WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-23

The correct answer is B. As water is cooled from 4 degrees Celsius to 0 degrees Celsius, its density decreases. This is because water is one of the few substances that expands when it freezes. This is due to the formation of ice crystals, which have a more open structure than liquid water. As a result, the density of water decreases as it freezes.

Option A is incorrect because the density of water decreases as it cools from 4 degrees Celsius to 0 degrees Celsius.

Option C is incorrect because the density of water does not remain the same as it cools from 4 degrees Celsius to 0 degrees Celsius.

Option D is incorrect because the density of water does not increase as it cools from 4 degrees Celsius to 0 degrees Celsius.

The correct answer is: D. Neither I nor II is strong.

Argument I is not strong because it does not provide any evidence to support the claim that imposing a maximum ceiling on the earnings of an individual in an organization will create more opportunities for those who seek professional training. It is possible that imposing a maximum ceiling on earnings could actually lead to fewer opportunities for those who seek professional training, as organizations may be less likely to hire or promote people who are already earning at the maximum level.

Argument II is not strong because it does not provide any evidence to support the claim that imposing a maximum ceiling on the earnings of an individual in an organization will dilute the quality of professional training. It is possible that imposing a maximum ceiling on earnings could actually improve the quality of professional training, as organizations may be more likely to invest in high-quality training if they know that they will not be required to pay their employees exorbitant salaries.

In conclusion, neither argument I nor argument II is strong.

Bohurupee theatre group was founded in 1948. Nandikar was established in 1960 and considered as one of the premier groups of Kolkata. Rangakarmee was started in 1976 by theatre activist Usha Ganguly. Swapnasandhani was started in 1992 by Koushik Sen.

The correct answer is C. has been reading.

The sentence is in the present perfect continuous tense, which is used to talk about an action that started in the past and continues up to the present. In this case, Bali has been reading the book since January last, which means that she started reading it in January and is still reading it now.

The other options are incorrect because they do not express the continuous aspect of the action. Option A, is reading, is in the present continuous tense, which is used to talk about an action that is happening right now. Option B, reads, is in the simple present tense, which is used to talk about an action that happens regularly or habitually. Option D, read, is in the simple past tense, which is used to talk about an action that happened at a specific time in the past.

Here are some examples of how the present perfect continuous tense can be used:

• I have been working on this project for two weeks.
• We have been waiting for you for an hour.
• The baby has been crying for ten minutes.
• They have been playing football since morning.

The correct answer is C. Demography.

Demography is the statistical study of human populations and sub-populations. It can be a very broad topic, covering topics such as population size, growth, age structure, sex ratio, health, fertility, mortality, migration, and urbanization.

Paleontology is the study of fossils, the remains of ancient life. It can be used to study the evolution of life on Earth, as well as the history of the Earth itself.

Geography is the study of the Earth and its features, including its physical features, climate, and human activity.

None of these options are correct.

The correct answer is: A. Laurissa in the north and Godwanaland in the south.

Pangaea was a supercontinent that existed during the late Paleozoic and early Mesozoic eras. It was formed by the collision of several smaller landmasses, including Laurentia, Baltica, Siberia, and Gondwana. Pangaea began to break up about 200 million years ago, and the continents have been drifting apart ever since.

The breakup of Pangaea is thought to have been caused by the movement of the Earth's tectonic plates. The plates are constantly moving, and they can collide, rift apart, or slide past each other. When the plates collide, they can form mountains. When they rift apart, they can form new ocean basins.

The breakup of Pangaea had a major impact on the Earth's climate. The continents were once close together, and the climate was relatively uniform. As the continents drifted apart, the climate became more varied. The northern continents became cooler and drier, while the southern continents became warmer and wetter.

The breakup of Pangaea also had a major impact on the evolution of life. The continents were once connected, and animals and plants could easily move from one continent to another. As the continents drifted apart, animals and plants were separated from each other. This led to the evolution of new species.

The breakup of Pangaea is a fascinating example of the Earth's dynamic geology. It is a reminder that the Earth's surface is constantly changing, and that the continents are not permanent features.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Laurissa in the north and Godwanaland in the south. This is the correct answer. Pangaea split into two main landmasses, Laurasia in the north and Gondwana in the south.
• Option B: Laurissa in the south and Godwanaland in the north. This is incorrect. Laurasia was in the north and Gondwana was in the south.
• Option C: Laurissa in the east and Godwanaland in the west. This is incorrect. Laurasia was in the north and Gondwana was in the south.
• Option D: Laurissa in the west and Godwanaland in the east. This is incorrect. Laurasia was in the north and Gondwana was in the south.

The correct answer is C. International uniformity.

Industrial relations and labour laws are designed to protect the rights of workers and to promote industrial peace. They do this by setting minimum standards for wages, working conditions, and other aspects of employment. They also provide a framework for resolving disputes between employers and employees.

International uniformity is not a primary objective of industrial relations and labour laws. While there is some international cooperation in this area, there is no single set of laws that applies to all countries. This is because the needs of workers and employers vary from country to country.

A. Maintaining social equity is a primary objective of industrial relations and labour laws. This means that the laws should ensure that all workers are treated fairly and that they have a decent standard of living.

B. Providing credit facilities to industries is not a primary objective of industrial relations and labour laws. This is the responsibility of governments and financial institutions.

D. Promoting economic growth is a secondary objective of industrial relations and labour laws. This is because healthy industrial relations can contribute to a more productive and efficient economy.

The correct answer is: A. Humayun

The Hamza-nama is a series of illustrated manuscripts of the epic poem of Amir Hamza, the uncle of the Prophet Muhammad. The paintings were commissioned by the Mughal emperor Humayun in the 16th century. The series is considered to be one of the finest examples of Mughal painting.

The paintings are characterized by their use of bright colors, intricate detail, and bold compositions. They depict a variety of scenes from the Hamza-nama, including battles, courtly scenes, and religious ceremonies. The paintings are also notable for their use of perspective and for their depiction of human emotions.

The Hamza-nama paintings are an important part of the Mughal artistic tradition. They are a valuable source of information about Mughal culture and history. They are also a beautiful and moving example of Islamic art.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Humayun (1508-1556) was the second Mughal emperor. He ascended to the throne in 1530 after the death of his father, Babur. Humayun was a skilled military commander, but he was also a patron of the arts. He commissioned the Hamza-nama paintings during his reign.
• Akbar (1542-1605) was the third Mughal emperor. He ascended to the throne in 1556 after the death of his father, Humayun. Akbar was a powerful and successful ruler. He expanded the Mughal Empire and brought stability to the region. He was also a patron of the arts and sciences.
• Jahangir (1569-1627) was the fourth Mughal emperor. He ascended to the throne in 1605 after the death of his father, Akbar. Jahangir was a skilled diplomat and a patron of the arts. He commissioned many beautiful paintings and buildings during his reign.
• Shah Jahan (1592-1666) was the fifth Mughal emperor. He ascended to the throne in 1627 after the death of his father, Jahangir. Shah Jahan was a powerful and ambitious ruler. He is best known for building the Taj Mahal, one of the most famous buildings in the world.

The correct answer is (a). The small intestine is about 7.5 to 8.5 meters long in adults. It is a long, coiled tube that is located in the upper abdomen. The small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients from food. It does this by secreting digestive enzymes and bile, which break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. The small intestine also has a large surface area, which helps to increase the absorption of nutrients.

Option (b) is incorrect because the small intestine is actually shorter than 6.0 to 7.0 meters. Option (c) is incorrect because the small intestine is actually longer than 1.5 meters. Option (d) is incorrect because the small intestine is actually longer than 3.5 meters.

The correct answer is (a) Hawaii Islands.

Mauna Loa is the largest volcano on Earth in terms of both volume and surface area. It is located on the island of Hawaii in the Hawaiian Islands. The volcano is part of the Hawaiian-Emperor seamount chain, which is a chain of volcanoes that formed over the Hawaiian hotspot. Mauna Loa is a shield volcano, which means that it has a broad, gently sloping profile. The volcano is still active and has erupted over 30 times in the past 100 years. The most recent eruption occurred in 1984.

The other options are incorrect. Alaska is home to several active volcanoes, including Mount St. Helens and Mount Redoubt. Italy is home to several active volcanoes, including Mount Vesuvius and Etna. Japan is home to several active volcanoes, including Mount Fuji and Mount Aso.

The correct answer is: A. The President.

The President can remove a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. The motion for removal must be initiated by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. The President can also remove a judge on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity on the recommendation of the Supreme Court.

Option B is incorrect because Parliament cannot remove a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court. Only the President can do so.

Option C is incorrect because the Union Council of Ministers is not a constitutional body. It is a body of ministers appointed by the President to aid and advise him in the exercise of his functions.

Option D is incorrect because the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court cannot remove a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court. Only the President can do so.

The correct answer is: A. Blood clotting

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for blood clotting. It is also involved in bone metabolism and the production of proteins that are necessary for blood clotting. Vitamin K is found in green leafy vegetables, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, and liver.

Option B: Respiration is the process by which cells convert oxygen into energy. Vitamin K is not required for respiration.

Option C: Carbohydrate metabolism is the process by which the body breaks down carbohydrates into glucose, which is then used for energy. Vitamin K is not required for carbohydrate metabolism.

Option D: Calcium phosphorus is a mineral that is found in bones and teeth. Vitamin K is not required for calcium phosphorus metabolism.

The correct answer is: D. None of these

An indifference curve is a graph that shows all the combinations of goods that provide the same level of satisfaction to a consumer. Indifference curves are typically downward-sloping, indicating that consumers prefer to have more of both goods. However, indifference curves can also be L-shaped, which occurs when two goods are perfect complements.

Perfect complements are goods that are always consumed together in fixed proportions. For example, a right-handed person will not be satisfied with one glove, and a left-handed person will not be satisfied with two gloves. In this case, the consumer will only be indifferent between combinations of goods that contain one right glove and one left glove. This can be represented by an L-shaped indifference curve.

It is important to note that indifference curves are not always L-shaped. Indifference curves can be any shape, depending on the preferences of the consumer. However, L-shaped indifference curves are a special case that occurs when two goods are perfect complements.

The answer is B. Suez.

A, Niger, is a river in Africa. C, Mississippi, is a river in the United States. D, Colorado, is a river in the United States. Suez is a canal in Egypt.

A river is a natural stream of water flowing in a channel on the surface of the land. A canal is a man-made waterway, usually artificial and constructed to connect two natural waterways or to provide a navigable route through a region otherwise difficult or impossible to cross.

The High Court at Calcutta, West Bengal was formerly known as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William. It was established on 1st July, 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861. The High Court at Calcutta, West Bengal was formerly known as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William. It was established on 1st July, 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861. Sambhunath Pandit was the first Indian to assume office as a Judge of Calcutta High Court on 2nd February, 1863. Jyotirmoy Bhattacharya asumed office as the Acting Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court on 25th October, 2017.

The correct answer is: A. CH4, CH3 and C2H5

The empirical formula of a compound is the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms of each element in the compound. To find the empirical formula, you divide the subscripts of each element in the molecular formula by the greatest common factor of those subscripts.

For methane, the molecular formula is CH4. The greatest common factor of 1 and 4 is 1, so the empirical formula is CH4.

For ethane, the molecular formula is C2H6. The greatest common factor of 2 and 6 is 2, so the empirical formula is CH3.

For butane, the molecular formula is C4H10. The greatest common factor of 4 and 10 is 2, so the empirical formula is C2H5.

Option B is incorrect because the empirical formula of ethane is CH3, not C6H6. Option C is incorrect because the empirical formula of butane is C2H5, not C4H10. Option D is incorrect because the empirical formulas of methane, ethane, and butane are not C4H, 2CH3, and 2C2H5, respectively.

The correct answer is: A. 2000 years ago

The first historical mention of the holding of the ancient Olympic Games occurred in 776 BC. The Games were held every four years in Olympia, Greece, until they were abolished by the Roman emperor Theodosius I in 393 AD.

The ancient Olympic Games were a religious festival held in honor of Zeus, the king of the gods. The Games were open to all free male citizens of Greece, and they included a variety of athletic events, such as running, jumping, wrestling, and boxing.

The ancient Olympic Games were a major cultural event in Greece, and they helped to promote Greek unity and identity. The Games also had a significant impact on the development of sport and athletics in the Western world.

Option B is incorrect because the first historical mention of the holding of the ancient Olympic Games occurred in 776 BC, not 2200 years ago.

Option C is incorrect because the first historical mention of the holding of the ancient Olympic Games occurred in 776 BC, not 2400 years ago.

Option D is incorrect because the first historical mention of the holding of the ancient Olympic Games occurred in 776 BC, not 2775 years ago.

The correct answer is: C. Concurrent List

The Concurrent List is a list of subjects that are both the responsibility of the central government and the state governments. This means that both the central government and the state governments can make laws on these subjects.

The Concurrent List is included in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It contains 47 subjects, including education, forests, marriage and divorce, trade unions, and social security.

The Concurrent List was created to ensure that there is uniformity in laws across the country. It also allows the central government to intervene in matters that are of national importance.

The following are the other options and their explanations:

• Union List: The Union List is a list of subjects that are the exclusive responsibility of the central government. This means that only the central government can make laws on these subjects.
• State List: The State List is a list of subjects that are the exclusive responsibility of the state governments. This means that only the state governments can make laws on these subjects.
• Residuary Subjects: The Residuary Subjects are subjects that are not included in the Union List or the State List. These subjects are the responsibility of the central government.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: A. Equal to the weight of the wood.

Upthrust is the upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of a partially or fully immersed object. The upthrust on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid that the object displaces.

When a piece of wood is held under water, the wood displaces a volume of water equal to its own volume. The upthrust on the wood is therefore equal to the weight of the water that the wood displaces. The weight of the water that the wood displaces is equal to the weight of the wood, so the upthrust on the wood is equal to the weight of the wood.

Option B is incorrect because the upthrust is equal to the weight of the wood, not less than the weight of the wood. Option C is incorrect because the upthrust is equal to the weight of the wood, not more than the weight of the wood. Option D is incorrect because the upthrust is not zero.

The correct answer is (a).

A free trade zone is an area where goods can be imported and exported without paying customs duties or other taxes. This allows businesses to operate more efficiently and cost-effectively. Free trade zones are often located near ports or airports, making it easy for businesses to ship goods in and out.

Option (b) is incorrect because it is not a defining characteristic of a free trade zone. While some free trade zones may allow any entrepreneur to start an industry, this is not always the case. In some cases, there may be restrictions on the types of businesses that can operate in a free trade zone.

Option (c) is incorrect because it is not a defining characteristic of a free trade zone. While some free trade zones may provide infrastructural facilities to entrepreneurs, this is not always the case. In some cases, businesses may have to pay for these facilities themselves.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is not a defining characteristic of a free trade zone. While some free trade zones may exempt industries from excise duties, this is not always the case. In some cases, businesses may have to pay these duties.

In conclusion, the correct answer is (a). A free trade zone is one where trade is done without restriction.

The correct answer is C. Mother-in-law.

Kalyani is the mother-in-law of Veena, who is the sister-in-law of Ashok. This means that Kalyani is the mother of Veena's husband, who is Ashok's brother. Therefore, Kalyani is Ashok's mother-in-law.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Cousin: Kalyani is not related to Ashok by blood.
• Wife: Kalyani is not married to Ashok.
• Aunt: Kalyani is not the aunt of Ashok.
• None of these: Kalyani is related to Ashok by marriage.

The correct answer is D. abandon.

To abandon something is to leave it or give it up. To retrieve something is to find it and bring it back. So, the opposite of retrieving something is to abandon it.

The other options are not opposites of retrieve.

• To respond to something is to answer it or react to it.
• To dismiss something is to reject it or consider it to be unimportant.
• To foil something is to prevent it from happening or succeeding.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is B. Production of ATP from the breakdown of glucose.

Aerobic respiration is a metabolic pathway that uses oxygen to produce energy in the form of ATP. It is the most efficient way to produce ATP, and it is the primary pathway used by most cells.

Aerobic respiration begins with the glycolysis of glucose, which produces two pyruvate molecules. Pyruvate is then transported into the mitochondria, where it is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then used in the Krebs cycle, which produces NADH and FADH2. NADH and FADH2 are then used in the electron transport chain, which produces ATP.

The overall reaction for aerobic respiration is:

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38 ATP

Aerobic respiration produces 38 ATP per glucose molecule, which is much more than the two ATP produced by glycolysis. This is why aerobic respiration is the most efficient way to produce ATP.

Lactic acid is produced as an end product of anaerobic respiration, which occurs when there is not enough oxygen available. Anaerobic respiration is less efficient than aerobic respiration, and it produces less ATP.

Radiant energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight to produce glucose. Glucose is then used by plants for energy or to store energy.

Polysaccharides are long chains of sugar molecules. They are used by cells to store energy.

The correct answer is Baul.

Baul is a genre of Bengali folk music and philosophy. It is a tradition of wandering minstrels who sing and play music about love, spirituality, and social commentary. The ektara is a single-stringed instrument that is often used in Baul music.

Jhumur is a genre of folk music and dance from eastern India and Bangladesh. It is typically performed by groups of women, who sing and dance to the accompaniment of drums and other instruments. The ektara is not typically used in Jhumur music.

Tusu is a genre of folk music from West Bengal, India. It is typically performed during the Tusu festival, which is a festival to celebrate the goddess Tusu. The ektara is not typically used in Tusu music.

Gambhira is a genre of folk music from Assam, India. It is typically performed during the Bihu festival, which is a harvest festival. The ektara is not typically used in Gambhira music.

The correct answer is A. Merry.

A synonym is a word that means the same as another word. In this case, the word "jovial" means "cheerful and good-humored." The other options are not synonyms of "jovial."

• Merry means "happy and cheerful."
• Funny means "causing laughter or amusement."
• Smart means "having or showing a quick wit and a lively intelligence."
• Triumphant means "having won a victory or achieved success."

A jovial person is someone who is always happy and cheerful. They are the life of the party and always have a smile on their face. They are also good at making others laugh and are always up for a good time.

The correct answer is: C. The year 1956

The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament of India to suppress immoral traffic in women and girls. It was enacted on 23 September 1956 and came into force on 1 January 1958. The Act prohibits prostitution and related activities, such as brothel-keeping, pimping, and trafficking in women and girls. It also provides for the rehabilitation of victims of prostitution.

The Act was amended in 1986, 2000, and 2010. The 2010 amendment was the most comprehensive amendment to the Act. It introduced a number of new provisions, such as the definition of trafficking, the punishment for trafficking, and the establishment of a National Anti-Trafficking Bureau.

The Act is enforced by the police. The police have the power to arrest any person who is found to be in violation of the Act. The police also have the power to raid brothels and other places where prostitution is taking place.

The Act has been criticized for being ineffective in curbing prostitution. Critics argue that the Act is too lenient on the offenders and that it does not provide enough protection for the victims of prostitution.

Despite the criticism, the Act remains an important tool in the fight against prostitution in India. The Act has helped to reduce the number of brothels and the number of women and girls who are involved in prostitution. The Act has also helped to raise awareness about the issue of prostitution and the need to protect the victims of prostitution.

The following are the options for the question:

A. The year 1950: The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act was not passed in 1950.
B. The year 1958: The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act was not passed in 1958.
C. The year 1956: The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act was passed in 1956.
D. The year 1962: The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act was not passed in 1962.

The correct answer is (b) Madhya Pradesh.

Dhuandhar Waterfall is a waterfall located in the city of Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh, India. It is one of the most popular tourist destinations in the state. The waterfall is about 30 meters high and 30 meters wide. It is formed by the Narmada River. The water falls from a cliff into a deep gorge. The waterfall is best viewed during the monsoon season, when the water flow is at its highest.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Uttarakhand is a state in northern India. It is home to the Himalayas and the Ganges River. The state is known for its natural beauty and its religious sites.

(c) Sikkim is a state in northeastern India. It is the easternmost state in India. Sikkim is known for its mountains, its forests, and its monasteries.

(d) Himachal Pradesh is a state in northern India. It is home to the Himalayas and the Indus River. The state is known for its natural beauty and its religious sites.

The correct answer is A. Ethanol.

Ethanol is a renewable fuel that can be produced from plant materials such as corn, sugarcane, and switchgrass. It is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer emissions than gasoline. Ethanol is also a domestically produced fuel, which means that it is not subject to the same price fluctuations as imported oil.

Ethene, ethylene, and ethane are all hydrocarbons. Hydrocarbons are fuels that are derived from petroleum. They are non-renewable resources and produce more emissions than ethanol.

Ethene is a gas that is used to make plastics and other chemicals. Ethylene is also a gas that is used to make plastics and other chemicals. Ethane is a gas that is used as a fuel for heating and cooking.

Ethanol is the best option for a fuel for driving vehicles because it is a renewable, clean-burning, and domestically produced fuel.

The correct answer is A. Ramananda.

Ramananda was a 14th-century Indian Hindu saint and reformer who founded the Ramanandi Sampradaya, the largest monastic Hindu renunciant community in modern times. He is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement, which emphasized the importance of devotion to God over ritual and caste.

Ramananda was born in a Brahmin family in the village of Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu. He was a brilliant student and studied Sanskrit, Vedas, and other Hindu scriptures. He was also a devout Vaishnava, and he worshipped Vishnu with great devotion.

One day, Ramananda met a Muslim saint named Kabir. Kabir was a weaver by caste, and he was not considered to be a Brahmin. However, Ramananda was impressed by Kabir's spiritual wisdom, and he became his disciple.

Ramananda and Kabir traveled together throughout India, preaching the message of Bhakti. They emphasized the importance of devotion to God, and they rejected the caste system. They also criticized the hypocrisy of the Brahmins, who claimed to be superior to other castes but who did not practice what they preached.

Ramananda's teachings had a profound impact on Indian society. He helped to break down the barriers of caste and religion, and he promoted the idea of equality for all people. He also inspired many people to devote their lives to God.

The Ramanandi Sampradaya is a monastic Hindu community that was founded by Ramananda. The sampradaya is one of the largest Hindu monastic communities in the world, and it has branches all over India. The members of the sampradaya are known for their devotion to Vishnu, and they follow a strict code of conduct.

The Ramanandi Sampradaya has played an important role in the development of Hinduism. The sampradaya has helped to spread the message of Bhakti, and it has also promoted the idea of equality for all people. The sampradaya has also produced many important Hindu saints and scholars.

The answer is C. Columbus.

Galileo, Copernicus, Bhaskara, and Aryabhatta were all astronomers who made significant contributions to our understanding of the universe. Galileo was the first person to use a telescope to observe the sky, and he made many important discoveries, including the four largest moons of Jupiter. Copernicus was the first person to propose that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun, and his work helped to overthrow the geocentric model of the universe. Bhaskara was an Indian mathematician and astronomer who made important contributions to the field of trigonometry. Aryabhatta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer who is considered to be the father of Indian mathematics. He made many important discoveries, including the decimal system and the concept of zero.

Columbus was an Italian explorer who is credited with discovering the Americas. However, his discoveries did not have a significant impact on astronomy.

The correct answer is: **A) Barindra Kumar Ghosh**

Barindra Kumar Ghosh was a prominent Indian revolutionary and the founder of the Jugantar party. He was born in 1863 in Calcutta, India. He was educated at the Presidency College, Calcutta, and the University of Calcutta. He was a member of the Indian National Congress, but he was expelled from the party for his radical views. He founded the Jugantar party in 1906. The Jugantar party was a revolutionary party that aimed to overthrow British rule in India. Ghosh was arrested and imprisoned several times for his revolutionary activities. He died in 1924.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* **A) Barindra Kumar Ghosh** was a prominent Indian revolutionary and the founder of the Jugantar party.
* **B) Jatindranath Mukherjee** was a prominent Indian revolutionary and the leader of the Anushilan Samiti.
* **C) Surya Sen** was a prominent Indian revolutionary and the leader of the Chittagong Armoury Raid.
* **D) Rash Behari Bose** was a prominent Indian revolutionary and the founder of the Indian National Army.

The correct answer is: D. Sarojini Naidu

Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award. She was a poet, politician, and social activist who played a major role in the Indian independence movement. She was also the first Indian woman to be elected president of the Indian National Congress.

Mother Teresa was a Catholic nun who founded the Missionaries of Charity, a religious order that provides care for the poor and sick. She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979.

Indira Gandhi was the first and only female prime minister of India. She was the daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first prime minister of India. She was assassinated in 1984.

Lata Mangeshkar was a playback singer who was known as the "Nightingale of India." She was one of the most popular and influential singers in Indian cinema. She died in 2022.

The correct answer is D. Communication.

Optical fibers are thin, flexible strands of glass or plastic that are used to transmit light. They are used in a variety of applications, including telecommunications, medical imaging, and industrial inspection.

In telecommunications, optical fibers are used to transmit data over long distances. They are much faster and more reliable than traditional copper cables. Optical fibers are also used in medical imaging, such as fiber optic bronchoscopy and fiber optic endoscopy. These procedures allow doctors to see inside the body without making any incisions. Optical fibers are also used in industrial inspection, such as non-destructive testing and fiber optic sensing. These applications allow engineers to inspect materials and structures without damaging them.

Options A, B, and C are incorrect because optical fibers are not typically used in these applications. Musical instruments are typically made from wood, metal, or plastic. The food industry uses a variety of materials, including metal, plastic, and glass. Weaving is the process of making cloth by interweaving threads.

The correct answer is A. 1000 times.

Carbon monoxide has a much greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen. This means that carbon monoxide is more likely to bind to hemoglobin than oxygen, and it is also more difficult to remove carbon monoxide from hemoglobin once it has bound. This can lead to a condition called carbon monoxide poisoning, which can be fatal.

Oxygen and carbon monoxide both bind to hemoglobin at the same site, but carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for the site. This means that carbon monoxide will displace oxygen from hemoglobin, even when there is plenty of oxygen available. Once carbon monoxide has bound to hemoglobin, it is very difficult to remove. This is because carbon monoxide forms a much stronger bond with hemoglobin than oxygen does.

Carbon monoxide poisoning can occur when someone is exposed to high levels of carbon monoxide. This can happen in a number of ways, such as from a car exhaust leak, from a fire, or from using a gas stove or heater in a poorly ventilated area. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and confusion. If left untreated, carbon monoxide poisoning can lead to coma and death.

If you think you or someone you know may have been exposed to carbon monoxide, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. There is no antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning, but treatment can help to prevent serious complications.

The correct answer is: C. zero

The magnetic field lines of a bar magnet are concentrated at the poles and are zero at the center. This means that the magnetic field strength is also zero at the center.

Option A is incorrect because the magnetic field strength is not minimum at the center.

Option B is incorrect because the magnetic field strength is not maximum at the center.

Option D is incorrect because the magnetic field strength is not minimum or maximum at the center. It is zero at the center.

The correct answer is: C. thinks

The company thinks of its stakeholders. This means that the company considers the needs and interests of its stakeholders when making decisions. Stakeholders can include employees, customers, suppliers, shareholders, and the community.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the sentence.

• A. think is in the plural form, which is not correct because the company is a singular entity.
• B. thought is in the past tense, which is not correct because the sentence is about the present.
• D. thinking is the gerund form, which is not correct because the sentence is not about an action.

The correct answer is: B. Committee on Public Undertakings.

The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) is a standing committee of the Parliament of India that examines the functioning of public sector undertakings (PSUs). It is often described as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee, which examines the government's expenditure.

The COPU was set up in 1964 with the following objectives:

• To examine the reports and accounts of public undertakings;
• To examine the performance of public undertakings;
• To make recommendations for improvement in the functioning of public undertakings; and
• To act as a watchdog of the public interest in relation to public undertakings.

The COPU has the power to summon officials of public undertakings to appear before it and to ask them questions. It can also call for documents and records from public undertakings.

The COPU submits its reports to the Parliament, which can then take action on the recommendations made by the COPU.

The COPU is a powerful committee that can play a significant role in ensuring the accountability of public undertakings. It is important that the COPU is effective in carrying out its mandate.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing committee of the Parliament of India that examines the accounts of the government. It is not concerned with the functioning of public undertakings.
• The Departmental Standing Committees are standing committees of the Parliament of India that examine the working of specific ministries or departments of the government. They are not concerned with the functioning of public undertakings.
• The Privilege Committee is a select committee of the Parliament of India that examines matters of privilege raised in the Parliament. It is not concerned with the functioning of public undertakings.

The correct answer is (a) First.

The First Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, contains the names of the Scheduled Banks in India. Scheduled Banks are those banks that are included in the First Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They are required to maintain a certain amount of cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India and to follow certain other regulations.

The Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, contains the names of the Regional Rural Banks in India. Regional Rural Banks are a type of co-operative bank that was established in India in 1975. They are sponsored by commercial banks and state governments and are intended to provide banking services to rural areas.

The Third Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, contains the names of the Local Area Banks in India. Local Area Banks are a type of co-operative bank that was established in India in 1996. They are intended to provide banking services to unbanked areas.

The Fourth Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, contains the names of the Foreign Banks in India. Foreign Banks are banks that are incorporated outside India but have branches or offices in India. They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

The correct answer is: B. clarity

Ambiguity of thoughts can prove disastrous because it can lead to misunderstandings, confusion, and even conflict. When people are not clear about what they are thinking, it can be difficult to communicate effectively and to make decisions. This can have serious consequences in both personal and professional life.

Clarity of thought is essential for success in any area of life. It allows us to think clearly and rationally, to communicate effectively, and to make sound decisions. When we are clear about our thoughts, we are better able to understand ourselves and others, to solve problems, and to achieve our goals.

The other options are not as important as clarity of thought. Rigidity is the quality of being inflexible or unyielding. Certainty is the state of being sure or confident. Rationality is the quality of being reasonable or logical. While these qualities can be helpful in some situations, they are not as essential as clarity of thought.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Ambiguity of thoughts can prove disastrous. A. rigidity B. clarity C. certainty D. rationality" is B. clarity.

The correct answer is: B. Music

Gangubai Hangal was a Hindustani classical vocalist. She was born in Hubli, Karnataka, India in 1913 and died in 2009. She is considered one of the greatest vocalists of the 20th century.

Hangal began her musical training at a young age. She was a child prodigy and quickly became a master of the Hindustani classical vocal style. She was known for her powerful voice and her ability to improvise.

Hangal performed extensively throughout her career. She gave concerts all over India and also toured internationally. She was a popular and respected figure in the world of Hindustani classical music.

Hangal was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 1974. She was also awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, India's highest award for performing arts, in 1969.

Hangal was a pioneer in the field of Hindustani classical music. She was one of the first women to achieve fame as a vocalist in this genre. She was also a role model for other women who wanted to pursue a career in music.

Hangal's legacy is one of musical excellence and innovation. She was a true master of her craft and her music continues to inspire and uplift people all over the world.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Literature: Gangubai Hangal was not a writer or scholar.
• Journalism: Gangubai Hangal was not a journalist.
• Environment: Gangubai Hangal was not an environmentalist.

The correct answer is A. Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor of India. He was proclaimed as the leader of the revolt by the rebels in Delhi. The revolt, also known as the Indian Rebellion of 1857, was a major uprising against the British East India Company in India. The rebels were motivated by a variety of factors, including religious and economic grievances. The revolt was ultimately unsuccessful, but it had a significant impact on the history of India.

Here are brief descriptions of each option:

* A. Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor of India. He was proclaimed as the leader of the revolt by the rebels in Delhi.
* B. Nana Sahib was a Maratha prince who led the revolt in the city of Kanpur.
* C. Tantia Tope was a military leader who fought for the rebels in the central provinces of India.
* D. Rani Lakshmibai was the queen of the Indian state of Jhansi. She fought for the rebels in central India.

The correct answer is (c). Rashtrapati Bhavan is situated on Raisina Hill in Delhi. Raisina Hill is one of the seven hills of Delhi. It is located in the central part of the city and is home to many important government buildings, including the Rashtrapati Bhavan, the Parliament House, and the Supreme Court of India.

The other options are incorrect. Vindhya Hill is a mountain range in central India. Southern Hill is not a real place. None of these is a hill in Delhi.

The correct answer is (c). Nylon is a synthetic polymer, while wool, leather, and silk are natural polymers.

• Wool is a natural fiber that is obtained from the fleece of sheep. It is a protein fiber that is made up of keratin, the same protein that makes up human hair and nails. Wool is a versatile fiber that can be used to make a variety of products, including clothing, blankets, and carpets.
• Leather is a natural material that is made from the skin of animals. It is a durable and versatile material that can be used to make a variety of products, including shoes, bags, and furniture.
• Silk is a natural fiber that is produced by silkworms. It is a strong and lustrous fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including clothing, scarves, and bed sheets.
• Nylon is a synthetic fiber that is made from petroleum. It is a strong and durable fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including clothing, carpets, and ropes.

The correct answer is (b), the Amazon River. The Amazon River is the second longest river in the world, after the Nile River. It is located in South America and flows from the Andes Mountains to the Atlantic Ocean. The Amazon River is the largest river by discharge volume, and it is also the largest river by drainage basin area. The Amazon River is home to a wide variety of plant and animal life, and it is an important source of water for millions of people.

The Nile River is the longest river in the world, and it is located in Africa. The Nile River flows from Lake Victoria to the Mediterranean Sea. The Nile River is an important source of water for Egypt and Sudan.

The Mississippi River is the second longest river in the United States, and it is the 20th longest river in the world. The Mississippi River flows from Minnesota to the Gulf of Mexico. The Mississippi River is an important source of water for the United States.

The Yangtze River is the longest river in China, and it is the third longest river in the world. The Yangtze River flows from the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau to the East China Sea. The Yangtze River is an important source of water for China.

The Whistle Khola Waterfall was so named because the Toy Train passes through the front of this waterfall while blowing a loud whistle at that spot.

The correct answer is A. in.

The preposition "in" is used to indicate a location or position within a place. In this case, the custom is said to have originated in an East European country. This means that the custom began in that country and is still practiced there today.

The other options are not as accurate. The preposition "from" is used to indicate a source or origin. In this case, the custom is not said to have come from an East European country, but rather to have originated there. The preposition "by" is used to indicate a means or agent. In this case, the custom is not said to have been created by an East European country, but rather to have originated there. The preposition "with" is used to indicate a connection or association. In this case, the custom is not said to be associated with an East European country, but rather to have originated there.

The correct answer is D.

Article 48(A) of the Indian Constitution is a directive principle of state policy. It states that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.

Directive principles of state policy are not enforceable in a court of law, but the State is expected to follow them in making laws and policies.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because Article 48(A) is a directive principle of state policy, not a power of the state government.
• Option B is incorrect because Article 48(A) is a directive principle of state policy, not a power of the Union government.
• Option C is incorrect because Article 48(A) is not a fundamental right of the Indian citizen.

The correct answer is: B. The country's major means of production are either owned by the Government or their use is controlled by the Government.

Capitalism is an economic system based on the private ownership of capital and the means of production. In a capitalist system, individuals and businesses are free to buy and sell goods and services, and to invest in and own property. The government's role in a capitalist system is to provide a stable environment for businesses to operate in, and to protect the rights of property owners.

Option A is a characteristic of capitalism. In a capitalist system, individuals and businesses are motivated to maximize their profits. This is because profits are a measure of success, and they can be used to reinvest in the business, to pay employees, or to distribute to shareholders.

Option C is also a characteristic of capitalism. In a capitalist system, there is competition among producers, consumers, and employees. This competition drives innovation and efficiency, and it helps to keep prices low.

Option D is also a characteristic of capitalism. In a capitalist system, prices are determined by supply and demand. This means that the price of a good or service will rise if there is more demand for it, and it will fall if there is less demand for it. The price mechanism helps to allocate resources efficiently, and it helps to ensure that goods and services are available to those who want them.

Option B is not a characteristic of capitalism. In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. This means that businesses are free to buy and sell capital, and to invest in and own property. If the government owns the means of production, then it is not a capitalist system.

The correct answer is B. A concave lens always forms a virtual image.

A concave lens is a lens that curves inward at the center, like the inside of a bowl. When light passes through a concave lens, it bends outward, or diverges. This means that a concave lens can never form a real image, which is an image that can be projected onto a screen. A concave lens can only form a virtual image, which is an image that cannot be projected onto a screen but can be seen by looking through the lens.

The image formed by a concave lens is always upright and smaller than the object. The image is also located between the lens and the focal point on the same side of the lens as the object.

The image type formed by a concave lens depends on the object's distance from the lens. If the object is placed between the focal point and the lens, the image will be virtual, upright, and magnified. If the object is placed at the focal point, the image will be real, inverted, and the same size as the object. If the object is placed beyond the focal point, the image will be virtual, upright, and reduced.

The missing term is 64.

The sequence is a list of squares of the first 9 natural numbers.

4 = 2^2
9 = 3^2
25 = 5^2
64 = 8^2
121 = 11^2
169 = 13^2
289 = 17^2
361 = 19^2

The correct answer is A. P.T. Usha.

P.T. Usha is an Indian former track and field athlete who was the first Indian woman to qualify for the final of an individual track event at the Olympics. She competed in the 400 metres hurdles at the 1984 Summer Olympics in Los Angeles, where she finished fourth in the final. She also won a silver medal in the 4 × 400 metres relay at the 1986 Asian Games.

B. M.D. Valsamma is an Indian former track and field athlete who specialized in the 400 metres and 800 metres events. She won a gold medal in the 4 × 400 metres relay at the 1982 Asian Games and a silver medal in the same event at the 1986 Asian Games.

C. Shiny Abraham is an Indian former track and field athlete who specialized in the 100 metres and 200 metres events. She won a gold medal in the 4 × 100 metres relay at the 1998 Asian Games.

D. Arti Saha is an Indian former track and field athlete who specialized in the 100 metres and 200 metres events. She won a bronze medal in the 4 × 100 metres relay at the 1998 Asian Games.

The correct answer is C. Lala Amarnath.

Lala Amarnath was the first Indian cricketer to score a century in Test cricket. He achieved this feat on 25 June 1930, in the first Test match between India and England at Lord's Cricket Ground in London. He scored 108 runs in the first innings of the match, which helped India to post a total of 266 runs. India eventually lost the match by 158 runs, but Amarnath's century was a significant achievement for Indian cricket.

Veenu Mankad was an Indian cricketer who played from 1946 to 1959. He was a right-handed batsman and a right-arm off break bowler. He was the first Indian bowler to take a hat-trick in Test cricket. He also scored a century in Test cricket, but he was not the first Indian cricketer to do so.

C.K. Naidu was an Indian cricketer who played from 1932 to 1936. He was a right-handed batsman and a right-arm off break bowler. He was not the first Indian cricketer to score a century in Test cricket.

Mansoor Ali Pataudi was an Indian cricketer who played from 1961 to 1975. He was a right-handed batsman and a right-arm off break bowler. He was the captain of the Indian cricket team from 1962 to 1970. He was not the first Indian cricketer to score a century in Test cricket.

The correct answer is C. Markets where sellers rely on their customer's high propensity to consume a prestigious commodity.

In a perfect competitive market, firms are price-takers, meaning that they have no control over the price of their products. As a result, they cannot charge a price above the prevailing market price.

In markets where firms want to gain popularity of the products having high cross elasticity of their demand, firms may charge a price below the prevailing market price in order to attract more customers. This is because the demand for these products is very sensitive to price changes.

In markets where selling firms have entered into the stages of maturity and saturation, firms may charge a price above the prevailing market price in order to maintain their profits. This is because the demand for these products is relatively inelastic, meaning that a change in price will not have a significant impact on demand.

However, in markets where sellers rely on their customer's high propensity to consume a prestigious commodity, firms may charge a price above the prevailing market price even if the demand for these products is relatively elastic. This is because consumers of prestigious commodities are willing to pay a premium for products that they perceive as being of high quality or status.

For example, a luxury car company may charge a price above the prevailing market price for its cars even though there are many other cars available at a lower price. This is because the company knows that there are consumers who are willing to pay a premium for a luxury car.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. Markets where sellers rely on their customer's high propensity to consume a prestigious commodity.

The correct answer is A. Sillimanite, nickel, petroleum.

Sillimanite is a type of aluminium silicate mineral that is found in metamorphic rocks. It is used in the manufacture of ceramics, glass, and refractory materials. Nickel is a metal that is used in the manufacture of alloys, batteries, and catalysts. Petroleum is a fossil fuel that is used to produce gasoline, diesel fuel, and other products.

Option B is incorrect because oil and coal are not found in Manipur. Option C is incorrect because iron, lime, and bauxite are not found in Manipur. Option D is incorrect because sillimanite, nickel, and petroleum are all found in Manipur.

Here are some additional details about the minerals found in Manipur:

• Sillimanite: Sillimanite is a type of aluminium silicate mineral that is found in metamorphic rocks. It is used in the manufacture of ceramics, glass, and refractory materials. Sillimanite is found in the Imphal Valley and the Churachandpur district of Manipur.
• Nickel: Nickel is a metal that is used in the manufacture of alloys, batteries, and catalysts. Nickel is found in the Tamenglong district of Manipur.
• Petroleum: Petroleum is a fossil fuel that is used to produce gasoline, diesel fuel, and other products. Petroleum is found in the Tamenglong district of Manipur.

The correct answer is: **D) All of the above**

The census is a count of the population of a country or region. It is conducted by governments to collect data on the population, including demographics, housing, and economic activities. The data collected by the census is used to plan for the future, such as by determining how many schools and hospitals are needed.

Demographics are the characteristics of a population, such as age, sex, race, and ethnicity. Housing data includes the number of housing units, the type of housing, and the number of people living in each housing unit. Economic activities data includes the number of people employed, the type of employment, and the income of the population.

The census is an important tool for governments to understand the population and to plan for the future. The data collected by the census is used to make decisions about a wide range of issues, such as education, healthcare, and transportation.

The correct answer is: A. First plan

The First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) was the first of India's five-year plans. The plan focused on agriculture and infrastructure development, with the goal of increasing agricultural production and improving transportation and communication networks. The plan allocated 20% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, which was the highest percentage of any of the five-year plans.

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) focused on industrialization, with the goal of increasing the production of capital goods and consumer goods. The plan allocated 16% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, which was a lower percentage than in the First Five-Year Plan.

The Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-1985) focused on rural development, with the goal of increasing agricultural production and improving the quality of life in rural areas. The plan allocated 18% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, which was a higher percentage than in the Second Five-Year Plan.

The Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002) focused on economic reforms, with the goal of increasing economic growth and reducing poverty. The plan allocated 14% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, which was a lower percentage than in the Sixth Five-Year Plan.

In conclusion, the First Five-Year Plan allocated the highest percentage of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, at 20%. The Second Five-Year Plan allocated 16% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, the Sixth Five-Year Plan allocated 18% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture, and the Ninth Five-Year Plan allocated 14% of the total plan expenditure to agriculture.

The correct answer is A. Olive branch.

An olive branch is a symbol of peace and hope. It is often used in religious and cultural ceremonies, and it is also a popular symbol of peace movements. The olive branch is thought to have originated in ancient Greece, where it was used as a symbol of peace between warring factions. The olive branch is also mentioned in the Bible, where it is used as a symbol of God's promise to Noah that he would never again destroy the world with a flood.

The olive branch is a powerful symbol of peace because it represents the hope for a better future. It is a reminder that even in the midst of conflict, there is always the possibility of peace.

The other options are not as closely associated with peace as the olive branch. A green light is a symbol of go or permission, while a lotus is a symbol of purity and enlightenment. A red flag is a symbol of danger or warning.

The correct answer is C. White vinegar.

Ethanoic acid, also known as acetic acid, is a weak organic acid found in vinegar. It is a colorless liquid with a sharp, sour taste. Vinegar is made by fermenting alcoholic beverages such as wine or cider. The ethanol in the beverage is converted into ethanoic acid by bacteria.

Lemon juice and orange juice both contain citric acid, which is a different type of acid. Tomato juice contains citric acid and malic acid.

White vinegar is a common ingredient in cooking. It is also used as a cleaning agent and a preservative.

The correct answer is A) Gorkhas.

Gorkha is a term used to refer to people from the Gorkha Kingdom, which is located in present-day Nepal. The Gorkhas are a diverse group of people, but they are all united by their shared language, Nepali. Nepali is the official language of Nepal, and it is also spoken by a large number of people in North Bengal.

Rajbanshis are a tribal group that is native to North Bengal. They speak a language called Rajbanshi, which is not mutually intelligible with Nepali.

Santhals are an ethnic group that is native to India. They speak a language called Santhali, which is not mutually intelligible with Nepali.

Lepchas are an ethnic group that is native to Sikkim. They speak a language called Lepcha, which is not mutually intelligible with Nepali.

The correct answer is (c), 35.

In the class of 100 students, 25 failed Mathematics and 30 failed Physics. However, 5 students failed both Mathematics and Physics, so they are counted twice in the total number of failures. Therefore, the total number of students who failed in the class is 25 + 30 - 5 = 35.

Option (a), 25, is incorrect because it only includes the number of students who failed Mathematics. Option (b), 30, is incorrect because it only includes the number of students who failed Physics. Option (d), 45, is incorrect because it includes the number of students who failed both Mathematics and Physics twice.

The correct answer is A. diamond.

Diamond is the hardest natural substance on Earth. It is a form of carbon that has been subjected to extreme pressure and heat. This has caused the carbon atoms to arrange themselves in a tetrahedral structure, which is the strongest possible arrangement. Diamonds are also very dense, which makes them even harder.

Iron is a metal that is often used in construction and manufacturing. It is strong and durable, but it is not as hard as diamond. Lead is a soft metal that is often used in batteries and ammunition. Copper is a metal that is often used in electrical wiring and plumbing. It is not as hard as diamond, but it is more ductile than iron or lead.

In conclusion, diamond is the hardest natural substance on Earth. It is a form of carbon that has been subjected to extreme pressure and heat. This has caused the carbon atoms to arrange themselves in a tetrahedral structure, which is the strongest possible arrangement. Diamonds are also very dense, which makes them even harder.

The correct answer is A. Mislead.

To deceive is to give a false impression or lead someone astray. To mislead is to give someone false or misleading information, especially in order to deceive them.

The other options are not synonyms of deceive.

• To challenge is to invite someone to compete with you or to test your abilities.
• To harm is to cause physical or emotional damage to someone or something.
• To defeat is to win a victory over someone or something.

The correct answer is (c) 118.

Service tax is a tax levied on services provided in India. It is a value-added tax (VAT) on services, which means that it is levied on the value added at each stage of the supply chain. The service tax rate is currently 14%.

The number of services subject to service tax has increased over time. In 2009-10, there were 118 services subject to service tax. This number has increased to 122 services in 2019-20.

The following are some of the services that are subject to service tax:

• Banking and financial services
• Insurance services
• Transport services
• Communication services
• Entertainment services
• Professional services
• Advertising services
• Construction services
• Hotel and restaurant services
• Travel services
• Maintenance and repair services
• Education services
• Health services
• Social services
• Other services

The service tax is levied on the value of the service provided. The value of the service is determined by the consideration received for the service, or, in the absence of consideration, the market value of the service.

The service tax is payable by the service provider. The service provider is the person who supplies the service. In some cases, the service recipient may be liable to pay the service tax.

The service tax is collected by the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC). The CBEC is a government body responsible for collecting taxes in India.

The service tax is a major source of revenue for the government of India. In 2018-19, the service tax revenue was ₹3.3 trillion.

The service tax is a complex tax. There are many rules and regulations that govern the service tax. It is important to consult a tax expert to understand the service tax and to ensure that you are in compliance with the law.

Mountain soil is present at an elevation of 2550 m in Darjeeling and Kalimpong districts of West Bengal. Red soil is found in the districts of Birbhum, Bardhaman, Bankura, Midnapore, some parts of Malda and Dinajpur. Alluvial soil is found in Murshidabad, Nadia, Howrah and North 24 Parganas. Laterite soil is found in the districts of Birbhum, Bardhaman, Bankura, Purulia, Midnapore, some areas of Barind and Mudhupur forest areas.

The correct answer is (a) Eleventh Schedule.

The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India lists 29 functions that are to be assigned to panchayats. These functions are related to agriculture, rural development, education, health, family welfare, women and child development, social justice and empowerment, drinking water supply, public works, rural housing, roads, bridges, rural electrification, environment and forests, minor irrigation, fisheries, industries, khadi and village industries, rural tourism, and welfare of SCs and STs.

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the provisions relating to the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.

The Thirteenth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the provisions relating to the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and other Auditors General.

The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the provisions relating to the appointment of the Finance Commission.

The correct answer is D. Kidney.

Dialysis is a process that filters waste products and excess fluids from the blood when the kidneys can no longer do this job on their own. It is used to treat people with kidney failure.

There are two types of dialysis: hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.

Hemodialysis is the most common type of dialysis. It uses a machine to filter the blood outside the body. The blood is passed through a filter called a dialyzer, which removes waste products and excess fluids. The filtered blood is then returned to the body.

Peritoneal dialysis uses the lining of the abdomen (peritoneum) as a filter. A special solution is placed in the abdomen through a catheter. The waste products and excess fluids from the blood pass into the solution. The solution is then drained out of the abdomen and replaced with fresh solution.

Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for people with kidney failure. It can help to keep people healthy and comfortable.

The correct answer is (d) Syria.

Turamaya, also known as Antiochus III the Great, was the king of the Seleucid Empire from 223 to 187 BC. He was a contemporary of Asoka the Great, the Mauryan emperor of India. Turamaya was a powerful and ambitious ruler who sought to expand his empire. He fought several wars against the Ptolemaic Kingdom of Egypt, the Antigonid Kingdom of Macedon, and the Roman Republic. Turamaya was eventually defeated by the Romans at the Battle of Magnesia in 190 BC. He died in 187 BC while trying to regain his lost territories.

Egypt was ruled by the Ptolemaic dynasty from 323 to 30 BC. The Ptolemies were a Greek dynasty that descended from Ptolemy I Soter, one of Alexander the Great's generals. The Ptolemaic Kingdom was a major power in the Mediterranean region and was known for its wealth and culture.

Corinth was an ancient Greek city-state located on the Isthmus of Corinth. Corinth was a major commercial and cultural center and was known for its wealth and luxury. The city was also home to the Temple of Apollo, one of the most important religious sites in ancient Greece.

Macedonia was an ancient kingdom located in the northern part of Greece. Macedonia was a major power in the Hellenistic world and was ruled by the Argead dynasty from the 8th century to the 4th century BC. The most famous Macedonian king was Alexander the Great, who conquered the Persian Empire in the 4th century BC.

Syria was an ancient region located in the Middle East. Syria was a major crossroads between Europe, Asia, and Africa and was home to a number of important civilizations, including the Akkadian Empire, the Babylonian Empire, and the Assyrian Empire. Syria was also part of the Roman Empire and the Byzantine Empire.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

The AR curve and industry demand curve are the same in case of perfect competition. In perfect competition, there are many firms in the market, each producing a homogeneous product. The firms are price-takers, meaning that they cannot influence the market price. The AR curve is the same as the demand curve for the firm, because the firm can sell all it wants at the market price.

In monopoly, there is only one firm in the market. The firm is the price-maker, meaning that it can influence the market price. The AR curve is downward-sloping, because the firm can charge a higher price for a smaller quantity.

In oligopoly, there are a few firms in the market. The firms are interdependent, meaning that their decisions affect each other. The AR curve is downward-sloping, but it is not as steep as the AR curve in monopoly. This is because the firms in oligopoly can compete on price, but they also have to consider the reactions of their rivals.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "unemployed" is a noun that refers to a person who does not have a job. It is a common noun, which means that it does not refer to a specific person or group of people. Therefore, it does not need an article.

The other options are incorrect because they are all articles. An article is a word that is used to introduce a noun. The articles "a" and "an" are used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound. The article "the" is used before singular nouns that are specific or unique. In the sentence "Life is alright if you have a job, but things are not as easy for unemployed," the noun "unemployed" is a common noun that does not refer to a specific person or group of people. Therefore, it does not need an article.

The correct answer is (d). Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a flagship housing scheme of the Government of India launched on 25 June 2015. The scheme aims to provide affordable housing for all Indians by 2022. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

The scheme has four components:

• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U): This component is for the urban areas. It provides financial assistance to the beneficiaries to construct or purchase a house.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Rural (PMAY-R): This component is for the rural areas. It provides financial assistance to the beneficiaries to construct a house.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Affordable Housing in Partnership (PMAY-AHiP): This component is for the affordable housing in partnership with the private sector.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS): This component is for the credit linked subsidy scheme for the economically weaker sections (EWS) and low income groups (LIG).

The scheme has been successful in providing affordable housing to millions of Indians. As of December 2021, the scheme has sanctioned 1.12 crore houses and disbursed Rs. 1.18 lakh crore.

The scheme has been praised for its innovative features, such as the use of technology and the involvement of the private sector. It has also been criticized for its slow pace of implementation and for the lack of transparency in the selection of beneficiaries.

Overall, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana is a significant step towards providing affordable housing for all Indians. The scheme has the potential to transform the lives of millions of people and to make a significant contribution to the development of the country.

The answer is: C. Vulgar

Coarse, unrefined, oafish, and blunt are all words that can be used to describe someone who is lacking in social graces or sophistication. However, vulgar is the only word that has a negative connotation of being offensive or indecent.

Coarse can mean "rough" or "unpolished," as in "coarse language." Unrefined can mean "not cultured or sophisticated," as in "unrefined manners." Oafish can mean "clumsy or awkward," as in "an oafish lout." Blunt can mean "direct or outspoken," as in "a blunt answer."

Vulgar, on the other hand, can mean "offensive to good taste or manners," as in "vulgar language." It can also mean "crude or uncultured," as in "a vulgar person."

In the context of the question, the word that is different from the rest is vulgar because it is the only word that has a negative connotation. The other words, coarse, unrefined, oafish, and blunt, can all be used in a negative or positive way, depending on the context.

In West Bengal, foothill region of the Himalayas is known as Terai and Duars. The Teesta river has divided this area into teo parts. The western part is known as Terai and the eastern part is known as Duars.

Pandit Ravi Shankar (Ravi Shankar Chowdhury) was one of the best known proponents of the Sitar in the second half of the 20th century.

Amrita Bazar Patrika group started Bengali newspaper 'Jugantar' from West Bengal in 1937.

The correct answer is A. informal.

An acrimonious person is one who is always angry and argumentative. They are often quick to anger and can be very difficult to get along with. As a result, their neighbors are likely to be aware of their acrimonious nature and avoid them as much as possible.

The other options are not correct because they do not describe the nature of an acrimonious person. A sympathetic person is one who is understanding and compassionate. A cooperative person is one who is willing to work together with others. A charitable person is one who is generous and giving. None of these qualities are associated with an acrimonious person.

The answer is $boxed{text{5000}}$.

The sequence is $2, 5, 10, 50, 500$. Each term is the product of the previous two terms. Therefore, the next term in the sequence should be $50 times 500 = 25000$. Therefore, 5000 is the wrong term.

Here is a table showing the sequence:

Term | Product of previous two terms
------- | --------
2 | 1 x 2
5 | 2 x 5
10 | 5 x 2
50 | 10 x 5
500 | 50 x 10
25000 | 500 x 50

The correct answer is: B. Vishwasen.

Vishwasen was the first Gandhar of Sumtinath Tirthankar. He was a very talented musician and singer, and he used his skills to spread the message of Jainism. He was also a very wise and compassionate person, and he helped many people to find peace and happiness.

A. Bhanuraj was a very powerful and influential king. He was a great warrior, and he conquered many lands. However, he was also a very cruel and unjust ruler. He oppressed his people, and he caused a lot of suffering.

C. Kritverma was a very intelligent and skilled diplomat. He was able to negotiate peace treaties between many different kingdoms. However, he was also a very ambitious and power-hungry man. He was willing to do whatever it took to get what he wanted, even if it meant hurting others.

D. Charam Swami was a very holy and revered monk. He was known for his wisdom and compassion. He helped many people to find peace and happiness. However, he was also a very strict and demanding teacher. He expected his students to follow his teachings to the letter, and he would not tolerate any deviation.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: B. Vishwasen.

The correct answer is (a). According to the 2011 Census, 20% of households in India still use firewood for cooking. This is a significant decrease from the 35% of households that used firewood for cooking in 2001. The decline in the use of firewood for cooking is due to a number of factors, including the increasing availability of electricity and LPG, the government's efforts to promote clean cooking, and the rising cost of firewood.

Option (b) is incorrect because it is too high. The 2011 Census found that only 20% of households in India still use firewood for cooking.

Option (c) is incorrect because it is too low. The 2011 Census found that 20% of households in India still use firewood for cooking.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is too high. The 2011 Census found that only 20% of households in India still use firewood for cooking.

The correct answer is C. sang a.

The verb "sing" is conjugated as follows:

• I sing
• You sing
• He/She/It sings
• We sing
• You sing
• They sing

In the sentence "Rakesh's wife sang a very sweet song in the party," the subject is "Rakesh's wife" and the verb is "sang." The subject is singular, so the verb must also be singular. The verb "singed" is the past tense form of the verb "sing," but it is only used with inanimate objects. For example, you might say "I singed the steak" if you accidentally burned it. In the sentence "Rakesh's wife sang a very sweet song in the party," the wife is a person, not an inanimate object, so the verb "sing" is correct.

The other options are incorrect because they are either not conjugated correctly or they do not agree with the subject of the sentence.

The correct answer is (b). Saliva helps in the digestion of starch by breaking it down into smaller molecules that can be easily absorbed by the body. Saliva contains an enzyme called amylase, which breaks down starch into maltose, a disaccharide. Maltose is then broken down into glucose, a monosaccharide, which can be absorbed by the body.

Option (a) is incorrect because saliva does not help in the digestion of protein. Protein is broken down by enzymes in the stomach and small intestine.

Option (c) is incorrect because saliva does not help in the digestion of fibers. Fibers are not broken down by enzymes in the digestive system. They are passed through the digestive system and excreted in the stool.

Option (d) is incorrect because saliva does not help in the digestion of fats. Fats are broken down by enzymes in the small intestine.

Upendranath Brahmachari synthesised Urea Stibamine (carbostibamide) in 1922 and determined that it was an effective substitute for the antimony containing compounds in the treatment of Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis).

The correct answer is: B. delineated

The word "delineate" means to describe or outline something in detail. In this case, the speaker is describing the scope of his paper on work ethic. This means that he is explaining what he will be discussing in the paper and what he will not be discussing.

The other options are not as accurate. The word "defined" means to give the meaning of something. In this case, the speaker is not giving the meaning of work ethic, but rather describing it. The word "ascribed" means to attribute something to someone or something. In this case, the speaker is not attributing work ethic to anyone or anything, but rather describing it. The word "declined" means to refuse to do something. In this case, the speaker is not refusing to do anything, but rather describing work ethic.

Therefore, the correct answer is: B. delineated

The correct answer is (b), Bangladesh. India shares a border of 4,096 kilometers with Bangladesh, making it the country with which India shares its maximum border. The other options are incorrect because they do not share as much border with India as Bangladesh does. China shares a border of 3,488 kilometers with India, Nepal shares a border of 1,751 kilometers with India, and Pakistan shares a border of 3,323 kilometers with India.

India and Bangladesh share a long and complex history. The two countries were once part of the same country, British India, but they were partitioned in 1947 along religious lines. The partition led to violence and displacement, and the two countries have had a tense relationship ever since. However, in recent years, there have been efforts to improve relations between India and Bangladesh. The two countries have signed a number of agreements, and they have increased trade and investment.

The Kirtan dance was given a proper and unique form by a very famous religious revivalist 'Chaitanya Deva'. The most important characteristic of this dance is that it is performed by the members of whole village without any distinction on the basis of caste, class and religion.

The correct answer is D. No article.

The word "rich" is an adjective, not a noun. It describes the noun "people." Therefore, we do not need an article before it.

A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. An adjective is a word that describes a noun.

In the sentence "The rich should give some of their money to charities and good causes," the word "rich" is an adjective that describes the noun "people." Therefore, we do not need an article before it.

If we were to use an article, it would change the meaning of the sentence. For example, if we said "A rich person should give some of their money to charities and good causes," we would be talking about a specific rich person. However, the sentence as it is written is talking about all rich people in general.

In conclusion, the correct answer is D. No article.

The correct answer is: Adiabatic process.

An adiabatic process is a thermodynamic process in which there is no heat transfer between a system and its surroundings. This means that the system is insulated from the surroundings, and the only way for energy to be transferred into or out of the system is through work.

Blowing air with an open pipe is an example of an adiabatic process because the air is not in contact with any heat sources or sinks. The only way for the air to lose heat is through work, which is done by the person blowing into the pipe.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe the process of blowing air with an open pipe accurately.

• An isothermal process is a thermodynamic process in which the temperature of the system remains constant. This is not the case when blowing air with an open pipe, because the air will cool as it expands.
• An isochoric process is a thermodynamic process in which the volume of the system remains constant. This is also not the case when blowing air with an open pipe, because the volume of the air will increase as it is blown out of the pipe.
• An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which the pressure of the system remains constant. This is not the case when blowing air with an open pipe, because the pressure of the air will decrease as it expands.

The correct answer is: B. State

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the subjects that are under the jurisdiction of the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. The Union List includes subjects that are of national importance, such as defense, foreign affairs, and currency. The State List includes subjects that are of local importance, such as police, education, and public health. The Concurrent List includes subjects that are of both national and local importance, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, and trade and commerce.

Taxes on lands and buildings are listed in the State List. This means that the States have the exclusive power to levy taxes on lands and buildings. The Union Government cannot levy taxes on lands and buildings, except with the consent of the States.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because taxes on lands and buildings are not listed in the Union List. Option C is incorrect because taxes on lands and buildings are not listed in the Global List. Option D is incorrect because taxes on lands and buildings are not listed in the Concurrent List.

The correct answer is (d). Tetraplegia, also known as quadriplegia, is paralysis of all four limbs. It is caused by damage to the spinal cord, which can be caused by a number of things, including accidents, injuries, and diseases. People with tetraplegia may have difficulty moving, feeling, and controlling their bladder and bowels. They may also experience pain, numbness, and tingling. There is no cure for tetraplegia, but there are treatments that can help people with the condition live full and active lives.

(a) is incorrect because tetraplegia affects both hands.
(b) is incorrect because tetraplegia affects both legs.
(c) is incorrect because tetraplegia affects both hands and both legs.

The correct answer is: India.

The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world. It has 448 articles, 12 schedules, and 85 amendments. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950. It is the supreme law of India and all laws and actions of the government must be consistent with it.

The Constitution of India is divided into 22 parts. The first part deals with the fundamental rights of the citizens. The second part deals with the directive principles of state policy. The third part deals with the distribution of powers between the Union and the states. The fourth part deals with the Union executive. The fifth part deals with the Union legislature. The sixth part deals with the Union judiciary. The seventh part deals with the states. The eighth part deals with the states' legislative lists. The ninth part deals with the states' executive lists. The tenth part deals with the states' judiciary lists. The eleventh part deals with the concurrent list. The twelfth part deals with the finance, property, contracts and suits. The thirteenth part deals with elections. The fourteenth part deals with special provisions relating to certain areas. The fifteenth part deals with scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. The sixteenth part deals with languages. The seventeenth part deals with emergency provisions. The eighteenth part deals with miscellaneous provisions. The nineteenth part deals with the amendment of the Constitution. The twentieth part deals with the transitional and temporary provisions. The twenty-first part deals with the special provisions with respect to Jammu and Kashmir. The twenty-second part deals with the power of Parliament to make laws with respect to territories that are not part of the territory of India.

The Constitution of India is a living document that has been amended several times since it was adopted. The most recent amendment was the 104th Amendment, which was passed in 2019. The 104th Amendment increased the number of seats in the Lok Sabha from 543 to 545.

The Constitution of India is a remarkable document that has helped to shape the modern Indian nation. It is a symbol of the Indian people's commitment to democracy, secularism, and equality.

The odd one out is Bangle.

A necklace, bangle, and ring are all types of jewelry. However, a necklace is worn around the neck, a bangle is worn on the wrist, and a ring is worn on the finger.

The answer is $boxed{text{430}}$.

The sequence is $10, 100, 200, 310, 430, ldots$. Each number in the sequence is the sum of the previous two numbers.

Option A, 400, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option B, 410, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option C, 420, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

Option D, 430, is correct because it is the sum of the previous two numbers in the sequence.

The answer is C. Orange.

Apple, mango, pear, and papaya are all fruits that grow on trees. Oranges, on the other hand, grow on shrubs.

Apples are pomaceous fruits that grow on apple trees. They are typically red, green, or yellow in color, and have a sweet, crisp flesh. Apples are a popular fruit that is eaten fresh, cooked, or made into juice or cider.

Mangoes are drupaceous fruits that grow on mango trees. They are typically yellow, orange, or red in color, and have a sweet, juicy flesh. Mangoes are a popular fruit that is eaten fresh, cooked, or made into juice or chutney.

Pears are pomaceous fruits that grow on pear trees. They are typically green, yellow, or red in color, and have a sweet, juicy flesh. Pears are a popular fruit that is eaten fresh, cooked, or made into juice or jam.

Papayas are baccate fruits that grow on papaya trees. They are typically green, yellow, or orange in color, and have a sweet, juicy flesh. Papayas are a popular fruit that is eaten fresh, cooked, or made into juice or smoothies.

The correct answer is C. interception.

Interception is the process of water droplets being caught by the leaves and stems of plants. The water then evaporates back into the atmosphere or drips down to the ground as stem flow.

Sublimation is the process of water vapor in the air turning directly into ice without going through the liquid phase.

Stem flow is the process of water flowing down the stems of plants to the ground.

Throughfall is the process of water falling directly to the ground through the plant canopy.

The correct answer is A) 1881.

The first synchronous census in India was held in 1881. The census was conducted by the British government and was used to collect data on the population of India. The census was conducted every ten years after that, with the exception of the years during World War I and World War II.

The census data is used by the government to make decisions about planning and development. It is also used by researchers to study the population of India.

The census data is collected by a team of enumerators who visit each household in India. The enumerators ask the residents of the household questions about their age, sex, religion, education, and occupation. The data is then compiled and analyzed by the government.

The census is an important tool for understanding the population of India. It provides the government with data that can be used to make decisions about planning and development. The census data is also used by researchers to study the population of India.

The first synchronous census in India was held in 1881. The census was conducted by the British government and was used to collect data on the population of India. The census was conducted every ten years after that, with the exception of the years during World War I and World War II.

The census data is used by the government to make decisions about planning and development. It is also used by researchers to study the population of India.

The census data is collected by a team of enumerators who visit each household in India. The enumerators ask the residents of the household questions about their age, sex, religion, education, and occupation. The data is then compiled and analyzed by the government.

The census is an important tool for understanding the population of India. It provides the government with data that can be used to make decisions about planning and development. The census data is also used by researchers to study the population of India.

The following are the options for the question "The first synchronous census in India was held in the year:"

* A) 1881
* B) 1921
* C) 1951
* D) 1971

The correct answer is A) 1881.

The correct answer is A. latitudinal redistribution of heat.

The Earth's atmosphere is constantly in motion, with air rising at the equator and sinking at the poles. This circulation pattern helps to redistribute heat around the globe, keeping the equator from getting too hot and the poles from getting too cold.

Without this latitudinal redistribution of heat, the equator would be much hotter than it is while the poles would be much cooler. This would make life on Earth much more difficult, as many plants and animals would not be able to survive in such extreme temperatures.

Option B, cycle of air circulation, is a similar term to latitudinal redistribution of heat. It refers to the movement of air around the globe, which is driven by differences in temperature.

Option C, global wind pattern, is a more specific term that refers to the large-scale patterns of wind flow around the globe. These patterns are caused by the Earth's rotation and the difference in temperature between the equator and the poles.

Option D, All are similar terms, is incorrect. While latitudinal redistribution of heat, cycle of air circulation, and global wind pattern are all related, they are not the same thing.

The answer is D. Perimeter.

A circle is a two-dimensional shape with all points equidistant from a center point. The circumference of a circle is the distance around the circle. The perimeter of a square is the distance around the square. Both the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are measured in linear units, such as inches, feet, or meters.

The other options are not correct because they do not have the same relationship to the original pair of words as the answer.

• Volume is the amount of space enclosed by a three-dimensional shape. A square is a two-dimensional shape, so it does not have a volume.
• Area is the amount of space enclosed by a two-dimensional shape. A square is a two-dimensional shape, so its area is measured in square units, such as square inches, square feet, or square meters.
• Diagonal is a line segment that connects two non-adjacent vertices of a polygon. A square has four vertices, so it has four diagonals. The length of a diagonal of a square is not related to the perimeter of the square.

The correct answer is: Sunil Gavaskar.

Sunil Gavaskar was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honour, in 1991-92. He was awarded the award for his outstanding contribution to cricket.

Gavaskar was a right-handed opening batsman who played for India from 1971 to 1987. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He holds the record for the most runs scored in Test cricket, with 10,122 runs in 125 matches. He also holds the record for the most centuries scored in Test cricket, with 34.

Gavaskar was born in Mumbai, India, in 1949. He made his Test debut for India in 1971, at the age of 21. He quickly established himself as one of the leading batsmen in the world. He was a member of the Indian team that won the 1983 Cricket World Cup.

Gavaskar retired from international cricket in 1987. He has since worked as a commentator and cricket analyst. He is also the chairman of the Mumbai Cricket Association.

Sachin Tendulkar is a right-handed batsman who played for India from 1989 to 2013. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He holds the record for the most runs scored in international cricket, with 34,357 runs in 664 matches. He also holds the record for the most centuries scored in international cricket, with 100.

Vishwanathan Anand is an Indian chess grandmaster. He is the current world chess champion, having won the title in 2000, 2007, 2010, 2012, and 2013. He is the first Indian to win the world chess championship.

Geet Sethi is an Indian professional snooker player. He is the former world professional snooker champion, having won the title in 1997. He is the first Indian to win a world snooker title.

Sunil Gavaskar was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honour, in 1991-92. He was awarded the award for his outstanding contribution to cricket.

The correct answer is A) Nadia.

Dhali dance is a popular folk dance from the Nadia district of West Bengal, India. It is a group dance performed by both men and women. The dancers hold a dhali, a large wooden drum, in one hand and a stick in the other. They use the dhali to keep time with the music and to strike the ground in rhythm. The dance is often performed at weddings and other festivals.

Option B, Murshidabad, is also a district in West Bengal. However, the dhali dance is not as popular there as it is in Nadia.

Option C, Jalpaiguri, is a district in West Bengal that is located in the north of the state. The dhali dance is not as popular there as it is in the south of the state.

Option D, Cooch Behar, is a district in West Bengal that is located in the north-east of the state. The dhali dance is not as popular there as it is in the south of the state.

The correct answer is C. continental glaciers.

Continental glaciers are the largest type of glacier, covering more than 5 million square kilometers (1.9 million square miles) of Earth's surface. They are found in Greenland, Antarctica, and some smaller areas in the Arctic and sub-Arctic. Continental glaciers are much thicker than mountain glaciers, and they flow much more slowly. They can move at speeds of only a few centimeters per year.

Mountain glaciers are glaciers that form on mountains. They are much smaller than continental glaciers, and they flow much faster. Mountain glaciers can move at speeds of up to 100 meters per year.

Alpine glaciers are a type of mountain glacier that forms in high mountain ranges. They are characterized by their steep slopes and their relatively small size. Alpine glaciers are found in the Alps, the Himalayas, and other mountain ranges around the world.

Piedmont glaciers are a type of glacier that forms when mountain glaciers flow out onto a plain. They are characterized by their broad, flat fronts and their slow movement. Piedmont glaciers are found in Greenland, Antarctica, and some smaller areas in the Arctic and sub-Arctic.

The correct answer is: C. Centrosomes

A centrosome is a small organelle found in animal cells that serves as a microtubule organizing center (MTOC). It is composed of two centrioles, which are short, cylindrical structures that are perpendicular to each other. The centrioles are surrounded by a cloud of pericentriolar material (PCM), which contains proteins that are involved in microtubule nucleation and organization.

During cell division, the centrosomes duplicate and move to opposite poles of the cell. The microtubules that are nucleated by the centrosomes form the mitotic spindle, which is responsible for separating the chromosomes during mitosis.

Blastomeres are the cells that are produced by the cleavage of an embryo. They are small, undifferentiated cells that are all identical to each other. The number of blastomeres increases as the embryo develops, and eventually they form the blastocyst.

Chromosomes are thread-like structures that contain the genetic material of a cell. They are made up of DNA and proteins, and they are found in the nucleus of the cell. Chromosomes are duplicated during cell division, and they are passed on to daughter cells.

Ribosomes are small organelles that are found in the cytoplasm of cells. They are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes are made up of proteins and RNA, and they are the site of protein synthesis.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: C. Centrosomes.

The answer is A. TXWU.

In the sequence BCFG : HILM, each letter is three places after the corresponding letter in the alphabet. So, B is three places after A, C is three places after B, and so on. Similarly, H is three places after G, I is three places after H, and so on.

Therefore, the next letter in the sequence is T, which is three places after N. The next letter is X, which is three places after O. The next letter is W, which is three places after R. The next letter is U, which is three places after Q.

Therefore, the answer is TXWU.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the same pattern as the first two letters.

The correct answer is A. Perseverance : Achievement.

Practice is the act of doing something repeatedly in order to improve your skill at it. Perfection is the state of being completely free from faults or defects. Perseverance is the quality of continuing with something even in difficult or discouraging circumstances. Achievement is the act of successfully completing a task or achieving a goal.

In the same way, perseverance is necessary for achievement. If you want to achieve something, you need to be willing to keep working at it even when it's difficult. You need to be able to persevere through setbacks and challenges.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words.

• Run and jump are two different actions. Running is a continuous movement, while jumping is a sudden movement in which you leave the ground.
• Examination and qualification are two different things. An examination is a test, while a qualification is a document that shows that you have met certain requirements.
• Medicine and treatment are two different things. Medicine is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease, while treatment is the process of applying medicine or other methods to cure or relieve a disease.

Fresh water fishes reared is West Bengal are Rohu, Katla, Murrels, Prawns, Cat fish, Mullets.

District courts of West Bengal are under the administrative control of the Calcutta High Court. The decisions of the District Court of West Bengal are subject to the appellate jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court.

The correct answer is: A. Nuclear energy.

Nuclear energy is the energy stored in the nucleus of an atom. It is released when the nucleus of an atom splits (fission) or when two nuclei join together (fusion). Nuclear energy is a very powerful form of energy, and it is used to generate electricity in nuclear power plants.

Atomic energy is a general term that refers to the energy of atoms. It can include nuclear energy, but it can also include other forms of energy, such as the energy of electrons in an atom's orbit.

Potential energy is energy that is stored due to the position or arrangement of an object. For example, a ball held above the ground has potential energy because it could fall to the ground and release energy.

Kinetic energy is energy that is due to the motion of an object. For example, a moving car has kinetic energy because it is moving.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is (c) Uttar Pradesh.

Uttar Pradesh has the largest Muslim population in India, accounting for 19.3% of the state's population. The state has a long history of Muslim rule, dating back to the 12th century. The Mughal Empire, which ruled much of India from the 16th to the 18th centuries, had its capital in Agra, which is now in Uttar Pradesh.

The Muslim population of Uttar Pradesh is concentrated in the eastern part of the state, in the districts of Azamgarh, Jaunpur, and Faizabad. These districts are home to a number of important Muslim pilgrimage sites, including the shrine of Hazrat Mujaddid Alif Sani in Jaunpur and the Dargah Shareef of Hazrat Shah Jalal in Azamgarh.

The Muslim population of Uttar Pradesh is a diverse group, with a variety of ethnic and linguistic backgrounds. The majority of Muslims in Uttar Pradesh are Sunni, but there is also a significant Shia minority.

The Muslim population of Uttar Pradesh has played an important role in the state's history and culture. Muslims have made significant contributions to the state's economy, education, and politics.

The Muslim population of Uttar Pradesh is facing a number of challenges, including poverty, illiteracy, and unemployment. The state government has taken a number of initiatives to address these challenges, but there is still much work to be done.

The Muslim population of Uttar Pradesh is a vibrant and dynamic community. Muslims in Uttar Pradesh are proud of their heritage and are committed to building a better future for themselves and their children.

The correct answer is: A. Only assumption I is implicit

The statement "Money is the root cause of all the problems in a family" does not necessarily mean that there are always some problems in a family. It is possible that a family could be perfectly happy and content without any money at all. However, the statement does imply that every problem is caused by something. If money is the root cause of all the problems in a family, then it follows that every problem must have a cause.

Assumption I is implicit in the statement because the statement implies that every problem has a cause. Assumption II is not implicit in the statement because the statement does not say anything about whether or not there are always some problems in a family.

The correct answer is (b), void.

A gift is a transfer of property from one person to another without consideration. The gift is complete when the donor (the person giving the gift) delivers the property to the donee (the person receiving the gift) and the donee accepts it. If the donee dies before accepting the gift, the gift is void because the donee cannot accept the gift.

A valid gift is a gift that is complete and enforceable. A void gift is a gift that is not complete and unenforceable. A voidable gift is a gift that is complete but can be voided by the donor or the donee.

In the case of a gift that is made to a person who dies before accepting the gift, the gift is void because the donee cannot accept the gift. The donor cannot transfer ownership of the property to the donee because the donee is no longer alive. The property will either revert back to the donor or be distributed according to the donor's will.

The correct answer is A. Xylem.

Xylem is a vascular tissue in plants that transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves. It is made up of dead cells that have thick walls and are arranged in long, narrow tubes. The water and minerals are transported through these tubes by osmosis, a process in which water moves from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration.

Phloem is another vascular tissue in plants that transports food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant. It is made up of living cells that have thin walls and are arranged in long, narrow tubes. The food is transported through these tubes by a process called translocation, which is a combination of diffusion and active transport.

Cortex is the layer of cells that lies between the phloem and the xylem. It is made up of living cells that have thin walls and are arranged in a loose network. The cortex helps to protect the plant and to transport water and minerals.

Cambium is a layer of cells that lies between the xylem and the phloem. It is made up of dividing cells that give rise to new xylem and phloem cells. The cambium is responsible for the growth of the plant in thickness.

Bardhaman is the main producer of Boro rice in West Bengal.

The correct answer is "to".

"To" is used to indicate a relationship between two people or things, in this case, the speaker and the bank. The speaker owes the bank money, so the relationship is one of debt.

"In" is used to indicate a location, but in this case, the speaker is not physically located in the bank.

"With" is used to indicate possession or association, but in this case, the speaker does not own the bank.

"On" is used to indicate a surface or location, but in this case, the speaker is not standing on the bank.

The correct answer is (c). Social Interest Litigation is not a form of public interest litigation.

Public interest litigation (PIL) is a legal action initiated by a person or group of people on behalf of the general public to seek redressal of a public wrong or a legal wrong affecting a large number of people. PILs are usually filed in the High Courts or the Supreme Court of India.

Social Action Litigation (SAL) is a type of PIL that is filed to protect the rights of marginalized or disadvantaged groups of people. SALs are usually filed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) or individuals who are working to protect the rights of these groups.

Disadvantaged Group Litigation (DGL) is a type of PIL that is filed to protect the rights of people who are disadvantaged due to their social, economic, or political status. DGLs are usually filed by NGOs or individuals who are working to protect the rights of these groups.

Social Interest Litigation (SIL) is not a recognized form of PIL. It is a term that is sometimes used to describe PILs that are filed to promote social welfare or social justice. However, this term is not used in the legal system and there is no clear definition of what it means.

Raybenshe dance is a war-like dance, similar to Lathi dance. It is mainly popular in Bardhaman, Birbhum and Murshidabad districts of West Bengal.

The correct answer is: C. Paris Games (1924)

The Olympic Flame was first ceremonially lighted and burnt in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium at the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris. The flame was lit in Olympia, Greece, and transported to Paris by relay runners. The tradition of the Olympic Flame has continued at every Summer and Winter Olympics since then.

The Olympic Flame is a symbol of the Olympic Games. It represents the ideals of the Olympic movement, which are peace, unity, and friendship. The flame is also a symbol of hope and renewal. It is said that the flame will never go out, as long as the Olympic Games continue to be held.

The Olympic Flame is lit in Olympia, Greece, at the Temple of Hera. The flame is then transported to the host city of the Olympic Games by relay runners. The relay runners are chosen from all over the world, and they represent the diversity of the Olympic movement.

The Olympic Flame is a powerful symbol, and it is an important part of the Olympic Games. It represents the ideals of the Olympic movement, and it is a symbol of hope and renewal. The Olympic Flame is a reminder that the Olympic Games are a celebration of peace, unity, and friendship.

The other options are incorrect because:

• The Olympic Games were first held in Athens, Greece, in 1896, but the Olympic Flame was not ceremonially lighted and burnt in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium until 1924.
• The Olympic Games were held in London, England, in 1908, but the Olympic Flame was not ceremonially lighted and burnt in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium until 1924.
• The Olympic Games were held in Paris, France, in 1924, and this is the first time that the Olympic Flame was ceremonially lighted and burnt in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium.
• The Olympic Games were held in Amsterdam, Netherlands, in 1928, but the Olympic Flame was not ceremonially lighted and burnt in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium until 1924.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

The intensity of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude. Therefore, the ratio of the intensities of two waves is equal to the square of the ratio of their amplitudes. In this case, the intensity ratio is 25:9, so the ratio of the amplitudes is $sqrt{25:9} = boxed{5:3}$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the square of the ratio of the amplitudes, not the ratio of the amplitudes itself. Option B is incorrect because it is the ratio of the amplitudes, not the square of the ratio of the amplitudes. Option D is incorrect because it is the inverse of the ratio of the amplitudes.

The correct answer is (c). Kalsi.

Kalsi is a town and a nagar panchayat in Dehradun district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located on the banks of the Yamuna River, about 20 km from Dehradun. The town is known for its ancient rock edicts, which were inscribed by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE. The edicts are written in Brahmi script and are inscribed on a large rock face near the town. They are a valuable source of information about the Mauryan Empire and its policies.

The other options are incorrect. Pandukeshwar is a village in Rudraprayag district in Uttarakhand. Palethi is a village in Tehri Garhwal district in Uttarakhand. Taleshwar is a village in Chamoli district in Uttarakhand. None of these villages have ancient rock edicts.

The correct answer is (c) Rajasthan.

Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lignite coal in India. The lignite coal reserves in Rajasthan are estimated to be around 28 billion tonnes. The lignite coal reserves in Gujarat are estimated to be around 1.5 billion tonnes. The lignite coal reserves in Kerala are estimated to be around 0.5 billion tonnes. The lignite coal reserves in Tamil Nadu are estimated to be around 0.3 billion tonnes.

Lignite coal is a type of coal that is formed from plant material that has been buried and subjected to heat and pressure for a relatively short period of time. Lignite coal is a lower-grade coal than bituminous coal or anthracite coal. Lignite coal is soft and has a high moisture content. Lignite coal is used to generate electricity and to produce coke.

The renowned white sand beach specially known for migratory birds is Freserganj beach.

The correct answer is (a) Dhoom Singh Negi.

Dhoom Singh Negi is a mountaineer and environmentalist from Uttarakhand, India. He has been awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, for his contributions to mountaineering and environmental conservation. He is the founder of the Himalayan Environmental Studies and Research Foundation (Himalayan E.S.R.F.), an organization that works to protect the environment of the Himalayas.

Arvind Arora is a businessman from Delhi, India. He is the founder and chairman of the Arora Group, a conglomerate with interests in the real estate, infrastructure, and energy sectors. He is also the chairman of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the apex chamber of commerce and industry in India.

Tara Gandhi is a social worker from Mumbai, India. She is the founder and director of the Tara Foundation, an organization that works to improve the lives of women and children in India. She is also the recipient of the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award.

Vijay Jardhari is a politician from Haryana, India. He is a member of the Indian National Congress and has served as a member of the Haryana Legislative Assembly. He is also the president of the Haryana Pradesh Congress Committee.

The ‘Himalay Prahari’ Award is an annual award given by the Government of India to individuals who have made significant contributions to the conservation of the Himalayas. The award was instituted in 2001 and is given in the following categories:

• Mountaineering
• Environmental conservation
• Research
• Education
• Public service

The award consists of a cash prize, a citation, and a memento.

The correct answer is (a) Kanpur, Lucknow, Varanasi and Agra.

Kanpur is the largest city in Uttar Pradesh, India, with a population of 3.1 million in 2001. It is the 11th most populous city in India. Kanpur is a major industrial city, and is known for its leather and textile industries.

Lucknow is the capital of Uttar Pradesh, India, with a population of 2.8 million in 2001. It is the 12th most populous city in India. Lucknow is a major cultural and educational center, and is home to the University of Lucknow.

Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh, India, with a population of 1.2 million in 2001. It is the 13th most populous city in India. Varanasi is a major Hindu pilgrimage site, and is known for its ghats (riverside steps).

Agra is a city in Uttar Pradesh, India, with a population of 1.1 million in 2001. It is the 14th most populous city in India. Agra is home to the Taj Mahal, one of the Seven Wonders of the World.

In 2001, the population of Kanpur was 3.1 million, the population of Lucknow was 2.8 million, the population of Varanasi was 1.2 million, and the population of Agra was 1.1 million. Therefore, the correct sequence of the following Million Cities of U.P. in terms of their population (2001) is (a) Kanpur, Lucknow, Varanasi and Agra.

The correct answer is D. Meat, Milk, Egg.

Biological complete proteins are proteins that contain all nine essential amino acids that the human body cannot produce on its own. These amino acids are essential for growth, development, and repair of tissues.

Meat, milk, and eggs are all good sources of biological complete proteins. Other good sources of biological complete proteins include fish, poultry, tofu, and quinoa.

Potatoes, onions, and carrots are all good sources of carbohydrates, but they do not contain all nine essential amino acids. Apples are a good source of vitamins and minerals, but they also do not contain all nine essential amino acids. Wheat is a good source of carbohydrates and protein, but it does not contain all nine essential amino acids. Rice is a good source of carbohydrates, but it does not contain all nine essential amino acids. Butter is a good source of fat, but it does not contain any protein.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Meat, Milk, Egg.

The correct answer is C. To start a conversation.

To break the ice is to start a conversation with someone you don't know very well. It can be difficult to start a conversation with someone you don't know, but there are a few things you can do to make it easier. First, try to find something you have in common with the person you're talking to. This could be anything from your interests to your hometown. Once you've found something in common, you can start talking about it. You can also try to make a joke or tell a story to break the ice.

Here are some examples of how to break the ice:

• "Hi, I'm (your name). I'm new here. What's your name?"
• "I love your shirt! Where did you get it?"
• "Did you see that game last night? It was amazing!"
• "I'm so glad I found someone else who likes (insert shared interest)."

Breaking the ice can be a little daunting, but it's important to remember that everyone is in the same boat. Everyone wants to make friends and connect with others. So just relax and be yourself. The more you practice, the easier it will become.

A. To start quarreling is not the correct answer because it is not a positive way to start a conversation. Quarreling is an argument or fight, and it is not a good way to get to know someone.

B. To end the hostility is not the correct answer because it is not a way to start a conversation. Hostility is anger or hatred, and it is not a good way to connect with someone.

D. To end up partnership is not the correct answer because it is not a way to start a conversation. A partnership is a business or other arrangement between two or more people, and it is not a good way to get to know someone.

The correct answer is (a) Lactobacillus. Lactobacillus is a genus of bacteria that are commonly found in the human gut. They are also used in the production of fermented foods such as yogurt, cheese, and sauerkraut. Lactobacillus are responsible for the fermentation of milk, which is the process that produces curds.

Oscillatoria is a genus of cyanobacteria that are found in both fresh and marine water. They are photosynthetic organisms that produce oxygen. Funaria is a genus of mosses that are found in moist, shady environments. They are non-vascular plants that do not have roots, stems, or leaves. Streptococcus is a genus of bacteria that are commonly found in the human mouth and throat. They can cause a variety of infections, including strep throat, scarlet fever, and pneumonia.

Lactobacillus are the only organisms listed that are involved in curd formation. They are responsible for the fermentation of milk, which is the process that produces curds.

The correct answer is: B. 78 ft. by 27 ft.

A lawn tennis court is a rectangular area enclosed by white lines. The court is 78 feet (23.77 m) long and 27 feet (8.23 m) wide for singles matches, and 108 feet (33.52 m) long and 36 feet (11 m) wide for doubles matches. The net is 3 feet (0.91 m) high at the center and 3 feet 6 inches (1.07 m) high at the posts.

The court is divided into two halves by a net. The service line is 21 feet (6.4 m) from the net in singles and 27 feet (8.23 m) in doubles. The baseline is 78 feet (23.77 m) from the net. The service box is a 21-foot-by-13-foot (6.4-by-4-meter) rectangle that is located on the side of the court where the server is standing. The service box is divided into two halves by a service line that is 18 feet (5.5 meters) from the net.

The court is also divided into two halves by a center service line. The center service line is located 27 feet (8.23 m) from the net and runs parallel to the baseline. The center service line divides the service box into two halves, the right service box and the left service box.

The court is further divided into two halves by the doubles alleys. The doubles alleys are two 6-foot-wide (1.83-meter) strips that run parallel to the baseline and are located 3 feet (0.91 m) on either side of the center service line. The doubles alleys are used in doubles matches only.

The court is also divided into two halves by the singles sidelines. The singles sidelines are two 2-foot-wide (0.61-meter) strips that run parallel to the baseline and are located 21 feet (6.4 m) on either side of the center service line. The singles sidelines are used in both singles and doubles matches.

The correct answer is: C. Abhinav Bindra.

Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal in the 10-metre air rifle event at the 2008 Summer Olympics in Beijing, China. He became the first Indian to win an individual gold medal at the Olympics.

Sushil Kumar won the bronze medal in the 66 kg freestyle wrestling event at the 2008 Summer Olympics.

Vikram Rathore won the silver medal in the men's 25 m rapid fire pistol event at the 2008 Summer Olympics.

Vijender Singh won the bronze medal in the men's middleweight (75 kg) boxing event at the 2008 Summer Olympics.

The correct answer is: A. President of the Philippines.

Ramon Magsaysay was the third president of the Philippines. He was known for his land reform program to defuse communist insurgency. He was also known for his strong anti-corruption stance. He was assassinated in 1957.

The Magsaysay Award is a prestigious award given to individuals and organizations who have made significant contributions to public service, democracy, and human rights in Asia. The award is named after Ramon Magsaysay.

The other options are incorrect because Ramon Magsaysay was not the president of Spain, Scotland, or Malaysia.

The correct answer is: B. W, R, K, E

The pattern is:

• Z - 26th letter of the alphabet
• T - 20th letter of the alphabet
• N - 14th letter of the alphabet
• H - 8th letter of the alphabet
• B - 2nd letter of the alphabet

Therefore, the missing terms are W (23rd letter of the alphabet) and R (18th letter of the alphabet).

Option A is incorrect because Q is not the 23rd letter of the alphabet.

Option C is incorrect because X is not the 23rd letter of the alphabet.

Option D is incorrect because R is not the 18th letter of the alphabet.

The correct answer is: C. anyone

The sentence "You must find someone to accompany you to Bombay" means that the speaker is asking the listener to find someone to go to Bombay with them. The listener could find anyone to go with them, as long as it is someone.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

• A. no one is incorrect because the speaker is asking the listener to find someone to go to Bombay with them. If the listener found no one, then they would not be able to go to Bombay.
• B. everyone is incorrect because the speaker is asking the listener to find someone to go to Bombay with them. If the listener found everyone, then they would have a very large group to go with them, which might not be practical.
• D. No improvement is incorrect because the sentence is already correct. There is no need to improve it.

The correct answer is (a). Money market deals in short-term funds.

Money market is a financial market where short-term debt instruments are bought and sold. These instruments are typically issued by governments, banks, and other large corporations. The maturity of money market instruments is typically less than one year.

Money market funds are mutual funds that invest in money market instruments. They are a type of short-term investment that is designed to provide liquidity and safety. Money market funds are typically considered to be low-risk investments.

Money market instruments are used by investors to store cash and earn a return on their money. They are also used by businesses to finance their short-term operations.

Some examples of money market instruments include:

• Treasury bills
• Commercial paper
• Bankers' acceptances
• Repurchase agreements
• Certificate of deposit

Money market funds are a popular investment choice for individuals and businesses. They offer a high degree of liquidity and safety, and they typically have low fees.

The correct answer is: D. neither a maximum nor minimum.

The function $f(x) = |x|$ is a piecewise function. It is defined as $f(x) = x$ for $x ge 0$ and $f(x) = -x$ for $x < 0$.

At $x = 0$, the function changes its direction from increasing to decreasing. This is not a point of maximum or minimum, but a point of inflection.

A point of maximum or minimum is a point where the function changes its direction from increasing to decreasing or vice versa, and the function value is either the largest or smallest value in the neighborhood of the point.

A point of inflection is a point where the function changes its concavity from concave up to concave down or vice versa.

In the case of $f(x) = |x|$, the function changes its concavity at $x = 0$. However, the function value at $x = 0$ is not the largest or smallest value in the neighborhood of the point. Therefore, $x = 0$ is a point of inflection, but not a point of maximum or minimum.

The correct answer is: A. International Year for the Eradication of Poverty

The United Nations declared 1999 as the International Year for the Eradication of Poverty. The goal of this year was to raise awareness of the problem of poverty and to promote action to eradicate it. The year was also a time to celebrate the achievements that had been made in reducing poverty, and to identify the challenges that still lay ahead.

Poverty is a complex issue with many causes. Some of the most common causes of poverty include lack of education, lack of employment opportunities, and lack of access to healthcare and other essential services. Poverty can have a devastating impact on individuals, families, and communities. It can lead to hunger, malnutrition, disease, and social exclusion.

There are many things that can be done to eradicate poverty. Some of the most important steps include:

• Investing in education and training to help people develop the skills they need to get a job.
• Creating jobs and economic opportunities.
• Providing access to healthcare and other essential services.
• Promoting social inclusion and reducing discrimination.

Eradicatating poverty is a complex and challenging task, but it is one that is essential to creating a more just and equitable world.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• International Year of the World's Indigenous People (2005): This year was dedicated to promoting the rights and well-being of indigenous peoples around the world.
• Year of the Rights of Internally Displaced Persons in Colombia (2003): This year was dedicated to raising awareness of the plight of internally displaced persons (IDPs) in Colombia and to promoting their rights.
• International Year of Older Persons (1999): This year was dedicated to promoting the well-being of older persons and to raising awareness of the challenges they face.

The correct answer is: B. Synapse

A synapse is a junction between two nerve cells, or neurons, across which nerve impulses pass. A synapse is essentially a gap, across which neurotransmitters are released from the axon terminal of one neuron and bind to receptors on the dendrites of another neuron. This binding of neurotransmitters causes the postsynaptic neuron to either fire an action potential or not fire an action potential.

An axon is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell, or neuron, that conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body. Axons are typically covered in a fatty substance called myelin, which helps to insulate them and speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.

Neuroglia, also known as glial cells, are non-neuronal cells that support and protect neurons. Neuroglia make up about 50% of the brain's volume and perform a variety of functions, including providing nutrients to neurons, removing waste products from neurons, and forming the blood-brain barrier.

Dendrites are short, branching projections of a nerve cell, or neuron, that receive electrical signals from other neurons. Dendrites are typically covered in receptors that bind to neurotransmitters released from axons. When neurotransmitters bind to receptors on dendrites, it causes the neuron to either fire an action potential or not fire an action potential.

The answer is D. Oyster.

Tortoises, alligators, and snails are all reptiles. They are all cold-blooded animals with scales or scutes that cover their bodies. They all lay eggs, and they all breathe air.

Oysters, on the other hand, are mollusks. They are soft-bodied animals with a hard shell. They do not have scales or scutes, and they do not lay eggs. They reproduce by releasing sperm and eggs into the water, where the eggs are fertilized and develop into larvae.

Oysters are also filter feeders. They take in water through their gills and filter out small organisms to eat. Tortoises, alligators, and snails are all carnivores or omnivores. They eat a variety of plants and animals.

In conclusion, the answer is D. Oyster. Oysters are different from the other options because they are mollusks, not reptiles. They also have a different body structure and way of life.

Kolkata-Durgapur Expressway connects Dankuni to Palsit and provides much shorter and faster route from Kolkata to Durgapur.

The correct answer is: C. Pali

Pali is a Middle Indo-Aryan language that was used to write the Theravada Buddhist canon. It is a close relative of Sanskrit, but it is not the same language. Pali is a much simpler language than Sanskrit, and it is easier to learn.

Brahmi is an ancient writing system that was used to write many different languages, including Sanskrit, Pali, and Prakrit. It is not a specific language in itself.

Sanskrit is an ancient Indo-Aryan language that was used to write many different religious texts, including the Vedas and the Upanishads. It is a very complex language, and it is difficult to learn.

Magadhi is a Middle Indo-Aryan language that was spoken in the region of Magadha in India. It is the language in which the Buddha preached his sermons.

The original Buddhist religious texts were written in Pali. Pali is a Middle Indo-Aryan language that is closely related to Sanskrit. It is the language in which the Buddha preached his sermons, and it is the language in which the Theravada Buddhist canon is written. Pali is a relatively simple language, and it is easier to learn than Sanskrit.

The odd one out is osteomalacia. The other four options are all forms of malnutrition, while osteomalacia is a bone disease caused by a lack of vitamin D.

Kwashiorkor is a protein-energy malnutrition that occurs in children who are weaned too early and are not given enough protein-rich foods. It is characterized by a swollen belly, thin arms and legs, and a pot-shaped head.

Cretinism is a form of mental retardation caused by a lack of iodine in the diet. It is characterized by a large head, short stature, and a slow mental development.

Marasmus is a form of malnutrition that occurs in children who are not given enough calories. It is characterized by a thin body, loose skin, and a lack of energy.

Goitre is a swelling of the thyroid gland, which is located in the neck. It is caused by a lack of iodine in the diet.

The correct answer is C. Both 1 and 2.

Hard soaps are the sodium salts of fatty acids. They are made by reacting sodium hydroxide (lye) with animal or vegetable fats. Hard soaps are typically white or off-white in color and have a high melting point. They are often used in bar soaps, hand soaps, and laundry detergents.

Soft soaps are the potassium salts of fatty acids. They are made by reacting potassium hydroxide (lye) with animal or vegetable fats. Soft soaps are typically clear or translucent in color and have a low melting point. They are often used in liquid soaps, shampoos, and conditioners.

Both hard and soft soaps are effective at removing dirt and oil from the skin. However, hard soaps can be drying to the skin, while soft soaps are more moisturizing.

The correct answer is A. Amplitude modulated.

Amplitude modulation (AM) is a modulation technique used in electronic communication, most commonly for transmitting information via radio waves. In amplitude modulation, the amplitude (or strength) of a carrier wave is varied in accordance with the instantaneous value of the information signal.

The audio signals of TV are amplitude modulated because this is the most efficient way to transmit them over long distances. AM signals are relatively simple to generate and can be received with relatively simple equipment.

Frequency modulation (FM) is another modulation technique that is sometimes used for transmitting audio signals. In FM, the frequency of the carrier wave is varied in accordance with the instantaneous value of the information signal. FM signals are less susceptible to noise than AM signals, but they are also more complex to generate and receive.

Unmodulated signals are signals that do not have any information encoded on them. They are simply a carrier wave with no changes in its amplitude, frequency, or phase.

Velocity modulation (VM) is a modulation technique that is used to transmit information by varying the velocity of a carrier wave. VM signals are not commonly used in practice, but they have some advantages over other modulation techniques, such as AM and FM.

In conclusion, the audio signals of TV are amplitude modulated because this is the most efficient way to transmit them over long distances.

Satyendra Memorial Award is given to the writers for contribution to Bengali Science Literature whose writing is suitable for boys and girls upto the age of 18 years.

The correct answer is (a) Chile.

Chile is the largest producer of silver in the world, followed by Mexico, Peru, and China. In 2020, Chile produced 53,000 metric tons of silver, while Mexico produced 24,000 metric tons, Peru produced 18,000 metric tons, and China produced 14,000 metric tons.

Chile's silver production is concentrated in the Atacama Desert, which is the driest place on Earth. The desert is home to a number of large silver mines, including the Escondida mine, which is the largest silver mine in the world.

Mexico's silver production is also concentrated in the northern part of the country, in the states of Sonora and Chihuahua. The country's largest silver mine is the Fresnillo mine, which is the second-largest silver mine in the world.

Peru's silver production is concentrated in the central part of the country, in the Andes Mountains. The country's largest silver mine is the Antamina mine, which is the third-largest silver mine in the world.

China's silver production is concentrated in the provinces of Yunnan and Guizhou. The country's largest silver mine is the Jinchuan mine, which is the fourth-largest silver mine in the world.

Silver is a precious metal that is used in a variety of products, including jewelry, coins, and electronics. It is also used in industrial applications, such as batteries and solar panels.

The correct answer is A) Hooghly.

Hoogly is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located on the eastern bank of the Hooghly River, and is the third most populous district in West Bengal. The district is home to a number of important industries, including automobile manufacturing.

The automobile industry in Hooghly is growing rapidly. In recent years, a number of major automobile manufacturers have set up manufacturing plants in the district. These include Tata Motors, Maruti Suzuki, and Hyundai Motor Company. The growth of the automobile industry has created a number of jobs in the district.

The automobile industry is an important part of the economy of Hooghly. It contributes significantly to the district's GDP. The industry also generates a lot of employment. The growth of the automobile industry has helped to improve the standard of living of the people of Hooghly.

The other options are incorrect.

B) Purulia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the western part of the state. The district is home to a number of important industries, including coal mining and agriculture. However, the automobile industry is not a major industry in Purulia.

C) Darjeeling is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the northern part of the state. The district is home to a number of important industries, including tea cultivation and tourism. However, the automobile industry is not a major industry in Darjeeling.

D) Nadia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the eastern part of the state. The district is home to a number of important industries, including agriculture and textiles. However, the automobile industry is not a major industry in Nadia.

In 1996, Debashree Roy won the National Award for Best Actress for her role in Rituparno Ghosh's film Unishe April.

The correct answer is: A) Kolkata Metro Line 1.

Kolkata Metro Line 1 is the first operational metro line in West Bengal, India. It was opened on 24 October 1984 and is operated by the Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation. The line is 17.3 km long and has 14 stations. It runs from Esplanade in the city centre to Dakshineswar in the southern suburbs.

The line was built in two phases. The first phase, from Esplanade to Tollygunge, was opened in 1984. The second phase, from Tollygunge to Dakshineswar, was opened in 1995.

The line is a vital part of the public transport system in Kolkata. It is used by millions of people every day. The line is well-maintained and is a safe and reliable way to travel around the city.

The other options are incorrect because they are not operational metro lines in West Bengal.

Option B, Kolkata Metro Line 2, is under construction. It is expected to be opened in 2023.

Option C, East-West Metro, is a proposed metro line in Kolkata. It is still in the planning stage.

Option D, North-South Metro, is a proposed metro line in Kolkata. It is also still in the planning stage.

The correct answer is (c) Sulphuric acid.

Sulphuric acid is a strong acid that is used in car batteries to create a chemical reaction that produces electricity. The acid reacts with the lead plates in the battery to create lead sulfate, which is what stores the electricity. When the battery is discharged, the lead sulfate is converted back to lead and lead dioxide, which releases the electricity.

Sodium sulphate, nitric acid, and potassium nitrate are all electrolytes, but they are not used in car batteries. Sodium sulphate is a salt that is used in some industrial processes. Nitric acid is a strong acid that is used in some manufacturing processes. Potassium nitrate is a salt that is used in some fertilizers.

Sulphuric acid is the most common electrolyte used in car batteries because it is a strong acid that can produce a lot of electricity. It is also relatively inexpensive and easy to obtain.

The correct answer is: D. Goa

English is the official language of Goa. It is also the official language of India, but it is not the most widely spoken language in India. Hindi is the most widely spoken language in India.

Chhattisgarh is a state in central India. The official language of Chhattisgarh is Chhattisgarhi.

Meghalaya is a state in north-eastern India. The official language of Meghalaya is Khasi.

Assam is a state in north-eastern India. The official language of Assam is Assamese.

The correct answer is: D. the death knell for the city.

The sentence is grammatically correct, but the word "practically" is unnecessary and should be removed. The sentence would be more concise and effective without it.

The word "practically" means "in effect" or "virtually." In this sentence, it is redundant, as the word "ring" already implies that the eleven new flyovers would have a significant negative impact on the city.

Removing the word "practically" would make the sentence more direct and to the point. It would also be more consistent with the tone of the rest of the sentence, which is serious and urgent.

Here is the sentence with the word "practically" removed:

Activists opposing the rail project said that the eleven new flyovers to be built would ring the death knell for the city.

This sentence is more concise and effective than the original sentence. It is also more consistent with the tone of the rest of the sentence.

The correct answer is (a).

Section 25A was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2008. The amendment was made in order to provide for the appointment of special public prosecutors to conduct cases of heinous offences against women and children.

The amendment defines a "heinous offence" as an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years. It also provides that the Central Government or the State Government may, by notification, appoint a special public prosecutor to conduct any case of heinous offence against women or children.

The amendment further provides that the special public prosecutor shall be a person who has been a judge of a High Court or a district judge or an advocate of not less than ten years' standing.

The amendment was made in order to ensure that heinous offences against women and children are effectively prosecuted and that the victims of such offences get justice.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the year in which Section 25A was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

The correct answer is (b). VAT is a value-added tax, which is a type of consumption tax that is levied on the value added to goods and services at each stage of the production and distribution process. The tax is ultimately paid by the consumer, but it is collected by businesses at each stage of the production and distribution process.

Option (a) is incorrect because VAT is not imposed directly on the consumer. The tax is collected by businesses, but it is ultimately paid by the consumer.

Option (c) is incorrect because VAT is not imposed on the first stage of the production. The tax is levied on the value added to goods and services at each stage of the production and distribution process.

Option (d) is incorrect because VAT is not imposed on all stages between production and final sale. The tax is levied on the value added to goods and services at each stage of the production and distribution process, but it is not imposed on all stages.

The correct answer is: A. Glass to water

Total internal reflection is an optical phenomenon that occurs when light passes from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index at an angle greater than the critical angle. The critical angle is the angle of incidence at which the light ray is refracted so that it travels parallel to the boundary between the two media.

For total internal reflection to occur, the following conditions must be met:

1. The light must be traveling from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index.
2. The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.
3. The light must be traveling in a straight line.

If any of these conditions are not met, then total internal reflection will not occur.

In the case of the question, the light is traveling from glass to water. The refractive index of glass is 1.52, while the refractive index of water is 1.33. Therefore, the light is traveling from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index. The angle of incidence is also greater than the critical angle, which is 42 degrees for glass and water. Therefore, the light will suffer total internal reflection.

The other options are incorrect because the light is not traveling from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index. In option B, the light is traveling from water to glass. The refractive index of water is 1.33, while the refractive index of glass is 1.52. Therefore, the light is traveling from a medium with a lower refractive index to a medium with a higher refractive index. In option C, the light is traveling from air to water. The refractive index of air is 1.00, while the refractive index of water is 1.33. Therefore, the light is traveling from a medium with a lower refractive index to a medium with a higher refractive index. In option D, the light is traveling from air to glass. The refractive index of air is 1.00, while the refractive index of glass is 1.52. Therefore, the light is traveling from a medium with a lower refractive index to a medium with a higher refractive index.

The correct answer is: Accessible

The word "accessible" means "able to be reached or entered." It is derived from the Latin word "accedere," which means "to approach." The word "accessible" is often used to describe places or things that are easy to get to or use. For example, a building that is accessible to people with disabilities is one that has ramps and elevators so that people in wheelchairs can get in and out easily.

The other options are incorrect because they are not spelled correctly. The word "accissible" is missing an "s" at the end. The word "acessible" is missing an "e" at the beginning. The word "accesible" is missing an "s" at the end.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is B. Samuel Beckett.

Linus Pauling was a chemist who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1954 and the Nobel Peace Prize in 1962.

Philip Noel-Baker was a British politician and diplomat who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1959.

Ralph Bunche was an American diplomat and political scientist who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1950.

Samuel Beckett was an Irish playwright, novelist, short story writer, poet, and theatre director. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1969 "for his writing, which—in new forms of fiction, drama and poetry—in the destitution of modern man acquires its elevation, compassion and strength."

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The state government has launched initiatives to promote skill development, entrepreneurship, and financial inclusion.

Skill development is the process of acquiring the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for a particular job or career. The state government has launched several initiatives to promote skill development, including the Skill India Mission and the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). These initiatives aim to provide training to millions of youth in a variety of skills, including manufacturing, IT, and healthcare.

Entrepreneurship is the process of starting and running a business. The state government has launched several initiatives to promote entrepreneurship, including the Startup India initiative and the Standup India initiative. These initiatives aim to provide financial assistance, mentoring, and other support to entrepreneurs.

Financial inclusion is the process of ensuring that all people have access to financial services, such as banking, credit, and insurance. The state government has launched several initiatives to promote financial inclusion, including the Jan Dhan Yojana and the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY). These initiatives aim to open bank accounts for all Indians, provide them with access to credit, and promote financial literacy.

These initiatives are aimed at improving the lives of the people of the state by providing them with the skills, opportunities, and resources they need to succeed.

The correct answer is A. 1.20.

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good or service changes in response to a change in its price. It is calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.

In this case, the price of the good decreases from Rs. 10 to Rs. 8, which is a decrease of 20%. The quantity demanded of the good increases from 20,000 to 25,000, which is an increase of 25%. Therefore, the price elasticity of demand is 1.20.

Option B is incorrect because it is the price elasticity of supply. Price elasticity of supply is a measure of how much the quantity supplied of a good or service changes in response to a change in its price. It is calculated as the percentage change in quantity supplied divided by the percentage change in price.

Option C is incorrect because it is the income elasticity of demand. Income elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good or service changes in response to a change in income. It is calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in income.

Option D is incorrect because it is the cross-price elasticity of demand. Cross-price elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of one good changes in response to a change in the price of another good. It is calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded of the first good divided by the percentage change in the price of the second good.

The correct answer is D. denigrate.

To denigrate is to speak about someone or something in a very negative way. It is a form of criticism that is often unfair or unjustified. In the context of the question, the woman is speaking about her neighbor in a very negative way, which suggests that she is denigrating her.

The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the woman's actions. To please someone is to make them happy or satisfied. To praise someone is to express admiration or approval of them. To belittle someone is to make them seem unimportant or insignificant.

In conclusion, the correct answer is D. denigrate.

The correct answer is (c) Amino acid.

Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They are organic compounds that contain an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a side chain (R group). There are 20 different types of amino acids, which are linked together by peptide bonds to form proteins.

Iodic acid (HIO3) is a strong acid that is used in the production of other chemicals, such as iodine and potassium iodide. Formic acid (HCOOH) is a weak acid that is found in ants and bee stings. Nitrous acid (HNO2) is a weak acid that is used in the production of other chemicals, such as nitric acid and nitrous oxide.

Iodic acid, formic acid, and nitrous acid are not used to build proteins.

Landslides, deforestation, shifting cultivation and excess siltation in mountain rivers increases soil erosion of mountain and forest soil. Annual floods, waterlogging, prolonged wet and dry spells of rainfall, deforestation, faulty ways of cultivation are the main causes of soil erosion in delta plains. Poor water retention capacity of soil, prolonged dry periods resulting in droughts, deforestation, over grazing, leaching and seasonsal floods are main causes of soil erosion in the Western Plateau region. Waterlogging, high salinity, very poor water retention capacity, tidal waves, coastal run off, excess siltation of rivers are main causes of soil erosion in coastal regions.

The correct answer is C. Alluvial soil.

Alluvial soil is a type of soil that is formed by the deposition of sediments from rivers and streams. It is a rich, fertile soil that is well-drained and has a high water holding capacity. This makes it ideal for growing rice, which is a water-intensive crop.

Red soil is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of igneous rocks. It is a poor, acidic soil that is low in nutrients. This makes it unsuitable for growing rice.

Laterite soil is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of limestone. It is a poor, acidic soil that is low in nutrients. This makes it unsuitable for growing rice.

Black soil is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of volcanic rocks. It is a rich, fertile soil that is well-drained and has a high water holding capacity. However, it is not as well-suited for growing rice as alluvial soil.

In conclusion, the soil type most suitable for rice cultivation in West Bengal is alluvial soil.

The answer is B. ONP.

The other three options, A, C, and D, are all consonant clusters. A consonant cluster is a group of two or more consonants that come together in a word. In these three options, the consonants are all adjacent to each other. For example, in the word "STR," the consonants "S" and "T" are adjacent to each other, and the consonants "T" and "R" are adjacent to each other.

In the option B, ONP, the consonants "O" and "N" are not adjacent to each other. The consonant "P" is in between them. This makes it the odd one out.

The correct answer is (d). Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 states that "No person shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." This means that a person cannot be forced to testify in court against themselves. This right is also known as the right against self-incrimination.

The other options are incorrect because they are all people who may be required to testify in court. The complainant is the person who files the complaint against the accused. The witness is a person who saw or heard something that is relevant to the case. The accused is the person who is being charged with a crime.

It is important to note that the right against self-incrimination does not apply to all situations. For example, a person can be compelled to testify in court if they are the only witness to a crime. Additionally, a person can be compelled to testify if they have already been convicted of a crime.

The right against self-incrimination is a fundamental right that is protected by the Constitution of India. This right is important because it protects people from being forced to incriminate themselves. This can help to ensure that people are not falsely convicted of crimes.

The correct answer is: A. ways

A mode of living is a way of life, a particular way of living that is characteristic of a particular group of people. It includes the customs, habits, and beliefs of that group.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to a way of life.

• Standards are a set of principles that are considered to be correct or desirable.
• Customs are traditional ways of behaving that are common to a particular group of people.
• Attitudes are feelings or opinions about something.

The correct answer is C) Bishnupur.

Bishnupur is a town in West Bengal, India, known for its terracotta temples. The temples were built by the Malla rulers of Bishnupur in the 17th and 18th centuries. The temples are decorated with terracotta panels depicting scenes from Hindu mythology.

Cooch Behar is a former princely state in West Bengal. It is not known for its terracotta temples.

Tripura is a state in northeastern India. It is not known for its terracotta temples.

Mallabhum is a former princely state in West Bengal. It is not known for its terracotta temples.

According to Census 2011, the overall sex ratio of West Bengal is 950 which is greater than the national average of 943.

The correct answer is: A. Money bill.

A money bill is a bill that deals with the imposition, abolition, alteration, regulation, or collection of any tax, or the imposition of any charge upon the consolidated fund of India, or the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee on behalf of the Government of India.

A finance bill is a bill that deals with the appropriation of money out of the consolidated fund of India for the purposes of the Government of India, the raising of money by the issue of public debt, or the variation of the salaries and allowances of civil servants.

An ordinance is a law that is promulgated by the President of India when Parliament is not in session. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but they must be laid before Parliament within six weeks of the commencement of the next session of Parliament, and they lapse if they are not approved by Parliament within that period.

None of these is a bill that deals with the annual revenue collection of the Government of India.

The sex ratio of Scheduled Caste population is 951, which is higher than the national average of 945.

The correct answer is C. Shooting.

Skeet is a clay target shooting sport, where participants attempt to break clay targets mechanically flung into the air from two fixed stations at high speed from a variety of angles. The clay targets are flung from two towers, one at each end of a 120-meter (394 ft) semi-circle. The two towers are 10 meters (33 ft) apart and 30 meters (98 ft) above the ground. The clay targets are flung from a variety of angles and speeds, and participants must use a shotgun to break them.

Skeet is a popular sport in the United States, Canada, and Europe. It is also an Olympic sport.

Option A is incorrect because running is a sport that involves running.

Option B is incorrect because cycling is a sport that involves riding a bicycle.

Option D is incorrect because swimming is a sport that involves swimming.

The correct answer is (d) Tunisia.

Najla Bouden Romdhane was nominated as the first female Prime Minister of Tunisia on 29 September 2021. She is a geophysicist and engineer who has held a number of government positions, including Minister of Higher Education and Scientific Research. She is a member of the Ennahda Movement, a moderate Islamist party.

Nigeria has had two female heads of state, both of whom were presidents: Olusegun Obasanjo (1999-2007) and Goodluck Jonathan (2010-2015).

New Zealand has had one female head of state, Queen Elizabeth II, who has been the Queen of New Zealand since 1952.

Finland has had one female head of government, Anneli Jäätteenmäki, who served as Prime Minister from 2003 to 2004.

The correct answer is: B. Distribution of Income among factors of production

In economics, distribution refers to the way in which income is divided among the factors of production: land, labor, and capital. The distribution of income is determined by a number of factors, including the productivity of the factors of production, the bargaining power of workers and employers, and government policies.

Option A is incorrect because it refers to the distribution of labor, which is not the same as the distribution of income. The distribution of labor refers to the way in which workers are divided among different occupations and industries.

Option C is incorrect because it refers to the distribution of capital, which is not the same as the distribution of income. The distribution of capital refers to the way in which capital is owned and controlled.

Option D is incorrect because it refers to the distribution of goods, which is not the same as the distribution of income. The distribution of goods refers to the way in which goods are made available to consumers.

The correct answer is: C. Easy entry into and exit from the industry.

Monopolistic competition is a market structure in which there are many sellers of a differentiated product. This means that each seller has a small share of the market, but there are enough sellers that no one seller has a monopoly. The products sold by the different sellers are similar, but not identical. This means that consumers have some choice about which seller to buy from.

Easy entry into and exit from the industry is a characteristic of monopolistic competition. This means that it is relatively easy for new firms to enter the market and for existing firms to exit the market. This is because there are no significant barriers to entry or exit.

A few sellers, a differentiated product, and high barriers to entry are characteristics of an oligopoly. A monopoly is a market structure in which there is only one seller of a good or service.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• A. Few sellers is not a characteristic of monopolistic competition. In monopolistic competition, there are many sellers.
• B. A differentiated product is a characteristic of monopolistic competition. In monopolistic competition, the products sold by the different sellers are similar, but not identical. This means that consumers have some choice about which seller to buy from.
• C. Easy entry into and exit from the industry is a characteristic of monopolistic competition. This means that it is relatively easy for new firms to enter the market and for existing firms to exit the market. This is because there are no significant barriers to entry or exit.
• D. All of the above is not the correct answer. As explained above, option A is not a characteristic of monopolistic competition.

The correct answer is (a) 1952.

The Indian Citizenship Act, 1952 is an Act of the Parliament of India that defines who is a citizen of India. The Act was passed on 26th January 1950, the day India became a republic. The Act replaced the Indian Citizenship Act, 1949, which was passed by the Constituent Assembly of India.

The Act provides for three categories of citizenship:

• Persons who were born in India before the commencement of the Act are citizens of India by birth.
• Persons who are ordinarily resident in India and who have been resident in India for not less than five years immediately preceding the commencement of the Act are citizens of India by naturalization.
• Persons who are not citizens of India by birth or naturalization but who are married to a citizen of India are citizens of India by registration.

The Act also provides for the termination of citizenship in certain cases, such as when a person acquires the citizenship of another country or when a person renounces his or her Indian citizenship.

The Indian Citizenship Act, 1952 is a significant piece of legislation that has had a major impact on the lives of millions of people in India. The Act has been amended several times since it was passed, most recently in 2019.

The following are the options for the question:

(a) 1952: The Indian Citizenship Act was passed in 1952.
(b) 1953: The Indian Citizenship Act was not passed in 1953.
(c) 1954: The Indian Citizenship Act was not passed in 1954.
(d) 1955: The Indian Citizenship Act was not passed in 1955.

The answer is B. Singhbhum.

The other four options are all capital cities of Indian states. Singhbhum is a district in the Indian state of Jharkhand.

Gangtok is the capital of the Indian state of Sikkim.

Hyderabad is the capital of the Indian state of Telangana.

Chennai is the capital of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.

Bhubaneswar is the capital of the Indian state of Odisha.

The 'Jal Dharo Jal Bhoro' scheme was initiated by West Bengal government in 2011, under 100 day NREGA project

The correct answer is D. no article.

The reason is that the word "MBA" is an abbreviation for "Master of Business Administration". It is a specific degree that is awarded by universities. Therefore, it does not need an article.

The other options are incorrect because they are all articles. An article is a word that is used to modify a noun. In this case, the noun is "MBA degree". The articles "a" and "an" are used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound. The article "the" is used before singular nouns that are specific or unique.

In this case, the noun "MBA degree" is singular and begins with a consonant sound. However, it is not a specific or unique degree. Therefore, it does not need an article.

The correct answer is (a).

The perimeter of a circle is $2pi r$, where $r$ is the radius of the circle. The perimeter of a square is $4s$, where $s$ is the side length of the square.

If a circle and a square have the same perimeter, then $2pi r = 4s$. Solving for $r$, we get $r = frac{2s}{pi}$.

The area of a circle is $pi r^2$. The area of a square is $s^2$.

Substituting $r = frac{2s}{pi}$ into the formula for the area of a circle, we get $pi left( frac{2s}{pi} right)^2 = frac{4s^2}{pi}$.

Substituting $r = frac{2s}{pi}$ into the formula for the area of a square, we get $s^2$.

Therefore, the area of the circle is equal to the area of the square.

Option (b) is incorrect because the area of a circle is always less than or equal to the area of a square with the same perimeter. This is because the area of a circle is proportional to the square of its radius, while the area of a square is proportional to the square of its side length. Since the radius of a circle is always less than or equal to the side length of a square with the same perimeter, the area of a circle is always less than or equal to the area of a square with the same perimeter.

Option (c) is incorrect because the area of a square is always greater than or equal to the area of a circle with the same perimeter. This is because the area of a square is proportional to the square of its side length, while the area of a circle is proportional to the square of its radius. Since the side length of a square is always greater than or equal to the radius of a circle with the same perimeter, the area of a square is always greater than or equal to the area of a circle with the same perimeter.

Option (d) is incorrect because the area of a circle is never two times the area of a square with the same perimeter. This is because the area of a circle is proportional to the square of its radius, while the area of a square is proportional to the square of its side length. Since the radius of a circle is always less than or equal to the side length of a square with the same perimeter, the area of a circle is always less than or equal to the area of a square with the same perimeter.

The correct answer is: A. Varanasi

Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD), also known as the Indian Diaspora Day, is a global event held every year to celebrate the contributions of the Indian diaspora to the development of India. The 15th PBD will be held in Varanasi, India from January 21-23, 2019.

Varanasi is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the oldest cities in the world, and is considered to be one of the holiest cities in Hinduism. Varanasi is also a major tourist destination, and is known for its temples, ghats (riverfront steps), and silk sarees.

The PBD is an opportunity for the Indian diaspora to connect with their roots and to celebrate their culture. The event will feature cultural performances, exhibitions, and business forums. It is expected to attract over 50,000 people from around the world.

The following are the other options in the question:

• B. Vadodara is a city in the Indian state of Gujarat. It is the third largest city in Gujarat, after Ahmedabad and Surat. Vadodara is known for its historical monuments, including the Lakshmi Vilas Palace and the Sayaji Baug Palace.
• C. Jaipur is a city in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is the capital of Rajasthan and the second most populous city in the state, after Jodhpur. Jaipur is known for its pink sandstone buildings, including the Hawa Mahal (Palace of the Winds) and the City Palace.
• D. Pune is a city in the Indian state of Maharashtra. It is the third most populous city in Maharashtra, after Mumbai and Nagpur. Pune is known for its educational institutions, including the University of Pune and the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay.

The correct answer is (c) Badri Datt Pande.

Badri Datt Pande was a historian and writer from Kumaon, India. He is best known for his book ‘Kumaun Ka Itihas’, which is a comprehensive history of the Kumaon region. The book was published in 1938 and is considered to be a classic work of Kumaoni literature.

Govind Ballabh Pant was a freedom fighter, politician, and the first Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. He was not the author of ‘Kumaun Ka Itihas’.

N.D. Tiwari was a politician who served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and the Governor of Andhra Pradesh. He was not the author of ‘Kumaun Ka Itihas’.

Ilachandra Joshi was a writer and politician who served as the Chief Minister of Uttarakhand. He was not the author of ‘Kumaun Ka Itihas’.

The correct answer is D. Gram.

Gram is a legume, which means that it has the ability to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere. This process is done by bacteria that live in nodules on the roots of legumes. The bacteria convert nitrogen gas into ammonia, which the plant can then use to make proteins and other compounds.

Wheat, mustard, and sunflower are not legumes. They do not have the ability to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere. Therefore, they would not be as effective at enriching soil with nitrogen as gram.

In addition to fixing nitrogen, gram is also a good source of protein and other nutrients. It is a staple food in many parts of the world.

The correct answer is (a) Manipur.

The 17th Senior National Women's Football Championship was held in March 2009 in Imphal, Manipur. The tournament was won by Manipur, who defeated West Bengal in the final.

Manipur is a state in north-eastern India. It is known for its rich culture and history. Manipur is also home to a number of talented footballers, including some of the best women's footballers in India.

The 17th Senior National Women's Football Championship was a major success for Manipur. It was the first time that the state had won the tournament, and it was a testament to the hard work and dedication of the Manipuri players.

The victory in the 17th Senior National Women's Football Championship was a major boost for Manipuri football. It helped to raise the profile of the sport in the state and inspired a new generation of young footballers.

The following are the brief descriptions of each option:

(b) Nagaland is a state in north-eastern India. It is known for its beautiful scenery and its diverse culture. Nagaland is also home to a number of talented footballers, including some of the best men's footballers in India.

(c) Tamil Nadu is a state in south-eastern India. It is known for its rich culture and history. Tamil Nadu is also home to a number of talented footballers, including some of the best women's footballers in India.

(d) West Bengal is a state in eastern India. It is known for its rich culture and history. West Bengal is also home to a number of talented footballers, including some of the best men's and women's footballers in India.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Pattachitra is a traditional scroll painting from Bengal, India. It is a form of folk art that has been practiced for centuries. Pattachitra paintings are made on cloth or paper with natural pigments. The paintings depict scenes from Hindu mythology, rural life, and historical events.

Pattachitra paintings are often used in religious ceremonies and festivals. They are also used as decorative items in homes and temples. Pattachitra paintings are a valuable part of the cultural heritage of Bengal.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* Option A: Scenes from Hindu mythology. Pattachitra paintings often depict scenes from Hindu mythology, such as the stories of Ramayana and Mahabharata. These paintings are used in religious ceremonies and festivals.
* Option B: Rural life. Pattachitra paintings also depict scenes from rural life, such as farmers working in the fields or women carrying water from the well. These paintings provide a glimpse into the everyday lives of people in Bengal.
* Option C: Historical events. Pattachitra paintings also depict historical events, such as the Battle of Plassey or the Sepoy Mutiny. These paintings are important historical documents that help us to understand the past.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Burdwan, Nadia, and Cooch Behar were all prominent feudatory states in Bengal.

Burdwan was a Muslim state that was founded in the 15th century. It was ruled by the Burdwan Nawabs until it was annexed by the British East India Company in 1757.

Nadia was a Hindu state that was founded in the 16th century. It was ruled by the Nadia Rajas until it was annexed by the British East India Company in 1770.

Cooch Behar was a Hindu state that was founded in the 15th century. It was ruled by the Cooch Behar Rajas until it was annexed by the British East India Company in 1838.

All three states were important centers of trade and commerce. They were also home to a number of important cultural and religious sites.

Henri Becquerel discovered natural radioactivity in 1896. He was studying the fluorescence of uranium salts when he noticed that they emitted a type of radiation that could pass through paper and even blackened photographic plates. This radiation was later found to be caused by the decay of uranium atoms.

Marie Curie and her husband Pierre Curie were the first to isolate the elements radium and polonium, which are both radioactive. They also studied the properties of radioactivity and its effects on living things.

Ernest Rutherford was a physicist who studied the nature of radioactivity. He discovered that alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays are all types of radiation that are emitted by radioactive elements. He also developed the theory of alpha decay, which explains how radioactive elements decay.

Enrico Fermi was an Italian physicist who made many important contributions to the field of nuclear physics. He was the first to produce a controlled nuclear chain reaction, which is the basis for nuclear power plants. He also developed the theory of beta decay, which explains how radioactive elements decay.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Natural radioactivity was discovered by" is C. Henri Becquerel.

The correct answer is (b). Simon de Beauvoir was a French existentialist philosopher, writer, and social theorist. She is best known for her 1949 book The Second Sex, a detailed analysis of women's oppression and a foundational text of contemporary feminism.

Julia Kristeva is a Bulgarian-French philosopher, psychoanalyst, semiotician, and feminist. She is known for her work on linguistics, psychoanalysis, and feminism.

Christèle Delphy is a French sociologist and feminist. She is known for her work on housework, domestic labor, and the family.

Sylvie le Bon de Beauvoir is a French writer and journalist. She is the daughter of Simone de Beauvoir and Jean-Paul Sartre.

The Second Sex is a 1949 book by French existentialist philosopher Simone de Beauvoir. It is a detailed analysis of women's oppression and a foundational text of contemporary feminism. The book argues that women have been historically and systematically oppressed by men, and that this oppression is not natural but is a result of social and cultural factors. The Second Sex has been highly influential in the development of feminist theory and practice.

The correct answer is (c).

In the case of Shankari Prasad v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that, "where the witness became confused in the course of his examination, the court could put questions to him to elicit the truth." This is because the court has a duty to ensure that the truth is brought out in court proceedings. If a witness is confused, the court can help to clarify the witness's testimony by asking questions.

The other options are incorrect. In the case of State of Rajasthan v. Eni, the Supreme Court held that the court could not put questions to a witness who was not competent to testify. In the case of D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that the court could not put questions to a witness who was hostile to the prosecution. In the case of Lila Dhar v. State of Rajasthan, the Supreme Court held that the court could not put questions to a witness who was not a party to the case.

The best way to tackle local environmental problems is to provide environmental education to the local people and create awareness. This is because people are more likely to take action to protect the environment if they understand the problems and know what they can do to help. Environmental education can be provided through schools, community groups, and other organizations. It can also be done through public awareness campaigns, such as television and radio ads, and through social media.

Option A is not the best way to tackle local environmental problems because the local administrative machinery may not have the resources or expertise to address these problems. Option B is not the best way to tackle local environmental problems because environmental laws are often not enforced strictly enough. Option C is not the best way to tackle local environmental problems because the local public may not be aware of the problems or know what they can do to help.

Therefore, the best way to tackle local environmental problems is to provide environmental education to the local people and create awareness.

The correct answer is (b), The President of India.

Parliamentary privileges are immunities and powers enjoyed by members of parliaments and legislative bodies. They are designed to protect members from being harassed or intimidated while carrying out their duties.

The President of India is not a member of Parliament and does not enjoy parliamentary privileges. However, the President does enjoy certain immunities and privileges under the Constitution of India. For example, the President cannot be sued in any court of law.

The Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy a number of parliamentary privileges, including freedom of speech, freedom from arrest, and immunity from civil and criminal proceedings. These privileges are designed to protect MPs from being harassed or intimidated while carrying out their duties.

The Cabinet Ministers of India are also members of Parliament and enjoy the same parliamentary privileges as MPs. However, they also enjoy certain additional privileges, such as the right to speak in Parliament without prior notice and the right to vote in Parliament even if they are not present in the House.

The Attorney General of India is not a member of Parliament and does not enjoy parliamentary privileges. However, the Attorney General does enjoy certain immunities and privileges under the law. For example, the Attorney General cannot be sued in any court of law without the permission of the President.

The correct answer is C) Lord Cornwallis.

The Dual System of Government in Bengal was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. Under this system, the British East India Company took control of the revenue collection and judicial administration of Bengal, while the Nawab of Bengal retained control of the police and military. The Dual System was introduced in an attempt to improve the efficiency of the administration of Bengal and to prevent corruption. However, it was not successful in achieving these objectives, and it was abolished in 1853.

Robert Clive was a British soldier and statesman who was instrumental in the establishment of British rule in India. He was the first Governor of Bengal from 1757 to 1760. Warren Hastings was the second Governor of Bengal from 1772 to 1785. He is best known for his role in the impeachment trial of Warren Hastings. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. He is best known for his policy of annexation, which led to the annexation of several Indian states, including the Punjab and Awadh.

The correct answer is: D) Bronze metallurgy.

Pandu Rajar Dhibi is an archaeological site in the Birbhum district of West Bengal, India. It is dated to the Chalcolithic period (3000-1500 BCE). The site has yielded evidence of copper and bronze metallurgy, as well as terracotta figurines, beads, and other artifacts.

Copper metallurgy is the process of extracting copper from its ores and then shaping it into objects. Copper is a relatively soft metal, so it is often alloyed with other metals, such as tin, to create bronze. Bronze is a stronger and more durable metal than copper, and it was widely used in the Bronze Age (3300-1200 BCE).

The discovery of copper and bronze metallurgy at Pandu Rajar Dhibi suggests that the people who lived there had a sophisticated understanding of metallurgy. This is significant because it shows that the people of this region were not isolated from the rest of the world, but were part of a larger network of trade and exchange.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the evidence found at Pandu Rajar Dhibi. Option A, copper metallurgy, is correct, but it is not the only type of metallurgy that was practiced at the site. Option B, iron metallurgy, is not attested at Pandu Rajar Dhibi. Option C, gold metallurgy, is attested at the site, but it was not as widespread as copper and bronze metallurgy.

Sobujshree Scheme was launched on 19th December, 2016 by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee. This scheme is run by the Forest Department of the Government of West Bengal.

The correct answer is A. Refractive index is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a given medium. It is a dimensionless quantity that is always greater than or equal to 1. The refractive index of a medium depends on the wavelength of light and the temperature of the medium.

Option B is incorrect because the refractive index is not the product of the speed of light in the medium and in vacuum.

Option C is incorrect because the refractive index is not the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.

Option D is incorrect because none of the above options are correct.

The correct answer is: C. Statement I is true while Statement II is false.

Statement I is true. The least-cost or optimal input combination of labour capital requires that the marginal revenue productivity ratio of the two inputs should be equal to their price ration. This is known as the marginal productivity theory of factor demand. It states that a firm will hire workers up to the point where the marginal revenue product of labor equals the wage rate. Similarly, a firm will rent capital up to the point where the marginal revenue product of capital equals the rental rate.

Statement II is false. The marginal physical productivity of labor is not equal to $L^2 + 15L + 10$ in the hypothetical production function $Q = L^3 + 15L^2 + 10$. The marginal physical productivity of labor is the change in output that results from a one-unit change in labor input, holding all other inputs constant. In this case, the marginal physical productivity of labor is $3L^2 + 15L$.

To see this, let's consider the following table:

| Labor input (L)| Output (Q)| Marginal physical productivity of labor (MP) |
|---|---|---|
| 0 | 0 | 0 |
| 1 | 10 | 10 |
| 2 | 35 | 25 |
| 3 | 70 | 35 |
| 4 | 115 | 45 |
| 5 | 165 | 50 |

As you can see, the marginal physical productivity of labor is increasing at first, but then it starts to decrease. This is because as we add more and more labor, each additional worker produces less and less output. This is because the workers start to get in each other's way and there are diminishing returns to labor.

In conclusion, Statement I is true while Statement II is false.