed by the British in 1839.

Malda is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the northern part of the state, bordering Bihar and Jharkhand. Malda is a major agricultural and commercial center. It is also home to the Malda Town railway station, which is the second busiest railway station in West Bengal.

The correct answer is B. Geronotology.

Gerontology is the study of the process of aging. It is a multidisciplinary field that includes biology, psychology, sociology, and medicine. Gerontologists study the physical, mental, and social changes that occur as people age. They also study the factors that influence aging, such as genetics, environment, and lifestyle.

Genocology is the study of the evolution of genes. It is a branch of genetics that focuses on the changes in gene frequencies in populations over time. Genocologists study the factors that influence genetic change, such as mutation, natural selection, and gene flow.

Ontogeny is the study of the development of an individual organism from conception to death. It is a branch of biology that focuses on the changes that occur in an organism's structure, function, and behavior as it grows and develops. Ontogeny is often studied in conjunction with phylogeny, the study of the evolutionary history of a group of organisms.

None of these options is the study of the process of aging.

The odd one out is herring. Whale, barracuda, and shark are all large predatory fish, while herring is a small schooling fish. Herring are typically about 12 inches long, while whales can grow to be over 100 feet long, barracuda can grow to be over 6 feet long, and sharks can grow to be over 40 feet long. Herring are also filter feeders, while whales, barracuda, and sharks are all carnivores. Herring eat plankton and small fish, while whales eat krill and small fish, barracuda eat fish, squid, and crustaceans, and sharks eat fish, squid, and other marine mammals.

Herring are an important part of the marine food web. They are a food source for many other animals, including whales, dolphins, seals, and seabirds. They are also a popular food for humans. Herring are caught commercially in many parts of the world. They are used to make fish oil, fishmeal, and canned fish.

The correct answer is: A) Improve efficiency in irrigation systems.

Command Area Development Programs (CADPs) are a type of agricultural development program that aims to improve the efficiency of irrigation systems. CADPs typically involve the construction of new irrigation infrastructure, the rehabilitation of existing infrastructure, and the provision of training and extension services to farmers. The goal of CADPs is to increase crop yields and improve the livelihoods of farmers.

Option B is incorrect because CADPs do not aim to restrict water usage. In fact, CADPs often involve the construction of new irrigation infrastructure, which can lead to an increase in water usage.

Option C is incorrect because CADPs do not aim to increase deforestation. In fact, CADPs can help to reduce deforestation by providing farmers with alternative sources of income, such as from increased crop yields.

Option D is incorrect because CADPs do not aim to reduce crop yields. In fact, CADPs aim to increase crop yields by improving the efficiency of irrigation systems.

The correct answer is: D. Niece

Asha's mother is the only daughter of the man's mother. This means that Asha's mother and the man's mother are sisters. This also means that Asha and the man are siblings. Since Asha is a female, she is the man's niece.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Nephew: A nephew is a son of one's brother or sister. In this case, Asha's mother is the man's mother's only daughter. This means that Asha and the man are siblings. Since Asha is a female, she is the man's niece, not his nephew.
• Sister: A sister is a female who shares the same parents as another person. In this case, Asha's mother is the man's mother's only daughter. This means that Asha and the man are siblings. Since Asha is a female, she is the man's sister, not his brother.
• Wife: A wife is a woman who is married to a man. In this case, there is no information about whether or not Asha is married to the man. Therefore, we cannot conclude that Asha is the man's wife.
• Niece: A niece is a daughter of one's brother or sister. In this case, Asha's mother is the man's mother's only daughter. This means that Asha and the man are siblings. Since Asha is a female, she is the man's niece.
• None of these: None of the above options are correct. The correct answer is that Asha is the man's niece.

The correct answer is C. to.

The word "bound" means "going or intended to go to a particular place." In this case, the flying coach is going to Karachi. Therefore, the correct preposition to use is "to."

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence. The word "for" can be used to indicate a purpose or destination, but it does not make sense to say that the flying coach is "for Karachi." The word "from" can be used to indicate a starting point, but it does not make sense to say that the flying coach is "from Karachi." The word "none" is incorrect because it does not make sense to say that the flying coach is "none to Karachi."

The population density of Manipur is 307 people per square kilometer. This means that there are 307 people living in every square kilometer of Manipur. This is a relatively high population density, as the national average in India is 382 people per square kilometer. The high population density in Manipur is due to a number of factors, including the state's fertile land, its location in the foothills of the Himalayas, and its proximity to the Indian capital city of New Delhi. The high population density has both positive and negative effects on the state. On the positive side, it has led to a strong economy and a vibrant culture. On the negative side, it has put a strain on the state's resources and infrastructure.

Option A: 107/sq. km is incorrect. The population density of Manipur is 307 people per square kilometer, not 107 people per square kilometer.

Option B: 207/sq. km is incorrect. The population density of Manipur is 307 people per square kilometer, not 207 people per square kilometer.

Option C: 307/sq. km is correct. The population density of Manipur is 307 people per square kilometer.

Option D: 407/sq. km is incorrect. The population density of Manipur is 307 people per square kilometer, not 407 people per square kilometer.

The correct answer is: A. President

The President of India is the head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the legislative assemblies of all states. The President's term of office is five years.

The Prime Minister of India is the head of government of India. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is responsible to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. The Prime Minister is the leader of the party or coalition that has the most seats in the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister's term of office is up to five years, or until the government is dissolved.

The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. The Chief Justice's term of office is six years.

The Attorney General of India is the principal legal adviser to the Government of India. The Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Attorney General's term of office is six years.

The President is the constitutional head of the Indian government. The Prime Minister is the head of government. The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General of India is the principal legal adviser to the Government of India.

The correct answer is: moved.

The verb "move" can be used in the simple past tense, present perfect tense, or present continuous tense. In this case, the simple past tense is the most appropriate tense to use because it is a specific event that happened in the past. The present perfect tense would be used if the event happened at an unspecified time in the past, and the present continuous tense would be used if the event is happening now.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the correct tense. The verb "is moving" is in the present continuous tense, which is not appropriate for this event. The verb "has moved" is in the present perfect tense, which would be appropriate if the event happened at an unspecified time in the past. However, the event in this case happened in a specific year, so the simple past tense is the most appropriate tense to use.

The correct answer is: A. Rises

When the price of a substitute of X commodity falls, the demand for X will rise. This is because consumers will now be able to purchase the substitute at a lower price, which will make it more attractive to them. As a result, they will demand more of X.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. Rises. When the price of a substitute of X commodity falls, the demand for X will rise. This is because consumers will now be able to purchase the substitute at a lower price, which will make it more attractive to them. As a result, they will demand more of X.
• B. Falls. This is not the correct answer because the demand for X will rise when the price of a substitute of X commodity falls.
• C. Remains unchanged. This is also not the correct answer because the demand for X will rise when the price of a substitute of X commodity falls.
• D. Any of the above. This is not the correct answer because the demand for X will rise when the price of a substitute of X commodity falls.

The Prince of Wales Trophy is a trophy awarded to the winner of the Eastern Conference Finals of the National Hockey League (NHL). It was first awarded in 1927, and is named after the Prince of Wales, who later became King Edward VIII. The trophy is a silver bowl that is 30 inches tall and weighs 30 pounds. It is engraved with the names of the winning teams and players.

The Prince of Wales Trophy is one of the most prestigious trophies in the NHL. It is awarded to the team that has the best record in the Eastern Conference during the regular season. The winner of the Prince of Wales Trophy then advances to the Stanley Cup Finals, where they play the winner of the Western Conference Finals.

The Prince of Wales Trophy is a symbol of excellence in the NHL. It is a reminder of the hard work and dedication that it takes to be a champion. The trophy is also a source of pride for the players and fans of the winning team.

The other options are incorrect because they are not associated with the game of hockey. Option A is incorrect because the Prince of Wales Trophy is not associated with the game of hockey. Option B is incorrect because the Prince of Wales Trophy is not associated with the game of cricket. Option C is incorrect because the Prince of Wales Trophy is not associated with the game of football. Option D is incorrect because the Prince of Wales Trophy is not associated with the game of golf.

The correct answer is: A) Attract industrial investment.

Government initiatives like 'Ease of Doing Business' aim to make it easier for businesses to operate in a country. This can be done by reducing the number of regulations, simplifying the tax system, and improving the infrastructure. By making it easier for businesses to operate, governments hope to attract more investment and create more jobs.

Option B is incorrect because stricter regulations would make it more difficult for businesses to operate, not less. Option C is incorrect because foreign investment can help to create jobs and boost the economy. Option D is incorrect because government initiatives like 'Ease of Doing Business' are designed to create more jobs, not fewer.

Here are some examples of government initiatives that aim to improve the ease of doing business:

* Reducing the number of required permits and licenses.
* Streamlining the process of registering a business.
* Reducing the cost of doing business.
* Improving the quality of infrastructure, such as roads, bridges, and airports.
* Providing training and support to businesses.

The correct answer is B. Right to Property.

The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1978, abolished the right to property as a fundamental right. The amendment was passed by the Indira Gandhi government, which had been criticized for its use of emergency powers to acquire private property. The amendment also introduced a number of other changes to the Constitution, including a new directive principle of state policy that called for the state to "take steps to provide for the common good."

The right to property had been included in the original Constitution of India as a fundamental right. However, the government argued that the right to property was not essential for a person's dignity or freedom, and that it could be restricted in the interests of the common good. The amendment was passed by a majority vote in Parliament, and it was upheld by the Supreme Court of India.

The abolition of the right to property has been controversial. Some people argue that it has led to a decline in the security of property rights in India. Others argue that it has made it easier for the government to acquire private property for development projects. The amendment has also been criticized for its impact on the poor, who are often the most vulnerable to the loss of property.

Despite the controversy, the 44th Amendment remains in force. The right to property is no longer a fundamental right, but it is still protected by the Constitution. The government can only acquire private property for a public purpose, and it must pay compensation to the owner.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{A. 2:1}}$.

Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. The ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in carbohydrates is always 2:1. This is because carbohydrates are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in the ratio $C_xH_2O_y$, where $x$ and $y$ are integers. For example, glucose is a carbohydrate with the chemical formula $C_6H_{12}O_6$. This means that glucose is composed of 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms. The ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in glucose is therefore 12:6 = 2:1.

Option B is incorrect because the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in carbohydrates is not 1:3. Option C is incorrect because the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in carbohydrates is not 2:4. Option D is incorrect because the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in carbohydrates is always 2:1.

The Bicycle manufacturing industry is located at Chittaranjan (Asansol) in West Bengal.

The correct answer is: B. Climate change.

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that sets binding targets for 37 industrialized countries and the European community for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The treaty was adopted at the third session of the Conference of the Parties (COP 3) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February 2005.

The Kyoto Protocol's first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012. The second commitment period started in 2013 and ended in 2020. The third commitment period is currently under negotiation.

The Kyoto Protocol is the first international treaty to set binding targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The treaty has been successful in reducing greenhouse gas emissions from industrialized countries. However, the treaty has not been successful in reducing global greenhouse gas emissions.

Species conservation is the practice of protecting species of plants and animals from extinction. Wetland conservation is the practice of protecting wetlands from degradation. Medicinal plants are plants that are used to make medicines.

Species conservation, wetland conservation, and medicinal plants are all important issues, but they are not directly related to the Kyoto Protocol.

The river Teesta runs in Northern mountains of West Bengal and divides it into two parts and forms deep gorges.

The correct answer is (a) Smiling Buddha.

Smiling Buddha was the code name for India's first nuclear test, conducted on 18 May 1974 at Pokhran Test Range in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan. The test was a success, and India became the sixth country in the world to acquire nuclear weapons.

The test was conducted by the Indian Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) under the leadership of Homi Bhabha. The device used in the test was a plutonium-fueled implosion device, and it was detonated at a depth of 100 meters. The yield of the test was estimated to be between 15 and 20 kilotons of TNT.

The Smiling Buddha test was a major milestone in India's nuclear program, and it gave the country a significant deterrent against its adversaries. The test also had a major impact on India's international relations, and it led to a number of sanctions being imposed on the country by the United States and other countries.

The other options are incorrect.

(b) Thunder Bolt is the code name of the Indian Air Force's air-to-air missile.

(c) Flying Garud is the name of the Indian Air Force's aerobatics team.

(d) Agni Pareeksha is the name of the Indian Army's missile test range.

The Darjeeling hill station is known as the 'Queen of hill stations'.

The correct answer is: A) The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner.

The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner is the nodal agency for conducting the census in India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner is responsible for planning, organizing, and conducting the census. It also publishes the results of the census.

The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections in India. The National Statistical Commission is responsible for advising the government on statistical matters. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for the financial affairs of the government.

The census is a decennial exercise that is conducted in India to collect data on the population. The data collected by the census is used for planning and development purposes. The census is also used to determine the number of seats that each state is entitled to in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

The ozone layer restricts ultraviolet radiation.

X-rays and gamma rays are high-energy radiation that can penetrate the ozone layer. Visible light is a type of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye. Infrared radiation is a type of electromagnetic radiation that is invisible to the human eye, but can be felt as heat.

The ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. It contains high concentrations of ozone (O3) relative to other parts of the atmosphere, although still small in relation to other gases in the stratosphere. The ozone layer contains less than 10 parts per million of ozone, while the average ozone concentration in Earth's atmosphere as a whole is about 0.3 parts per million. The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere, from approximately 20 to 30 kilometers (12 to 19 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies seasonally and geographically.

The ozone layer is important because it protects life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation. Ultraviolet radiation can cause skin cancer and other health problems, and it can also damage plants and animals. The ozone layer is also important for the Earth's climate. Without the ozone layer, the Earth would be much warmer than it is today.

The ozone layer is being depleted by human activities, such as the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs are chemicals that were once used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and other products. When CFCs reach the stratosphere, they break down and release chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms react with ozone molecules, destroying them.

The depletion of the ozone layer is a serious problem. It is important to protect the ozone layer so that we can continue to live on a healthy planet.

The correct answer is D. Singapore.

The Shangri-La Dialogue is an annual security forum held in Singapore. It is hosted by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS) and was first held in 2002. The forum brings together defense and security officials, policymakers, academics, and business leaders from around the world to discuss regional and global security issues.

The 14th Asia Security Summit was held from 30 May to 1 June 2015. The theme of the summit was "Shaping the Security Architecture of the Asia-Pacific Region: Towards a New Regional Order." The keynote speaker was US Secretary of State John Kerry.

The other options are incorrect. Beijing is the capital of China. Bangkok is the capital of Thailand. Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia.

The correct answer is: A. Cell Wall

A cell wall is a rigid layer that surrounds the plasma membrane of plant cells. It is made of cellulose, a type of carbohydrate, and provides support and protection for the cell. Animal cells do not have cell walls.

A vacuole is a membrane-bound sac that contains fluid. Vacuoles are found in both plant and animal cells, but they are larger and more numerous in plant cells. In plant cells, vacuoles store water, nutrients, and waste products. In animal cells, vacuoles store water, enzymes, and other molecules.

The plasma membrane is a thin, phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell. It is responsible for regulating the movement of substances into and out of the cell. The plasma membrane is found in both plant and animal cells.

The Golgi complex is an organelle that is involved in the processing and packaging of proteins and other molecules. It is found in both plant and animal cells.

Therefore, the only option that is found in plant cells but not in animal cells is A. Cell Wall.

Melvin Calvin won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1961 for his studies on the Calvin cycle, also known as the Calvin-Benson cycle. The Calvin cycle is a biochemical pathway that occurs in chloroplasts of plants and other photosynthetic organisms. It is responsible for the fixation of carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. The Calvin cycle is a complex process that involves many steps, but it can be summarized as follows:

1. Carbon dioxide is fixed by ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (RuBisCO) to form 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).
2. 3-PGA is phosphorylated to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG).
3. 1,3-BPG is reduced to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) using NADPH and ATP.
4. G3P is used to regenerate RuBisCO, or it is exported from the chloroplast and used to build other organic compounds, such as glucose.

The Calvin cycle is a critical process for life on Earth. It is responsible for the production of oxygen, which is essential for aerobic respiration. The Calvin cycle also produces glucose, which is a source of energy for all living organisms.

The other options are incorrect because they are not related to the Calvin cycle. Light reaction is the first stage of photosynthesis, in which light energy is used to split water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen gas. Plant hormones are chemical messengers that regulate plant growth and development. Photons are particles of light.

The correct answer is: Only assumption I is implicit.

The statement says that the company has the right to reject any application form without furnishing any reason. This does not necessarily mean that the company believes in following impartial practice in all its functions. It is possible that the company rejects applications for reasons that are not related to the candidate's qualifications, such as the candidate's race, gender, or religion. However, the statement does imply that the company believes that it is desirable to call only eligible candidates for interview. This is because the company has the right to reject any application form, but it chooses to only reject applications that are not eligible.

Assumption I is implicit in the statement because the statement implies that the company believes that it is desirable to call only eligible candidates for interview. Assumption II is not implicit in the statement because the statement does not say anything about the company's beliefs about impartiality.

The correct answer is: A. dengue fever.

Anopheles mosquitoes are the primary vectors of malaria, but they can also transmit dengue fever, filariasis, and yellow fever.

Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne tropical disease caused by the dengue virus. It is spread to people primarily through the bite of an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle and joint pains, and a rash. In severe cases, dengue can cause dengue hemorrhagic fever, a potentially fatal condition.

Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by thread-like worms called filarial nematodes. It is spread to people through the bite of infected mosquitoes. Symptoms of filariasis can include fever, itching, and swelling of the lymph nodes. In severe cases, filariasis can cause elephantiasis, a condition in which the limbs and other parts of the body become grossly enlarged.

Yellow fever is a viral disease that is spread to people through the bite of an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, muscle aches, and jaundice. In severe cases, yellow fever can cause bleeding and shock.

It is important to note that not all mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus are vectors of disease. Only certain species of Anopheles mosquitoes are capable of transmitting malaria.

The correct answer is: A manometer is used to measure pressure.

A manometer is a device used to measure pressure, especially vacuum pressure. It consists of a U-shaped tube filled with a liquid, such as mercury or water. One end of the tube is connected to the system being pressurized, and the other end is open to the atmosphere. The pressure in the system causes the liquid in the tube to rise or fall. The difference in the height of the liquid in the two arms of the tube is proportional to the pressure in the system.

Earthquakes are measured using a seismograph. A seismograph is a device that detects and records the vibrations caused by earthquakes. The seismograph records the waves as they travel through the Earth, and the data can be used to determine the location and magnitude of the earthquake.

Temperature is measured using a thermometer. A thermometer is a device that measures the temperature of a substance. The most common type of thermometer is the mercury thermometer, which contains a column of mercury that rises or falls as the temperature changes.

Density is measured using a hydrometer. A hydrometer is a device that measures the density of a liquid. The hydrometer is placed in the liquid, and the level of the liquid in the hydrometer is read. The reading on the hydrometer is then used to calculate the density of the liquid.