WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-4

The correct answer is C. Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Ustad Ali Akbar Khan was a world-renowned sarod maestro who belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music. He was born in 1922 in Maihar, India, and began learning the sarod at the age of four from his father, Allauddin Khan. He went on to become one of the most influential sarod players of all time, and his music was known for its virtuosity, technical mastery, and emotional depth. He also founded the Ali Akbar College of Music in San Rafael, California, in 1967, which has trained generations of musicians from around the world.

Ustad Ali Akbar Khan died in 2009 at the age of 87. He was a true legend of Indian classical music, and his legacy will continue to inspire musicians for generations to come.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: He was a Sarod Maestro.

This statement is correct. Ustad Ali Akbar Khan was a world-renowned sarod maestro. He was born in 1922 in Maihar, India, and began learning the sarod at the age of four from his father, Allauddin Khan. He went on to become one of the most influential sarod players of all time, and his music was known for its virtuosity, technical mastery, and emotional depth.

• Option B: He belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical hindustani music.

This statement is also correct. Ustad Ali Akbar Khan belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music. The Maihar Gharana is one of the most important gharanas (schools) of Hindustani classical music. It was founded by Baba Allauddin Khan, who was Ustad Ali Akbar Khan's father. The Maihar Gharana is known for its emphasis on the sarod, as well as its use of complex rhythmic patterns and melodic improvisation.

• Option C: Both 1 and 2 are correct.

This is the correct answer. Both statements about Ustad Ali Akbar Khan are correct. He was a Sarod Maestro, and he belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music.

Gorumara National Park is located on the bank of river Murti and is situated in the Duars region (rolling hill slopes) of Jalpaiguri district in West Bengal.

The correct answer is C. Zero.

Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or benefit that a consumer gains from consuming one more unit of a good or service. At a point of satiety, the consumer has consumed so much of the good or service that they no longer derive any additional satisfaction from consuming more. In other words, the marginal utility of the good or service is zero.

Option A is incorrect because marginal utility cannot be negative. This is because consumers will always choose to consume goods and services that provide them with positive utility.

Option B is incorrect because marginal utility can be positive at points before satiety. This is because consumers will always choose to consume more of a good or service as long as the marginal utility is positive.

Option D is incorrect because marginal utility cannot be highly positive at points of satiety. This is because the marginal utility of a good or service will always decline as the consumer consumes more of it.

The correct answer is: A) Bengali literature.

The Bankim Puraskar is a literary award given annually by the West Bengal government to the best work of Bengali literature published in the previous year. It was instituted in 1972 in honor of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, one of the most important figures in Bengali literature. The award consists of a cash prize of ₹1 lakh, a plaque, and a citation.

The Bankim Puraskar is considered to be one of the most prestigious literary awards in India. It has been awarded to some of the most well-known and respected writers in Bengali literature, including Sunil Gangopadhyay, Buddhadeb Bose, and Mahasweta Devi.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Hindi literature is not one of the categories for which the Bankim Puraskar is awarded.
* English literature is not one of the categories for which the Bankim Puraskar is awarded.
* Urdu literature is not one of the categories for which the Bankim Puraskar is awarded.

The correct answer is D. Bernoulli's theorem.

Bernoulli's theorem states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy. In the case of a spinning cricket ball, the air pressure on the side of the ball that is spinning towards the ground is lower than the air pressure on the side of the ball that is spinning away from the ground. This difference in air pressure creates a force that causes the ball to curve in the air.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A is incorrect because the swing of a cricket ball is not caused by a sudden change in wind direction.
• Option B is incorrect because the buoyancy of air is not a significant factor in the swing of a cricket ball.
• Option C is incorrect because turbulence caused by wind is not a significant factor in the swing of a cricket ball.

The correct answer is: C. Nuclear fusion

Nuclear fusion is the process that powers the sun and other stars. It is a nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei come close enough to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles (neutrons or protons). The difference in mass between the reactants and products is manifested as the release of large amounts of energy.

Photoelectric emission is the emission of electrons from a metal surface when light is shone on it. The electrons are emitted because the light has enough energy to knock them out of the metal.

Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a large atomic nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei. This process releases a large amount of energy.

Thermionic emission is the emission of electrons from a hot surface. The electrons are emitted because they have enough energy to overcome the attraction of the positive charges in the metal.

In conclusion, the source of the Sun's energy is the process of nuclear fusion.

The correct answer is C) Mangrove swamps.

Mangrove swamps are a type of wetland ecosystem found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world. They are characterized by their dense growth of mangrove trees, which are adapted to survive in the salty, muddy water of the intertidal zone. Mangrove swamps play an important role in the coastal environment, providing habitat for a variety of marine and terrestrial animals, protecting the coast from erosion, and filtering and cleaning the water.

Evergreen forests are forests that have trees that keep their leaves all year round. They are found in warm, moist climates around the world. Deciduous trees are trees that lose their leaves in the fall and grow new leaves in the spring. They are found in temperate climates. Grasslands are areas of land that are covered in grasses. They are found in a variety of climates, including tropical, temperate, and arid climates.

The vegetation of the coastal parts of West Bengal is characterized by mangrove swamps. Mangrove swamps are a type of wetland ecosystem found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world. They are characterized by their dense growth of mangrove trees, which are adapted to survive in the salty, muddy water of the intertidal zone. Mangrove swamps play an important role in the coastal environment, providing habitat for a variety of marine and terrestrial animals, protecting the coast from erosion, and filtering and cleaning the water.

The correct answer is (b), Gond and Korku.

Gond and Korku are two of the largest tribal groups in India. They are both indigenous peoples of central India, and they have a long history of living in harmony with the natural world. Every year, they celebrate a month-long ecological important campaign festival called Van Mahotsav, during which they plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. This festival is an important part of their culture, and it helps to protect the environment and promote sustainable development.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to tribal groups that celebrate Van Mahotsav. Bhutia and Lepeha are two ethnic groups from the Himalayas, Irula and Toda are two tribal groups from the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu, and Sahariya and Agariya are two tribal groups from the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is A. Vienna.

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and to inhibit its use for military purposes. It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization under the United Nations. The IAEA's headquarters is located in Vienna, Austria.

The IAEA has a membership of 193 countries. Its activities are carried out through a number of departments and offices, including the Department of Nuclear Energy, the Department of Safeguards, and the Department of Technical Cooperation. The IAEA also has a number of specialized laboratories, including the Seibersdorf Laboratories in Austria and the Laboratory for Safeguards Analytical Services in Monaco.

The IAEA's work is funded by contributions from its member states. The Agency's budget for 2022 is $3.8 billion.

The IAEA has played a significant role in the development of nuclear energy. It has helped to establish safety standards for nuclear power plants and to promote the use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes. The IAEA has also played a role in the verification of nuclear disarmament agreements.

The IAEA has been criticized for its lack of transparency and for its failure to adequately address the issue of nuclear proliferation. However, the IAEA remains an important organization in the field of nuclear energy.

The other options are incorrect.

Option B, London, is the location of the headquarters of the International Maritime Organization.

Option C, Geneva, is the location of the headquarters of the United Nations Office at Geneva.

Option D, Washington, is the location of the headquarters of the United States Department of Energy.

The correct answer is (a) 38.87.

The female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh in 2001 was 38.87%, which was lower than the national average of 54.16%. The literacy rate for males in Uttar Pradesh was 64.12%, which was higher than the national average of 75.85%. The gender gap in literacy in Uttar Pradesh was 25.25%, which was higher than the national average of 21.69%.

The low female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh is due to a number of factors, including poverty, lack of access to education, and social and cultural norms that discourage girls from attending school. The government of Uttar Pradesh has taken a number of initiatives to improve female literacy, including providing free education to girls, building more schools in rural areas, and launching awareness campaigns about the importance of education for girls.

The following are the brief descriptions of each option:

(a) 38.87: This is the correct answer. The female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh in 2001 was 38.87%.
(b) 43.53: This is the female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh in 2011.
(c) 33.12: This is the female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh in 1991.
(d) 42.22: This is the female literacy rate in India in 2001.

The correct answer is: D. U.S. Open

The U.S. Open had the highest total prize money (in terms of US Dollars) in the year 2014. The total prize money for the 2014 U.S. Open was $42.3 million, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year. The men's and women's singles champions each received $3.6 million, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year.

The Australian Open had a total prize money of $33.2 million in 2014, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year. The men's and women's singles champions each received $2.8 million, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year.

The French Open had a total prize money of $28.6 million in 2014, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year. The men's and women's singles champions each received $2.2 million, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year.

Wimbledon had a total prize money of £28.7 million in 2014, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year. The men's and women's singles champions each received £1.7 million, which was an increase of 10% from the previous year.

The U.S. Open has had the highest total prize money of the four Grand Slam tournaments since 2007. The increase in prize money at the U.S. Open has been due to a number of factors, including the increasing popularity of tennis in the United States, the increasing value of the U.S. dollar, and the increasing number of corporate sponsors.

The correct answer is A. Debt.

A liability is an amount that a company owes to another party. It can be in the form of a loan, a bond, or an account payable. Liabilities are recorded on a company's balance sheet as a negative number.

Debt is a specific type of liability that is incurred when a company borrows money from a lender. The lender will typically charge interest on the loan, which means that the company will have to pay back more than the original amount borrowed.

Debit is a term used in accounting to describe an entry on a company's ledger that increases assets or decreases liabilities. A debit is recorded on the left side of a ledger account.

An asset is a resource that a company owns and that has economic value. Assets are recorded on a company's balance sheet as a positive number.

Credit is a term used in accounting to describe an entry on a company's ledger that increases liabilities or decreases assets. A credit is recorded on the right side of a ledger account.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Synonym of LIABILITY" is A. Debt.

The correct answer is: B. inventor : imaginative

A professor is a person who teaches at a university or college. They are typically experts in a particular subject and are expected to be knowledgeable and well-educated. The word "erudite" means "having or showing great knowledge or learning."

An inventor is a person who creates or develops something new. They are typically creative and have a good imagination. The word "imaginative" means "having or showing a lot of imagination."

The relationship between "professor" and "erudite" is similar to the relationship between "inventor" and "imaginative." Both professors and inventors are expected to be knowledgeable and well-educated. Additionally, both professors and inventors are typically creative and have a good imagination.

The other options do not have the same relationship as "professor" and "erudite."

• An aviator is a person who flies an aircraft. They are typically licensed by the government to fly aircraft. The word "licensed" means "having permission to do something."
• A procrastinator is a person who puts off doing things until the last minute. They are typically not conscientious, which means "careful and thorough."
• An overseer is a person who is in charge of a group of people or a project. They are typically wealthy, which means "having a lot of money."
• A moderator is a person who controls a discussion or debate. They are typically not vicious, which means "cruel or violent."

The correct answer is (c). The Maneri-Bhali Hydropower project is a run-of-the-river scheme located on the Alaknanda River in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India. The project has an installed capacity of 300 MW and was commissioned in 1991.

The Eastern Ramganga is a tributary of the Yamuna River. The Bhagirathi is a tributary of the Alaknanda River. The Western Dhauli is a tributary of the Alaknanda River.

The Maneri-Bhali Hydropower project is a major source of hydroelectric power for the state of Uttarakhand. The project has also had a significant impact on the environment, including the displacement of local communities and the alteration of the river's flow.

The answer is C. Wind.

Walk and run are both types of movement, while breeze and wind are both types of air movement. Walk is a slower and more deliberate form of movement, while run is a faster and more forceful form of movement. Breeze is a gentle and light form of wind, while wind is a stronger and more forceful form of air movement.

Option A is incorrect because cold is not a type of air movement. Option B is incorrect because dust is not a type of air movement. Option D is incorrect because air is a general term for the mixture of gases that surrounds the Earth, while breeze and wind are specific types of air movement.

The correct answer is C. 4123.

The word "came" is in the past tense, so it must come before the words "me" and "Seema". The word "me" is in the first person, so it must come before the word "Seema". Therefore, the correct order is 4123.

Option A, 1423, is incorrect because the word "came" comes after the words "me" and "Seema".

Option B, 4213, is incorrect because the word "me" comes after the word "Seema".

Option D, 4321, is incorrect because the word "Seema" comes before the word "me".

The correct answer is: All of the above.

The state government is promoting all of these sectors to boost economic growth.

Agriculture is the backbone of the Indian economy, and it is a major source of employment for the country's rural population. The government is promoting agriculture by providing subsidies to farmers, improving irrigation facilities, and promoting the use of modern agricultural technologies.

Manufacturing is another important sector of the Indian economy. The government is promoting manufacturing by providing tax breaks to companies, setting up special economic zones, and improving infrastructure.

Information technology (IT) is a rapidly growing sector of the Indian economy. The government is promoting IT by providing incentives to companies, setting up IT parks, and improving the telecom infrastructure.

By promoting all of these sectors, the state government is trying to boost economic growth and create jobs for the people of the state.

The correct answer is: A. Power to satisfy a want.

Utility is the ability of something to satisfy a want or need. It is a measure of how useful or valuable something is. In economics, utility is often used to measure the satisfaction that people get from consuming goods and services.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Usefulness is not the same as utility. Usefulness is a general term that refers to the ability of something to be used for a particular purpose. Utility, on the other hand, is a more specific term that refers to the ability of something to satisfy a want or need.
• Willingness is not the same as utility. Willingness is a measure of how much someone is willing to pay for something. Utility, on the other hand, is a measure of how much satisfaction someone gets from consuming something.
• Harmfulness is not the same as utility. Harmfulness is a measure of how much damage something can do. Utility, on the other hand, is a measure of how much satisfaction something can provide.

The correct answer is: A. limestone and clay.

Cement is a binding agent that is used to hold together other materials, such as concrete, mortar, and plaster. It is made by strongly heating a mixture of limestone and clay. The heat causes the limestone to decompose into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide. The clay also decomposes, forming silica, alumina, and iron oxide. These materials then react with each other to form cement clinker. The clinker is ground into a powder and mixed with water to form cement.

Limestone is a sedimentary rock that is composed of calcium carbonate. It is the most common type of rock in the world. Clay is a fine-grained sedimentary rock that is composed of clay minerals. Clay minerals are hydrous aluminum silicates. They are the main component of soils and are used in a variety of industrial applications.

The other options are incorrect because they do not contain limestone. Chalk is a type of limestone that is composed of calcium carbonate. Graphite is a form of carbon.

The correct answer is D. Local Government.

Democratic decentralization is the transfer of power from the central government to local governments. It is a way of giving people more control over their own lives and communities. Local governments can be more responsive to the needs of their citizens than the central government, and they can be more efficient in delivering services.

A union government is a government in which power is shared between the central government and regional governments. A parliamentary government is a government in which the executive branch is drawn from the legislature. A democratic government is a government in which the people have the power to choose their leaders.

Here are some of the benefits of democratic decentralization:

• It can lead to better governance. Local governments are often more responsive to the needs of their citizens than the central government. They can also be more efficient in delivering services.
• It can promote economic development. Local governments can attract investment and create jobs. They can also help to improve the quality of life in their communities.
• It can strengthen democracy. Democratic decentralization can help to build trust between citizens and their government. It can also help to promote participation in the political process.

However, there are also some challenges associated with democratic decentralization:

• It can be difficult to coordinate the activities of different local governments.
• It can be difficult to ensure that local governments are accountable to their citizens.
• It can be difficult to ensure that local governments are financially sustainable.

Despite these challenges, democratic decentralization is a promising approach to improving governance and promoting economic development.

The correct answer is: D. a long way off.

The phrase "a long way off" means that something is not going to happen soon or is very unlikely to happen. In the context of the question, it means that world peace is not going to happen anytime soon, despite the efforts of all peace-loving people.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the meaning of the phrase "a long way off." Option A, "an impracticable idea," means that something is not possible or feasible. Option B, "an abstract idea," means that something is theoretical or not based in reality. Option C, "out of reach," means that something is very difficult or impossible to achieve.

It is important to note that the phrase "a long way off" is subjective. What one person considers to be a long way off may not be considered to be a long way off by another person. Additionally, the phrase "a long way off" can be used in a variety of contexts, and its meaning can vary depending on the context.

The correct answer is: C. absolute extremes.

Absolute extremes are the highest and lowest values of a weather element observed over the entire period of record. They are also known as record highs and record lows. Absolute extremes can be used to track changes in climate over time. For example, if the average temperature in a city has been increasing over the past few decades, we might expect the absolute high temperature to also increase.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. extremes: This is a very broad term that could refer to any extreme weather event, such as a hurricane or a tornado. It is not specific to the highest and lowest values of a weather element.
• B. average extremes: This term is not commonly used in meteorology. It could be interpreted to mean the average of the highest and lowest values of a weather element, but this is not a standard way of calculating extremes.
• D. relative extremes: This term is also not commonly used in meteorology. It could be interpreted to mean the highest and lowest values of a weather element relative to some other value, such as the average value. However, this is not a standard way of calculating extremes.

The answer is C. Needle.

A screw is a thin, cylindrical piece of metal with a spiral groove on its outside that is used to fasten two or more pieces of material together. A hammer is a tool used to drive nails or other objects into wood or other materials. A pin is a small, thin piece of metal or wood with a pointed end, used for fastening or attaching things together. A nail is a thin, pointed piece of metal with a head, used for fastening things together.

A needle is a thin, sharp piece of metal with a pointed end, used for sewing or piercing things. It is different from the other options because it is the only one that is not used to fasten things together.

The correct answer is B. Crustaceans.

Crustaceans are a class of arthropods that includes lobsters, crabs, shrimp, crayfish, barnacles, and woodlice. They are characterized by a hard exoskeleton, a segmented body, and two pairs of antennae.

Arachnids are a class of arthropods that includes spiders, scorpions, mites, and ticks. They are characterized by a soft exoskeleton, eight legs, and two pairs of pedipalps.

Insects are a class of arthropods that includes flies, beetles, butterflies, moths, bees, wasps, ants, and grasshoppers. They are characterized by a three-part body, six legs, and one pair of antennae.

Myriopods are a class of arthropods that includes centipedes and millipedes. They are characterized by a long, segmented body with many pairs of legs.

The correct answer is (d).

The day of the week repeats itself every 7 days. Therefore, if July 15 of the year 2012 was Sunday, then July 15 of the year 2008 was also Sunday.

Option (a) is incorrect because Monday is 1 day after Sunday.

Option (b) is incorrect because Tuesday is 2 days after Sunday.

Option (c) is incorrect because Friday is 4 days after Sunday.

The correct answer is D. Lysosomes.

Lysosomes are small, membrane-bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes can break down a variety of substances, including foreign objects that have entered the cell. Lysosomes are essential for the cell's ability to protect itself from infection and to recycle nutrients.

RBCs, or red blood cells, are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Platelets are involved in blood clotting. Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

While all of these organelles are important for the cell's function, only lysosomes are capable of digesting foreign objects.

The correct answer is: C. Net national product = total national product - Depreciation.

Net national product (NNP) is the total market value of all final goods and services produced by a country's economy in a given year, minus depreciation. It is calculated by taking the gross national product (GNP) and subtracting depreciation. Depreciation is the decrease in the value of capital goods over time due to wear and tear.

Option A is incorrect because it includes indirect taxes. Indirect taxes are taxes that are levied on goods and services, and are not directly paid by the person who ultimately bears the burden of the tax. For example, a sales tax is an indirect tax, because the seller of the goods pays the tax to the government, but the buyer of the goods ultimately bears the burden of the tax.

Option B is incorrect because it subtracts indirect taxes twice. Indirect taxes are already included in the GNP, so they should not be subtracted again when calculating NNP.

Option D is incorrect because it does not include depreciation. Depreciation is a necessary adjustment to the GNP to account for the fact that capital goods wear down over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Net national product = total national product - Depreciation.

The correct answer is B. bear.

A marathon is a long-distance running race with a distance of 42.195 kilometers (26 miles and 385 yards). Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which some animals pass the winter. Bears hibernate during the winter months, when food is scarce. They sleep deeply and their body temperature drops.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Winter is a season of the year, not a state of inactivity.
• Dream is a state of consciousness that occurs during sleep.
• Sleep is a natural state of rest in which the body and mind are inactive.

The correct answer is A) Birbhum.

Shantiniketan is a university town in Birbhum district of West Bengal, India. It was founded in 1901 by Rabindranath Tagore, who is also known as Gurudev. Shantiniketan is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Birbhum is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located in the south-western part of the state. The district has an area of 2,700 square kilometers. The headquarters of the district is at Suri.

The district is famous for its culture and heritage. It is home to many temples, palaces, and other historical sites. The district is also known for its handicrafts and handlooms.

The district is divided into 16 blocks and 2 municipalities. The blocks are:

* Bolpur
* Dubrajpur
* Ilambazar
* Jamuria
* Kaliaganj
* Khandaghosh
* Kotulpur
* Labhpur
* Maldaha
* Murshidabad
* Nalhati
* Rampurhat
* Sainthia
* Suri

The municipalities are:

* Bolpur
* Suri

The district is well-connected by road and rail. The nearest airport is at Kolkata.

The climate of the district is tropical. The summers are hot and humid, while the winters are cool and dry. The annual rainfall is about 1,200 mm.

The main crops of the district are rice, jute, and wheat. The district is also known for its mangoes and jackfruits.

The main industries of the district are agriculture, textiles, and handicrafts. The district is also home to a number of power plants.

The district is home to a number of educational institutions, including the Visva-Bharati University, which was founded by Rabindranath Tagore. The district is also home to a number of hospitals and medical colleges.

The district is home to a number of tourist attractions, including the Shantiniketan, the Dakshineswar Kali Temple, and the Birbhum Museum.

The correct answer is: C. Henry Bacquerel.

Henry Becquerel was a French physicist who discovered natural radioactivity in 1896. He was studying the phosphorescence of uranium salts when he noticed that they emitted a type of radiation that could pass through paper and even blackened photographic plates. This discovery led to the study of radioactivity and the development of nuclear physics.

Marie Curie was a Polish and naturalized-French physicist and chemist who conducted pioneering research on radioactivity. She was the first woman to win a Nobel Prize, the first person and only woman to win the Nobel Prize twice, and the only person to win the Nobel Prize in two different scientific fields. She was born Maria Salomea Skłodowska in Warsaw, in what was then the Kingdom of Poland, part of the Russian Empire. She studied at Warsaw's clandestine Floating University and began her practical scientific training in Warsaw. In 1891, aged 24, she followed her older sister Bronisława to study in Paris, where she earned her higher degrees and conducted her subsequent scientific work. She shared the 1903 Nobel Prize in Physics with her husband Pierre Curie and physicist Henri Becquerel. She won the 1911 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.

Ernest Rutherford, 1st Baron Rutherford of Nelson, OM, FRS was a New Zealand physicist who played a leading role in the development of nuclear physics. He was born in Nelson, New Zealand, and educated at Canterbury College, Christchurch, and the Cavendish Laboratory in Cambridge, England. He is best known for his work on radioactivity, which he discovered in 1896. He also discovered the proton and the neutron, and developed the theory of alpha decay.

Enrico Fermi was an Italian and naturalized-American physicist who developed the theory of beta decay, and the nuclear chain reaction, for which he won the 1938 Nobel Prize in Physics. He also played a major role in the Manhattan Project, the Allied effort to develop a functional atomic weapon during World War II.

The correct answer is: D. 1924 at Paris.

Field hockey was introduced for women in the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris, France. The first women's field hockey tournament was held at the 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium, but it was only a demonstration sport. The first official women's field hockey tournament was held at the 1924 Summer Olympics in Paris, France. The tournament was won by the Netherlands, who defeated Great Britain in the final.

The following are the options for the question:

• A. 1908 at London. This is incorrect because field hockey was not introduced for women in the Olympics until 1924.
• B. 1980 at Moscow. This is incorrect because field hockey was not introduced for women in the Olympics until 1924.
• C. 1936 at Berlin. This is incorrect because field hockey was not introduced for women in the Olympics until 1924.
• D. 1924 at Paris. This is the correct answer because field hockey was introduced for women in the Olympics in 1924.

The correct answer is (a) Eravikulam National Park.

Eravikulam National Park is a national park in the Indian state of Kerala. It is located in the Idukki district, and is part of the Western Ghats mountain range. The park is home to a variety of wildlife, including the Nilgiri tahr, a type of wild goat that is found only in the Nilgiri Hills. The park is also home to a variety of plants, including many species of orchids.

Mann Van is a forest reserve in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is located in the Coimbatore district, and is part of the Western Ghats mountain range. The reserve is home to a variety of wildlife, including the Nilgiri tahr, a type of wild goat that is found only in the Nilgiri Hills. The reserve is also home to a variety of plants, including many species of orchids.

PedyV Reserve is a wildlife sanctuary in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is located in the Kurnool district, and is part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range. The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife, including the Nilgiri tahr, a type of wild goat that is found only in the Nilgiri Hills. The sanctuary is also home to a variety of plants, including many species of orchids.

Silent Valley is a national park in the Indian state of Kerala. It is located in the Palakkad district, and is part of the Western Ghats mountain range. The park is home to a variety of wildlife, including the Nilgiri tahr, a type of wild goat that is found only in the Nilgiri Hills. The park is also home to a variety of plants, including many species of orchids.

However, the Nilgiri tahr is not found in any of these places. The Nilgiri tahr is found only in Eravikulam National Park.

The correct answer is: C. Gabriel's demand curve for each activity.

Gabriel's demand curve for each activity is the relationship between the price of each activity and the quantity of each activity that he demands. It can be derived by changing the price of each activity holding his income constant. When the price of one activity decreases, Gabriel will demand more of that activity and less of the other activity. This is because he can now afford to buy more of the activity that has become cheaper.

A supply curve is a graph that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity of that good that producers are willing and able to supply. It is derived by holding the costs of production constant and changing the price of the good.

A net gain is the difference between the total benefits and the total costs of an activity. It can be calculated by adding up the benefits of the activity and subtracting the costs of the activity.

A marginal benefit is the additional benefit that a person receives from consuming one more unit of a good or service. It can be calculated by taking the difference between the total benefit of consuming two units of a good and the total benefit of consuming one unit of the good.

The correct answer is (b) Delhi.

The High Court of Delhi is the highest court of the Indian Union Territory of Delhi. It was established on 31 October 1966, and is headquartered in the city of Delhi. The High Court has original jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters, and appellate jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters from the subordinate courts of Delhi. The High Court also has jurisdiction to hear writ petitions under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.

The High Court of Delhi is composed of a Chief Justice and a number of other judges. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President of India, on the advice of the Chief Justice of India. The other judges are appointed by the President of India, on the advice of the Chief Justice of India and the Union Government.

The High Court of Delhi is a court of record, and its decisions are binding on all subordinate courts in Delhi. The High Court also has the power to make rules and regulations for the conduct of its business.

The High Court of Delhi is a very important institution in the Indian judicial system. It plays a vital role in the administration of justice in Delhi.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Chandigarh is a Union Territory that is jointly administered by the Government of India and the Government of Punjab. The High Court of Punjab and Haryana has jurisdiction over Chandigarh.
• Puducherry is a Union Territory that is administered by the Government of India. The High Court of Madras has jurisdiction over Puducherry.
• Lakshadweep is a Union Territory that is administered by the Government of India. The High Court of Kerala has jurisdiction over Lakshadweep.

The correct answer is: A. World Rabies Day

World Rabies Day is an annual event observed on April 7 to raise awareness about rabies and its prevention. It was first observed in 2007 by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE).

Rabies is a viral disease that affects the central nervous system of mammals. It is almost always fatal once symptoms appear. The virus is transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, usually a dog.

There is no cure for rabies, but it can be prevented through vaccination. Vaccination is the most effective way to protect yourself and your pets from rabies.

World Rabies Day is an opportunity to learn more about rabies and how to prevent it. You can visit the World Rabies Day website for more information.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• World Tourism Day is celebrated on September 27. It is a day to celebrate the positive economic, social, cultural, and environmental impacts of tourism.
• International Health Day is celebrated on April 7. It is a day to raise awareness about global health issues and to promote healthy lifestyles.
• World Earth Day is celebrated on April 22. It is a day to celebrate the Earth and to promote environmental protection.

The correct answer is (b) Kanishka.

Kanishka was a Kushan emperor who ruled over a vast empire in Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent from the early 2nd century CE. He was a major patron of Buddhism and is credited with spreading the religion throughout his empire.

Kanishka's coins are some of the most important archaeological evidence of his reign. They depict a variety of Buddhist symbols, including the Buddha himself. The coins are also inscribed with Buddhist texts, which provide valuable insights into the religion during Kanishka's time.

The other options are incorrect. Wima Kadphises was a Kushan emperor who ruled before Kanishka. Nahapana was a Satavahana king who ruled in the Deccan region of India at the same time as Kanishka. Budh Gupta was a Gupta emperor who ruled in the 5th century CE, several centuries after Kanishka.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Budha is depicted on the coins of" is (b) Kanishka.

The correct answer is: A) Indo-Saracenic style.

The Victoria Memorial is an iconic monument built in the Indo-Saracenic style. It is located in Kolkata, India, and was built in the late 19th century to commemorate the life and reign of Queen Victoria. The building is a mix of Indian and European architectural styles, and is considered to be one of the finest examples of Indo-Saracenic architecture in the world.

The Indo-Saracenic style is a fusion of Indian and Islamic architectural styles. It emerged in the 18th century, and was popular in India during the British Raj. The style is characterized by its use of domes, arches, and minarets, as well as its decorative elements such as latticework and inlay work.

The Victoria Memorial is a large, white building with a central dome and four corner towers. The exterior of the building is decorated with intricate latticework and inlay work. The interior of the building is lavishly decorated with marble, gold, and silver. The memorial houses a museum with a collection of artifacts from the reign of Queen Victoria.

The Victoria Memorial is a popular tourist destination in Kolkata. It is also a national monument of India.

The correct answer is: A. Establishment of a new development bank.

The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa). The NDB was founded in 2014 with the goal of financing infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets and developing countries. The NDB has its headquarters in Shanghai, China.

The NDB is a major development bank with a strong capital base and a clear mandate to support sustainable development. The NDB has already approved a number of projects in a variety of sectors, including energy, transportation, water, and sanitation. The NDB is playing an increasingly important role in financing infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets and developing countries.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B is incorrect because the United Nations is not a development bank. The United Nations is an intergovernmental organization that promotes international co-operation.
• Option C is incorrect because the BRICS countries do not conduct common military exercises.
• Option D is incorrect because cultural exchange is not a major decision that was taken at the fifth BRICS summit.

The correct answer is (c) 1859.

Tea was first produced in Uttarakhand in 1859 by the British East India Company. The company established a tea plantation in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, and the plantation was a success. Tea production in Uttarakhand continued to grow, and by the early 20th century, the state was one of the major tea producers in India.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because tea was not produced in Uttarakhand in 1830. Option (b) is incorrect because tea was not produced in Uttarakhand in 1930. Option (d) is incorrect because tea was not produced in Uttarakhand in 1939.

The correct answer is: D) All of the above.

The feudatory states played a crucial role in the cultural development, political administration, and economic prosperity of Bengal.

* **Cultural development:** The feudatory states were patrons of art, literature, and music. They built temples, palaces, and other monuments. They also supported scholars and artists.
* **Political administration:** The feudatory states were responsible for maintaining law and order in their territories. They collected taxes and used the revenue for public works. They also maintained armies to protect their territories from external threats.
* **Economic prosperity:** The feudatory states were involved in agriculture, trade, and industry. They built canals and dams to improve irrigation. They also built roads and bridges to facilitate trade. They also minted coins and issued currency.

The feudatory states played a vital role in the development of Bengal. They were responsible for the cultural, political, and economic prosperity of the region.

The correct answer is: A. poles

The jet stream is a fast-flowing, narrow air current found in the upper atmosphere. It flows from west to east, and its position varies with the seasons. In the winter, the jet stream is located further south than in the summer. The jet stream is strongest at the poles and weakest at the equator.

The troughs of the waves are where the jet stream is closest to the poles. This is because the jet stream is strongest at the poles and weakest at the equator. The troughs of the waves are also where the jet stream is most variable. This is because the jet stream is affected by the Earth's rotation and the Earth's surface temperature.

The other options are incorrect because the jet stream is not closest to the equator, the Prime meridian, or any other location on the Earth's surface.

The jet stream is a powerful weather phenomenon that can have a significant impact on the Earth's climate. It is important to understand the jet stream in order to predict weather patterns and climate change.

The correct answer is (d). India is a parliamentary democracy.

A parliamentary democracy is a system of government in which the head of state is a largely ceremonial figure, and the head of government is a prime minister who is accountable to the legislature. India is a parliamentary democracy with a president as the head of state and a prime minister as the head of government. The president is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of parliament and the legislative assemblies of the states. The prime minister is appointed by the president and must have the support of a majority in the lower house of parliament. The president has limited powers and can only act on the advice of the prime minister and the cabinet.

A presidential system is a system of government in which the head of state is also the head of government. The president is directly elected by the people and has a great deal of power. The president appoints the cabinet and can veto laws passed by the legislature.

A titular monarchy is a system of government in which the head of state is a monarch, but the monarch has no real power. The monarch is usually a hereditary position and the monarch's role is largely ceremonial.

An aristocracy is a system of government in which the government is controlled by a small group of people who are considered to be the best qualified to rule. The aristocracy is usually hereditary and the members of the aristocracy are born into their positions.

Dinabandhu Mitra published his first and most famous play Nil Darpan in 1860 about the plight of Indigo farmers. It was an emotionally motivating play which played a significant role in Indigo revolt (Nilbidroha). Kapalkundala is a Bengali romance novel by Indian writer Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. Published in 1866, it is a story of a forest-dwelling girl named Kapalkundala, who fell in love with and married Nabakumar, a young gentleman from Saptagram, but eventually found that she is unable to adjust herself with the city life. Rakta Karabi was Rabindranath Tagore's written play. Ebang Indrajit was Badal Sarkar' first play.

The correct answer is: C. Either I or II is implicit

The government's decision to reduce the subsidy on LPG implies that the government believes that those people who buy LPG can afford to purchase LPG for a higher price. However, it is also possible that the government is making this decision in order to encourage people to use kerosene instead of LPG. In this case, the government would be assuming that many people may stop buying LPG and instead use kerosene.

Therefore, either assumption I or assumption II is implicit in the statement.

The correct answer is (a) 132.64.8.255.

An IPv4 address is a 32-bit number that is used to identify a device on a computer network. It is typically written in decimal form, with each of the four numbers separated by a dot. The first number, or octet, can range from 0 to 255, the second octet can range from 0 to 255, and so on.

The address 132.64.8.255 is a valid IPv4 address because it meets all of the following criteria:

• It is a 32-bit number.
• Each of the four numbers is between 0 and 255.
• The numbers are separated by dots.

The address 13.260.3.255 is not a valid IPv4 address because the first number, 13, is greater than 255. The address 24.0.300.0 is not a valid IPv4 address because the first number, 24, is not between 0 and 255.

The correct answer is A. running.

An oar is a long, thin piece of wood or metal that is used to propel a boat through the water. It is held in place by a rowlock, which is a metal or wooden fitting that is attached to the side of the boat. The rower uses the oar to push against the water, which moves the boat forward.

A foot is a part of the human body that is used for walking, running, and jumping. It is made up of the toes, the foot bones, the ankle, and the heel. The foot is attached to the leg by the Achilles tendon.

The oar is to the rowboat as the foot is to running in that they are both essential for the movement of the respective object. The oar is used to propel the boat through the water, while the foot is used to propel the body forward when running. Without either of these, the object would not be able to move.

The other options are not as closely related to the oar and the rowboat as running is. A sneaker is a type of shoe, a skateboard is a type of board, and jumping is an action. None of these are essential for the movement of a rowboat.

The answer is idiot.

A giant is a person or creature of great size, while a dwarf is a person or creature of very small size. In the same way, a genius is a person of great intelligence, while an idiot is a person of very low intelligence.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. A wicked person is one who is evil or cruel, while a gentle person is one who is kind and compassionate. A tiny person is one who is very small in size, while a genius is one who is very intelligent.

The correct answer is (d). The Indian Evidence Act applies to all of these.

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a law that governs the admissibility of evidence in civil and criminal proceedings in India. It was enacted by the British Parliament and came into force on 1st September 1872. The Act is divided into 16 chapters and 124 sections.

The Act applies to all judicial proceedings, including civil and criminal trials, arbitration proceedings, and inquiries. It also applies to affidavits, which are sworn statements made by a person in support of their claim or defense.

The Act sets out the rules of evidence that must be followed in all judicial proceedings. These rules govern the admissibility of evidence, the burden of proof, and the presumption of innocence.

The Act is a very important law that has a significant impact on the administration of justice in India. It is a complex law and it is important for lawyers and judges to be familiar with its provisions.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) Affidavits: An affidavit is a sworn statement made by a person in support of their claim or defense. Affidavits are often used in civil and criminal proceedings. The Indian Evidence Act sets out the rules that must be followed when making an affidavit.

(b) Judicial proceedings: Judicial proceedings are proceedings that are conducted by a court of law. These proceedings can be civil or criminal. The Indian Evidence Act applies to all judicial proceedings.

(c) Arbitration proceedings: Arbitration proceedings are proceedings that are conducted by an arbitrator. Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution. The Indian Evidence Act applies to arbitration proceedings.

(d) All of these: The Indian Evidence Act applies to all of these.

The correct answer is (d) 9th November.

Uttarakhand is a state in northern India. It was formed on 9 November 2000, by carving out the Himalayan hill regions of the erstwhile state of Uttar Pradesh. The state is bordered by Himachal Pradesh to the west, Nepal to the north, China to the northeast, Uttar Pradesh to the east, and Madhya Pradesh to the south. The capital of Uttarakhand is Dehradun.

The foundation day of Uttarakhand is celebrated on 9 November every year. The day marks the formation of the state of Uttarakhand. The day is celebrated with a variety of events, including cultural programs, parades, and speeches.

The first option, lst November, is incorrect because it is not the foundation day of Uttarakhand. The second option, 5th November, is incorrect because it is not the foundation day of Uttarakhand. The third option, 8th November, is incorrect because it is not the foundation day of Uttarakhand.

The correct answer is A. Oxytocin.

Oxytocin is a hormone, not an enzyme. It is produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding.

Trypsin, pepsin, and ptyalin are all enzymes. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins in the stomach. Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch in the mouth.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Oxytocin is a hormone that is produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. Oxytocin is not an enzyme.
• Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins. It is produced in the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine. Trypsin is an exopeptidase, which means that it cleaves amino acids from the ends of proteins.
• Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins in the stomach. It is produced by the chief cells of the stomach lining. Pepsin is an endopeptidase, which means that it cleaves amino acids from the middle of proteins.
• Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch in the mouth. It is produced by the salivary glands. Ptyalin is an alpha-amylase, which means that it cleaves alpha-1,4-glycosidic bonds in starch.

The correct answer is: D. In chloroplast membranes.

Chlorophyll is a green pigment that is found in chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are organelles that are found in plant cells and some bacteria. They are responsible for photosynthesis, which is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.

The nucleoid is the region of a prokaryotic cell that contains the cell's DNA. The infolded plasma membrane is a structure that is found in some bacteria. It is involved in the transport of molecules into and out of the cell. Ribosomes are organelles that are found in all cells. They are responsible for the synthesis of proteins.

In autotrophic bacteria, chlorophyll is located in the chloroplast membranes. The chloroplast membranes are arranged in stacks called thylakoid membranes. The thylakoid membranes contain chlorophyll and other pigments that absorb sunlight. The light energy that is absorbed by the pigments is used to split water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen gas. The hydrogen ions are then used to produce ATP, which is a molecule that stores energy. The oxygen gas is released into the environment.

The process of photosynthesis is essential for life on Earth. It is the process by which plants produce the oxygen that we breathe and the food that we eat.

The correct answer is B. Brain.

The pineal gland is a small, pea-sized gland in the brain that produces melatonin, a hormone that helps regulate sleep and wakefulness. It is located in the epithalamus, near the center of the brain.

The liver is the largest organ in the body and is located in the upper right abdomen. It is responsible for many important functions, including metabolism, detoxification, and blood clotting.

The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in the lower back. They are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine.

The uterus is a muscular organ in the female reproductive system. It is where a fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus.

The pineal gland is not located in any of the other options.

The correct answer is: B. Bahadurshah Zafar.

Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor of India. He ruled from 1837 to 1857, during the Indian Rebellion of 1857, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny. After the rebellion was suppressed, Bahadur Shah Zafar was exiled to Rangoon (now Yangon) in Burma, where he died in 1862.

Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor, who ruled from 1658 to 1707. He was a powerful and ruthless ruler who expanded the Mughal empire to its greatest extent. However, his reign was also marked by religious persecution and political instability.

Jahangir was the fifth Mughal emperor, who ruled from 1605 to 1627. He was a cultured and cosmopolitan ruler who was interested in art, music, and literature. However, his reign was also marked by political instability and conflict with his son, Aurangzeb.

Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, who ruled from 1556 to 1605. He was a brilliant military strategist and administrator who unified the Mughal empire and brought it to its golden age. He was also a tolerant and progressive ruler who promoted religious harmony and cultural exchange.

The correct answer is (a).

In the given code, the letters are mapped to numbers as follows:

• B = 5
• A = 7
• K = 9
• E = 6
• F = 3
• I = 4
• R = 8

Therefore, the word "FEAR" is written as 3564.

Option (b) is incorrect because it does not follow the mapping of letters to numbers in the given code. The letter "E" is mapped to 6, not 5.

Option (c) is incorrect because it does not follow the mapping of letters to numbers in the given code. The letter "R" is mapped to 8, not 4.

Option (d) is incorrect because it does not follow the mapping of letters to numbers in the given code. The letter "A" is mapped to 7, not 4.

The correct answer is C. Pancreas.

Islets of Langerhans are small clusters of cells in the pancreas that produce hormones that help to regulate blood sugar levels. They are named after Paul Langerhans, a German physician who first described them in 1869.

The islets of Langerhans are made up of four types of cells: alpha cells, beta cells, delta cells, and F cells. Alpha cells produce glucagon, a hormone that raises blood sugar levels. Beta cells produce insulin, a hormone that lowers blood sugar levels. Delta cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that regulates the release of other hormones. F cells produce pancreatic polypeptide, a hormone that helps to regulate digestion.

The islets of Langerhans are important for maintaining healthy blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels rise, the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans release insulin. Insulin helps cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream, which lowers blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels fall, the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans release glucagon. Glucagon helps the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream, which raises blood sugar levels.

The islets of Langerhans are also important for regulating other aspects of metabolism, such as the metabolism of fats and proteins. They play a role in the regulation of appetite and weight.

Disorders of the islets of Langerhans can lead to a variety of health problems, including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and pancreatitis.

The correct answer is A. Joule.

The Joule (symbol J) is a derived unit of energy in the International System of Units. It is equal to the work done by a force of one newton when its point of application moves one metre in the direction of the force.

The other options are incorrect.

• Ohm (symbol Ω) is the SI unit of electrical resistance.
• Erg is a non-SI unit of energy equal to 10−7 joules.
• Volt (symbol V) is the SI unit of electric potential difference, electric potential, and electromotive force.

Some notable Nazrul Geeti singers are Firoza Begum, Anup Ghosal, Manbendra Mukhopadhyay, Sudin Das, Firdausi, Rahman, Kanan Devi, Juthika Roy, SD Burman, Ferdous Ara, etc.

Personalities like Prithviraj Kapoor, Bijon Bhattacharya, Ritwik Ghatak, Utpal Dutt, Salil Chowdhury, Jyotirindra Moitra, Amar Shaikh, Majrooh Sultanpuri, Homi Bhabha, Kaifi Azmi, Balraj Sahni and Mohan Segal are some of the well-known members of Indian People's Theatre Association (IPTA).

The correct answer is (c). The Supreme Court on 13th January, 2023, ordered the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as "people of foreign origin" from its verdict. The verdict was of which date ?

(a) 8th October, 2022: This is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not order the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as "people of foreign origin" from its verdict on 8th October, 2022.

(b) 2nd December, 2022: This is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not order the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as "people of foreign origin" from its verdict on 2nd December, 2022.

(c) 13th January, 2023: This is the correct answer. The Supreme Court ordered the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as "people of foreign origin" from its verdict on 13th January, 2023.

(d) 4th January, 2023: This is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not order the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as "people of foreign origin" from its verdict on 4th January, 2023.

The correct answer is: Bangladesh.

Muhammed Yunus is a Bangladeshi economist and social entrepreneur who is the founder of the Grameen Bank, which provides microcredit to poor people in Bangladesh. He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 for his work in microfinance.

Sri Lanka is an island country in South Asia. Pakistan is a country in South Asia. The Maldives is an island country in South Asia.

All of these countries are located in South Asia. However, Bangladesh is the only country in South Asia that is home to Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus.

The correct answer is C. Thunder.

Thunder is the sound caused by lightning. It is caused by the rapid expansion of air when a lightning bolt heats it up to 50,000 degrees Celsius. This expansion creates a shockwave that travels through the air at the speed of sound, creating the sound of thunder.

Stoning is the act of throwing stones at someone or something. Bolting is the act of fastening something with bolts. Cloud clash is a collision between two clouds.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: B. Red blood cell

Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that affects the red blood cells. The red blood cells are shaped like a sickle, which is a curved, crescent-shaped object. This abnormal shape of the red blood cells can cause them to break down more easily, which can lead to anemia. Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough healthy red blood cells.

Sickle-cell anemia is a lifelong condition. There is no cure, but there are treatments that can help manage the symptoms and complications of the disease.

The other options are incorrect because:

• White blood cells are part of the immune system. They help the body fight infection.
• Thrombocytes are also known as platelets. They help the blood to clot.
• Blood plasma is the liquid part of blood. It contains proteins, nutrients, and hormones.

The correct answer is D. Diana.

A. Olympus is a mountain in Greece, home of the Greek gods.
B. Apollo is the Greek god of music, poetry, art, knowledge, healing, plague, prophecy, and archery.
C. Nataraj is a Hindu god of dance and creation.

Diana is the Roman goddess of the hunt, wilderness, wild animals, childbirth, virginity and protector of young girls. She is often depicted as a huntress, accompanied by her dogs and a stag.

The other three options are all Greek gods, while Diana is a Roman goddess.

The correct answer is (a) Jimutavahana.

Jimutavahana was an Indian jurist who lived in the 12th century CE. He is best known for his work the Dayabhaga, which is one of the most important texts on Hindu law. The Dayabhaga deals with a wide range of topics, including marriage, inheritance, and property law. It is still considered to be an authoritative text on Hindu law in many parts of India.

The other options are incorrect. (b) Vijnaneshwara was a 13th-century jurist who wrote the Mitakshara, another important text on Hindu law. (c) Vashishtha was a Vedic sage who is credited with writing the Vashishta Smriti, a text on Hindu law and ethics. (d) Narada was a Vedic sage who is credited with writing the Narada Smriti, a text on Hindu law and ethics.

I hope this helps!

Bhatiali songs gained popularity in Mymensingh and Sylhet.

The correct answer is A. incite.

To dissuade someone is to discourage them from doing something. To incite someone is to encourage them to do something, especially something violent or dangerous.

B. persuade is to convince someone to do something. This is not the opposite of dissuade, because persuasion can be used to either encourage or discourage someone from doing something.

C. advise is to give someone advice. This is not the opposite of dissuade, because advice can be used to either encourage or discourage someone from doing something.

D. instigate is to start or cause something to happen. This is not the opposite of dissuade, because instigating something can be done either to encourage or discourage it from happening.

The correct answer is C. Socio-cultural factors.

Economic policies, economic planning, and macro-economic scenario are all related to the economy. Socio-cultural factors, on the other hand, are related to society and culture.

Economic policies are the actions taken by a government to influence the economy. They can include things like taxes, spending, and interest rates. Economic planning is the process of setting goals for the economy and developing strategies to achieve those goals. Macro-economic scenario is a description of the overall state of the economy, including things like inflation, unemployment, and GDP growth.

Socio-cultural factors are the beliefs, values, and customs of a society. They can have a significant impact on the economy, for example by influencing consumer spending and business investment.

In conclusion, the odd one out is C. Socio-cultural factors.

The correct answer is: B. supply

An antonym is a word that means the opposite of another word. In this case, the word "hoard" means to collect and store something in a secret or private place, often for future use. The word "supply" means to provide something that is needed or wanted. Therefore, the word "supply" is the opposite of "hoard" because it means to give something away, rather than to keep it hidden.

The other options are not opposites of "hoard". The word "deposit" means to put something in a safe place, such as a bank or a vault. The word "satisfy" means to fulfill a need or desire. The word "accumulate" means to gather or collect something over time.

Here are some examples of how the word "hoard" can be used in a sentence:

• The dragon hoarded a vast treasure of gold and jewels.
• The miser hoarded his money in a secret hiding place.
• The squirrel hoarded nuts for the winter.

Here are some examples of how the word "supply" can be used in a sentence:

• The store supplies a variety of goods.
• The government supplies food to the needy.
• The factory supplies parts to the car company.

Satyajit Ray got international reputation with the release of his debut directed movie Pather Panchali, based on Bibhutibhusan Bandhopadhyay's novel.

The correct answer is C. Healthy.

A synonym is a word that has the same or nearly the same meaning as another word. In this case, the word "wholesome" means "healthy" or "beneficial to physical or moral well-being." The other options do not have the same meaning as "wholesome."

• Special means "different from what is usual or ordinary."
• Complete means "having all the necessary or appropriate parts."
• Handsome means "having a pleasing appearance."

All of these words can be used to describe something that is good or desirable, but they do not have the same meaning as "wholesome."

West Bengal connects Indian mainland to North-East India through roadways. The total road length (including district and rural roads) of the state is 92,223 km.

The missing term is 81.

The sequence is a list of numbers where each number is the sum of the two numbers before it. So, the first number is 6, and the second number is 11, which is the sum of 6 and 5. The third number is 21, which is the sum of 11 and 10. The fourth number is 36, which is the sum of 21 and 15. The fifth number is 56, which is the sum of 36 and 20. The sixth number is 81, which is the sum of 56 and 25.

Option A, 42, is not the missing term because it is not the sum of the two numbers before it. Option B, 51, is not the missing term because it is not the sum of the two numbers before it. Option C, 81, is the missing term because it is the sum of the two numbers before it. Option D, 91, is not the missing term because it is not the sum of the two numbers before it.

The correct answer is: **D) Anandalok**

Anandalok is a Bengali-language monthly magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1975 by Nripendranath Mukhopadhyay. The magazine is known for its coverage of cultural events and literary works. It also publishes articles on current affairs, politics, and social issues.

Anandalok is one of the most popular magazines in West Bengal. It has a circulation of over 100,000 copies. The magazine is also available in digital format.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Desh is a Bengali-language weekly magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1948 by Sunil Gangopadhyay. The magazine is known for its coverage of political and social issues.
* Epar Bangla is a Bengali-language monthly magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1960 by Buddhadeb Bose. The magazine is known for its coverage of literary works and cultural events.
* Sananda is a Bengali-language weekly magazine published in Kolkata, India. It was founded in 1978 by Prabhat Ranjan Sarkar. The magazine is known for its coverage of spiritual and religious issues.

The correct answer is D. Orchard.

An orchard is a field or a part of a garden where fruit trees grow. It is a place where fruit trees are grown for their fruit. Orchards are usually located in areas with a temperate climate, where the weather is not too hot or too cold. The most common types of fruit trees grown in orchards are apple trees, pear trees, cherry trees, and peach trees.

Parks are areas of land that are set aside for public use. They are usually located in urban areas and provide a place for people to relax, exercise, and enjoy nature. Parks often have lawns, gardens, playgrounds, and walking trails.

Nurseries are businesses that sell plants and trees. They usually have a large selection of plants and trees, and they can also provide advice on how to care for them.

Yards are the areas of land that surround a house. They are usually used for gardening, playing, and parking cars.

The correct answer is D. visible.

Vanity is often noticeable in a great leader because it can be a sign of confidence and self-assurance. However, it is important to note that vanity can also be a sign of insecurity and arrogance. Therefore, it is important for leaders to be aware of their own vanity and to manage it in a way that does not negatively impact their leadership.

Option A, desirable, is incorrect because vanity is not always desirable in a leader. In fact, it can be a sign of insecurity and arrogance.

Option B, admirable, is incorrect because vanity is not always admirable in a leader. In fact, it can be a sign of insecurity and arrogance.

Option C, remarkable, is incorrect because vanity is not always remarkable in a leader. In fact, it is quite common for leaders to be vain.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. visible.

The correct answer is D. Both A and B.

The High Courts and the Supreme Court are the custodians of the implementation of the fundamental rights. The High Courts are the first courts of appeal and have the power to hear cases involving the violation of fundamental rights. The Supreme Court is the highest court in the country and has the final say on the interpretation of the Constitution. It also has the power to strike down laws that it finds to be unconstitutional.

The fundamental rights are the basic rights and freedoms that are guaranteed to all citizens of India by the Constitution. These rights include the right to equality, the right to freedom, the right against exploitation, the right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, the right to constitutional remedies, and the right to property.

The High Courts and the Supreme Court play a vital role in protecting the fundamental rights of the citizens of India. They ensure that the government does not violate these rights and that the citizens are able to enjoy them fully.

The correct answer is (b) 400 metres.

Sunlight is made up of a spectrum of different wavelengths of light, from long red wavelengths to short violet wavelengths. When sunlight hits the ocean, some of the light is reflected off the surface, while some of the light is absorbed by the water. The amount of light that is absorbed depends on the wavelength of the light. Shorter wavelengths of light, such as violet and blue light, are absorbed more easily than longer wavelengths of light, such as red and orange light.

As sunlight travels through the water, it is absorbed by the water molecules. The deeper the sunlight travels, the more of the light is absorbed. This is why the ocean appears blue: the blue light is scattered in all directions by the water molecules, while the other colors of light are absorbed.

The sun's rays can penetrate the clear ocean water to a maximum depth of about 400 meters. This is because the water molecules absorb most of the light at depths greater than 400 meters. At depths greater than 400 meters, the ocean is dark.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the maximum depth that the sun's rays can penetrate the clear ocean water.

The correct answer is A. Morus Alba.

Morus Alba, also known as the white mulberry, is a species of mulberry tree native to Asia. It is the most common type of mulberry tree used to make cricket bats. The wood of the white mulberry is strong and durable, and it has a good balance of weight and flexibility. It is also resistant to cracking and splitting, making it ideal for use in cricket bats.

Sandrus is a type of wood that is not commonly used to make cricket bats. It is a softwood that is not as strong or durable as the wood of the white mulberry. It is also more susceptible to cracking and splitting.

Linum Usitatissimum is the scientific name for flax. Flax is a plant that is used to make linen and other textiles. It is not a type of wood, and it is not suitable for use in cricket bats.

Salix Purpurea is the scientific name for purple willow. Purple willow is a type of willow tree that is native to Europe and Asia. It is not a type of wood that is commonly used to make cricket bats.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Which wood is used to make the cricket bat?" is A. Morus Alba.

The correct answer is B. Lymphocyte.

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that are responsible for the body's immune response. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that help to fight off infection. When a vaccine is administered, it exposes the body to a weakened or inactivated form of a pathogen. This triggers the production of antibodies, which will then be able to recognize and fight off the pathogen if it is ever encountered again.

Granulocytes are another type of white blood cell, but they are not responsible for the production of antibodies. They are involved in the body's inflammatory response and help to fight off infection by engulfing and destroying pathogens.

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. They do not play a role in the immune response.

Platelets are involved in blood clotting. They do not play a role in the immune response.

The correct answer is: D. Sardar Patel

Sardar Patel was given the title of 'sparrow' by Mahatma Gandhi. This was because Patel was known for his small stature and his ability to fly under the radar. He was also known for his quick wit and his ability to get things done.

Napoleon was a French military leader and emperor who was known for his military genius and his ambition. He was not given the title of 'sparrow'.

Major General Rajinder Singh was an Indian army officer who was known for his bravery and his leadership skills. He was not given the title of 'sparrow'.

T. T. Krishnamachari was an Indian economist and politician who served as the finance minister of India from 1956 to 1964. He was not given the title of 'sparrow'.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it is based on evidence that sex determination tests lead to female foeticide. This evidence is supported by studies that have shown that the sex ratio at birth has declined in countries where sex determination tests are widely available.

Argument II is weak because it is based on the assumption that people have a right to know about their unborn child. However, this right is not absolute and must be balanced against the harm that sex determination tests can cause.

In conclusion, only argument I is strong.

The correct answer is A. Normal faults.

Tensional forces are forces that pull apart. When these forces are strong enough, they can cause the Earth's crust to break. This type of fault is called a normal fault. Normal faults are characterized by a hanging wall that is displaced down relative to the footwall.

Strike-slip faults are caused by horizontal shearing forces. These faults are characterized by a lateral displacement of the two sides of the fault.

Thrust faults are caused by compressional forces. These faults are characterized by a reverse displacement of the two sides of the fault.

Reverse faults are a type of thrust fault in which the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall.

At the time of independence (1947), West Bengal was divided into 14 districts viz, Bankura, Birbhum, Bardhaman, Kolkata, Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, Hooghly, Howrah, Malda, Midnapore, Murshidabad, Nadia, West Dinajpur and 24 Parganas.

The region of foothills of the Himalayas of West Bengal receives the highest amount of rainfall. The heaviest rainfall (200-400cm) receiving districts are Darjeeling, Coochbehar and Jalpaiguri.

The correct answer is (c), The President of India.

A legal person is a person recognized by law as having the rights and duties of a natural person. In other words, it is an entity that can sue and be sued, enter into contracts, and own property.

The Kumaon University, State Bank of India, and the State of Uttarakhand are all legal persons. They are all registered under the Companies Act, 2013, and they all have a separate legal identity from their members or shareholders.

The President of India, on the other hand, is not a legal person. The President is a constitutional office, and the office itself is the legal person. The President is not a natural person, and he or she does not have the same rights and duties as a natural person.

For example, the President cannot sue or be sued in his or her own name. Instead, the government of India is the proper party to sue or be sued in the President's name.

Similarly, the President cannot enter into contracts in his or her own name. Instead, the government of India is the proper party to enter into contracts on the President's behalf.

Finally, the President cannot own property in his or her own name. Instead, the government of India is the proper party to own property on the President's behalf.

The correct answer is: A. Adam Smith

Adam Smith was a Scottish economist and philosopher who is considered the father of modern economics. He is best known for his book The Wealth of Nations, which was published in 1776. In this book, Smith argued that the wealth of a nation is not determined by the amount of gold and silver it possesses, but rather by the productivity of its people. He also argued that the free market is the best way to organize an economy, as it allows for the efficient allocation of resources and the division of labor.

The other options are incorrect:

• B. Marshall: Alfred Marshall was an English economist who is considered one of the founders of neoclassical economics. He is best known for his book Principles of Economics, which was published in 1890. In this book, Marshall developed the concept of marginal utility, which is the additional satisfaction that a consumer receives from consuming one more unit of a good or service.
• C. Robbins: Lionel Robbins was an English economist who is considered one of the founders of modern microeconomics. He is best known for his book An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science, which was published in 1932. In this book, Robbins defined economics as the science of choice under conditions of scarcity.
• D. None of the above: This option is incorrect because the definition of economics as the science of wealth is given by Adam Smith.

The correct answer is: **A) Chandragupta I**

Chandragupta I was the founder of the Gupta dynasty, which ruled over much of northern India from the 4th to the 6th centuries CE. The Gupta Empire is considered a golden age in Indian history, and Chandragupta I is credited with laying the foundations for its success.

Chandragupta I was born into a family of nobles in the kingdom of Magadha. He came to power in the early 4th century CE, and quickly expanded his kingdom through conquest. He also married Kumaradevi, the daughter of the king of the Licchavis, a powerful clan in northern India. This marriage helped to cement Chandragupta I's position as a major power in the region.

Chandragupta I was a wise and capable ruler. He promoted trade and agriculture, and built a strong military. He also patronized the arts and sciences, and his reign saw a flowering of Indian culture.

Chandragupta I died in the late 4th century CE, and was succeeded by his son, Samudragupta. Samudragupta continued his father's expansionist policies, and the Gupta Empire reached its peak under his rule.

The Gupta Empire declined in the 6th century CE, but Chandragupta I's legacy as the founder of a golden age in Indian history lives on.

Option B, Samudragupta, was the son of Chandragupta I and Kumaradevi. He was a powerful and successful ruler who expanded the Gupta Empire to its greatest extent. He is also known for his patronage of the arts and sciences.

Option C, Chandragupta II, was the grandson of Chandragupta I. He is known as "Vikramaditya" or "the Victorious Sun". He was a successful ruler who expanded the Gupta Empire even further than his father, Samudragupta. He is also known for his patronage of the arts and sciences.

Option D, Skandagupta, was the great-grandson of Chandragupta I. He was the last great ruler of the Gupta Empire. He faced many challenges, including a Hun invasion, but he was able to successfully defend the empire. He died in 467 CE, and the Gupta Empire began to decline soon after.

The correct answer is Buddhism.

In Buddhism, desire is seen as the root of all suffering. The Buddha taught that the cause of suffering is attachment to desire, and that the way to end suffering is to let go of desire. This can be done through meditation and other practices that help to develop detachment from the world.

Jainism also teaches that desire is the cause of suffering, but it does not see it as the only cause. Jainism teaches that there are three main causes of suffering: desire, karma, and ignorance. Desire is seen as the most fundamental cause of suffering, but karma and ignorance are also seen as important factors.

Sikhism does not teach that desire is the cause of suffering. Sikhism teaches that the cause of suffering is ego, or the belief that we are separate from God. The way to end suffering is to overcome ego and merge with God.

Hinduism does not teach that desire is the cause of suffering. Hinduism teaches that desire is a natural part of life, and that it can be a source of both pleasure and pain. The way to deal with desire is to learn to control it, not to eliminate it.

The correct answer is: A) Stores energy during off-peak hours.

The Purulia Pumped Storage Project is a unique hydropower plant in India because it stores energy during off-peak hours. This is done by pumping water from a lower reservoir to a higher reservoir during off-peak hours, when electricity is cheaper. During peak hours, the water is released back down to the lower reservoir, spinning turbines that generate electricity. This allows the plant to generate electricity during times of high demand, when the price of electricity is higher.

Option B is incorrect because the Purulia Pumped Storage Project does not rely on solar power. It is a hydropower plant, which means that it generates electricity by using the power of moving water.

Option C is incorrect because the Purulia Pumped Storage Project is not located in an underground cavern. It is located on the banks of the Damodar River in the state of Jharkhand, India.

Option D is incorrect because the Purulia Pumped Storage Project is not the oldest hydropower plant in India. The oldest hydropower plant in India is the Sivanasamudra Hydroelectric Project, which was commissioned in 1902.

The correct answer is D. Potassium Chlorate.

Nitrochloroform, TNG, and TNT are all explosives. Nitrochloroform is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used as a solvent and a propellant. TNG is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless liquid that is used as a chemical warfare agent. TNT is a yellow, crystalline solid that is used as a high explosive. Potassium Chlorate is a white, crystalline solid that is used as a fertilizer and a pyrotechnic.

Potassium Chlorate is not an explosive because it does not have the necessary properties to detonate. It is not flammable and does not react violently with other substances. It is also not sensitive to heat or shock.

The correct answer is C. Radiation.

The sun emits electromagnetic radiation in the form of light and heat. This radiation travels through space and reaches the Earth's atmosphere. Some of the radiation is absorbed by the atmosphere, but most of it passes through and reaches the Earth's surface. The Earth's surface absorbs this radiation and converts it into heat. This heat warms the Earth's atmosphere and surface.

Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. For example, when you touch a hot stove, the heat from the stove is transferred to your hand through conduction.

Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids. For example, when you boil water, the heat from the stove causes the water molecules at the bottom of the pot to move faster. These fast-moving molecules rise to the top of the pot, while the cooler molecules at the top of the pot sink to the bottom. This movement of water molecules transfers heat from the bottom of the pot to the top.

Reflection is the bouncing of light or other waves off of a surface. For example, when you look in a mirror, the light from your face is reflected off of the mirror and into your eyes.

In the case of the sun, the heat does not reach us by conduction, convection, or reflection. The heat reaches us by radiation.

The correct answer is (a) Guru Amar Das.

The Masand system was a system of religious administration that was started by Guru Amar Das, the third Sikh Guru. Under this system, the Guru appointed a number of Masands, or religious teachers, to spread Sikhism and collect donations from the Sikh community. The Masands were responsible for maintaining contact with the Guru and reporting to him on the progress of their work.

The Masand system was a very effective way of spreading Sikhism and it helped to consolidate the Sikh community. It also helped to ensure that the Guru was kept informed of the needs of the Sikh community.

The Masand system continued to be used by the succeeding Gurus, but it began to decline in the 18th century. This was due to a number of factors, including the decline of the Mughal Empire, which had provided the Sikhs with a measure of protection, and the rise of the Sikh warrior-saints, who challenged the authority of the Masands.

The Masand system was finally abolished by Maharaja Ranjit Singh in the early 19th century.

The correct answer is: D. Emergency Provisions

Part XVIII of the Constitution of India deals with emergency provisions. It contains six articles, from Article 352 to Article 360. These articles provide for the declaration of emergency in the country. The President can declare an emergency if he is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

The President can also declare an emergency if he is satisfied that a financial emergency exists whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened.

When an emergency is declared, the President can take certain special powers. These powers include the power to suspend the operation of certain fundamental rights, the power to make laws without the consent of Parliament, and the power to deploy the armed forces in any part of the country.

The emergency provisions have been used several times in the history of India. The first time was in 1962, during the Sino-Indian War. The second time was in 1971, during the Bangladesh Liberation War. The third time was in 1975, when Indira Gandhi declared a national emergency.

The emergency provisions have been controversial. Some people argue that they are necessary to protect the country from threats. Others argue that they are a violation of fundamental rights and should be abolished.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Directive Principles of State Policy are principles that the State should follow in making laws and policies. They are not enforceable in a court of law.
• Fundamental Duties are obligations that are imposed on all citizens of India. They are not enforceable in a court of law.
• Fundamental Rights are rights that are guaranteed to all citizens of India by the Constitution. They are enforceable in a court of law.

The correct answer is A. Assam.

The Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) is an autonomous governing body for the Bodo people in Assam, India. It was established in 2003 under the Bodoland Territorial Areas Districts (BTAD) Act, 2003. The BTC has its own legislative assembly, executive council, and judiciary. It is responsible for a wide range of subjects, including education, health, agriculture, and forests.

The Bodo people are an ethnic group native to Assam. They speak the Bodo language, which is a member of the Tibeto-Burman language family. The Bodo people have a long history in Assam, and they have played an important role in the state's history and culture.

The Bodoland Territorial Council was established in an effort to address the grievances of the Bodo people. The BTC has been successful in improving the lives of the Bodo people, and it has helped to promote peace and stability in Assam.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the states where the Bodoland Territorial Council is located. Option B, Mizoram, is a state in northeastern India. Option C, Nagaland, is also a state in northeastern India. Option D, Meghalaya, is a state in northeastern India.

The correct answer is: C. Payments for self-employed resources.

Implicit costs are the opportunity costs of using resources that are owned by the firm. They are not paid out in cash, but they represent the value of the resources that could have been used for other purposes. For example, if a firm owns its own building, the implicit cost of using the building is the rent that could have been earned if the building had been rented out.

Implicit costs are not included in the firm's accounting costs, but they are important to consider when making economic decisions. For example, a firm may decide to produce a product even if its accounting costs are higher than the market price of the product. This is because the firm may be taking into account the implicit costs of using its own resources, which are not included in its accounting costs.

A. Equal to total fixed costs is incorrect. Implicit costs are not equal to total fixed costs. Fixed costs are costs that do not change with the level of output, while implicit costs are costs that do change with the level of output. For example, if a firm owns its own building, the implicit cost of using the building is the rent that could have been earned if the building had been rented out. This cost will change if the firm produces more or less output.

B. Comprised entirely of variable costs is incorrect. Implicit costs are not comprised entirely of variable costs. Variable costs are costs that change with the level of output, while implicit costs are costs that do not change with the level of output. For example, if a firm hires workers, the wages paid to the workers are variable costs. However, if the firm owns its own building, the implicit cost of using the building is the rent that could have been earned if the building had been rented out. This cost is not a variable cost, because it does not change with the level of output.

D. Always greater in the short-run than in the long-run is incorrect. Implicit costs are not always greater in the short-run than in the long-run. In some cases, implicit costs may be greater in the long-run than in the short-run. For example, if a firm owns its own building, the implicit cost of using the building is the rent that could have been earned if the building had been rented out. This cost may be greater in the long-run than in the short-run, if the rent that could have been earned in the long-run is higher than the rent that could have been earned in the short-run.

A. Nageshwara Rao is an Indian film actor who has appeared in over 1,000 films in Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, Hindi, and Marathi languages. He is known for his work in Telugu cinema, where he has starred in many successful films, including "Magadheera" (2009), "Baahubali: The Beginning" (2015), and "Baahubali 2: The Conclusion" (2017).

A. Nageshwara Rao was born on 29 November 1949 in Tenali, Andhra Pradesh, India. He made his acting debut in the 1970 Telugu film "Sri Krishna Vijayam". He has since appeared in over 1,000 films, including "Magadheera" (2009), "Baahubali: The Beginning" (2015), and "Baahubali 2: The Conclusion" (2017).

A. Nageshwara Rao has won several awards for his work, including the National Film Award for Best Actor for his performance in the 1986 Telugu film "Raja Raamouli". He has also been awarded the Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian award in India, in 2009.

A. Nageshwara Rao is married to actress Lakshmi and they have two children. He is a devout Hindu and is known for his charitable work.

The correct answer to the question "Which of the following fields A. Nageshwara Rao is associated with?" is:

• C. Film Actor

The odd number in the given list is 27. All the other numbers are prime numbers, while 27 is a composite number. A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers. A composite number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not prime.

17, 37, and 59 are all prime numbers because they are only divisible by 1 and themselves. 27 is a composite number because it is divisible by 1, 3, 9, and 27.

The correct answer is (c). Vigyan Dham is a science museum located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, India. It was established in 1995 by the Government of Uttarakhand. The museum is spread over an area of 10 acres and has a collection of over 100 exhibits on various topics related to science and technology. It also has a planetarium, an IMAX theater, and a number of interactive exhibits. The museum is open to the public and is a popular tourist destination.

(a) Pauri is a town in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is the headquarters of Pauri Garhwal district. The town is located on the banks of the Alaknanda River, at an elevation of 1,450 meters (4,760 feet). Pauri is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic beauty and temples.

(b) Karnprayag is a town in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers. Karnprayag is a popular Hindu pilgrimage site, and is one of the Panch Prayags, or five confluences, of the Garhwal Himalayas.

(d) Mussoorie is a hill station in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an elevation of 2,000 meters (6,600 feet) in the foothills of the Himalayas. Mussoorie is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic beauty and colonial architecture.

The correct answer is 4.

The four organs in UNO are:

• The Draw Pile: This is a face-down pile of cards that players draw from when they need to replenish their hands.
• The Discard Pile: This is a face-up pile of cards that players discard when they play a card.
• The Reserve Cards: These are the cards that are placed face-up next to the Draw Pile at the beginning of the game. They can be used by any player to play a Draw Two or Wild Draw Four card.
• The Hand: This is the set of cards that each player holds in their hand. Players can play cards from their hand to the Discard Pile.

The Draw Pile is always replenished from the Reserve Cards when it runs out. The Discard Pile is always shuffled and becomes the new Draw Pile when the game ends. The Reserve Cards are never shuffled or used after the game begins.

The four organs in UNO are essential for the game to function. The Draw Pile provides players with new cards, the Discard Pile allows players to get rid of cards, the Reserve Cards can be used to help players, and the Hand is what players use to play cards.

The correct answer is C. Endocrine gland.

An endocrine gland is a ductless gland that secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream rather than through a duct. The hormones produced by endocrine glands regulate many important body functions, such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction.

The liver is an organ that performs many important functions in the body, including detoxification, metabolism, and blood clotting. It is not an endocrine gland.

Sweat glands are exocrine glands that produce sweat, which helps to cool the body. They are not endocrine glands.

The kidneys are organs that filter waste products from the blood and produce urine. They are not endocrine glands.

Suchitra Sen was the first Indian actress to be awarded in an International Film Festival. She received the Best Actress Award for the moc=vie 'Sat Pake Badha' in 1963, at the Moscow Film Festival. She received the Padma Shri Award in the year 1972.

The correct answer is: A. such a

The word "such" is used to emphasize the quality or extent of something. In this case, the speaker is emphasizing how wonderful the time they had at the party was.

The word "so" can also be used to emphasize something, but it is more general than "such." "So" can be used to emphasize the quality, extent, or degree of something. In this case, the speaker could have said "We had so much fun at the party last night," but that would not have been as specific as saying "We had such a wonderful time at the party last night."

The word "such" can also be used to introduce a list of things. In this case, the speaker could have said "We had such a wonderful time at the party last night. We danced, we ate, and we laughed."

The word "very" can be used to emphasize something, but it is not as strong as "such." "Very" can be used to emphasize the quality, extent, or degree of something. In this case, the speaker could have said "We had a very wonderful time at the party last night," but that would not have been as specific as saying "We had such a wonderful time at the party last night."

The correct answer is (a) Phoolan Devi.

Eklavya Sena was a political party in India founded by Phoolan Devi in 1996. The party was formed to represent the interests of the Dalit community, and it contested the 1996 Indian general election. The party won two seats in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament.

Phoolan Devi was a controversial figure. She was born into a poor family of Dalits, and she was married off at a young age to an older man. She was abused by her husband and in-laws, and she eventually ran away from home. She became a bandit, and she was known as the "Bandit Queen". She was eventually captured and spent 11 years in prison.

After her release from prison, Phoolan Devi entered politics. She was elected to the Lok Sabha in 1996, and she served as a member of Parliament until her assassination in 2001.

Ram Vilas Paswan was a Dalit politician who served as the Minister of Railways from 2004 to 2009. He was the founder of the Lok Janshakti Party, and he served as the party's president from 1994 until his death in 2020.

Sharad Yadav was a politician who served as the President of the Janata Dal (United) from 2001 to 2004. He was a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament, from 1996 to 2018.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: B. Only assumption II is implicit.

The statement is: The 'M' Cooperative Housing Society has put up a notice at its gate those sales persons are not allowed inside the society.

Assumption I is: All the sales persons will stay away from the 'M' Cooperative Housing Society.

Assumption II is: The security guard posted at the gate may be able to stop the sales persons entering the society.

Assumption I is not implicit. The notice does not say that all sales persons will stay away from the society. It is possible that some sales persons will ignore the notice and try to enter the society.

Assumption II is implicit. The notice is a request to the security guard to stop sales persons from entering the society. This implies that the society believes that the security guard may be able to stop sales persons from entering.

Therefore, the correct answer is: B. Only assumption II is implicit.

The correct answer is: Part IX.

Part IX of the Constitution of India, titled Panchayats, deals with the organization of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. It was added by the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution in 1992.

The 73rd Amendment was enacted to provide for a three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. The amendment also provides for the devolution of powers and responsibilities to the panchayats, and for the establishment of a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the panchayats and to make recommendations to the State Government on the principles that should govern the distribution of financial resources between the State and the panchayats.

The amendment has been hailed as a major step towards decentralization and empowerment of local self-government in India. It has also been credited with bringing about significant improvements in the delivery of basic services to rural communities.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to any part of the Constitution of India that deals with panchayats.

The correct answer is C. S.M. Gavaskar.

S.M. Gavaskar made three consecutive centuries in his first three Test matches, against West Indies in 1971. He scored 137, 222, and 68 in the three matches. This is a record that has not been broken since.

Vinod Mankad made two consecutive centuries in his first two Test matches, against England in 1946. He scored 124 and 184 in the two matches.

Mohammad Azharuddin made two consecutive centuries in his first two Test matches, against England in 1984. He scored 110 and 124 in the two matches.

G.R. Viswanath made one century in his first Test match, against England in 1969. He scored 132 in the match.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. S.M. Gavaskar.

The correct answer is: D. saw, offered.

Somesh saw me coming to his table, he smiled and offered me a chair.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. found, signalled: This is not the correct answer because Somesh did not find me. He saw me.
• B. met, sat: This is not the correct answer because Somesh did not meet me. He saw me. Also, he did not sit me down. He offered me a chair.
• C. looked, gave: This is not the correct answer because Somesh did not look at me. He saw me. Also, he did not give me a chair. He offered me a chair.
• E. welcomed, took: This is not the correct answer because Somesh did not welcome me. He saw me. Also, he did not take me to a chair. He offered me a chair.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The state government is taking steps to attract investment in sectors like manufacturing, information technology, and tourism. These sectors are important for the state's economy and offer a variety of opportunities for businesses and workers.

Manufacturing is a key sector of the state's economy, employing over 1 million people. The state government is working to attract new manufacturing businesses to the state by providing incentives such as tax breaks and infrastructure improvements.

Information technology is another important sector of the state's economy, employing over 500,000 people. The state government is working to attract new information technology businesses to the state by providing incentives such as tax breaks and workforce development programs.

Tourism is a growing sector of the state's economy, generating over $10 billion in annual revenue. The state government is working to attract more tourists to the state by promoting its attractions and amenities.

By attracting investment in these sectors, the state government is helping to create jobs, grow the economy, and improve the quality of life for its residents.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

A) Manufacturing: Manufacturing is the process of converting raw materials into finished products. It is a key sector of the state's economy, employing over 1 million people. The state government is working to attract new manufacturing businesses to the state by providing incentives such as tax breaks and infrastructure improvements.

B) Information technology: Information technology (IT) is the use of computers and telecommunications to create, store, process, and exchange information. It is another important sector of the state's economy, employing over 500,000 people. The state government is working to attract new IT businesses to the state by providing incentives such as tax breaks and workforce development programs.

C) Tourism: Tourism is the activity of visiting places for pleasure or business. It is a growing sector of the state's economy, generating over $10 billion in annual revenue. The state government is working to attract more tourists to the state by promoting its attractions and amenities.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Cooch Behar was a princely state in the northeastern Indian subcontinent, which existed from the 16th century until 1949. It was located in the present-day Indian states of West Bengal and Assam. The state was ruled by the Koch dynasty, which was founded by Biswa Singha in 1510. The capital of Cooch Behar was at Cooch Behar town.

The princely state of Cooch Behar was a vassal state of the Mughal Empire from the 16th to the 18th centuries. In the 18th century, the state came under the control of the British East India Company. In 1839, the state was annexed by the British and became a part of British India.

In 1947, India gained independence from British rule. The princely state of Cooch Behar acceded to the Dominion of India in 1949. The state was merged with the Indian state of West Bengal in 1950.

The districts of West Bengal that were once a part of the princely state of Cooch Behar are Cooch Behar, Alipurduar, and Jalpaiguri. These districts are located in the northeastern part of West Bengal.

The correct answer is A. Lucy is a smart girl.

A smart person is someone who is intelligent and has a good understanding of things. They are able to learn new things quickly and easily, and they are able to solve problems effectively. Smart people are also often creative and imaginative.

B. Indecent means not decent or proper. It can also mean offensive or vulgar.
C. Active means full of energy and movement. It can also mean busy or occupied.
D. Scruffy means dirty or untidy. It can also mean unkempt or uncared for.

In this case, the word "smart" is used in a positive way to describe Lucy. It means that she is intelligent and has a good understanding of things. She is able to learn new things quickly and easily, and she is able to solve problems effectively. Lucy is also a creative and imaginative person.

The correct answer is **A) Western Bengal**.

The Mahalwari system of land revenue was implemented in the western region of Bengal. It was a system of land revenue administration introduced by the British East India Company in the early 19th century. Under this system, the land revenue was collected from the village headmen, who were known as mahalwaridars. The mahalwaridars were responsible for collecting the land revenue from the cultivators and then paying it to the government.

The Mahalwari system was based on the principle of individual responsibility. This meant that each cultivator was responsible for paying the land revenue for the land that he or she cultivated. The land revenue was assessed on the basis of the productivity of the land and the quality of the cultivation.

The Mahalwari system was a major improvement over the previous system of land revenue administration, which was based on the principle of collective responsibility. Under the collective responsibility system, the entire village was responsible for paying the land revenue. This system led to a lot of corruption and exploitation, as the village headmen often collected more land revenue than they were supposed to.

The Mahalwari system was also a major improvement over the previous system of land revenue administration, which was based on the principle of zamindari. Under the zamindari system, the zamindars were the landlords and they were responsible for collecting the land revenue from the cultivators. The zamindars often exploited the cultivators and collected more land revenue than they were supposed to.

The Mahalwari system was a major success and it helped to improve the agricultural productivity of Bengal. The system was also popular with the cultivators, as it gave them more control over their land. The Mahalwari system was eventually replaced by the ryotwari system in the late 19th century, but it remains an important part of the history of land revenue administration in India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the regions of Bengal where the Mahalwari system of land revenue was implemented.

The correct answer is A) 0 to 1.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. The HDI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and is published annually.

The HDI ranges from 0 to 1, with 1 being the highest level of human development. A country's HDI is calculated by taking a weighted average of its scores on three indicators: life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling, and expected years of schooling, and gross national income per capita.

The HDI is a useful tool for comparing the level of human development across countries. However, it is important to note that the HDI is a composite index and does not measure all aspects of human development. For example, it does not measure social inclusion, environmental sustainability, or gender equality.

Option B is incorrect because the HDI does not range from 0 to 10. Option C is incorrect because the HDI does not range from 0 to 100. Option D is incorrect because the HDI does not range from -1 to 1.

The correct answer is: B) Small-scale run-of-river projects.

West Bengal has a long and winding coastline, with many rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal. This makes it an ideal location for small-scale run-of-river hydropower projects. These projects use the natural flow of the river to generate electricity, without the need for large dams or reservoirs.

Small-scale run-of-river projects have a number of advantages over larger dams. They are less disruptive to the environment, they can be built more quickly and cheaply, and they can be operated more flexibly to meet changing electricity demands.

However, small-scale run-of-river projects also have some limitations. They can only be built in certain locations, and they may not be able to generate enough electricity to meet all of the needs of a large population.

Overall, small-scale run-of-river projects are a promising option for hydropower generation in West Bengal. They are environmentally friendly, cost-effective, and flexible. However, they do have some limitations, and it is important to carefully consider all of the options before making a decision about whether or not to build a small-scale run-of-river project.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* A) Large-scale dams: Large-scale dams are the most common type of hydropower project. They use the stored water behind a dam to generate electricity. Large-scale dams can be very expensive to build and operate, and they can have a significant impact on the environment.
* B) Small-scale run-of-river projects: Small-scale run-of-river projects use the natural flow of a river to generate electricity. They are less disruptive to the environment than large-scale dams, and they can be built more quickly and cheaply. However, small-scale run-of-river projects can only be built in certain locations, and they may not be able to generate enough electricity to meet all of the needs of a large population.
* C) Tidal power: Tidal power uses the rise and fall of tides to generate electricity. Tidal power plants are typically located in coastal areas, where there is a large tidal range. Tidal power is a renewable energy source, but it is also a relatively expensive source of electricity.
* D) Geothermal power: Geothermal power uses the heat from the Earth's interior to generate electricity. Geothermal power plants are typically located in areas where there is a high concentration of geothermal energy. Geothermal power is a renewable energy source, but it is also a relatively expensive source of electricity.

The correct answer is: A. Has no religion of its own.

A secular state is a state that does not endorse any particular religion. It is a state that is neutral in matters of religion and does not favor one religion over another. In a secular state, the government does not interfere in religious affairs, and religion does not interfere in government affairs.

Option B is incorrect because a secular state is not necessarily irreligious. A secular state can be home to people of all faiths, and it can allow for the free practice of religion.

Option C is incorrect because a secular state is not necessarily anti-religion. A secular state can respect religion and the role it plays in people's lives.

Option D is incorrect because a secular state does not necessarily take into consideration the religious sentiments of the people. A secular state is neutral in matters of religion, and it does not favor one religion over another.

The correct answer is: Neither 1 nor 2.

The first statement is incorrect because the India-Africa Summit held in 2015 was the fourth such summit. The first India-Africa Summit was held in New Delhi in 2008, the second in Addis Ababa in 2011, and the third in New Delhi in 2013.

The second statement is also incorrect because the India-Africa Summit was not initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951. The idea for a summit between India and Africa was first proposed by Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in 2005.

The India-Africa Summit is a biennial meeting between the leaders of India and Africa. The summit is aimed at strengthening the ties between the two regions and promoting cooperation in areas such as trade, investment, and development.

The correct answer is (d). The Nilgiri hills are a mountain range in southern India that lie at the junction of the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The Nilgiri hills are a popular tourist destination, known for their beautiful scenery, tea plantations, and wildlife.

The Anaimalai hills are a mountain range in southern India that lie in the state of Tamil Nadu. The Anaimalai hills are home to the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, one of the largest tiger reserves in India.

The Palni hills are a mountain range in southern India that lie in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. The Palni hills are home to the Eravikulam National Park, one of the most important elephant reserves in India.

The Nandi hills are a mountain range in southern India that lie in the state of Karnataka. The Nandi hills are a popular pilgrimage destination, known for the Nandi Temple, which is dedicated to the Hindu god Nandi.

The correct answer is (a), Surendra Nath Banerjee.

Surendra Nath Banerjee was an Indian nationalist who played a prominent role in the Indian independence movement. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as its president in 1895. He was also a founder of the Swadeshi movement, which promoted the use of Indian-made goods.

Banerjee was a strong advocate for Indian self-rule. He believed that the British Raj was oppressive and that Indians should have the right to govern themselves. He made this statement in a speech in 1885, in which he argued that the British government was not serving the interests of the Indian people.

The other options are incorrect. R.C. Dutt was a Bengali economist and historian. Dadabhai Naoroji was a Parsi economist and politician who is considered to be the "Father of Indian Economics". Gokhale was a Maharashtrian social reformer and politician who is considered to be one of the architects of modern India.

The correct answer is A. Reporting.

Reporting is the act of conveying information to others. In this case, the news reporter is reporting on the fire by giving a graphic description of how it broke out. This includes providing details about the fire, such as its size, location, and cause. The reporter may also interview eyewitnesses or experts to get their accounts of the fire.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the reporter's actions. Observing is the act of watching something happen. Seeing is the act of perceiving something with the eyes. Quoting is the act of repeating someone else's words. Examining is the act of inspecting something closely.

In this case, the reporter is not simply observing the fire, seeing it, quoting eyewitnesses, or examining it. The reporter is actively reporting on the fire by giving a graphic description of how it broke out.

The Western plateau and the adjoining uplands cover an area comprising the whole of Purulia district, the western part of Birbhum, Bankura and Bardhaman districts and west Midnapore district.

The correct answer is C. Platinum resistance thermometers.

Mercury thermometers are not accurate for scientific work because mercury is a liquid and can expand and contract with changes in temperature. Alcohol thermometers are also not accurate for scientific work because alcohol is a liquid and can expand and contract with changes in temperature. Thermoelectric thermometers are not accurate for scientific work because they are affected by magnetic fields.

Platinum resistance thermometers are the most accurate type of thermometer for scientific work. They are made of platinum, which is a metal that has a very stable resistance to electricity. When the temperature changes, the resistance of the platinum changes in a predictable way. This allows scientists to measure temperature very accurately.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Mercury thermometers: Mercury thermometers are the most common type of thermometer. They work by measuring the expansion and contraction of mercury in a glass tube. Mercury thermometers are not very accurate for scientific work because mercury is a liquid and can expand and contract with changes in temperature.
• Alcohol thermometers: Alcohol thermometers work in the same way as mercury thermometers, but they use alcohol instead of mercury. Alcohol thermometers are not as accurate as mercury thermometers because alcohol is a liquid and can expand and contract with changes in temperature.
• Thermoelectric thermometers: Thermoelectric thermometers work by measuring the voltage that is generated when two different metals are connected together. Thermoelectric thermometers are not accurate for scientific work because they are affected by magnetic fields.
• Platinum resistance thermometers: Platinum resistance thermometers work by measuring the resistance of a platinum wire. When the temperature changes, the resistance of the platinum wire changes in a predictable way. This allows scientists to measure temperature very accurately.

The correct answer is: A. Assam

Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the northern Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. The Odyssey is an epic poem by Homer that tells the story of Odysseus's journey home to Ithaca after the Trojan War. The poem is set in the Aegean Sea and the Mediterranean Sea, and it includes many references to places in Greece, Turkey, and Italy.

Assam is a state in northeastern India that is home to a number of different ethnic groups, including the Assamese, Bodo, and Karbi. The state is known for its tea plantations, its wildlife, and its culture. The Assamese people have a rich history and culture, and they are known for their hospitality and their love of music and dance.

The Odyssey is one of the most famous works of literature in the world, and it has been translated into many languages. The poem has been adapted into a number of different forms, including films, operas, and ballets. The Odyssey is a story of adventure, love, and loss, and it has been enjoyed by people of all ages for centuries.

The following are brief explanations of each option:

• B. Kerala: Kerala is a state in southwestern India that is known for its beautiful beaches, its backwaters, and its culture. The people of Kerala are known for their hospitality and their love of music and dance. However, Kerala is not the place where the Odyssey is set.
• C. Orissa: Orissa is a state in eastern India that is known for its temples, its wildlife, and its culture. The people of Orissa are known for their hospitality and their love of music and dance. However, Orissa is not the place where the Odyssey is set.
• D. Gujarat: Gujarat is a state in northwestern India that is known for its temples, its wildlife, and its culture. The people of Gujarat are known for their hospitality and their love of music and dance. However, Gujarat is not the place where the Odyssey is set.

The correct answer is (a) Warship.

INS Shakti is a guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy. It is the lead ship of the Kolkata-class destroyers. The ship was built at Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai and was commissioned into the Indian Navy on 25 November 2014.

INS Shakti is a 6,100-ton destroyer with a length of 163 meters and a beam of 17 meters. It has a top speed of 30 knots and a range of 7,500 nautical miles. The ship is armed with a variety of weapons, including a 16-cell Barak 8 surface-to-air missile system, a 64-cell vertical launch system for Brahmos anti-ship cruise missiles, a 127 mm main gun, and two 30 mm close-in weapon systems.

INS Shakti is a highly capable warship that plays a vital role in the Indian Navy's mission to protect India's maritime interests.

(b) Submarine is incorrect because INS Shakti is a warship, not a submarine. Submarines are underwater vessels that are used for military purposes. They are typically armed with torpedoes and missiles, and they can travel long distances underwater.

(c) Destroyer is incorrect because INS Shakti is a warship, not a destroyer. Destroyers are warships that are smaller than aircraft carriers, but larger than frigates. They are typically armed with guns, missiles, and torpedoes, and they are used to protect aircraft carriers and other warships.

(d) Rocket launcher is incorrect because INS Shakti is a warship, not a rocket launcher. Rocket launchers are weapons that are used to launch rockets. They are typically used to fire rockets at ground targets, but they can also be used to fire rockets at aircraft.

The correct answer is: A. directly elected by the people.

The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India. It is composed of 543 members, who are directly elected by the people of India. The members are elected from single-member constituencies using the first-past-the-post system.

The Lok Sabha is the more powerful of the two houses of Parliament. It has the power to pass laws, approve the budget, and remove the Prime Minister and other members of the government from office.

The Lok Sabha is a powerful institution that plays a vital role in the Indian democracy. It is directly elected by the people and has the power to make laws and remove the government from office.

Option B is incorrect because the members of the Lok Sabha are not indirectly elected. They are directly elected by the people of India.

Option C is incorrect because the members of the Lok Sabha are not nominated. They are directly elected by the people of India.

Option D is incorrect because the members of the Lok Sabha are not partly elected and partly nominated. They are directly elected by the people of India.

The correct answer is A. 15243.

The word "crown" is a noun that refers to a headdress worn by a monarch or other high-ranking person. The word "glory" is a noun that refers to great fame or honor. The word "together" is an adverb that means in company with one another. The word "exist" is a verb that means to be or to have being. The word "and" is a conjunction that joins words, phrases, or clauses.

In the sentence "The crown and glory of existence is to exist together," the word "crown" is used as a metaphor for the highest achievement or goal. The word "glory" is used to emphasize the importance of this achievement. The word "together" is used to emphasize the fact that this achievement can only be achieved through cooperation and collaboration. The word "exist" is used to emphasize the fact that this achievement is a state of being, rather than a goal to be achieved. The word "and" is used to join the two clauses of the sentence.

The other options are incorrect because they do not make sense in the context of the sentence. Option B, 14523, is incorrect because the word "exist" comes before the word "together." Option C, 32541, is incorrect because the word "and" comes before the word "exist." Option D, 25413, is incorrect because the word "together" comes before the word "exist."

The correct answer is: A. culture and civilisation

The lotus is a symbol of purity, enlightenment, and rebirth in many Eastern religions and cultures. It is often depicted as growing out of muddy water, symbolizing the ability to rise above difficult circumstances. The lotus is also a symbol of fertility and abundance.

The lotus is a popular motif in art, architecture, and literature. It is also used as a decorative motif on clothing, jewelry, and other objects.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• B. peace The lotus is sometimes associated with peace, but this is not its primary significance. The lotus is more often associated with purity, enlightenment, and rebirth.
• C. justice The lotus is not typically associated with justice. This symbol is more often associated with law, order, and authority.
• D. sign of mourning in protest The lotus is not typically associated with mourning or protest. This symbol is more often associated with joy, happiness, and celebration.

The correct answer is D. Asylum.

A rabbit is an animal that lives in a burrow. A lunatic is a person who is mentally ill. An asylum is a place where mentally ill people are kept.

A burrow is a hole in the ground that a rabbit lives in. It is usually made of dirt and grass, and it has a small opening at the top. Rabbits use their burrows to sleep, hide from predators, and raise their young.

An asylum is a place where mentally ill people are kept. It is usually a large building with many rooms, and it has staff who are trained to care for the patients. Asylums were once called "insane asylums" or "mental institutions."

The other options are not correct because they are not places where lunatics live. A prison is a place where criminals are kept. A cell is a small room in a prison. A barrack is a building where soldiers live.

The correct answer is: B. Read Only Memory

ROM stands for Read Only Memory. It is a type of non-volatile memory that is used to store permanent data. This data can be read from the ROM, but it cannot be changed. ROM is often used to store the basic instructions that a computer needs to start up.

The other options are incorrect.

• A. Royal Ontario Museum is a museum located in Toronto, Canada.
• C. Read on Monday is not a valid acronym.
• D. Real Obsolute Memory is not a valid acronym.

The correct answer is (b) Nine.

Rajtarangini is a historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir, written by Kalhana in Sanskrit. It is divided into eight books, or tarangas, which cover the period from the reign of Pariharochana in the 3rd century BCE to the reign of Harsha in the 7th century CE.

The first taranga deals with the legendary kings of Kashmir. The second taranga deals with the early historical kings of Kashmir, up to the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida in the 8th century CE. The third taranga deals with the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida. The fourth taranga deals with the reign of his son, Vajraditya. The fifth taranga deals with the reign of his grandson, Bhimadeva. The sixth taranga deals with the reign of his great-grandson, Kshemagupta. The seventh taranga deals with the reign of his great-great-grandson, Didda. The eighth taranga deals with the reign of her grandson, Harsha.

Rajtarangini is an important source of information on the history of Kashmir. It is also a valuable work of literature, and is considered to be one of the masterpieces of Sanskrit literature.

The Hindu College was established in 1817 by Raja Rammohan Roy, Radhakanta Deb, David Hare, Justice Sir Edward Hyde, Baidyanath Mukhopadhyay ana Rasamay Dutt.

The correct answer is (b), Pikard Vs. Sears.

Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act states that "the burden of proving any fact lies on the person who would be affected by its not being proved." This means that the person who is making a claim has to provide evidence to support that claim. If they cannot provide evidence, then the claim is not considered to be true.

The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that states that "the thing speaks for itself." This means that if there is evidence that something happened, and there is no other reasonable explanation for how it happened, then the court can infer that the person who is responsible for the thing happening is also responsible for the evidence.

In the case of Pikard Vs. Sears, the plaintiff was injured when he was struck by a car. The defendant claimed that the plaintiff was at fault for the accident. However, the court found that the evidence showed that the accident was caused by the defendant's negligence. The court applied the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur to infer that the defendant was responsible for the accident.

The other options are incorrect because they do not involve the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.

(a) Banwari Lal Vs. Sukhdarshan is a case about the burden of proof. The court held that the burden of proof lies on the person who makes the claim.

(c) B. Coleman Vs. P.P. Das Gupta is a case about the admissibility of evidence. The court held that evidence is admissible if it is relevant and reliable.

(d) Vishnu Datt Sharma Vs. Dayasharan is a case about the presumption of innocence. The court held that a person is presumed innocent until proven guilty.

The correct answer is A) Rainwater harvesting.

Rainwater harvesting is the process of collecting and storing rainwater for reuse in a variety of ways. It is a sustainable way to meet water needs and can help to reduce water pollution. Rainwater harvesting can be used for domestic purposes, such as drinking, cooking, and bathing, as well as for irrigation and industrial purposes.

Drip irrigation is a method of irrigation that delivers water directly to the roots of plants, using small amounts of water at a time. It is a more efficient way to irrigate than traditional methods, such as flood irrigation, and can help to conserve water. Drip irrigation is often used in agriculture, but it can also be used in home gardens and landscaping.

Construction of dams is a method of water management that involves the construction of a barrier across a river or stream to create a reservoir. Dams can be used for a variety of purposes, such as flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation. However, dams can also have negative environmental impacts, such as the loss of habitat and the disruption of fish migration.

Cleaning of rivers is the process of removing pollutants from rivers and streams. It is an important environmental issue, as polluted rivers can have a negative impact on human health, aquatic life, and the environment. There are a variety of methods that can be used to clean rivers, such as dredging, filtering, and bioremediation.

In conclusion, the state government has launched the 'Jal Dharo Jal Bharo' scheme to promote rainwater harvesting. Rainwater harvesting is a sustainable way to meet water needs and can help to reduce water pollution.

The correct answer is: Serena Williams.

Serena Williams won the Women's French Open Title in 2013. She defeated Maria Sharapova in the final, 6-4, 6-4. This was Williams' 16th Grand Slam singles title, and her second French Open title.

Maria Sharapova is a Russian professional tennis player. She is the former world No. 1 in singles and has won five Grand Slam singles titles, including the 2012 French Open.

Victoria Azarenka is a Belarusian professional tennis player. She is the former world No. 1 in singles and has won two Grand Slam singles titles, including the 2012 Australian Open.

Venus Williams is an American professional tennis player. She is the former world No. 1 in singles and has won seven Grand Slam singles titles, including the 2002 French Open.

The correct answer is: B. Yamamoto

A. Nimitz was an American admiral who served as the Commander in Chief of the U.S. Pacific Fleet during World War II.

C. Nelson was a British admiral who served as the First Lord of the Admiralty during the Napoleonic Wars.

D. Montgomery was a British field marshal who served as the Commander-in-Chief of the Allied Expeditionary Force during the D-Day landings.

Yamamoto was a Japanese admiral who served as the Commander-in-Chief of the Combined Fleet during World War II. He is considered to be one of the most brilliant naval strategists of the 20th century. However, he is also known for his role in the attack on Pearl Harbor, which brought the United States into World War II.

The correct answer is (a) North Bengal.

Pundravardhana Bhukti was a province of the Gupta Empire located in the eastern part of the Indian subcontinent. It was bordered by the Ganges River to the west, the Himalayas to the north, the Brahmaputra River to the east, and the Bay of Bengal to the south. The capital of Pundravardhana Bhukti was at Pundranagara, which is now located in the Indian state of West Bengal.

Pundravardhana Bhukti was a major center of trade and commerce. It was also a major center of Buddhist learning. The famous Buddhist scholar Vasubandhu was born in Pundravardhana Bhukti.

Pundravardhana Bhukti was conquered by the Pala Empire in the 8th century CE. It remained under Pala rule until the 12th century CE, when it was conquered by the Sena Empire.

Pundravardhana Bhukti was a major cultural and economic center during the Gupta and Pala periods. It was a major center of trade and commerce, and it was also a major center of Buddhist learning.

The correct answer is: B. 1945

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations as a successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice. The ICJ is composed of 15 judges elected by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. The judges serve for nine-year terms and are eligible for re-election.

The ICJ has jurisdiction to settle legal disputes between states and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The ICJ's decisions are binding on the parties to the dispute.

The ICJ is located in The Hague, Netherlands.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: 1947 is the year in which the ICJ's Statute came into force.
• Option C: 1950 is the year in which the ICJ held its first session.
• Option D: 1948 is the year in which the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted.

The correct answer is: D. confined groundwater

Confined groundwater is groundwater that is trapped between two impermeable layers of rock or sediment. The pressure of the water in the confined aquifer is greater than the atmospheric pressure, which causes the water to rise to the surface. This type of aquifer is often used for drinking water and irrigation.

Unconfined groundwater is groundwater that is not trapped between two impermeable layers. The water in an unconfined aquifer is in contact with the atmosphere, which means that the pressure of the water is equal to the atmospheric pressure. This type of aquifer is often used for drinking water and irrigation.

An artesian well is a well that taps into a confined aquifer. The water in an artesian well rises to the surface without the need for pumping, because the pressure of the water in the aquifer is greater than the atmospheric pressure.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is C. hate.

To commend someone means to praise them or express approval of their actions. The opposite of commend is to hate, which means to feel intense dislike or aversion towards someone or something.

The other options are not antonyms of commend.

• Suspend means to temporarily stop someone from doing something, such as their job or studies.
• Admonish means to warn or scold someone, usually in a formal or official way.
• Dislike means to feel a lack of interest in or fondness for someone or something.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (d). Darling is a river in Australia. It is the longest river in New South Wales, and the second longest river in Australia, after the Murray River. The Darling River rises in the Great Dividing Range in the Snowy Mountains, and flows west and then south for 2,700 kilometers (1,680 mi) before joining the Murray River near Wentworth. The Darling River is a major source of water for irrigation and agriculture in the Murray-Darling Basin. It is also a popular destination for fishing, boating, and camping.

(a) A canal is a man-made waterway that is used for transportation or irrigation. Canals are typically much smaller than rivers, and they are often straighter.

(b) A city is a large human settlement. Cities are typically defined by their population size, density, and infrastructure.

(c) A lake is a large body of water that is surrounded by land. Lakes can be freshwater or saltwater, and they can be natural or man-made.

The correct answer is D. The Captain said to his men, "Stand at ease."

The other options are incorrect because they do not use the imperative mood, which is the mood used to give commands. In option A, the Captain is commanding his men, but he is not using the imperative mood. In option B, the Captain is stating a fact, not giving a command. In option C, the Captain is giving permission, not giving a command.

The imperative mood is used to give commands, make requests, or offer suggestions. It is the most direct form of speech, and it is often used in formal settings, such as when giving orders in the military or when giving instructions in a classroom.

In the sentence "The Captain said to his men, 'Stand at ease,'" the Captain is using the imperative mood to give a command to his men. He is telling them to stop what they are doing and to relax. The use of the imperative mood makes it clear that this is a command, not a suggestion.

The correct answer is: C. Daman and Diu

Marathi is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by about 83 million people in India. It is the official language of the state of Maharashtra and is also spoken in the states of Goa, Gujarat, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh. Marathi is a member of the Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European language family. It is closely related to Hindi, Gujarati, and Konkani.

Daman and Diu is a union territory of India located on the western coast of the country. It is made up of two former Portuguese enclaves, Daman and Diu. The official languages of Daman and Diu are Marathi and Gujarati.

A. Chandigarh is the capital of the Indian states of Punjab and Haryana. The official languages of Chandigarh are Punjabi and Hindi.

B. Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a union territory of India located on the western coast of the country. It is made up of two former Portuguese enclaves, Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The official languages of Dadra and Nagar Haveli are Gujarati and Marathi.

D. Delhi is the capital of India. The official languages of Delhi are Hindi and English.

The correct answer is: **D) Crops during all seasons**.

Protected cultivation using greenhouses is beneficial for growing crops during all seasons because it provides a controlled environment that can be tailored to the specific needs of the crop. This can include providing protection from extreme weather conditions, such as frost and drought, as well as providing a consistent temperature and humidity level. Greenhouses can also be used to extend the growing season, allowing crops to be grown earlier in the spring or later in the fall.

Option A is incorrect because high-value crops are often grown in open fields, where they can benefit from natural sunlight and ventilation. Option B is incorrect because desert plants are adapted to grow in dry, arid conditions, and would not thrive in a greenhouse environment. Option C is incorrect because drought-tolerant crops are also adapted to grow in dry conditions, and would not require the same level of protection as other crops.

In conclusion, protected cultivation using greenhouses is beneficial for growing crops during all seasons because it provides a controlled environment that can be tailored to the specific needs of the crop.

The correct answer is: Cricket.

The Agha Khan Cup is an international cricket tournament held every four years between teams from the Asian Cricket Council (ACC). The tournament was first held in 1980 and is named after the Aga Khan, the spiritual leader of the Ismaili Muslims. The current holders of the Agha Khan Cup are Pakistan, who won the 2014 tournament.

The Agha Khan Cup is one of the most prestigious cricket tournaments in the world. It is a major prize for the teams that participate in it, and it is a great opportunity for them to showcase their skills. The tournament is also a great opportunity for the fans of cricket to see some of the best players in the world in action.

The Agha Khan Cup is a very competitive tournament. The teams that participate in it are all very strong, and they all have a chance of winning the tournament. The matches in the tournament are always very close, and they are always exciting to watch.

The Agha Khan Cup is a great event for cricket. It is a great opportunity for the teams to showcase their skills, and it is a great opportunity for the fans to see some of the best players in the world in action.

The other options are incorrect because they are not associated with cricket. Badminton is a racquet sport played by two or four players against a net. Hockey is a team sport in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. Football is a team sport that involves, to the basic rules, two teams of eleven players trying to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms.

The correct answer is: B. petrol.

Power alcohol is a mixture of petrol and ethyl alcohol. It is used as a fuel in internal combustion engines. It is a cleaner-burning fuel than petrol, and it produces fewer emissions. It is also less volatile than petrol, which makes it safer to handle.

Diesel is a fuel oil that is used in diesel engines. It is a heavier fuel than petrol, and it has a higher cetane number. Cetane number is a measure of the ignition quality of a fuel. Diesel engines require a fuel with a high cetane number in order to operate properly.

Kerosene is a fuel oil that is used in jet engines. It is a lighter fuel than diesel, and it has a lower cetane number. Kerosene engines require a fuel with a low cetane number in order to operate properly.

Mustard is a condiment that is made from the seeds of the mustard plant. It is a yellow or brown paste that is used to add flavor to food. It is not a fuel.

The correct answer is C. Sardar Sarovar project.

Medha Patkar is an Indian social activist who has been involved in a number of movements against large dams, including the Sardar Sarovar project. The Sardar Sarovar project is a hydroelectric dam on the Narmada River in Gujarat, India. The project has been controversial since its inception, with critics arguing that it will displace thousands of people and damage the environment. Patkar has been a leading voice in the opposition to the project, and she has been arrested and jailed on several occasions for her activism.

The Tehri project is a hydroelectric dam on the Tehri River in Uttarakhand, India. The project has also been controversial, with critics arguing that it will displace thousands of people and damage the environment. Patkar has been involved in the opposition to the project, but she has not been as closely associated with it as she has with the Sardar Sarovar project.

The Enron project was a natural gas power plant project in Dabhol, India. The project was controversial, with critics arguing that it was a bad deal for India and that it would damage the environment. Patkar was involved in the opposition to the project, but she was not as closely associated with it as she has been with the Sardar Sarovar and Tehri projects.

The correct answer is (a). Mahatma Gandhi called Subhash Chandra Bose as ‘Desh Nayak’.

Mahatma Gandhi was a prominent Indian lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist, and civil rights activist who employed nonviolent civil disobedience to lead the successful campaign for India's independence from British rule, and in turn inspired movements for civil rights and freedom across the world. The honorific title "Mahatma", meaning "high-souled", was bestowed on him first in 1914 in South Africa, and became widely used in India in the 1920s. He is internationally honored as the Father of India.

Subhash Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist who was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement. He was the founder of the Indian National Army (INA), which fought against the British in World War II. Bose is also known as Netaji, which means "respected leader".

In 1939, Bose resigned from the Indian National Congress (INC) and formed the All India Forward Bloc. He was arrested by the British in 1940 and imprisoned for two years. After his release, he escaped from India and went to Germany, where he formed the Indian National Army (INA). The INA fought against the British in World War II. Bose died in a plane crash in Taiwan in 1945.

Gandhi and Bose were both prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement, but they had different approaches to achieving independence. Gandhi believed in nonviolent resistance, while Bose believed in armed struggle. Despite their differences, Gandhi and Bose both played a vital role in the independence of India.

The correct answer is: C. to compete successful with the rival firms

A firm under monopolistic competition advertises to create a brand identity and differentiate itself from its rivals. This can help the firm to attract more customers and charge a higher price.

Option A is incorrect because advertising does not usually lower the cost of production. In fact, advertising can be quite expensive.

Option B is incorrect because advertising does not always lead to increased sales and profits. In some cases, advertising can actually lead to lower sales and profits if it is not done effectively.

Option D is incorrect because a firm under monopolistic competition can raise the price, but it will not be able to raise the price as much as a firm under monopoly. This is because there are other firms in the market that offer similar products, so customers have more choices.

The answer is: B. Ostrich

Ostriches are flightless birds, while the other three options are all birds that can fly. Ostriches are also the largest living birds, with males reaching heights of up to 9 feet and weighing up to 340 pounds. They are native to Africa, where they live in open grasslands and savannas. Ostriches are herbivores and their diet consists mainly of grasses, leaves, and fruits. They are social animals and live in groups of up to 50 birds. Ostriches are known for their long necks and legs, as well as their ability to run at speeds of up to 43 miles per hour.

Albatrosses are large seabirds that are found in the Southern Ocean. They are excellent swimmers and can dive to depths of over 1,000 feet in search of food. Albatrosses are also excellent flyers and can travel long distances over the open ocean. They are known for their long, graceful wings and their ability to soar on the wind.

Pelicans are large waterbirds that are found in both fresh and saltwater habitats. They have long, hooked bills that they use to catch fish. Pelicans are also known for their large pouches, which they use to store food. Pelicans are social birds and live in colonies of up to 100 birds.

Penguins are flightless birds that are found in the Southern Hemisphere. They are well-adapted to cold climates and have thick feathers that help to keep them warm. Penguins are also excellent swimmers and can dive to depths of over 1,000 feet in search of food. Penguins are social animals and live in colonies of up to 100,000 birds.

Under Sobujshree scheme, a sapling will be given to every new born child at the time of release from the hospital. Parents are requested to plant that sapling and name it after their child so that as the child grows, the sapling also turns into a tree thus offering flowers, fruits and oxygen.

The correct answer is (c). Green plants are an essential part of an ecosystem. They are the primary producers, meaning that they are the organisms that convert sunlight into energy through photosynthesis. This energy is then used by other organisms in the ecosystem, such as animals and bacteria. Green plants also play a role in regulating the climate by absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and releasing oxygen.

(a) Mountains are not the most stable ecosystems. They are constantly changing due to erosion and other natural processes.
(b) Bacteria are an example of an biotic component, which is a non-living part of an ecosystem. Other examples of abiotic components include water, soil, and air.
(d) Rainfall is not a correctly matched pair. Rainfall is a natural process that can affect ecosystems, but it is not an essential part of an ecosystem.

The correct answer is: **C) Social security**.

The Banglar Manush scheme is a social security scheme launched by the Government of Bangladesh in 2018. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh. The scheme provides a monthly allowance of Tk. 500 to each beneficiary. The scheme is also providing other benefits such as health insurance, education allowance, and housing assistance.

The Banglar Manush scheme is a very important initiative of the Government of Bangladesh. The scheme will help to improve the lives of the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh. The scheme will also help to reduce poverty and inequality in Bangladesh.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Healthcare. The Banglar Manush scheme is not aimed at providing healthcare. However, the Government of Bangladesh has launched several other schemes to provide healthcare to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh. For example, the Government of Bangladesh has launched the Swasthya Sathi scheme, which provides free healthcare to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh.
* Option B: Education. The Banglar Manush scheme is not aimed at providing education. However, the Government of Bangladesh has launched several other schemes to provide education to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh. For example, the Government of Bangladesh has launched the Shikkha Sathi scheme, which provides free education to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh.
* Option C: Social security. The Banglar Manush scheme is aimed at providing social security. The scheme provides a monthly allowance of Tk. 500 to each beneficiary. The scheme is also providing other benefits such as health insurance, education allowance, and housing assistance.
* Option D: Housing. The Banglar Manush scheme is not aimed at providing housing. However, the Government of Bangladesh has launched several other schemes to provide housing to the poor and vulnerable people of Bangladesh. For example, the Government of Bangladesh has launched the Ashrayan Prokolpo, which provides housing to the homeless people of Bangladesh.

The correct answer is: A. Cloudiness.

An isoneph is a line of equal cloud cover. It is a type of isoline, a line on a map that connects points of equal value. In this case, the value is the amount of cloud cover. Isonephs are used to show the distribution of cloud cover over an area.

Salinity is the saltiness of a substance. It is measured in parts per thousand (ppt). Salinity is important in oceanography because it affects the density of seawater and the distribution of marine life.

Rainfall is the amount of precipitation that falls in a given area over a period of time. It is measured in millimeters or inches. Rainfall is important in agriculture because it provides water for crops.

Pressure is the force exerted by a fluid on a surface. It is measured in pascals (Pa). Pressure is important in meteorology because it affects the weather.

The total length of National Highways in West Bengal is 3664.5 km (till November, 2018).

Under Gatidhara scheme, government provides loans on easy terms to buy cars/trucks/lorries (30% of the price of Rs.1 lakh) for commercial use. This cheme is very popular with unemployed youth as it provides alternative source of employment.

The correct answer is D. Both A and C.

Consumer surplus is the difference between the maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for a good and the price they actually pay. It is represented by the area below the demand curve and above the price line.

The maximum price a consumer is willing to pay is the vertical intercept of the demand curve. The minimum price a producer is willing to sell at is the vertical intercept of the supply curve. The area between the demand curve and the supply curve is the total value that consumers receive from consuming the good.

The area of the triangle formed by the demand curve, the price axis, and the equilibrium price line is also equal to consumer surplus. This is because the triangle is bounded by the demand curve, which represents the maximum price consumers are willing to pay, the price axis, which represents the price consumers actually pay, and the equilibrium price line, which represents the price at which the market clears.

Therefore, both A and C are correct.

The correct answer is A) Sundari.

The Sundarbans is a vast mangrove forest delta in the Bay of Bengal, straddling the border between Bangladesh and India. It is the world's largest mangrove forest, and is home to a wide variety of plant and animal life. The Sundari tree is the most common tree species in the Sundarbans, and is found in large stands throughout the forest. It is a tall, evergreen tree with a dense canopy, and is an important part of the Sundarbans ecosystem. The Sundari tree provides food and shelter for a variety of animals, and its roots help to stabilize the soil and prevent erosion.

Sal is another common tree species in the Sundarbans, but it is not as abundant as the Sundari tree. Sal is a deciduous tree with a large canopy, and is an important source of timber. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree that is not native to the Sundarbans. It is a valuable timber tree, and is often planted in plantations. Deodar is a coniferous tree that is native to the Himalayas. It is not found in the Sundarbans.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* Sundari: A tall, evergreen tree with a dense canopy, and is an important part of the Sundarbans ecosystem. The Sundari tree provides food and shelter for a variety of animals, and its roots help to stabilize the soil and prevent erosion.
* Sal: A deciduous tree with a large canopy, and is an important source of timber.
* Teak: A tropical hardwood tree that is not native to the Sundarbans. It is a valuable timber tree, and is often planted in plantations.
* Deodar: A coniferous tree that is native to the Himalayas. It is not found in the Sundarbans.

The correct answer is: A) Boost horticulture development.

Government initiatives like the 'National Horticulture Mission' aim to boost horticulture development by providing financial assistance, technical support, and marketing assistance to farmers. This helps to increase the production of fruits, vegetables, and flowers, which in turn leads to increased employment opportunities and income for farmers.

Option B is incorrect because the 'National Horticulture Mission' does not aim to restrict crop production. In fact, it aims to increase the production of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.

Option C is incorrect because the 'National Horticulture Mission' does not aim to promote deforestation. In fact, it aims to conserve forests and promote sustainable agriculture.

Option D is incorrect because the 'National Horticulture Mission' does not aim to increase unemployment. In fact, it aims to create employment opportunities for farmers and others in the horticulture sector.

Tagore Memorial Museum in Darjeeling district is located at Kalimpong. It is also called Rabindra Bhavan.

The correct answer is E. had to evacuate.

The verb "evacuate" means to leave a place because it is dangerous or unsafe. In this case, the orders were that the people in the area had to evacuate within hours to prevent further loss of life. This means that they were required to leave the area immediately, and that there was a risk of death if they did not.

The other options are not correct because they do not convey the same sense of urgency. Option A, "had evacuated," would imply that the people had already left the area, which is not the case. Option B, "have to evacuate," would imply that the people are required to leave the area at some point in the future, but there is no sense of urgency. Option C, "will have evacuated," would imply that the people will have left the area by a certain point in the future, but there is no sense of urgency. Option D, "shall have to evacuate," is similar to option B, but it is more formal.

In conclusion, the correct answer is E. had to evacuate. This is because it conveys the sense of urgency that is implied in the sentence.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The limit $lim_{xtoinfty}x^{1/x}$ is not defined. This is because as $x$ approaches infinity, the value of $x^{1/x}$ approaches both 0 and infinity.

For example, when $x=1$, $x^{1/x}=1$. When $x=10$, $x^{1/x}=10^{1/10}approx 1.054$. When $x=100$, $x^{1/x}=100^{1/100}approx 1.0546$. As you can see, the value of $x^{1/x}$ is getting closer and closer to 1 as $x$ gets larger.

However, when $x=1/10$, $x^{1/x}=10^{-1/10}approx 0.954$. When $x=1/100$, $x^{1/x}=10^{-1/100}approx 0.9546$. As you can see, the value of $x^{1/x}$ is getting closer and closer to 0 as $x$ gets smaller.

Therefore, the limit $lim_{xtoinfty}x^{1/x}$ does not exist.

The correct answer is: B. Cemetery

The word "cemetery" is a noun that refers to a place where dead people are buried. It is derived from the Greek words "koimeterion", meaning "sleeping place", and "nekros", meaning "dead". The word "cemetery" is first attested in English in the 16th century.

The other options are incorrect spellings of the word "cemetery". The word "cemetry" is a common misspelling, but it is not the correct spelling. The words "cemetary" and "cemmetery" are also incorrect spellings.

The word "cemetery" is a relatively common word, and it is important to be able to spell it correctly. The word "cemetery" is often used in formal writing, and it is important to be able to spell it correctly in order to avoid making a mistake.

The correct answer is (c), Tarai-Bhabar.

The Kham system was a revenue system introduced by the British Administration in the Tarai-Bhabar region of Uttarakhand in the 19th century. It was a system of land tenure in which the land was held by the government and leased to tenants on a yearly basis. The tenants were responsible for paying a fixed rent to the government, and they were also required to provide labor services to the government.

The Kham system was a controversial system, and it was eventually abolished in the early 20th century. However, it had a significant impact on the development of the Tarai-Bhabar region, and it continues to be a topic of debate among historians and social scientists.

The other options are incorrect because they are not areas of Uttarakhand where the Kham system was introduced.

(a) Rawain is a tehsil in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
(b) Jaunpur is a district in the Uttar Pradesh state of India.
(d) Bhotantik Area is a region in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand.

Anil Kumble played for Northamptonshire and Leicestershire.

Anil Kumble is an Indian former cricketer who played international cricket from 1990 to 2008. He is the highest wicket-taker in Test cricket for India, with 619 wickets in 132 matches. He is also the only bowler to have taken all 10 wickets in a Test innings, which he achieved twice.

Kumble was born in Bangalore, India, on 17 October 1970. He made his Test debut for India in 1990 against England. He quickly established himself as one of India's leading bowlers, and was a key member of the team that won the 1996 Cricket World Cup.

Kumble retired from international cricket in 2008. He is now a cricket commentator and coach.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Nottinghamshire and Lancashire. Nottinghamshire is a county in England, while Lancashire is a county in the north of England. Both counties have a long history of cricket, and have produced many famous cricketers. However, Kumble never played for either county.
• Option B: Nottinghamshire and Leicestershire. Leicestershire is a county in the east of England, while Nottinghamshire is a county in the Midlands. Both counties have a long history of cricket, and have produced many famous cricketers. However, Kumble never played for either county.
• Option C: Northamptonshire and Leicestershire. Northamptonshire is a county in the east of England, while Leicestershire is a county in the east Midlands. Both counties have a long history of cricket, and have produced many famous cricketers. Kumble played for Northamptonshire from 1992 to 1999, and for Leicestershire from 2000 to 2004.
• Option D: Northamptonshire and Lancashire. Northamptonshire is a county in the east of England, while Lancashire is a county in the north of England. Both counties have a long history of cricket, and have produced many famous cricketers. However, Kumble never played for either county.

The correct answer is: A. weathered parent material that is not affected by translocation and organic modification.

The horizontal of soil profile is composed of weathered parent material that is not affected by translocation and organic modification. This material is called the A horizon. It is the top layer of soil and is the most fertile. The A horizon is made up of organic matter, minerals, and water. The organic matter comes from plants and animals that have died and decomposed. The minerals come from the parent material, which is the rock that the soil was formed from. The water comes from precipitation and from the ground.

The A horizon is important because it is where plants grow. The plants take in the minerals and water from the A horizon and use them to grow. The A horizon also helps to protect the underlying soil from erosion.

The A horizon is a dynamic layer of soil. It is constantly changing as plants grow and die, as minerals are weathered, and as water moves through the soil. The A horizon is also affected by human activities, such as agriculture and development.

The A horizon is a valuable resource. It is important to protect the A horizon from erosion and contamination. We can do this by planting trees and other vegetation, by using sustainable agricultural practices, and by reducing pollution.

The other options are incorrect because they do not describe the horizontal of soil profile.

Option B: material affected by translocation & organic modification is incorrect because the A horizon is not affected by translocation and organic modification.

Option C: unweathered bedrock is incorrect because the A horizon is made up of weathered parent material.

Option D: None of the above is incorrect because one of the options is correct.

The correct answer is: C. Air vapourises the sweat on our body.

When we sit near a fan, the fan blows air over our skin. This air helps to evaporate the sweat on our skin, which cools us down. Sweat is a liquid that is produced by our bodies to help regulate our temperature. When sweat evaporates, it takes heat away from our bodies, which makes us feel cooler.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the fan does not actually cool the air. The fan simply blows air over our skin, which helps to evaporate the sweat on our skin.
• Option B is incorrect because the fan does not actually cool the surrounding air. The fan simply blows air over our skin, which helps to evaporate the sweat on our skin.
• Option D is incorrect because we feel cool when air touches our body because the air helps to evaporate the sweat on our skin.

The correct answer is A. Agra.

Moti Masjid is a mosque located in the Agra Fort in Agra, India. It was built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in the 17th century. The mosque is made of white marble and is decorated with intricate inlay work. It is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Agra.

Agra is a city on the banks of the Yamuna river in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the most popular tourist destinations in India, known for its many historical monuments, including the Taj Mahal. Agra was the capital of the Mughal Empire from 1526 to 1658.

Jaipur is the capital of the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is known for its palaces, forts, and temples. Jaipur was founded in 1727 by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II. It is the largest city in Rajasthan and the second largest city in the state of Madhya Pradesh.

Lahore is the capital of the Pakistani province of Punjab. It is the second largest city in Pakistan after Karachi. Lahore is a major cultural and historical center. It was the capital of the Mughal Empire from 1526 to 1739.

Ahmedabad is the capital of the Indian state of Gujarat. It is the sixth largest city in India and the largest city in Gujarat. Ahmedabad was founded in 1411 by Ahmed Shah I. It is a major commercial and industrial center.

The correct answer is: **B) Rabindra Setu (Howrah Bridge)**

The Rabindra Setu, also known as the Howrah Bridge, is a cantilever bridge that spans the Hooghly River, connecting Kolkata on the west bank to Howrah on the east bank. It is the second-longest cantilever bridge in India, after the Bandra-Worli Sea Link in Mumbai. The bridge was opened in 1943 and is named after Rabindranath Tagore, the first Indian Nobel laureate.

The Rabindra Setu is a vital link between Kolkata and Howrah, two of the most important cities in West Bengal. It is a major transportation artery, carrying both road and rail traffic. The bridge is also a popular tourist destination, offering stunning views of the Hooghly River and the city skyline.

The other options are incorrect because:

* A) Vidyasagar Setu is a bridge that connects Kolkata with Dakshineswar across the Hooghly River.
* C) Nivedita Setu is a bridge that connects Kolkata with Garden Reach across the Hooghly River.
* D) Vivekananda Setu is a bridge that connects Kolkata with Bally across the Hooghly River.

The correct answer is (b).

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was set up in 1957 to study the working of the Community Development Programme and National Extension Service. The Committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj System with elected representatives at the village, block and district levels. The Committee also recommended that the Panchayati Raj institutions should be entrusted with a wide range of functions, including agriculture, education, health, rural development and social welfare.

The Ashok Mehta Committee was set up in 1977 to review the working of the Panchayati Raj System. The Committee recommended a number of reforms, including the strengthening of the Panchayati Raj institutions, devolution of powers and resources to them, and making them more accountable to the people.

The G. K.V. Rao Committee was set up in 1985 to review the implementation of the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee. The Committee recommended a number of measures to strengthen the Panchayati Raj institutions, including the amendment of the Constitution to provide for a Constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj institutions.

The L.M. Singhvi Committee was set up in 1993 to review the working of the Panchayati Raj System. The Committee recommended a number of reforms, including the strengthening of the Panchayati Raj institutions, devolution of powers and resources to them, and making them more accountable to the people.

The correct answer is C) 1971.

Bangladesh, formerly East Pakistan, was formed on December 16, 1971, after a nine-month war of independence from Pakistan. The war began on March 25, 1971, when the Pakistani military launched a crackdown on Bengali nationalists in East Pakistan. The crackdown led to a mass exodus of refugees to India and a civil war. The war ended on December 16, 1971, with the surrender of the Pakistani military. Bangladesh became an independent country on that day.

Option A) 1947 is incorrect because this was the year that India and Pakistan were partitioned. Bangladesh was not a part of either country at that time.

Option B) 1956 is incorrect because this was the year that Pakistan adopted its first constitution. Bangladesh was still a part of Pakistan at that time.

Option D) 1991 is incorrect because this was the year that Bangladesh held its first democratic elections. Bangladesh had already been an independent country for 19 years by this time.

The correct answer is: A. Calcitonin

Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone that helps to regulate the levels of calcium in the blood. It does this by inhibiting the release of calcium from the bones and by increasing the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Calcitonin is also involved in the metabolism of bone and in the maintenance of bone health.

Thyroxine is another thyroid hormone, but it does not have a direct effect on calcium levels. Thyroxine is involved in the regulation of metabolism and growth. Calmodulin is a protein that is involved in the regulation of many cellular processes, including the regulation of calcium levels. However, calmodulin is not a thyroid hormone.

Therefore, the only option that is a thyroid hormone that controls the balance of calcium in the body is calcitonin.

The correct answer is C. A safety device.

A fuse is a safety device that is used to protect electrical circuits from damage caused by overloading or short circuits. It is a small, cylindrical device that contains a thin wire that melts when the current flowing through it exceeds a certain value. This causes the circuit to break, preventing damage to the circuit and the connected equipment.

A load is a device that consumes electrical energy. It can be a light bulb, a motor, or any other device that uses electricity to operate.

A thermopile is a device that converts heat energy into electrical energy. It is made up of a number of thermocouples, which are junctions of two dissimilar metals that produce an electric current when they are heated.

A step-down device is a device that reduces the voltage of an electrical circuit. It is used to connect devices that operate at different voltages.

In the electrical circuit of a house, the fuse acts as a safety device. It protects the circuit and the connected equipment from damage caused by overloading or short circuits.

The correct answer is (a).

When a man inhales deeply, his lungs fill with air. This increases the mass of his body, which in turn increases the reading on the balance.

Option (b) is incorrect because the man's weight does not decrease when he inhales deeply. In fact, his weight may actually increase slightly due to the increased mass of his lungs.

Option (c) is incorrect because the reading on the balance will change when the man inhales deeply.

Option (d) is incorrect because the reading on the balance will increase when the man inhales deeply, regardless of the atmospheric pressure.

The correct answer is: D. Cabinet mission

The Cabinet Mission Plan was a proposal put forward by the British government in 1946 to resolve the constitutional deadlock in India. The plan proposed a three-tiered system of government, with a central government, two provincial governments, and a number of princely states. The plan was accepted by the Indian National Congress, but rejected by the Muslim League. The failure of the Cabinet Mission Plan led to the partition of India and the independence of India and Pakistan in 1947.

The Wavell Plan was a proposal put forward by the British government in 1945 to resolve the constitutional deadlock in India. The plan proposed a federal system of government with a weak central government and strong provincial governments. The plan was rejected by both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

The Cripps Mission was a mission sent by the British government to India in 1942 to negotiate a settlement with the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. The mission failed to reach an agreement, and the British government imposed a series of repressive measures on India.

The August Offer was a proposal put forward by the British government in 1940 to grant India dominion status after the war. The offer was rejected by the Indian National Congress, which demanded immediate independence.

The Constituent Assembly of India was a body of elected representatives that was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India. The assembly was constituted on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan. The assembly met from 1946 to 1950 and adopted the Constitution of India on 26 November 1949. The Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950.

The correct answer is (c) 50.

The BSE Greenex Index is a stock market index of companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) that are engaged in the development and use of environmental technologies. The index was launched in 2008 and includes 50 companies. The index is designed to track the performance of companies that are working to improve the environment and reduce their impact on climate change.

The BSE Greenex Index is a market-cap-weighted index, which means that the companies with the largest market capitalization have the largest weight in the index. The index is rebalanced quarterly to ensure that it remains representative of the BSE's environmental sector.

The BSE Greenex Index is a good way to track the performance of companies that are working to improve the environment. The index can be used by investors who want to invest in companies that are making a positive impact on the world.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the number of companies that are included in the BSE Greenex Index.

The correct answer is B. Phloem.

Phloem is a vascular tissue in plants that carries organic compounds, primarily sugars, produced in photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant. Phloem is composed of living cells that form tube-like structures called sieve tubes. Sieve tubes are connected to each other by sieve plates, which are porous areas that allow the movement of sugars and other nutrients.

Xylem is a vascular tissue in plants that transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves. Xylem is composed of dead cells that form long, narrow tubes called tracheids. Tracheids are connected to each other by pits, which are small openings that allow the movement of water and minerals.

Cortex is the layer of cells between the epidermis and the phloem in the stem of a plant. Cortex cells are living cells that perform a variety of functions, including photosynthesis, storage, and transport.

Cambium is a layer of cells in the stem and root of a plant that is responsible for secondary growth. Cambium cells divide to produce new xylem and phloem cells, which allow the plant to grow in diameter.

In conclusion, the food material prepared in the plants is transported to the various organs by phloem. Phloem is a vascular tissue that carries organic compounds, primarily sugars, produced in photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant.

The correct answer is: A situation in which the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.

A decrease in the cost of the machinery to produce X, an increase in the wages of workers employed to produce X, and a technology improvement in the production of X will all shift the supply curve for good X rightward.

A situation in which the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied is a disequilibrium situation. In this situation, there is a shortage of the good, and the price of the good will rise. This rise in price will encourage producers to produce more of the good, which will shift the supply curve rightward.

Here is a diagram that illustrates the effect of a decrease in the cost of the machinery to produce X on the supply curve:

[Diagram of a supply curve shifting rightward]

The original supply curve is S1. The decrease in the cost of machinery shifts the supply curve to S2. The equilibrium price falls from P1 to P2, and the equilibrium quantity rises from Q1 to Q2.

Here is a diagram that illustrates the effect of an increase in the wages of workers employed to produce X on the supply curve:

[Diagram of a supply curve shifting leftward]

The original supply curve is S1. The increase in wages shifts the supply curve to S2. The equilibrium price rises from P1 to P2, and the equilibrium quantity falls from Q1 to Q2.

Here is a diagram that illustrates the effect of a technology improvement in the production of X on the supply curve:

[Diagram of a supply curve shifting rightward]

The original supply curve is S1. The technology improvement shifts the supply curve to S2. The equilibrium price falls from P1 to P2, and the equilibrium quantity rises from Q1 to Q2.

The correct answer is: A. Legendary

The word "legendary" means "famous or well-known, especially in a long-standing or traditional way." It is derived from the Latin word "legenda," which means "something to be read."

The other options are incorrect because they are not spelled correctly. The word "legendery" is not a word in the English language. The word "legendry" is a misspelling of the word "legendary." The word "Legandery" is also a misspelling of the word "legendary."

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is A) Nor'westers.

Nor'westers are a type of thunderstorm that occurs in the Indian subcontinent during the winter months. They are caused by a sudden change in wind direction, which brings cold, dry air from the north-west. Nor'westers can bring heavy rain, hail, and strong winds, and can cause damage to property and crops.

Kalbaisakhi is a type of thunderstorm that occurs in the Indian subcontinent during the summer months. It is caused by a sudden change in wind direction, which brings hot, moist air from the south-west. Kalbaisakhi can bring heavy rain, hail, and strong winds, and can cause damage to property and crops.

Chhaitra Sankranti is a Hindu festival that marks the beginning of the spring season. It is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra, which falls in April or May. Chhaitra Sankranti is a time for feasting, exchanging gifts, and visiting temples.

Autumn showers are a type of rain that occurs in the autumn months. They are caused by a change in weather patterns, which brings in moist air from the south-west. Autumn showers can bring light to moderate rain, and can help to replenish the water table.

The correct answer is: A. Taj Mahal

The Taj Mahal is an ivory-white marble mausoleum on the south bank of the Yamuna river in the Indian city of Agra. It was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan (reigned 1628–1658) to house the tomb of his favourite wife Mumtaz Mahal; it also houses the tomb of Shah Jahan himself. The tomb is the centrepiece of a 17-hectare (42-acre) complex, which includes a mosque and a guest house, and is set in formal gardens bounded on three sides by a crenellated wall.

The Taj Mahal is widely recognized as "the jewel of Muslim art in India and one of the universally admired masterpieces of the world's heritage". The tomb is the most popular tourist destination in India, attracting about 7–8 million visitors a year.

The Taj Mahal was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983, and is widely recognized as "the jewel of Muslim art in India and one of the universally admired masterpieces of the world's heritage".

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. Hawa Mahal is a palace in Jaipur, India. It is also known as the Palace of the Winds. The Hawa Mahal is a five-story structure with 953 small windows, which allowed women of the royal zenana (harem) to observe street life without being seen.
• C. Hurnayurr's Tomb is a tomb located in the town of Hurnayurr, Tamil Nadu, India. The tomb was built in the 17th century by the Nayak rulers of Madurai.
• D. Mahabodhi Temple Complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, India. The complex contains a number of Buddhist temples and monasteries, including the Mahabodhi Temple, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The correct answer is: A. an activity undertaken by a firm to increase demand.

Product variation is the process of offering different versions of a product to appeal to a wider range of customers. This can be done by changing the features, price, or packaging of the product. Product variation can help to increase demand by making the product more appealing to a wider range of customers.

Option B is incorrect because product variation is not a problem with quality control. Quality control is the process of ensuring that products meet certain standards of quality. Product variation is a deliberate attempt to make products different from each other.

Option C is incorrect because product variation is not an activity undertaken by a firm to make demand more price inelastic. Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive demand is to changes in price. Product variation does not affect price elasticity of demand.

Option D is incorrect because product variation is an activity undertaken by a firm to increase demand.

The correct answer is A. Ramananda.

Ramanujacharya (1017–1137), also known as Ramananda, was a Hindu philosopher and theologian who is considered one of the most important figures in the Sri Vaishnava tradition. He is also known as the founder of the Ramanandi Sampradaya, one of the four major Vaishnava sampradayas.

Ramanujacharya was born in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, India. He was a brilliant student and studied under several teachers, including Yamunacharya, the founder of the Sri Vaishnava tradition. After completing his studies, Ramanujacharya traveled extensively, teaching and preaching. He is said to have converted many people to the Sri Vaishnava faith, including the Chola king Kulothunga Chola I.

Ramanujacharya's teachings are based on the Bhagavad Gita and the Brahma Sutras. He emphasized the importance of bhakti, or devotion to God, and he argued that God is both personal and impersonal. Ramanujacharya's teachings have had a profound impact on Hindu thought and practice.

The other options are incorrect.

• Vallabhacharya (1479–1531) was a Hindu philosopher and theologian who is considered the founder of the Pushtimarga tradition.
• Narasi Mehta (1414–1481) was a Gujarati poet and saint who is considered one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement.
• Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was a Bengali Vaishnava saint and reformer who is considered the founder of the Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition.

The correct answer is D. intractable.

Mounting unemployment is a serious problem faced by India today. It is a complex issue with no easy solutions. The government has taken some steps to address the problem, but more needs to be done.

The word dubious means "questionable" or "doubtful". It does not accurately describe the problem of unemployment.

The word profound means "deep" or "significant". It is accurate to describe the problem of unemployment as profound, but it is not the most accurate word in this context.

The word unpopular means "not liked by many people". It is not accurate to describe the problem of unemployment as unpopular. Unemployment is a problem that affects everyone, regardless of their popularity.

The word unattainable means "not able to be achieved". It is not accurate to describe the problem of unemployment as unattainable. The government and other organizations are working to address the problem of unemployment, and it is possible to make progress.

The word intractable means "difficult or impossible to deal with". It is the most accurate word in this context. The problem of unemployment is difficult to deal with, and there is no easy solution.

The correct answer is: A. Is equal to that portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the relevant short-run average variable cost curve.

A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker, meaning that it cannot affect the market price of its product. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will produce at the point where its marginal cost equals the market price. This is because, in the long run, a firm can adjust all of its inputs, including its plant size. If the market price is above the firm's minimum average variable cost, the firm will produce in the short run, even though it is making a loss. However, in the long run, the firm will exit the industry if the market price is below its minimum average total cost.

The long-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm is the portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the minimum average variable cost curve. This is because, in the long run, a firm will only produce if the market price is above its minimum average variable cost. If the market price is below the minimum average variable cost, the firm will shut down in the short run and exit the industry in the long run.

Option B is incorrect because the long-run supply curve is not equal to that portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the relevant short-run average total cost curve. In the long run, a firm will only produce if the market price is above its minimum average variable cost. If the market price is below the minimum average variable cost, the firm will shut down in the short run and exit the industry in the long run.

Option C is incorrect because the long-run supply curve is not equal to that portion of the long-run average total cost curve that is above the relevant short-run average variable cost curve. In the long run, a firm will only produce if the market price is above its minimum average variable cost. If the market price is below the minimum average variable cost, the firm will shut down in the short run and exit the industry in the long run.

Option D is incorrect because the long-run supply curve is not equal to none of the above. The long-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm is the portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the minimum average variable cost curve.

The correct answer is: A. court

A court is a rectangular area surrounded by walls or fences, used for playing games or sports. In lawn tennis, the court is made of grass or artificial turf, and is divided into two halves by a net. The object of the game is to hit the ball over the net and into your opponent's court, so that they cannot return it.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A ring is a circular band or hoop. It is not the correct shape for a lawn tennis court.
• An arena is a large, open space surrounded by seats, used for public events such as concerts or sporting events. It is not the correct size or shape for a lawn tennis court.
• A rink is a large, flat surface, usually made of ice, used for skating or ice hockey. It is not the correct surface for a lawn tennis court.

The answer is D. LPXW.

In each of the other options, the letters are all in alphabetical order. In D, the letters are not in alphabetical order.

A. CGON: C, G, O, N are all in alphabetical order.
B. FJQP: F, J, Q, P are all in alphabetical order.
C. HLTS: H, L, T, S are all in alphabetical order.

The correct answer is (b), 1982.

The Central Ganga Authority (CGA) was constituted by the Government of India in 1982 to coordinate and monitor the implementation of the Ganga Action Plan (GAP). The GAP was a major initiative launched by the Government of India in 1985 to clean up the Ganga River. The CGA is headed by the Prime Minister of India and has representatives from the Central Government, State Governments, and other stakeholders. The CGA has been instrumental in the implementation of the GAP and has made significant progress in cleaning up the Ganga River.

Option (a), 1975, is incorrect because the CGA was not constituted in that year. The CGA was constituted in 1982.

Option (c), 1985, is incorrect because the GAP was launched in that year, not the CGA. The CGA was constituted in 1982.

Option (d), 1995, is incorrect because the CGA has been in existence since 1982.

The correct answer is A. Article 79 to 122 in Part V.

Part V of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Legislature. It consists of 10 articles, from Article 79 to Article 88. Article 79 states that the Union Legislature shall consist of the President and the two Houses of Parliament, namely, the Council of States and the House of the People. Article 80 deals with the composition of the Council of States, Article 81 deals with the composition of the House of the People, Article 82 deals with the number of seats allotted to each State in the Council of States, Article 83 deals with the number of seats allotted to each State in the House of the People, Article 84 deals with the qualifications for membership of Parliament, Article 85 deals with the disqualifications for membership of Parliament, Article 86 deals with the salaries and allowances of members of Parliament, Article 87 deals with the vacations of seats in Parliament, and Article 88 deals with the quorum in Parliament.

Option B, Article 36 to 51 in Part IV, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Option C, Article 152 to 237 in Part VI, deals with the Union Executive.

Option D, Article 239 to 242 in Part VII, deals with the States.

The correct answer is: C. The Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

The Constitution of India has divided the powers between the Centre and the States in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects that are of national importance and are to be dealt with by the Central Government. The State List contains subjects that are of local importance and are to be dealt with by the State Governments. The Concurrent List contains subjects that are of common importance to both the Centre and the States, and both the Central and State Governments can make laws on these subjects.

The Union List contains 97 subjects, such as defence, foreign affairs, currency, railways, posts and telegraphs, atomic energy, etc. The State List contains 66 subjects, such as police, public order, local government, education, agriculture, etc. The Concurrent List contains 47 subjects, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, contracts, trade unions, etc.

In case of a conflict between a law made by the Central Government and a law made by a State Government on a subject in the Concurrent List, the law made by the Central Government will prevail.

The division of powers between the Centre and the States is an important feature of the Indian Constitution. It helps to ensure that both the Centre and the States have a say in the governance of the country. It also helps to prevent any one level of government from becoming too powerful.

The correct answer is (c) SRTUPQ.

Let's start with P. R is third from P in the right, so R is the fourth person in the clockwise direction from P. Q is third from T in the left, so Q is the fourth person in the counterclockwise direction from T. U is between P and T, so U is the second person in the clockwise direction from P and the second person in the counterclockwise direction from T. S is third from U in the left, so S is the fourth person in the counterclockwise direction from U.

Therefore, the order of the six people in clockwise direction is:

1. P
2. U
3. T
4. Q
5. R
6. S

Here is a diagram to illustrate the seating arrangement:

[Diagram of six people sitting in a circular path, facing the center. P is to the right of R, who is to the right of U. T is to the left of Q, who is to the left of S.]

Option (a), SQRUTP, is incorrect because Q is not between P and T. Option (b), TSRQUP, is incorrect because R is not third from P in the right. Option (d), SQPUTR, is incorrect because S is not third from U in the left.

The correct answer is (c) 1902.

Garhwali is a Hindi-language newspaper published in Dehradun, India. It was founded in 1902 by Pandit Hem Chandra Pande. The newspaper is known for its coverage of local news and events in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. It is also a popular source of information on government policies and programs.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the newspaper was founded in 1902, not 1868. Option (b) is incorrect because the newspaper was founded in 1902, not 1871. Option (d) is incorrect because the newspaper was founded in 1902, not 1905.