WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-5

The correct answer is: B. Switzerland

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that deals with the rules of trade between nations. It was established in 1995 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The WTO's main function is to ensure that trade flows smoothly between countries. It does this by negotiating trade agreements, settling trade disputes, and monitoring national trade policies.

The WTO is made up of 164 member countries. The United States, China, the European Union, and Japan are the four largest members. The WTO's decisions are made by consensus, which means that all member countries must agree before a decision can be made.

The WTO has been criticized for being too slow to respond to changes in the global economy. It has also been criticized for being too focused on the interests of large corporations and not enough on the interests of developing countries.

Despite these criticisms, the WTO remains an important organization in the global economy. It helps to promote trade and economic growth, and it provides a forum for countries to resolve trade disputes.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: France is not the headquarters of the World Trade Organization. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Option C: The United States is not the headquarters of the World Trade Organization. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Option D: England is not the headquarters of the World Trade Organization. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

The correct answer is Islam.

Islam is the official religion of Afghanistan. It is practiced by over 99% of the population. The majority of Afghans are Sunni Muslims, while a small minority are Shia Muslims.

Islam was introduced to Afghanistan in the 7th century by Arab conquerors. It quickly became the dominant religion, and has remained so ever since. Islam plays a major role in Afghan society and culture. It is the basis of the country's legal system, and it shapes the way that Afghans live their lives.

Islam is a monotheistic religion that teaches that there is only one God, Allah. Muslims believe that Muhammad is the prophet of Allah, and that the Quran is the word of Allah. Muslims pray five times a day, and they fast during the month of Ramadan. They also give to charity and make a pilgrimage to Mecca, if they are able.

Islam has had a profound impact on Afghanistan. It has shaped the country's history, culture, and society. It is the foundation of the country's legal system, and it influences the way that Afghans live their lives.

The correct answer is (c), Dampha.

Melghat is a tiger reserve in Maharashtra. Buxa is a tiger reserve in West Bengal. Bhadra is a tiger reserve in Karnataka.

Dampha Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Mizoram in northeastern India. It is the only tiger reserve in the state. The reserve was established in 1978 and covers an area of 320 square kilometers. The reserve is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, rhinos, and deer.

The reserve is also home to a number of ethnic groups, including the Mizos, Chakmas, and Hmars. The Mizos are the largest ethnic group in the state and are the original inhabitants of the area. The Chakmas are a Buddhist ethnic group from Bangladesh who were displaced by the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971. The Hmars are a Christian ethnic group from Manipur who migrated to Mizoram in the 19th century.

The reserve is a popular tourist destination, and offers a variety of activities, including trekking, camping, and wildlife safaris.

The correct answer is: A. Frame : Picture

The relationship between "man" and "humanity" is that "man" is a member of the species "humanity". Similarly, a "frame" is a container for a "picture".

The other options do not have the same relationship. A "scholar" is a person who studies, but a "book" is not a container for a "scholar". A "flower" produces fragrance, but a "fragrance" is not a container for a "flower". A "drop" is a small amount of liquid, but an "ocean" is not a container for a "drop".

The correct answer is: C. Truth : Lie

Identity is the state of being who or what a person or thing is. Anonymity is the state of being unknown or unacknowledged.

Flaw is a defect or imperfection. Perfection is the state of being without flaw or defect.

Careless is not taking care or attention. Mistake is an error or blunder.

Fear is an unpleasant emotion caused by the belief that someone or something is dangerous, likely to cause pain or harm. Joy is a feeling of great pleasure and happiness.

The relationship between identity and anonymity is that identity is the state of being known, while anonymity is the state of being unknown. The relationship between truth and lie is that truth is the state of being accurate or factual, while lie is the state of being false or inaccurate.

The other options do not have the same relationship as the original pair of words. Flaw and perfection are not opposites, as they can both exist in the same person or thing. Careless and mistake are not opposites, as a person can be careless without making a mistake. Fear and joy are not opposites, as a person can experience both fear and joy at the same time.

The correct answer is C. Sister.

The woman's mother's mother is her grandmother. The man is the only son of her grandmother. This means that the man is the woman's cousin. Cousins are siblings of one's aunts or uncles. Therefore, the woman is the man's sister.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the relationship between the woman and the man.

• Option A is incorrect because the woman is not the man's mother. The man's mother is the woman's grandmother.
• Option B is incorrect because the woman is not the man's aunt. The man's aunt is the woman's mother.
• Option D is incorrect because the woman is not the man's niece. The man's niece is the woman's daughter.
• Option E is incorrect because the woman is related to the man.

The correct answer is (c) Gujarat.

Gujarat has the largest area of saline soil in India. Saline soils are soils that have a high concentration of salts, which can make them difficult to grow crops on. The main cause of saline soils is the accumulation of salts from irrigation water, which can occur when the water evaporates and leaves behind the salts. Other causes of saline soils include poor drainage, high evaporation rates, and the use of saline fertilizers.

Saline soils can have a number of negative effects on plants, including reduced growth, stunted root development, and chlorosis (yellowing of the leaves). In severe cases, saline soils can make it impossible to grow any crops.

There are a number of ways to manage saline soils, including:

• Drainage: Improving drainage can help to reduce the accumulation of salts in the soil.
• Irrigation: Using less saline water for irrigation can help to reduce the salt content of the soil.
• Salinity control amendments: Adding gypsum or other amendments to the soil can help to reduce the salt content.
• Crop selection: Choosing salt-tolerant crops can help to reduce the impact of saline soils.

Saline soils are a major problem in many parts of the world, including India. However, there are a number of ways to manage saline soils, which can help to improve crop yields and reduce the impact of salinity on the environment.

The correct answer is: **A) Rise of the Magadha Empire**

The Iron Age in West Bengal witnessed the rise of the Magadha Empire, which was one of the most powerful empires in Indian history. The Magadha Empire was founded in the 6th century BC by Bimbisara, and it reached its peak under the reign of Ashoka the Great in the 3rd century BC. The Magadha Empire was a major center of trade and learning, and it played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

* Option B: The Aryans arrived in India in the 2nd millennium BC, long before the Iron Age.
* Option C: Buddhism was founded in the 6th century BC, during the Iron Age, but it did not spread to West Bengal until the 3rd century BC.
* Option D: Urban centers declined in India during the Bronze Age, but they began to revive during the Iron Age.

The correct answer is (c) New Technology and Passengers Convenience.

The Indian Railways have decided to celebrate the year 2006 as the year of New Technology and Passengers Convenience. This is in line with the government's focus on improving the quality of life of its citizens and making India a developed nation. The railways have been working on a number of initiatives to improve the passenger experience, including introducing new technologies, such as e-tickets and online booking, and improving the infrastructure, such as building new stations and upgrading existing ones. These initiatives are expected to make the railways more convenient and comfortable for passengers, and will help to improve the overall quality of service.

The other options are not correct because they do not reflect the focus of the railways' initiatives. Option (a), Passenger Service with Smile, is a good slogan, but it does not reflect the specific initiatives that the railways are taking to improve the passenger experience. Option (b), Stop Accidents and Save Passengers, is a noble goal, but it is not the focus of the railways' initiatives in 2006. Option (d), Railway Information Technology, is an important area of focus for the railways, but it is not the only area that they are focusing on in 2006.

In conclusion, the correct answer is (c) New Technology and Passengers Convenience. This is because the railways have been working on a number of initiatives to improve the passenger experience, including introducing new technologies, such as e-tickets and online booking, and improving the infrastructure, such as building new stations and upgrading existing ones. These initiatives are expected to make the railways more convenient and comfortable for passengers, and will help to improve the overall quality of service.

The correct answer is: B. Ascetic

An ascetic is a person who practices severe self-discipline and self-denial, typically for religious reasons. Ascetics often live a life of poverty, chastity, and obedience, and they may also practice fasting, self-flagellation, or other forms of physical mortification.

A monk is a man who has devoted his life to religious service, typically in a monastery. Monks typically live a life of celibacy, poverty, and obedience, and they may also practice fasting, prayer, and meditation.

A saint is a person who is believed to be holy or to have lived a life of great virtue. Saints are often venerated by religious people, and they may be the subject of prayers, pilgrimages, and other forms of devotion.

A spiritualist is a person who believes in the existence of spirits and in the possibility of communication with them. Spiritualists often attend séances and other gatherings where they believe they can communicate with the dead.

In the context of the question, the correct answer is "ascetic" because the question is asking about a man who starves his body for the good of his soul. This is a characteristic of asceticism, which is a practice of self-denial and self-discipline for religious reasons.

India played its first Test match in 1932 against England at Lord's Cricket Ground in London. The match was drawn.

Option A: 1922 is incorrect because India did not play its first Test match until 1932.
Option B: 1932 is correct because India played its first Test match in 1932.
Option C: 1942 is incorrect because India did not play its first Test match until 1932.
Option D: 1952 is incorrect because India did not play its first Test match until 1932.

Michael Madhusudan Dutt wrote two farces (a comic dramatic work) viz, 'Ekei ki Bole Sabhyata' and 'Buro Shaliker Ghare Ro'.

The longest bone in the human body is the femur, which is found in the thigh. The femur is a long, strong bone that connects the pelvis to the knee. It is the largest and strongest bone in the body, and it plays a vital role in walking, running, and jumping.

The vertebral column is a series of bones that support the weight of the head and trunk. It is made up of 24 bones, called vertebrae, which are stacked on top of each other. The vertebrae are connected by ligaments and muscles, and they protect the spinal cord.

The rib cage is a cage of bones that protects the lungs and heart. It is made up of 12 pairs of ribs, which are connected to the spine in the back and to the sternum in the front. The ribs are flexible, and they allow the chest to expand and contract during breathing.

The arm is a long, slender limb that extends from the shoulder to the hand. It is made up of three bones: the humerus, the radius, and the ulna. The humerus is the longest bone in the arm, and it connects the shoulder to the elbow. The radius and ulna are located in the forearm, and they connect the elbow to the wrist.

In conclusion, the longest bone in the human body is the femur, which is found in the thigh. The femur is a long, strong bone that connects the pelvis to the knee. It is the largest and strongest bone in the body, and it plays a vital role in walking, running, and jumping.

The correct answer is A. Mud.

An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in a gas. Mud is a mixture of water and soil, and it is not a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in a gas.

Dust is a fine powder consisting of tiny solid particles. Smoke is a visible suspension of carbon and other particles in air, often from burning. Fog is a cloud of water droplets suspended in the atmosphere at or near the Earth's surface.

The correct answer is: on.

The word "on" is used to indicate a specific day of the week. In this case, the Muslims attend prayers in the mosque on Friday.

The other options are not correct because they do not indicate a specific day of the week. The word "at" is used to indicate a specific time, the word "in" is used to indicate a specific place, and the word "from" is used to indicate a specific starting point.

Here are some examples of how the other options could be used in a sentence:

• The Muslims attend prayers at noon on Friday.
• The Muslims attend prayers in the mosque.
• The Muslims attend prayers from 10am to 12pm on Friday.

The correct answer is: B. did an act of kindness.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. returned my kindness is incorrect because the sentence does not mention that the speaker did anything kind for the other person.
• C. improved my prospects is incorrect because the sentence does not mention that the speaker was hoping to get the job of Vice Principal.
• D. became suddenly good is incorrect because the sentence does not mention that the other person was not good before.

The sentence "He did me a good turn by recommending me for the post of Vice Principal" means that the other person did something kind for the speaker by recommending them for the job. This is an act of kindness because it helps the speaker to get a job that they want.

The correct answer is A. James Princep.

James Prinsep (1799-1840) was a British scholar and linguist who was the first to decipher the Brahmi script. He was born in India to a Scottish father and an Indian mother. He learned several Indian languages, including Sanskrit, Persian, and Bengali. In 1837, he was appointed to the Asiatic Society of Bengal, where he worked on deciphering the Brahmi script. He was able to decipher the script by comparing it to other Indian scripts, such as the Kharosthi script. He also used his knowledge of Sanskrit to help him decipher the Brahmi script.

Prinsep's decipherment of the Brahmi script was a major breakthrough in the study of Indian history. It allowed scholars to read and understand ancient Indian inscriptions, which provided valuable information about Indian history and culture.

B. V. Smith was a British archaeologist who worked in India. He was not the first to decipher the Brahmi script.

C. R. K. Mehta was an Indian archaeologist who worked in India. He was not the first to decipher the Brahmi script.

D. None of these is the correct answer.

The correct answer is (a) Deewan Chaman Lal.

Deewan Chaman Lal was a prominent Indian trade unionist and politician. He was the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), which was founded in 1920. He was also a member of the Indian National Congress and served as a member of the Legislative Assembly of the United Provinces.

Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Indian nationalist, freedom fighter, and social reformer. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as a member of the Legislative Assembly of Punjab. He was also a founder of the Arya Samaj, a Hindu reform movement.

Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as President of the party from 1929 to 1930. He was also a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which drafted the Constitution of India.

C.R. Das was a prominent Indian nationalist, freedom fighter, and lawyer. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served as President of the party from 1922 to 1923. He was also a founder of the Swaraj Party, a political party that advocated for swaraj, or self-rule, for India.

The correct answer is (a) Asoka.

Asoka was the third emperor of the Mauryan Empire in India. He is known for his military conquests, but also for his Buddhist reforms and his promotion of non-violence. He is considered one of the greatest emperors in Indian history.

Asoka's inscriptions are a valuable source of information about his reign and his policies. One of his inscriptions, the Lumbini Pillar Edict, confirms that Lumbini was the birthplace of Gautama Buddha.

The other options are incorrect. Kanishka was a Kushan emperor who ruled in the 2nd century CE. Harsha was an Indian emperor who ruled in the 7th century CE. Dharmapala was a Pala emperor who ruled in the 8th century CE.

Lumbini is a town in Nepal that is considered to be the birthplace of Gautama Buddha. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a popular pilgrimage destination for Buddhists.

The correct answer is (a) Mussoorie.

Sir George Everest established his observatory in Mussoorie in 1830. He was a British Surveyor General of India from 1830 to 1843. He is best known for his work on the Great Trigonometric Survey of India, which was a project to map the entire Indian subcontinent. The highest mountain in the world, Mount Everest, was named after him in 1865.

Mussoorie is a hill station in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas, at an altitude of 2,205 meters (7,234 feet). The town is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic views, pleasant climate, and colonial architecture.

The other options are incorrect.

(b) Nainital is a town and a lake in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. It is a popular tourist destination, known for its scenic beauty, boating, and other water sports.

(c) Devsthal is a village in the Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an altitude of 2,400 meters (7,874 feet). The village is a popular destination for trekking and mountaineering.

(d) Abbot Mount is a mountain in the Garhwal Himalayas, India. It is located in the Chamoli district, at an altitude of 6,852 meters (22,480 feet). The mountain is a popular destination for mountaineering.

The correct answer is: A. Ramananda

Ramanada was a 12th-13th century Hindu Bhakti saint who is considered to be the founder of the Ramanandi Sampradaya, one of the largest Hindu sects. He is also credited with spreading the Bhakti movement in north India.

Ramanada was born in a Brahmin family in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, India. He was a disciple of Yamunacharya, another prominent Bhakti saint. Ramananda is said to have renounced his wealth and family to pursue a life of spiritual devotion. He traveled extensively throughout north India, preaching the message of Bhakti.

Ramanada is known for his teachings on the equality of all people, regardless of caste or social status. He is also known for his emphasis on the importance of devotion to God. Ramananda's teachings had a profound impact on the development of Hinduism in north India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Eknath was a 16th-century Hindu saint who is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Varkari movement. He is known for his devotional songs and his commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita.
• Mirabai was a 16th-century Hindu saint who is known for her passionate devotion to Krishna. She is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement.
• Namdeva was a 13th-century Hindu saint who is considered to be one of the most important figures in the Varkari movement. He is known for his devotional songs and his commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita.

The correct answer is (a) G.V. Mavalankar.

Gopal Krishna Vyankatesh Mavalankar (1883-1956) was an Indian independence activist and politician who served as the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India, from 1950 to 1956. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. He was born in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, and educated at the Gujarat University. He started his career as a lawyer and later joined the freedom struggle. He was imprisoned several times by the British government. After independence, he was elected to the Constituent Assembly of India. He was also elected to the first Lok Sabha in 1952. He was unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He was a highly respected and impartial Speaker. He died in 1956.

Sardar Hukam Singh (1892-1963) was an Indian politician who served as the first Chief Minister of Punjab from 1947 to 1952. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. He was born in Malerkotla, Punjab, and educated at the Government College, Lahore. He started his career as a lawyer and later joined the freedom struggle. He was imprisoned several times by the British government. After independence, he was elected to the Constituent Assembly of India. He was also elected to the first Lok Sabha in 1952. He was a member of the opposition party, the Jan Sangh. He died in 1963.

N. Sanjeeva Reddy (1913-1999) was an Indian politician who served as the third President of India from 1977 to 1982. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Jawaharlal Nehru. He was born in Bellary, Karnataka, and educated at the University of Mysore. He started his career as a lawyer and later joined the freedom struggle. He was imprisoned several times by the British government. After independence, he held several ministerial positions in the government of India. He was also elected to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. He was elected as the President of India in 1977. He died in 1999.

Bali Ram Bhagat (1922-2004) was an Indian politician who served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1980 to 1985. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and a close associate of Indira Gandhi. He was born in Bikaner, Rajasthan, and educated at the University of Rajasthan. He started his career as a lawyer and later joined the freedom struggle. He was imprisoned several times by the British government. After independence, he held several ministerial positions in the government of India. He was also elected to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. He was elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 1980. He died in 2004.

Durgapur Steel Plant (DSP) is located at Durgapur in Bardhaman district of West Bengal.

The answer is A. Delhi.

The sepoys marched to Delhi because it was the capital of the Mughal Empire and they believed that the Mughal emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar, would support them in their rebellion against the British.

The sepoys were Indian soldiers who were employed by the British East India Company. In 1857, a group of sepoys in Barrackpore, India, refused to use a new type of rifle that they believed was contaminated with cow and pig fat. This act of defiance sparked a widespread rebellion among the sepoys, which came to be known as the Indian Mutiny.

The sepoys marched to Delhi in the hope that Bahadur Shah Zafar would support them in their rebellion. When they arrived in Delhi, they proclaimed Bahadur Shah Zafar as the emperor of India and declared war on the British.

The Indian Mutiny was a major turning point in the history of British India. It led to the end of the East India Company's rule in India and the establishment of direct British rule.

The Indian Mutiny was also a major turning point in the history of India. It led to the rise of Indian nationalism and the eventual independence of India in 1947.

The answer is A. 101.

The number series is a sequence of squares of numbers, starting with 16, which is the square of 4. The next number in the series is 196, which is the square of 14. The next number in the series is 144, which is the square of 12. The next number in the series is 121, which is the square of 11. The next number in the series should be 100, which is the square of 10. However, the number in the series is 101, which is not a square of any number. Therefore, 101 is the wrong term in the series.

Here is a table showing the squares of numbers from 1 to 10:

Number | Square
------- | --------
1 | 1
2 | 4
3 | 9
4 | 16
5 | 25
6 | 36
7 | 49
8 | 64
9 | 81
10 | 100

The correct answer is D. No correction required.

The sentence "He may have aged when I last saw him" is grammatically correct. The word "when" is used to indicate a specific point in time, and the word "may" is used to express possibility. Therefore, the sentence can be interpreted as meaning that it is possible that the person has aged since the speaker last saw him.

The other options are not grammatically correct. The word "from" is used to indicate a starting point, and the word "since" is used to indicate a period of time that has elapsed. The word "before" is used to indicate a point in time that came before another point in time. Therefore, none of these words make sense in the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is C. Signify.

Augur means to predict or foretell the future, especially by interpreting omens. It can also mean to indicate or suggest something.

Heal means to make or become healthy again.

Hurt means to cause physical or emotional pain to someone.

Reform means to make or become better or more acceptable.

In the context of the question, the word "augur" is used in the sense of "to predict or foretell the future." The other options do not have this meaning.

The correct answer is C. Maternal uncle.

The woman's father has only one daughter, who is married to the man. This means that the man is the husband of the woman's only sister. The woman's sister is the woman's maternal aunt, and the man is therefore the woman's maternal uncle.

Option A is incorrect because the man is not the woman's brother. The woman's brother would be the son of the woman's mother and father. The man is not the son of the woman's mother and father.

Option B is incorrect because the man is not the woman's father-in-law. The woman's father-in-law would be the father of the woman's husband. The man is not the father of the woman's husband.

Option D is incorrect because the man is not the woman's husband. The woman's husband would be the man who is married to the woman. The man is not married to the woman.

Option E is incorrect because the man is related to the woman. The man is the husband of the woman's only sister. This means that the man is the woman's maternal uncle.

The correct answer is: A) British goods.

The Swadeshi movement was a boycott of British goods in India in the early 20th century. It was started in Bengal in 1905 in protest against the partition of the province. The movement called for Indians to buy Indian-made goods instead of British goods. This was a way to support Indian industries and to protest against British rule.

The Swadeshi movement was successful in increasing the production of Indian-made goods. It also helped to raise awareness of the need for self-reliance in India. The movement was a major factor in the Indian independence movement.

Option B is incorrect because the Swadeshi movement did not advocate for the boycott of Indian goods. In fact, the movement called for Indians to buy Indian-made goods instead of British goods. This was a way to support Indian industries and to protest against British rule.

Option C is incorrect because the Swadeshi movement did not advocate for the boycott of foreign goods in general. The movement was specifically focused on the boycott of British goods.

Option D is incorrect because the Swadeshi movement did not advocate for the boycott of agricultural products. The movement was focused on the boycott of British goods, not on agricultural products.

New alluvium soil present in Murshidabad district is also called Khadar.

The correct answer is D. Rustic.

A rustic setting is one that is simple and unpretentious, often associated with the countryside. It can also be used to describe someone who is simple and down-to-earth.

The other options are incorrect because they do not have the same meaning as rustic.

• Helpless means unable to help oneself.
• Intoxicated means affected by alcohol or drugs.
• Shameless means without shame or modesty.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: C. Both 1 and 2

Expansion of credit increases inflation because it increases the amount of money in circulation. When there is more money in circulation, people have more money to spend, which drives up prices.

Inflation can lead to a favorable trade surplus if it makes a country's exports more competitive. When prices in a country are rising faster than prices in other countries, it makes it more attractive for foreign buyers to purchase goods from that country. This can lead to an increase in exports and a decrease in imports, which can result in a trade surplus.

However, it is important to note that inflation can also have negative consequences, such as making it more difficult for people to afford goods and services, and reducing the value of savings.

The correct answer is: A. Tara

Sumtinath Tirthankara was born from the womb of Tara, the wife of King Shanti. Tara was a beautiful and virtuous woman who was devoted to her husband and children. She was also a devout Jain and followed the teachings of the Tirthankaras.

Tara was pregnant with Sumtinath for 12 years. During this time, she was visited by many sages and saints who predicted that her son would become a great Tirthankara. Tara gave birth to Sumtinath in a cave in the Himalayas.

Sumtinath was a perfect child who was free from all attachments and desires. He renounced the world at the age of 30 and became a monk. He spent the next 60 years wandering the countryside, preaching the Jain faith and teaching others how to achieve liberation.

Sumtinath attained moksha (liberation) at the age of 90. He is the 17th Tirthankara of the Jain faith.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the names of the mothers of Sumtinath Tirthankara.

Option B: Marudevi is the mother of Parshvanatha Tirthankara.

Option C: Vijaya is the mother of Mahavira Tirthankara.

Option D: Sumangla is the mother of Neminatha Tirthankara.

The correct answer is D. Cyclonite.

RDX is a powerful explosive also known as cyclonite, hexogen, or cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine. It is a white, crystalline solid that is highly sensitive to heat and friction. RDX is used in a variety of military applications, including landmines, grenades, and rocket propellants. It is also used in some industrial applications, such as blasting and mining.

Cyanohydrin is a chemical compound with the formula HCN. It is a colorless, flammable liquid that is highly toxic. Cyanohydrin is used in the production of a variety of chemicals, including plastics, pharmaceuticals, and dyes. It is also used in some industrial processes, such as electroplating and metal finishing.

Dextran is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units. It is a white, water-soluble powder that is used in a variety of medical applications, including blood plasma expanders, colloids, and laxatives. Dextran is also used in some industrial applications, such as thickening agents and adhesives.

Cyclohexane is a hydrocarbon with the formula C6H12. It is a colorless, flammable liquid that is used in a variety of industrial applications, including solvents, gasoline additives, and plastics. Cyclohexane is also used in some medical applications, such as anesthetics and antiseptics.

The correct answer is: B. 15

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations as the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice. The ICJ is composed of 15 judges elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations. The judges serve for nine-year terms and are eligible for re-election.

The ICJ has jurisdiction to settle legal disputes between states and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The ICJ is also empowered to interpret the Charter of the United Nations.

The ICJ is located in The Hague, Netherlands. The Court's official languages are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish.

The ICJ has played a significant role in the settlement of international disputes. Some of the most notable cases decided by the ICJ include the Corfu Channel Case (1949), the North Sea Continental Shelf Cases (1969), the Nicaragua v. United States of America Case (1986), and the Kosovo Advisory Opinion (2008).

The ICJ is an important institution in the international legal system. It provides a forum for the peaceful settlement of disputes between states and helps to promote the rule of law in international relations.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the total number of judges in the International Court of Justice.

The correct answer is (a) China.

China is the world's leading producer of both wheat and rice. In 2020, China produced 135.7 million metric tons of wheat and 145.7 million metric tons of rice. The United States is the world's second-largest producer of wheat, with 50.7 million metric tons produced in 2020. India is the world's second-largest producer of rice, with 119.2 million metric tons produced in 2020. France is the world's fifth-largest producer of wheat, with 33.1 million metric tons produced in 2020. France is not a major producer of rice.

Wheat is a cereal grain that is used to make bread, pasta, and other baked goods. Rice is a cereal grain that is used to make rice dishes, such as sushi and risotto. Both wheat and rice are important staple foods for people around the world.

The correct answer is: D. Peace Week

The United Nations General Assembly declared the week of 24-30 October as Peace Week in 1981. The week is dedicated to promoting peace and understanding among peoples and nations. It is a time to reflect on the importance of peace and to work towards a more peaceful world.

The United Nations has a long history of promoting peace. In 1945, the UN Charter was signed, which established the UN as an organization dedicated to maintaining international peace and security. The UN has since played a key role in resolving conflicts around the world, and has helped to prevent many wars from happening.

The UN also works to promote peace through education and understanding. The UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) works to promote peace through education, science, and culture. UNESCO also works to protect human rights and to promote tolerance and understanding among peoples.

The UN Peace Week is an important opportunity to reflect on the importance of peace and to work towards a more peaceful world. The UN calls on all people to join in the effort to promote peace and understanding.

Here are some additional information about the other options:

• Disarmament Week is observed from 24 to 30 October every year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1978 to promote the goal of general and complete disarmament under effective international control.
• Week of Solidarity with the Peoples Struggling against Racism and Racial Discrimination is observed from 21 to 27 March every year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1966 to promote the struggle against racism and racial discrimination.
• Week of Solidarity with the Peoples of Non-Selfgoverning Territories is observed from 25 to 31 May every year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1960 to promote the decolonization of non-self-governing territories.

The Tripartite Agreement was signed on 22nd August, 1988 in Kolkata and came to be popularly known as Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council Accord.

The correct answer is: E. started/need

The simple past tense is used to talk about actions that happened and were completed at a specific time in the past. The present simple tense is used to talk about actions that happen regularly or repeatedly, or that are true in general.

In this sentence, the action of starting the extra part-time job happened at a specific time in the past (last week), so the simple past tense is used. The action of needing the money is a general statement about the speaker's financial situation, so the present simple tense is used.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. am starting/are needing: This is incorrect because the simple present tense is used for actions that happen regularly or repeatedly, or that are true in general. The action of starting the extra part-time job happened at a specific time in the past, so the simple past tense is required.
• B. was starting/have needed: This is incorrect because the past perfect tense is used for actions that happened before another action in the past. The action of starting the extra part-time job happened at a specific time in the past, and the action of needing the money is a general statement about the speaker's financial situation, so the present simple tense is required.
• C. start/needed: This is incorrect because the simple present tense is used for actions that happen regularly or repeatedly, or that are true in general. The action of starting the extra part-time job happened at a specific time in the past, so the simple past tense is required.
• D. have started/were needing: This is incorrect because the present perfect tense is used for actions that happened before another action in the past. The action of starting the extra part-time job happened at a specific time in the past, and the action of needing the money is a general statement about the speaker's financial situation, so the present simple tense is required.
• E. started/need: This is the correct answer because the simple past tense is used for actions that happened at a specific time in the past, and the present simple tense is used for actions that happen regularly or repeatedly, or that are true in general.

The correct answer is (d) Luxemburg.

A landlocked country is a country entirely surrounded by land and does not have a coastline. Afghanistan, Liberia, and Laos are all landlocked countries. Luxemburg is a country in Western Europe that is bordered by Belgium, France, and Germany. It is not a landlocked country because it has a coastline on the Moselle River, which flows into the Rhine River.

Afghanistan is a landlocked country in Central Asia. It is bordered by Pakistan to the east and south, Iran to the west, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan to the north, and China to the northeast. Afghanistan has a population of about 38 million people and its capital is Kabul.

Liberia is a country in West Africa. It is bordered by Sierra Leone to the west, Guinea to the north and east, and Côte d'Ivoire to the southeast. Liberia has a population of about 4.8 million people and its capital is Monrovia.

Laos is a landlocked country in Southeast Asia. It is bordered by Myanmar to the northwest, China to the northeast, Vietnam to the east, Cambodia to the south, and Thailand to the west. Laos has a population of about 7 million people and its capital is Vientiane.

Luxemburg is a small country in Western Europe. It is bordered by Belgium to the west, France to the south, and Germany to the east. Luxemburg has a population of about 630,000 people and its capital is Luxembourg City.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "Sensing that the contest would be very tough, she decided to stand down" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly. The other options are not as appropriate in this context.

• Option A, "lie", is not a good choice because it suggests that the woman was trying to deceive or trick someone.
• Option B, "play", is not a good choice because it suggests that the woman was not taking the contest seriously.
• Option C, "sit", is not a good choice because it suggests that the woman was giving up without even trying.

Therefore, the best answer is D, "No improvement."

The correct answer is A. rice, maize, bajra, wheat, barley, cardamom.

Sikkim is a state in northeastern India. It is bordered by Bhutan to the north, China to the east, Nepal to the west, and West Bengal to the south. The state has a population of about 610,000 people and a land area of about 7,096 square kilometers. The capital of Sikkim is Gangtok.

The main crops of Sikkim are rice, maize, bajra, wheat, barley, and cardamom. Rice is the most important crop in Sikkim, accounting for about 60% of the state's agricultural land. Maize is the second most important crop, accounting for about 20% of the state's agricultural land. Bajra is a type of millet that is grown in the drier parts of Sikkim. Wheat is a winter crop that is grown in the higher elevations of Sikkim. Barley is a spring crop that is grown in the lower elevations of Sikkim. Cardamom is a spice that is grown in the forests of Sikkim.

The other options are incorrect because they do not include rice, which is the most important crop in Sikkim.

The correct answer is (b), Costa Rica. Costa Rica has the highest percentage of land protected in the world, at over 25%. The country has a long history of environmental protection, and its protected areas include a wide variety of ecosystems, from rainforests to volcanoes. Costa Rica is also a leader in sustainable tourism, and its protected areas are a major draw for visitors.

Option (a), China, has a large number of protected areas, but they cover a relatively small percentage of the country's land area. Option (c), India, also has a large number of protected areas, but they are not as well-managed as those in Costa Rica. Option (d), Switzerland, has a relatively small number of protected areas, but they are well-managed and cover a significant percentage of the country's land area.

The correct answer is Radon.

Radon is a radioactive noble gas that is found in the Earth's atmosphere. It is produced by the decay of uranium and thorium in rocks and soil. Radon can enter homes and buildings through cracks in foundations, walls, and floors. It can also be released from water supplies.

Radon is a health hazard because it can cause lung cancer. Exposure to radon can increase the risk of lung cancer by up to 20 times. The risk of lung cancer from radon is higher for smokers than for nonsmokers.

There are several ways to reduce radon levels in homes and buildings. One way is to install a radon mitigation system. A radon mitigation system is a device that removes radon from the air. Another way to reduce radon levels is to improve ventilation in homes and buildings.

Argon, neon, and krypton are not radioactive. They are stable elements that do not decay into other elements.

The correct answer is: B. Right to contest election.

Political rights are the rights of citizens to participate in the governance of their country. They include the right to vote, the right to hold office, and the right to freedom of expression.

The right to contest election is the right of citizens to stand for election to public office. This right is essential for a democratic society, as it allows citizens to have a say in who represents them.

The other options are not political rights.

• The right to freedom is the right to be free from arbitrary interference with one's person or property. This right includes the right to freedom of movement, the right to freedom of association, and the right to freedom of religion.
• The right to equality before the law is the right to be treated equally by the law, regardless of one's race, religion, gender, or other personal characteristics. This right is essential for a just society, as it ensures that everyone is treated fairly under the law.
• The right to life is the right to live without being killed by another person. This right is fundamental to human dignity, and it is recognized in international law.

The correct answer is: B. 77.13 per cent

Himachal Pradesh has a literacy rate of 77.13 per cent, which is higher than the national average of 74.04 per cent. The literacy rate for males is 82.89 per cent, while the literacy rate for females is 71.26 per cent. The literacy rate has been increasing in Himachal Pradesh over the years, from 54.40 per cent in 1991 to 77.13 per cent in 2011. This increase is due to a number of factors, including the government's focus on education, the availability of educational facilities, and the changing social attitudes towards education.

The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is higher than the national average in all districts of the state. The highest literacy rate is in the district of Kinnaur (92.16 per cent), while the lowest literacy rate is in the district of Chamba (69.07 per cent).

The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is also higher than the national average for all social groups. The highest literacy rate is among the Scheduled Tribes (88.12 per cent), while the lowest literacy rate is among the Scheduled Castes (67.02 per cent).

The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is an important indicator of the state's development. A high literacy rate is associated with a number of benefits, including economic growth, social progress, and political stability. The government of Himachal Pradesh is committed to further improving the literacy rate in the state.

The correct answer is $boxed{0}$.

The circulation of a vector field $overrightarrow{A}$ around a closed path $Gamma$ is given by the following integral:

$$oint_Gamma overrightarrow{A} cdot doverrightarrow{l}$$

In this case, the vector field is $overrightarrow{A} = xyhat{imath} + x^2hat{jmath}$ and the path is a triangle with vertices $(0,0)$, $(1,0)$, and $(1,1)$. The line integral over this path can be evaluated as follows:

$$oint_Gamma overrightarrow{A} cdot doverrightarrow{l} = int_0^1 xy,dx + int_0^1 x^2,dy$$

The first integral can be evaluated using the substitution $u = x$, which gives:

$$int_0^1 xy,dx = int_0^1 u^2,du = frac{1}{3}$$

The second integral can be evaluated using the substitution $v = y$, which gives:

$$int_0^1 x^2,dy = int_0^1 v^2,dv = frac{1}{3}$$

Therefore, the total line integral is:

$$oint_Gamma overrightarrow{A} cdot doverrightarrow{l} = frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{3} = 0$$

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct value of the line integral.

The correct answer is: D. Andhra Pradesh

Chandragiri Fort is a historical fort, built in the 11th century. It is located in Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India. The fort is situated on a hillock, about 10 km from Tirupati. It is one of the most popular tourist destinations in Andhra Pradesh.

The fort was built by the Chola dynasty in the 11th century. It was later occupied by the Vijayanagara Empire, the Qutb Shahi dynasty, and the Mughal Empire. The fort was finally abandoned in the 18th century.

The fort is spread over an area of about 100 acres. It has a number of palaces, temples, and other buildings. The most important building in the fort is the Chandragiri Palace. The palace was built by the Vijayanagara rulers. It is a three-storeyed building with a number of halls and chambers. The palace is decorated with beautiful murals and sculptures.

The fort also has a number of temples. The most important temple in the fort is the Venkateswara Temple. The temple is dedicated to Lord Venkateswara, a Hindu deity. The temple is one of the most popular pilgrimage destinations in India.

The fort is a popular tourist destination. It is a great place to learn about the history of Andhra Pradesh. The fort is also a great place to enjoy the natural beauty of the area.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Karnataka is a state in southern India.
• Maharashtra is a state in western India.
• Madhya Pradesh is a state in central India.

The correct answer is A. Terracotta is a type of unglazed ceramic, which is made from clay that is fired at a relatively low temperature. It is often used to make decorative items, such as vases, pots, and sculptures.

Option B is incorrect because wood is a natural material that is not typically used to make terracotta handicrafts. Option C is incorrect because metal is a strong and durable material that is not typically used to make terracotta handicrafts. Option D is incorrect because fabric is a soft and flexible material that is not typically used to make terracotta handicrafts.

The correct answer is: B. Not equal to each other

The angle of friction is the maximum angle between a surface and an inclined plane on which an object will remain at rest without sliding. The angle of repose is the maximum angle of an inclined plane on which a granular material will remain at rest without sliding.

The angle of friction is always less than or equal to the angle of repose. This is because the force of friction between two surfaces is always less than or equal to the maximum static friction force between the two surfaces.

The angle of friction and the angle of repose are both affected by the coefficient of friction between the two surfaces. The coefficient of friction is a measure of how slippery the two surfaces are. The higher the coefficient of friction, the greater the force of friction between the two surfaces and the smaller the angle of friction and the angle of repose.

The angle of friction and the angle of repose are also affected by the weight of the object. The heavier the object, the greater the force of gravity pulling it down the inclined plane and the smaller the angle of friction and the angle of repose.

The angle of friction and the angle of repose are important concepts in physics and engineering. They are used to design machines and structures that must withstand the forces of gravity and friction.

IISCO is located in Burnpur near Asansol in Bardhaman district of Durgapur Industrial Region of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (c), Uttarkashi.

Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas, in the Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand, India. The temple is situated at an altitude of 3,600 meters (11,800 feet) above sea level, on the banks of the Alaknanda River.

The temple is believed to have been built in the 11th century by the Katyuri kings. The main deity of the temple is a black stone lingam, which is said to be self-manifested. The temple is also home to a number of other shrines, dedicated to various Hindu deities.

The Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is a popular pilgrimage destination. The temple is open to pilgrims throughout the year, but the best time to visit is during the summer months (June-August).

The other options are incorrect because:

• Tehri Garhwal is a district in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. The district is home to a number of Hindu temples, but the Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is not located in Tehri Garhwal.
• Pauri Garhwal is a district in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. The district is home to a number of Hindu temples, but the Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is not located in Pauri Garhwal.
• Chamoli is a district in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. The district is home to a number of Hindu temples, but the Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is not located in Chamoli.

The odd one out is B. Maize.

Rice, Jowar, Bajra, and Wheat are all cereal crops, while maize is a grain crop. Cereal crops are grown for their edible seeds, while grain crops are grown for their edible grains.

Rice is a grass that is cultivated for its edible seeds. It is the most widely consumed staple food for a large part of the world's human population, especially in Asia and Africa. It is the most important cereal crop in the world, accounting for approximately 20% of the world's human calorie intake.

Maize is a cereal grain that is used for human food, animal feed, and biofuel. It is the most widely grown grain in the world, after rice and wheat. Maize is a member of the grass family, and is native to Central and South America. It was first domesticated in Mexico around 7,000 years ago.

Jowar is a cereal grain that is used for human food and animal feed. It is a member of the grass family, and is native to India and Pakistan. Jowar was first domesticated in India around 4,000 years ago.

Bajra is a cereal grain that is used for human food and animal feed. It is a member of the grass family, and is native to India and Pakistan. Bajra was first domesticated in India around 4,000 years ago.

Wheat is a cereal grain that is used for human food and animal feed. It is a member of the grass family, and is native to the Middle East. Wheat was first domesticated in the Fertile Crescent around 10,000 years ago.

The correct answer is (b) UNDP.

Usha Rao Monari of India was appointed as Under Secretary General and Associate Administrator of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 2021. She is the first Indian to hold this position.

The UNDP is a United Nations agency that helps countries achieve sustainable development. It provides technical assistance, policy advice, and financial support to governments and other partners. The UNDP works in a wide range of areas, including poverty reduction, climate change, and governance.

The other options are incorrect. UNEP is the United Nations Environment Programme, UNICEF is the United Nations Children's Fund, and UNESCO is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

The correct answer is B. 1896.

The first modern Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece, in 1896. The games were organized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC), which was founded in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin. The IOC is the governing body of the Olympic Movement, and it is responsible for organizing the Olympic Games every four years.

The first modern Olympic Games were a huge success, and they have been held every four years since then, except during World War I and World War II. The games have grown significantly over the years, and they now attract athletes from all over the world. The 2020 Summer Olympics were held in Tokyo, Japan, and the 2022 Winter Olympics will be held in Beijing, China.

The Olympic Games are a major international sporting event, and they are watched by millions of people around the world. The games are a symbol of international cooperation and peace, and they promote the values of Olympism, which include excellence, respect, friendship, and fair play.

The options A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not the years in which the first modern Olympic Games were held.

Jhargram district was formed on 4th April, 2017, after bifurcation from the West Midnapore district.

The correct answer is (c) Sunhemp.

Green manure is a type of organic fertilizer that is made from growing plants and then plowing them under before they flower. This helps to improve soil fertility by adding organic matter, nitrogen, and other nutrients. Sunhemp is a particularly good choice for green manure because it grows quickly and has a high nitrogen content. It is also a deep-rooted plant that helps to loosen the soil and improve drainage.

Potato (a) is not a good choice for green manure because it is a root crop that takes up a lot of nutrients from the soil. Sugarcane (b) is also not a good choice because it is a perennial plant that takes several years to mature. Gram (d) is a legume that does fix nitrogen, but it is not as fast-growing or as high in nitrogen as sunhemp.

In conclusion, sunhemp is the most suitable crop for green manuring because it is a fast-growing, high-nitrogen plant that helps to improve soil fertility.

The correct answer is (b) Madhya Pradesh.

Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of soyabean in India, accounting for over 40% of the country's total production. The state has a favorable climate and soil for soyabean cultivation, and farmers have been adopting improved varieties and technologies to increase yields. In recent years, the state government has also taken steps to promote soyabean cultivation, such as providing subsidies on seeds and fertilizers.

Chhattisgarh is the second-largest producer of soyabean in India, followed by Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. These four states together account for over 80% of the country's total soyabean production.

Soyabean is an important crop in India, and it is used to produce a variety of products, including oil, meal, and flour. Soyabean oil is used in cooking, while soyabean meal is used as a feed for livestock. Soyabean flour is used in making bread, cakes, and other baked goods.

India is the world's second-largest producer of soyabean, after Brazil. The country's soyabean production has increased significantly in recent years, due to the expansion of cultivation area and the adoption of improved varieties and technologies.

The answer is B. Tendron.

A cranium is the bony structure that encloses the brain. A rib cage is a bony structure that protects the lungs and heart. A diaphragm is a muscular structure that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. A pericardium is a sac that surrounds the heart.

A tendon is a tough, fibrous cord that attaches muscle to bone. Tendons are not bones, and they do not enclose any organs. Therefore, they are the odd one out in the list.

The correct answer is: A. acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected.

A type II error is a statistical error that occurs when a researcher fails to reject a false null hypothesis. This means that the researcher concludes that there is no difference between two groups, when in reality there is a difference.

For example, a researcher might be testing the effectiveness of a new drug. The null hypothesis is that the drug does not work. If the researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis, they are concluding that the drug does not work. However, if the drug actually does work, then the researcher has made a type II error.

Type II errors can occur for a number of reasons. One reason is that the sample size is too small. If the sample size is too small, the researcher may not have enough power to detect a difference between the two groups. Another reason for type II errors is that the variability in the data is too high. If the variability is too high, the researcher may not be able to distinguish between a real difference and random variation.

Type II errors can have serious consequences. If a researcher fails to reject a false null hypothesis, they may conclude that there is no difference between two groups when in reality there is a difference. This can lead to the researcher making a decision that is not in the best interests of the participants in the study.

There are a number of ways to reduce the risk of type II errors. One way is to increase the sample size. Another way is to use a more powerful statistical test. Finally, the researcher can try to reduce the variability in the data.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected. This is a type II error.
• Option B: Rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted. This is a type I error.
• Option C: Rejection of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected. This is correct.
• Option D: Acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted. This is a type I error.

The correct answer is: D. Preference rule

An indifference curve is a graph that shows all the combinations of goods that a consumer is indifferent between. In other words, the consumer is equally satisfied with any combination of goods on the curve.

Indifference curves cannot intersect each other because it would violate the preference rule. The preference rule states that a consumer prefers a combination of goods A to a combination of goods B if and only if the consumer is not indifferent between A and B. If indifference curves could intersect, then it would be possible for a consumer to be indifferent between two combinations of goods, even though one combination contains more of one good and less of the other good. This would violate the preference rule.

The transitivity rule states that if a consumer prefers A to B and B to C, then the consumer must prefer A to C. This rule is necessary to ensure that the indifference curves are consistent with the consumer's preferences.

The optimal rule states that a consumer will always choose the combination of goods that gives them the most satisfaction. This rule is necessary to ensure that the indifference curves are consistent with the consumer's behavior.

The non-satiety rule states that a consumer will always prefer more of a good to less of a good. This rule is necessary to ensure that the indifference curves are consistent with the consumer's desires.

The correct answer is: Only argument I is strong.

Argument I is strong because it provides a clear and logical reason why India should engage in a dialogue with neighbouring countries to stop cross border tension. The argument states that dialogue is the only way to reduce cross border terrorism and stop the loss of innocent lives. This is a valid point, as dialogue can help to build trust and understanding between countries, which can in turn lead to a reduction in violence.

Argument II is weak because it does not provide a clear and logical reason why India should not engage in a dialogue with neighbouring countries. The argument states that neighbouring countries cannot be relied upon in such matters, and that they may still engage in subversive activities. However, this argument does not provide any evidence to support these claims. It is possible that neighbouring countries could be relied upon to engage in good faith dialogue, and it is also possible that they would not engage in subversive activities even if a dialogue were to take place. Therefore, argument II is not a strong argument.

In conclusion, only argument I is strong. Argument II is weak because it does not provide a clear and logical reason why India should not engage in a dialogue with neighbouring countries.

The correct answer is: D. their elasticity cannot be compared.

The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive consumers are to changes in price. A demand curve that is more elastic means that consumers are more responsive to changes in price, and a demand curve that is less elastic means that consumers are less responsive to changes in price.

If two demand curves intersect, then the two curves must have different elasticities at the point of intersection. This is because the two curves must have different slopes, and the slope of a demand curve is a measure of its elasticity.

Therefore, the elasticity of demand cannot be compared at the point of intersection of two demand curves.

The correct answer is (d). The 15th Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation Summit in September, 2007 was held in Tokyo, Japan.

The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a forum for 21 member economies that promotes economic growth, trade, investment, and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region. The APEC Economic Leaders' Meeting is the annual meeting of the leaders of the APEC member economies. The 15th APEC Economic Leaders' Meeting was held in Tokyo, Japan, on November 13-14, 2007. The theme of the meeting was "Achieving a Vibrant and Secure Asia-Pacific Community." The leaders discussed a wide range of issues, including economic growth, trade and investment, energy security, climate change, and food security. They also adopted a number of initiatives, including the Tokyo Declaration on the Future of APEC, the APEC Action Agenda 2010, and the APEC Energy Security Initiative.

The other options are incorrect. Beijing is the capital of China and the most populous city in the world. Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia and the largest city in Southeast Asia. Sydney is the capital of New South Wales and the most populous city in Australia.

The correct answer is (d).

The Constitution of India does not provide for the inclusion of a Union territory in a state. However, it does provide for the formation of new states by the Parliament, by increasing the area of any state, diminishing the area of any state, altering the name of any state, or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting a part of any state with any other state.

The Constitution also provides for the creation of new Union territories by the Parliament. The Parliament may, by law, create new Union territories, or alter the boundaries of any existing Union territory.

The Constitution does not provide for the inclusion of a Union territory in a state because it is considered that a Union territory is a separate entity from a state. A Union territory is not a part of any state, and it is governed directly by the Central Government.

The correct answer is (B).

Rashi is a singular subject, so the verb must also be singular. The verb "take" is conjugated in the simple present tense, which is used to describe actions that happen regularly or repeatedly. In this case, Rashi takes the bus to her office every day.

The other options are incorrect because they are not conjugated in the simple present tense. The verb "took" is conjugated in the simple past tense, which is used to describe actions that happened at a specific time in the past. The verbs "are taking" and "are going to take" are conjugated in the present progressive tense, which is used to describe actions that are happening now or that will happen in the near future.

In conclusion, the correct answer is (B). Rashi takes the bus to her office every day.

The correct answer is: Atrium.

The atria are the top chambers of the heart. They are two small, thin-walled chambers that receive blood from the body and lungs. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, while the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

The atria are separated from the ventricles by the atrioventricular valves. The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve) and the left atrioventricular valve (mitral valve) prevent blood from flowing back into the atria when the ventricles contract.

The atria contract and pump blood into the ventricles. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs, while the left ventricle pumps blood to the body.

The atria are important for maintaining a healthy heart. They help to ensure that blood is pumped efficiently throughout the body.

Aorta is the largest artery in the body. It carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

Septum is a wall that separates two chambers of the heart. The interventricular septum separates the right and left ventricles. The interatrial septum separates the right and left atria.

Ventricle is the lower chamber of the heart. It pumps blood out of the heart to the rest of the body.

Bikash Roy's performance as a villain in the movie 'Biyallis (42)' was remarkably realistic.

The correct answer is (d) All of these.

Under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956, a Hindu is bound to maintain his or her father, mother, and widow, so long as they do not remarry. The word "dependent" is defined as a person who is unable to maintain himself or herself by reason of age, illness, or infirmity.

Option (a) is incorrect because it only mentions the father. The Act also includes the mother and widow.

Option (b) is incorrect because it only mentions the mother. The Act also includes the father and widow.

Option (c) is incorrect because it only mentions the widow. The Act also includes the father and mother.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

West Bengal is a significant producer of potatoes, tomatoes, and onions. In 2020, West Bengal was the second largest producer of potatoes in India, after Uttar Pradesh. The state also produced over 2 million tonnes of tomatoes and over 1 million tonnes of onions in 2020.

Potatoes are a major staple food in West Bengal, and are used in a variety of dishes, such as aloo bhaja (fried potatoes), aloo dum (a potato curry), and aloo paratha (a potato flatbread). Tomatoes are used in a variety of dishes, such as tomato soup, tomato sauce, and tomato chutney. Onions are used in a variety of dishes, such as onion bhaji (fried onions), onion pakora (onion fritters), and onion raita (a yogurt-based condiment).

The cultivation of potatoes, tomatoes, and onions is a major source of employment in West Bengal. The state has a well-developed infrastructure for the production and processing of these vegetables. The state also has a strong export market for these vegetables.

The odd number from the given alternatives is 125.

27, 64, and 144 are all perfect cubes, while 125 is not. A perfect cube is a number that can be expressed as the cube of an integer. For example, 27 is a perfect cube because it can be expressed as the cube of 3 (3 x 3 x 3 = 27). 64 is a perfect cube because it can be expressed as the cube of 4 (4 x 4 x 4 = 64). 144 is a perfect cube because it can be expressed as the cube of 6 (6 x 6 x 6 = 144). However, 125 is not a perfect cube because it cannot be expressed as the cube of an integer.

The correct answer is (b) Black soil.

Black soil is a type of soil that is rich in organic matter and nutrients. It is also known as regur soil or black cotton soil. Black soil is found in the Deccan Plateau of India and in parts of Australia, Africa, and South America.

Black soil is a good soil for growing crops because it is rich in nutrients and has good water retention capacity. It is also a good soil for building roads and other infrastructure because it is strong and stable.

Alluvial soil is a type of soil that is formed from the deposition of sediments by rivers and streams. It is a fertile soil that is good for growing crops. However, it is not as good at retaining water as black soil.

Red soil is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of rocks. It is a poor soil for growing crops because it is low in nutrients and has poor water retention capacity.

Laterite soil is a type of soil that is formed from the weathering of rocks in tropical climates. It is a poor soil for growing crops because it is low in nutrients and has poor water retention capacity.

In conclusion, black soil is the best soil for growing crops because it is rich in nutrients and has good water retention capacity.

The correct answer is B. Herpes Zoster Virus.

Rubella virus causes German measles. Rabies virus causes rabies. Variola virus causes smallpox.

Herpes zoster virus is a member of the herpes family of viruses. It is the same virus that causes chickenpox. After a person has chickenpox, the virus stays in the body and can reactivate later in life to cause shingles.

Shingles is a painful skin rash that can occur anywhere on the body. It is most common in people over the age of 50. There is no cure for shingles, but there are treatments that can help to relieve the symptoms.

If you think you may have shingles, it is important to see a doctor right away. Shingles can be a serious infection, especially in people with weakened immune systems.

The correct answer is (c), Hydrochloric Acid.

A volatile organic compound (VOC) is a chemical compound that has a high vapor pressure at ordinary temperatures. VOCs are often found in gasoline, paints, and other household products. They can be released into the air through evaporation, combustion, or other processes.

Acetaldehyde, formaldehyde, and dichloromethane are all VOCs. They are all colorless, flammable liquids with a strong odor. Acetaldehyde is used in the production of plastics, resins, and other chemicals. Formaldehyde is used in the production of building materials, adhesives, and other products. Dichloromethane is used as a solvent and in the production of refrigerants and other chemicals.

Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid that is not a VOC. It is a colorless, fuming liquid with a strong odor. Hydrochloric acid is used in the production of chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and other products. It is also used in metal etching and cleaning.

VOCs can be harmful to human health. They can cause respiratory problems, cancer, and other health problems. VOCs can also contribute to air pollution.

The correct answer is (b). Project Arrow is a government initiative to modernize the Indian postal system. It was launched in 2018 with the goal of making the postal system more efficient, reliable, and customer-friendly. The project has been implemented in phases, with the first phase focusing on improving the infrastructure of post offices and the second phase focusing on introducing new technology and services.

Option (a) is incorrect because Project Arrow is not concerned with the modernization of airports. The government has a separate initiative called the National Airports Authority of India (NAAI) for the modernization of airports.

Option (c) is incorrect because Project Arrow is not concerned with the modernization of road transport. The government has a separate initiative called the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for the modernization of roads.

Option (d) is incorrect because Project Arrow is not concerned with the modernization of railways. The government has a separate initiative called the Railway Board for the modernization of railways.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Lack of fodder is a major challenge faced by the livestock sector in West Bengal. The state has a large population of livestock, but there is not enough fodder to feed them. This is due to a number of factors, including the high cost of fodder, the lack of land for fodder production, and the poor quality of fodder.

Inadequate veterinary services is another major challenge faced by the livestock sector in West Bengal. There are not enough veterinary doctors in the state, and those that are there are often not well-trained. This means that livestock farmers do not have access to the care they need for their animals.

Disease outbreaks are also a major challenge faced by the livestock sector in West Bengal. The state has a high incidence of livestock diseases, such as foot-and-mouth disease, brucellosis, and bovine tuberculosis. These diseases can cause serious illness and death in livestock, and they can also have a significant impact on the livelihoods of livestock farmers.

The challenges faced by the livestock sector in West Bengal are complex and interrelated. There is no single solution that can address all of these challenges. However, there are a number of things that can be done to improve the situation. These include increasing the availability of fodder, improving the quality of veterinary services, and controlling livestock diseases.

The correct answer is (c).

A can do a work in 5 days, B can do the same work in 10 days and C can do it in 30 days. If A, B and C work together, then the amount of work they can do in one day is:

A + B + C = 1/5 + 1/10 + 1/30 = 11/60

Therefore, A, B and C can complete the work in 60/11 days, which is approximately 5.45 days. Since the question asks for the number of days required to complete the work, the answer is (c).

Option (a) is incorrect because it is the number of days required for A to complete the work alone. Option (b) is incorrect because it is the number of days required for B to complete the work alone. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the number of days required for C to complete the work alone.

The correct answer is D. The People of India.

The preamble of the Indian Constitution is the introductory statement of the Constitution of India. It sets out the guiding principles of the Indian state and the fundamental rights and duties of its citizens. The preamble begins with the words "We, the People of India". This means that the Constitution is made by the people of India and for the people of India. The preamble also states that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. This means that India is an independent country with its own government, that it is committed to social justice and equality, that it respects all religions, and that it is a democracy where the people have the power to choose their leaders.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the people of India as a whole. The Indian government is a body of elected officials who are responsible for running the country. The Supreme Court is the highest court in India and is responsible for interpreting the Constitution. The Indian Parliament is the legislative body of India and is responsible for making laws.

The correct answer is C. was moving.

Jhanda Singh jumped off the bus while it was moving. This means that the bus was in motion at the time that Jhanda Singh jumped off. The other options are not correct because they do not describe the bus as being in motion. Option A, moved, is incorrect because it describes the bus as having moved in the past. Option B, will move, is incorrect because it describes the bus as moving in the future. Option D, is moving, is incorrect because it describes the bus as being in motion at the present time.

In conclusion, the correct answer is C. was moving.

The correct answer is: B. Cricket.

A Chinaman is a type of delivery in cricket, bowled by a right-arm bowler with a wrist spin action. The ball is released with a high arm action and is turned from off to leg. The ball is often difficult to play, as it can spin sharply and bounce awkwardly.

Judo is a Japanese martial art that uses throws, joint locks, and chokeholds to subdue an opponent. There is no "Chinaman" move in judo.

Billiards is a family of cue sports that are played on a cloth-covered table with six pockets. The most common type of billiards is pool, which is played with 15 balls and a cue stick. There is no "Chinaman" move in billiards.

Golf is a club-and-ball sport in which players use various clubs to hit balls into a series of holes on a course in as few strokes as possible. There is no "Chinaman" move in golf.

The correct answer is: The President of India.

The National Integration Council (NIC) is a high-level advisory body to the Government of India on matters relating to national integration. It was constituted in 1961 by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. The NIC is chaired by the President of India and its members include the Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all states, and representatives of various political parties, social organizations, and academic institutions.

The NIC has been instrumental in promoting national integration and harmony in India. It has played a key role in resolving inter-state disputes, promoting communal harmony, and combating terrorism. The NIC has also been involved in formulating policies and programs for the development of backward areas and for the welfare of minorities.

The NIC is a valuable asset for the Government of India in its efforts to promote national integration and harmony. It is a forum for dialogue and consultation among all stakeholders on issues of national importance. The NIC has made a significant contribution to the development of India as a united and cohesive nation.

The other options are incorrect. The Prime Minister is the head of the Government of India and is responsible for the day-to-day running of the country. The Finance Minister is responsible for the country's finances. The Home Minister is responsible for the country's internal security.

The correct answer is A) Poor irrigation management.

Waterlogging and salinity are problems that can occur when too much water is applied to soil. This can happen when irrigation is not managed properly, or when there is excessive rainfall. When soil is waterlogged, the air spaces between the soil particles are filled with water, which can suffocate plant roots. Salinity occurs when water evaporates from the soil, leaving behind salts that were dissolved in the water. These salts can build up in the soil and make it difficult for plants to grow.

Drought conditions can also lead to waterlogging and salinity, but they are not the primary cause of these problems. In drought conditions, plants use less water, which can lead to waterlogging in the soil. Additionally, when there is less rainfall, salts that are dissolved in the soil can build up, leading to salinity.

High-altitude farming and desert climates are not typically associated with waterlogging and salinity. In high-altitude farming, the air is thinner, which means that there is less water vapor in the air. This can lead to lower evaporation rates, which can help to prevent waterlogging and salinity. Desert climates are typically dry, which means that there is less water available to cause waterlogging and salinity.

In conclusion, the correct answer is A) Poor irrigation management. Waterlogging and salinity are problems that can occur when too much water is applied to soil. This can happen when irrigation is not managed properly, or when there is excessive rainfall.

The correct answer is A) Dooars.

The Cholti language is a dialect of Bengali spoken in the Dooars region of India. It is spoken by the people of the Rajbanshi community, who are a tribal group indigenous to the region. The Cholti language is closely related to the Bengali language, but it has its own unique features. For example, it has a different vocabulary and grammar than Bengali.

The Dooars region is located in the foothills of the Himalayas, in the state of West Bengal. It is a hilly region with a tropical climate. The Dooars is a popular tourist destination, and it is also home to a number of tea plantations.

The Rajbanshi community is a tribal group indigenous to the Dooars region. They are a large community, and they have a rich culture and history. The Rajbanshi people are known for their hospitality and their love of music and dance.

The Cholti language is an important part of the Rajbanshi culture. It is the language that the Rajbanshi people use to communicate with each other, and it is also the language that they use to express their culture and history. The Cholti language is a living language, and it is constantly evolving. It is a beautiful and unique language, and it is an important part of the Rajbanshi culture.

The other options are incorrect because they are not regions where the Cholti language is spoken. Option B, Terai, is a region in Nepal and India. Option C, Rarh, is a region in India. Option D, Sundarbans, is a region in Bangladesh.

The correct answer is: A. Original Jurisdiction

Original jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear a case first, without having to go through another court. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, and those in which a state is a party. It also has original jurisdiction in all cases affecting the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States.

Appellate jurisdiction is the power of a court to review a decision made by a lower court. The Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction over all cases decided by the lower federal courts, as well as over some cases decided by state courts.

Advisory jurisdiction is the power of a court to give an opinion on a legal question, but not to issue a binding decision. The Supreme Court does not have advisory jurisdiction.

Miscellaneous jurisdiction is a catch-all category for any jurisdiction that does not fit into the other categories. The Supreme Court has some miscellaneous jurisdiction, such as the power to issue writs of certiorari and mandamus.

In the case of election disputes of President and Vice-President, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction. This means that the Supreme Court is the first court to hear these cases, and its decision is final. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in these cases because they are of great importance to the nation.

The correct answer is: A. Count.

"Much" is related to "Many" in the same way as "Measure" is related to "Count".

"Much" and "Many" are both adjectives that can be used to describe a large quantity of something. "Measure" and "Count" are both verbs that can be used to determine the size or number of something.

For example, you might say "I have much work to do" or "There are many people in this room." You might also say "I need to measure the length of this table" or "I need to count the number of apples in this bowl."

In each case, the two words are related because they both refer to the quantity of something. "Much" and "Many" refer to the size or number of a group of things, while "Measure" and "Count" refer to the process of determining the size or number of a group of things.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationship between "Much" and "Many".

Option B, "Measures", is incorrect because it is a plural noun. "Measure" is a singular noun, so it cannot be used in the same way as "Much" and "Many".

Option C, "Calculate", is incorrect because it is a verb that refers to the process of determining a quantity or value by using mathematical operations. "Measure" and "Count" do not refer to mathematical operations, so they cannot be used in the same way as "Calculate".

Option D, "Weigh", is incorrect because it is a verb that refers to the process of determining the weight of something. "Measure" and "Count" do not refer to weight, so they cannot be used in the same way as "Weigh".

The correct answer is (c). The Mesozoic Era was the era of reptiles. It was the middle of the three eras of the Phanerozoic eon, and it lasted from 252 to 66 million years ago. The Mesozoic Era is also known as the "Age of Dinosaurs" because dinosaurs were the dominant land animals during this time.

The Palaeozoic Era was the first era of the Phanerozoic eon, and it lasted from 541 to 252 million years ago. The Palaeozoic Era is also known as the "Age of Fishes" because fishes were the dominant animals in the oceans during this time.

The Coenozoic Era is the current era, and it began 66 million years ago. The Coenozoic Era is also known as the "Age of Mammals" because mammals are the dominant animals on Earth today.

The Proterozoic Era was the second era of the Precambrian eon, and it lasted from 2.5 to 541 million years ago. The Proterozoic Era is also known as the "Age of Protists" because protists were the dominant organisms on Earth during this time.

Biharinath hill is a famous tourist spot in Bankura district.

The correct answer is A. Arteries.

Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the rest of the body. They are thick-walled and muscular, which helps them to maintain a high blood pressure. This high blood pressure is necessary to ensure that blood is pumped all the way to the smallest blood vessels, the capillaries, where it can deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.

Veins are blood vessels that carry oxygen-poor blood from the body back to the heart. They are thin-walled and have valves that help to prevent blood from flowing backwards.

Muscle fibers are the basic units of muscle tissue. They are long, thin cells that can contract and relax, which allows them to move the body.

Nerves are the body's communication system. They carry messages from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body, and from the body back to the brain and spinal cord.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is D. Millionaire.

The word "millionaire" is derived from the Latin words "mille" meaning "thousand" and "aere" meaning "silver." The word was first used in the early 18th century to describe someone who had a million units of currency, usually gold or silver.

The word "millionair" is a misspelling of "millionaire." It is often used in informal writing, but it is not considered to be a correct spelling.

The word "millionnaire" is a French spelling of "millionaire." It is sometimes used in English, but it is not considered to be the standard spelling.

The word "milionaire" is a misspelling of "millionaire." It is not a correct spelling in any language.

The correct answer is: A) Mughal Subahdar of Bengal.

Murshid Quli Khan was a Mughal noble who served as the Subahdar (governor) of Bengal from 1712 to 1727. He was a powerful and influential figure who played a major role in the development of Bengal under Mughal rule. He founded the city of Murshidabad, which became the capital of Bengal during his time as Subahdar.

The other options are incorrect. Option B is incorrect because the Ruler of the Bengal Sultanate was not a Mughal official. Option C is incorrect because Murshid Quli Khan was not a Maratha General. Option D is incorrect because Murshid Quli Khan was not a British East India Company official.

The correct answer is: **B) Vidyasagar Award**

The Vidyasagar Award is a state government award given to individuals for their outstanding contribution in the field of education, literature, social service, and other fields. It is named after the social reformer Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Banga Bibhushan Award is a state government award given to individuals for their outstanding contribution in the field of art, culture, and literature.
* Banga Bhushan Award is a state government award given to individuals for their outstanding contribution in the field of science, technology, and engineering.
* Banga Ratna Award is the highest civilian award of the state of West Bengal. It is given to individuals for their outstanding contribution in any field.

The correct answer is C) Panchayat Raj.

Panchayat Raj is a system of local self-government in India. It is a three-tier system with village panchayats at the lowest level, block panchayats at the intermediate level, and district panchayats at the highest level. The system was introduced in West Bengal in 1978 with the aim of decentralizing governance and empowering local bodies.

Operation Barga is a land reform program in West Bengal that was launched in 1977. The program aims to secure tenancy rights for sharecroppers and to improve their economic conditions.

Singur Land Acquisition is a controversial land acquisition project in West Bengal that was initiated in 2006. The project aims to acquire land for the construction of a Tata Motors factory. The project has been met with widespread protests from farmers and activists.

Kanyashree Prakalpa is a social security scheme for girls in West Bengal. The scheme aims to reduce the dropout rate among girls and to empower them economically.

Panchayat Raj is the most suitable answer to the question because it is a system of local self-government that aims to decentralize governance and empower local bodies. The other options are not directly related to decentralization and empowerment of local bodies.

The correct answer is (a) 912.

The sex ratio of children in the age group of 0-6 years in India is 912 girls per 1000 boys. This means that for every 1000 boys in this age group, there are 912 girls.

The sex ratio of children in India has been declining over the past few decades. In 1991, the sex ratio of children in the age group of 0-6 years was 927 girls per 1000 boys. This declined to 918 girls per 1000 boys in 2001 and further to 912 girls per 1000 boys in 2011.

There are a number of factors that have contributed to the decline in the sex ratio of children in India. One factor is the practice of female feticide, which is the selective abortion of female fetuses. Another factor is the practice of female infanticide, which is the killing of female infants after they are born.

The decline in the sex ratio of children in India is a serious concern. It has a number of negative consequences, including a shortage of women in the population, an increase in the number of elderly people, and a decrease in the size of the workforce.

The government of India has taken a number of measures to address the issue of the declining sex ratio of children. These measures include:

• Stricter laws against female feticide and infanticide.
• Public awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance of girls.
• Providing financial incentives to families who have girls.
• Ensuring that girls have access to quality education and healthcare.

These measures have had some success in slowing the decline in the sex ratio of children. However, more needs to be done to address this issue.

Javagal Srinath played for Leicestershire in 1995. He was the first Indian bowler to take 300 wickets in Test cricket. He was also the first Indian bowler to take 100 wickets in One Day Internationals. He was a right-arm fast bowler who played for India from 1989 to 2003. He is considered to be one of the greatest fast bowlers of all time.

Kent is a county cricket club based in Canterbury, Kent, England. It is one of the 18 first-class counties that make up the English and Welsh Cricket Board. The club was founded in 1795 and has played at Canterbury Cricket Ground since 1846. Kent has won the County Championship seven times, the One Day Cup twice, and the Twenty20 Cup once.

Glamorgan is a county cricket club based in Cardiff, Wales. It is one of the 18 first-class counties that make up the English and Welsh Cricket Board. The club was founded in 1888 and has played at Sophia Gardens since 1911. Glamorgan has won the County Championship once, the One Day Cup twice, and the Twenty20 Cup once.

Gloucestershire is a county cricket club based in Bristol, England. It is one of the 18 first-class counties that make up the English and Welsh Cricket Board. The club was founded in 1877 and has played at County Ground, Bristol since 1889. Gloucestershire has won the County Championship once, the One Day Cup once, and the Twenty20 Cup once.

Leicestershire is a county cricket club based in Leicester, England. It is one of the 18 first-class counties that make up the English and Welsh Cricket Board. The club was founded in 1879 and has played at Grace Road since 1891. Leicestershire has won the County Championship once, the One Day Cup once, and the Twenty20 Cup once.

The correct answer is: A. Films.

The Cannes Film Festival is an annual film festival held in Cannes, France. It is one of the most prestigious film festivals in the world, and is often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals". The festival was founded in 1946 by Jean Cocteau, and has been held every year since then, except for the years 1948, 1950, and 1951.

The Cannes Film Festival awards the Palme d'Or, which is considered to be one of the most prestigious film awards in the world. The Palme d'Or is awarded to the best film in the competition, and is decided by a jury of film professionals.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B: Journalism is not the field in which the Cannes Award is given. The Cannes Film Festival does not award any prizes for journalism.
• Option C: Literature is not the field in which the Cannes Award is given. The Cannes Film Festival does not award any prizes for literature.
• Option D: Economics is not the field in which the Cannes Award is given. The Cannes Film Festival does not award any prizes for economics.

The correct answer is (b). Rajaji National Park is a national park in India, located in the foothills of the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand. It is shared by the districts of Dehradun, Haridwar, Pauri Garhwal, and Nainital. The park was established in 1983 and is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, deer, and monkeys. It is also a popular destination for trekking and birdwatching.

The other options are incorrect. The Valley of Flowers National Park is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. The Corbett National Park is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. The Govind National Park is located in the Chamoli and Uttarkashi districts of Uttarakhand.

The correct answer is A) Ol Chiki.

Ol Chiki is an abugida writing system used to write the Santali language. It was created in the 19th century by the Santali scholar Raghunath Murmu. Ol Chiki is the first writing system to be developed for an indigenous language of India.

Warang Citi is a writing system used to write the Mundari language. It is a derivative of the Devanagari script.

Takri is a writing system used to write the Dogri language. It is a derivative of the Sharada script.

Mundari Bani is a writing system used to write the Mundari language. It is a derivative of the Ol Chiki script.

Ol Chiki is the most widely used writing system for the Santali language. It is used in education, government, and the media. Ol Chiki is also used by Santali people living in other countries, such as Bangladesh, Nepal, and Bhutan.

The correct answer is: B. Surface tension.

Surface tension is the tendency of a liquid surface to contract into the smallest possible area, and is caused by the cohesive forces between the liquid molecules. The cohesive forces are the intermolecular forces that hold the molecules of a liquid together. These forces are strongest at the surface of the liquid, where the molecules are not surrounded by other liquid molecules on all sides. As a result, the surface molecules are pulled inward, causing the surface of the liquid to contract.

Raindrops are spherical because of surface tension. The surface tension of the water molecules pulls them together, causing them to form a sphere. The sphere is the shape that minimizes the surface area of a given volume, so it is the most stable shape for a raindrop.

The other options are incorrect. Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to flow. Friction is the force that opposes the relative motion of two surfaces in contact. Elasticity is the ability of a material to return to its original shape after being deformed.

The correct answer is: Gramer Kagoj.

Gramer Kagoj is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It is known for its extensive coverage of rural issues and agricultural news. The newspaper was founded in 1972 by a group of journalists who were committed to providing a voice to the rural population of West Bengal. Gramer Kagoj has a circulation of over 100,000 copies and is read by people in rural and semi-urban areas of West Bengal.

The other options are incorrect because they are not known for their extensive coverage of rural issues and agricultural news. Aajkaal is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It is the second-largest Bengali-language newspaper in India, after Anandabazar Patrika. Aajkaal is known for its coverage of political and social news. Dainik Statesman is an English-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It is one of the oldest and most respected newspapers in India. Dainik Statesman is known for its coverage of national and international news. Ganashakti is a Bengali-language daily newspaper published from Kolkata, India. It is a left-leaning newspaper and is known for its coverage of political and social news.

The correct answer is: Ballal Sena.

Ballal Sena was the founder of the Sena dynasty, which ruled over the eastern Indian subcontinent from the 11th to the 13th centuries. He was born in the village of Ballalpur in the present-day state of Bihar. His father, Hemanta Sena, was a minor chieftain in the Pala Empire. Ballal Sena rose to prominence during the reign of the Pala king Mahipala I. He was appointed as the governor of the eastern provinces of the empire. After Mahipala's death, Ballal Sena declared himself independent and founded the Sena dynasty.

Ballal Sena was a powerful and successful ruler. He extended his kingdom to include much of the eastern Indian subcontinent. He also built many temples and other monuments. Ballal Sena was succeeded by his son, Lakshman Sena.

Lakshman Sena was a capable ruler who continued the expansion of the Sena dynasty. He defeated the Chola Empire in a series of battles. He also built many temples and other monuments. Lakshman Sena was succeeded by his son, Vijay Sena.

Vijay Sena was the last great ruler of the Sena dynasty. He was defeated by the Muslim ruler Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji in 1204. The Sena dynasty came to an end after Vijay Sena's death.

A. Ballal Sena was the founder of the Sena dynasty. He was a powerful and successful ruler who extended his kingdom to include much of the eastern Indian subcontinent. He also built many temples and other monuments.

B. Hemanta Sena was the father of Ballal Sena. He was a minor chieftain in the Pala Empire.

C. Lakshman Sena was the son of Ballal Sena. He was a capable ruler who continued the expansion of the Sena dynasty. He defeated the Chola Empire in a series of battles. He also built many temples and other monuments.

D. Vijay Sena was the son of Lakshman Sena. He was the last great ruler of the Sena dynasty. He was defeated by the Muslim ruler Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji in 1204. The Sena dynasty came to an end after Vijay Sena's death.

The correct answer is (a) Kulottunga I.

Kulottunga I was the Chola emperor who ruled from 1070 to 1118 CE. He was a powerful and successful ruler who expanded the Chola empire to its greatest extent. He also made significant contributions to the arts and literature.

In 1077 CE, Kulottunga I invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the Sinhalese king Vijayabahu I. He then married his daughter to the Sinhalese prince Virabahu I, thus establishing a peaceful relationship between the two kingdoms.

Kulottunga I was a wise and just ruler who was loved by his subjects. He is considered to be one of the greatest Chola emperors.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

(b) Rajendra I was the Chola emperor who ruled from 1014 to 1044 CE. He was the son of Rajaraja I and the father of Kulottunga I. He was a powerful and successful ruler who expanded the Chola empire to its greatest extent. However, he did not invade Sri Lanka or marry his daughter to a Sinhalese prince.

(c) Adhirajendra was the Chola emperor who ruled from 1044 to 1052 CE. He was the son of Rajendra I and the brother of Kulottunga I. He was a powerful and successful ruler who expanded the Chola empire to its greatest extent. However, he did not invade Sri Lanka or marry his daughter to a Sinhalese prince.

(d) Rajadhiraja was the Chola emperor who ruled from 1052 to 1064 CE. He was the son of Adhirajendra and the nephew of Kulottunga I. He was a powerful and successful ruler who expanded the Chola empire to its greatest extent. However, he did not invade Sri Lanka or marry his daughter to a Sinhalese prince.

The correct answer is (a) Portrait.

Portrait mode is a page orientation in which the page is taller than it is wide. It is the default page orientation for most documents.

Landscape mode is a page orientation in which the page is wider than it is tall. It is often used for documents that contain a lot of data or images that need to be displayed in a horizontal format.

Page setup is a dialog box that allows you to specify the page size, margins, and other settings for a document.

Print view is a view in which you can see how your document will look when it is printed.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The minimum value of the function $f(x) = left( frac{{x^3}}{3} right) - x$ occurs at $x = 0$.

To find the minimum value, we can take the derivative of $f(x)$ and set it equal to zero. The derivative of $f(x)$ is $f'(x) = x^2 - 1$. Setting $f'(x) = 0$, we get $x^2 = 1$. Solving for $x$, we get $x = pm 1$.

To see which of these two values of $x$ gives the minimum value of $f(x)$, we can evaluate $f(x)$ at $x = 0$ and $x = pm 1$. We get $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = frac{1}{3} - 1 = -frac{2}{3}$. So the minimum value of $f(x)$ occurs at $x = 0$.

We can also see this graphically. The graph of $f(x)$ is a parabola that opens up. The minimum value of a parabola occurs at its vertex. The vertex of the graph of $f(x)$ is at $x = 0$. Therefore, the minimum value of $f(x)$ occurs at $x = 0$.

The correct answer is A) Rice cultivation.

Rice cultivation was introduced to West Bengal during the Neolithic period. This was a major turning point in the region's history, as it allowed for the development of more complex societies and economies. Rice is a staple food in many parts of the world, and its cultivation has had a profound impact on human history.

Wheat cultivation was also introduced to West Bengal during the Neolithic period, but it did not have as significant an impact as rice cultivation. This is because wheat is not as well-suited to the climate of West Bengal as rice is. Maize cultivation was not introduced to West Bengal until the Columbian Exchange, and cotton cultivation was not introduced until the Mughal period.

The Neolithic period is a period in human history that is characterized by the development of agriculture. This period began in the Fertile Crescent around 10,000 years ago, and it spread to other parts of the world, including West Bengal, over time. The Neolithic period was a major turning point in human history, as it allowed for the development of more complex societies and economies.

The correct answer is (b) 10.0.

The percentage gain is calculated by dividing the difference between the selling price and the purchasing price by the purchasing price and multiplying by 100. In this case, the selling price is $11 and the purchasing price is $10, so the percentage gain is $frac{11-10}{10} times 100 = 10%$.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is the percentage decrease, not the percentage gain. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the percentage gain if the selling price is $11.10 and the purchasing price is $10. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the percentage gain if the selling price is $11 and the purchasing price is $0.

The correct answer is C. 8 times.

Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. It is calculated by the formula $KE = frac{1}{2}mv^2$, where $m$ is the mass of the object and $v$ is the velocity of the object.

If both the mass and the velocity of an object are increased to twice of their magnitude, the kinetic energy will increase by 8 times. This is because the kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the velocity. When the velocity is doubled, the kinetic energy is quadrupled. When the mass is doubled, the kinetic energy is doubled again. Therefore, the total increase in kinetic energy is 8 times.

Option A is incorrect because the kinetic energy will increase by 8 times, not 2 times.

Option B is incorrect because the kinetic energy will increase by 8 times, not 4 times.

Option D is incorrect because the kinetic energy will increase by 8 times, not 16 times.

The correct answer is: Eukaryotic and single-celled.

Protists are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are not plants, animals, or fungi. They are typically single-celled, but some are colonial or multicellular. Protists are found in a wide range of habitats, including water, soil, and on the bodies of other organisms.

Protists are important in the food chain and play a role in the cycling of nutrients. They are also a source of new medicines and other products.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Eukaryotic and multicellular. This is not the correct answer because protists are not always multicellular. Some protists are single-celled, while others are colonial or multicellular.
• Option B: Prokaryotic and multicellular. This is not the correct answer because protists are eukaryotic, not prokaryotic. Eukaryotic organisms have a nucleus and other organelles, while prokaryotic organisms do not.
• Option C: Prokaryotic and single-celled. This is not the correct answer because protists are eukaryotic, not prokaryotic. Eukaryotic organisms have a nucleus and other organelles, while prokaryotic organisms do not.
• Option D: Eukaryotic and single-celled. This is the correct answer because protists are eukaryotic and single-celled. Eukaryotic organisms have a nucleus and other organelles, while prokaryotic organisms do not.

The correct answer is: A. Zero.

Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or benefit that a consumer gains from consuming one more unit of a good or service. Average utility is the total utility divided by the number of units consumed.

When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero. This is because the consumer is no longer gaining any additional satisfaction from consuming more of the good or service. In other words, the consumer is at a point of satiation.

Option B is incorrect because marginal utility can be less than average utility even when total utility is maximum. This is because the consumer may be consuming more units of the good or service than they need to reach a point of satiation.

Option C is incorrect because marginal utility can be equal to average utility even when total utility is not maximum. This is because the consumer may be consuming the optimal amount of the good or service.

Option D is incorrect because marginal utility can be above average utility even when total utility is not maximum. This is because the consumer may be consuming less units of the good or service than they need to reach a point of satiation.

The correct answer is D. Secunderabad.

The Corps of Military Police Central School is located in Secunderabad, Telangana, India. It is a training establishment for the Indian Army's Corps of Military Police. The school was established in 1948 and is responsible for training all ranks of the Corps of Military Police. The school offers a variety of courses, including basic training, advanced training, and specialist training. The school also has a museum that is open to the public.

The other options are incorrect. Bangalore is a city in the Indian state of Karnataka. West Bengal is a state in eastern India. Trimulgherry is a locality in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.

The correct answer is (a) Section 7.

Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the registration of Hindu marriages. It states that every marriage between Hindus shall be registered in accordance with the provisions of this Act. The registration of a marriage is not compulsory, but it is advisable to do so for the following reasons:

• It provides evidence of the marriage in case of any dispute.
• It makes it easier to obtain a divorce or judicial separation.
• It makes it easier to claim maintenance or property rights.

The procedure for registration of a Hindu marriage is as follows:

• The parties to the marriage must apply to the Registrar of Marriages in the district where the marriage is solemnized.
• The application must be accompanied by the following documents:
  • A declaration from each of the parties that they are not married to any other person.
  • A declaration from two witnesses who were present at the marriage.
  • A copy of the marriage certificate.
• The Registrar will then register the marriage and issue a certificate of registration.

It is important to note that the registration of a Hindu marriage is not a substitute for a religious ceremony. The religious ceremony is still required to be performed in accordance with the customs and traditions of the parties.

P.V. Sindhu became the first Indian woman to win the Korea Open Superseries in badminton in 2016. She defeated China's Wang Yihan in the final.

Saina Nehwal was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics, a bronze in 2012. She has also won the World Championship silver medal in 2015.

Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa were the first Indian women to win a gold medal at the World Championship, in the mixed doubles event in 2010.

P.V. Sindhu is a badminton player from India. She is the current world champion and the first Indian to win the title. She is also the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal. She is ranked No. 2 in the world by the Badminton World Federation.

The correct answer is: A) January-December

The financial year for the West Bengal state budget is January-December. This is because the state government of West Bengal follows the Indian financial year, which runs from January to December. The Indian financial year is based on the Gregorian calendar, which is the most widely used calendar in the world.

The Indian financial year is divided into two halves: the first half runs from April to September, and the second half runs from October to March. The state government of West Bengal releases its budget in the first half of the financial year, usually in February or March. The budget is a statement of the government's financial plans for the coming year. It includes information on the government's revenue and expenditure, as well as its plans for economic development.

The budget is an important document for the state government of West Bengal. It is used to guide the government's financial decisions and to ensure that the government's resources are used in the most efficient way possible. The budget is also used to communicate the government's priorities to the public.

The following are the other options and their explanations:

* Option B: April-March is the financial year for the central government of India.
* Option C: July-June is the financial year for some other countries, such as Japan and Australia.
* Option D: October-September is not a common financial year for any country.

The correct answer is: A. High resistance in parallel.

A galvanometer is an instrument that measures electric current. It is a very sensitive instrument and can be easily damaged by high currents. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter, we need to increase its resistance. This can be done by connecting a high resistance in parallel with the galvanometer. The high resistance will limit the current flowing through the galvanometer, making it more robust and able to measure higher voltages.

Option B is incorrect because a low resistance in parallel would decrease the resistance of the galvanometer, making it more sensitive to current and less able to measure high voltages.

Option C is incorrect because a high resistance in series would increase the resistance of the galvanometer, making it less sensitive to current and more able to measure high voltages. However, this is not the desired effect when converting a galvanometer into a voltmeter.

Option D is incorrect because a low resistance in series would decrease the resistance of the galvanometer, making it more sensitive to current and less able to measure high voltages.

The correct answer is: D. Enzymes

Enzymes are biological catalysts, which means they speed up the rate of chemical reactions without being consumed by the reaction. They are essential for life, as they are responsible for catalyzing the vast majority of chemical reactions that take place in cells.

Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by glands and transported in the blood to target cells, where they regulate physiological processes. Vitamins are essential nutrients that are required for normal growth and development. Steroids are a group of lipids that are produced by the body and have a variety of functions, including regulating metabolism, reproduction, and immune function.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

• Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by glands and transported in the blood to target cells, where they regulate physiological processes. Hormones are essential for life, as they control many important bodily functions, such as growth, development, metabolism, and reproduction.
• Vitamins are essential nutrients that are required for normal growth and development. Vitamins are not produced by the body, so they must be obtained from food. There are 13 essential vitamins, which are divided into two groups: fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) and water-soluble vitamins (B vitamins and vitamin C).
• Steroids are a group of lipids that are produced by the body and have a variety of functions, including regulating metabolism, reproduction, and immune function. Steroids are derived from cholesterol, and they are found in all parts of the body. Some steroids are produced naturally by the body, while others are produced synthetically. Steroids can be used to treat a variety of medical conditions, such as asthma, arthritis, and cancer. However, they can also be abused, as they can produce a number of side effects, including addiction, heart problems, and liver damage.

I hope this information is helpful! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is D. 34125.

The first option, 23145, is incorrect because the word "no" is not in the correct position. The word "no" should come after the word "action."

The second option, 51324, is incorrect because the word "further" is not in the correct position. The word "further" should come after the word "required."

The third option, 32541, is incorrect because the word "is" is not in the correct position. The word "is" should come after the word "action."

The fourth option, 34125, is the correct answer because it contains all of the words in the correct order. The word "action" is followed by the word "is," which is followed by the word "no," which is followed by the word "further," which is followed by the word "required."

The word "action" refers to something that is done. The word "is" refers to the present tense. The word "no" refers to the negative. The word "further" refers to the idea of going beyond what is already done. The word "required" refers to something that is necessary.

Subordinate Courts, on the criminal side, in ascending order are, Second Class /judicial Magistrate Court, First Class Judicial Magistrate Court and Chief Judicial Magistrate Court etc.

The correct answer is C. The use of cartridges greased with animal fat.

The sepoys were Indian soldiers who fought for the British East India Company. In 1857, they rebelled against the British, sparking the Indian Rebellion of 1857, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny.

One of the main grievances of the sepoys was the use of cartridges greased with animal fat. The sepoys were Hindus and Muslims, and both religions consider the consumption of beef and pork to be sacrilegious. The sepoys believed that biting off the end of the cartridge to load the rifle would contaminate them with animal fat.

The British government denied that the cartridges were greased with animal fat, but the sepoys remained unconvinced. The issue of the cartridges was a major factor in the outbreak of the rebellion.

The other options are incorrect. The weight of the Enfield rifle was not a major grievance of the sepoys. The inaccuracy of the Enfield rifle was a minor grievance, but it was not the main reason for the rebellion. The complex mechanism of the Enfield rifle was not a major grievance of the sepoys.

The correct answer is: A. Expand

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, which increases the volume of the chest cavity. This causes the air pressure in the chest cavity to decrease, which causes air to flow into the lungs.

Option B is incorrect because the diaphragm contracts, not relaxes, during inspiration.

Option C is incorrect because the diaphragm is a muscle, and muscles contract during movement.

Option D is incorrect because the diaphragm does change during inspiration.

The oldest major irrigation project in West Bengal is the Damodar Valley Project. It was started in 1948 and completed in 1962. The project consists of a series of dams, reservoirs, and canals that irrigate over 2 million hectares of land in West Bengal and Jharkhand. The project also provides hydroelectric power and flood control.

The Kangsabati Project is a smaller irrigation project that was started in 1957 and completed in 1965. The project irrigates over 100,000 hectares of land in West Bengal.

The Midnapore Canal is a canal system that was built in the 18th century. The canal system irrigates over 200,000 hectares of land in West Bengal.

The Teesta Barrage Project is a large irrigation project that was started in 1974 and completed in 1985. The project irrigates over 1 million hectares of land in West Bengal and Assam.

The Damodar Valley Project is the oldest major irrigation project in West Bengal because it was started in 1948. The other projects were started later. The Damodar Valley Project is also the largest irrigation project in West Bengal because it irrigates over 2 million hectares of land. The other projects irrigate less land.

The missing number is 10.

The numbers in the sequence are all multiples of 3, except for the last number, which is 1 less than the next multiple of 3. Therefore, the missing number must be 1 less than the last number, which is 10.

A. 11 is not a multiple of 3.
B. 10 is a multiple of 3 and is 1 less than the next multiple of 3, which is 11.
C. 9 is not a multiple of 3.
D. 8 is not a multiple of 3 and is not 1 less than the next multiple of 3.

The correct answer is (a) Legal Right.

The Right to Information (RTI) is a legal right that allows citizens to access information held by the government. It is a fundamental right in India, and it has been recognized as a human right by the United Nations.

The RTI was enacted in 2005, and it has had a significant impact on transparency and accountability in the Indian government. It has also helped to empower citizens and to improve governance.

The RTI is a powerful tool that can be used to hold the government accountable. It can be used to access information about government programs, policies, and decisions. It can also be used to investigate corruption and to expose wrongdoing.

The RTI is a valuable tool for citizens, and it is essential for a healthy democracy. It is important to use the RTI to its full potential, and to hold the government accountable for its actions.

The other options are incorrect because:

(b) Fundamental Right is a right that is guaranteed by the Constitution of a country. The RTI is not a fundamental right in India.

(c) Social Right is a right that is related to the social and economic well-being of a person. The RTI is not a social right.

(d) Personal Right is a right that is related to the personal life of a person. The RTI is not a personal right.

The correct answer is (a) 74%.

Indirect taxes are taxes that are levied on goods and services, and are paid by the consumer when they purchase the goods or services. Direct taxes are taxes that are levied on individuals or businesses, and are paid directly to the government.

In the year 2004-05, the share of indirect taxes in the total tax revenue of Uttar Pradesh was estimated to be 74%. This means that for every 100 rupees of tax revenue collected by the government of Uttar Pradesh, 74 rupees came from indirect taxes. The remaining 26 rupees came from direct taxes.

The high share of indirect taxes in the total tax revenue of Uttar Pradesh is due to the fact that the state government relies heavily on taxes on goods and services to raise revenue. This is in contrast to the central government, which relies more on direct taxes such as income tax and corporate tax.

The high share of indirect taxes in the total tax revenue of Uttar Pradesh has a number of implications. First, it means that the burden of taxation falls disproportionately on the poor and middle class, who are the main consumers of goods and services. Second, it makes the state government less responsive to the needs of the people, as it is not directly accountable to the taxpayers. Third, it can lead to inflation, as businesses pass on the cost of taxes to consumers in the form of higher prices.

The government of Uttar Pradesh has taken some steps to reduce the share of indirect taxes in the total tax revenue. For example, it has introduced a number of tax reforms, such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which has replaced a number of indirect taxes with a single tax. However, more needs to be done to reduce the burden of indirect taxes on the people of Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is: C. a downward shift in demand for the other commodity.

Complementary goods are goods that are used together. For example, pens and paper are complementary goods. If the price of pens goes up, people will buy less pens. This will also lead to a decrease in the demand for paper, because people will not need as much paper if they are not using as many pens.

A rise in the price of one good will lead to a decrease in the demand for the other good, because the two goods are complementary. This is known as the "complementary goods effect."

Option A is incorrect because a rise in the price of one good will lead to a decrease in the demand for the other good, not an increase.

Option B is incorrect because a rise in the price of one good will not lead to a rise in the price of the other good.

Option D is incorrect because a rise in the price of one good will lead to a decrease in the demand for the other good, not no shift in demand.

The correct answer is A) Coal and iron ore.

Coal and iron ore are the two main raw materials used in the iron and steel industry. The Asansol-Durgapur industrial belt is located in the eastern part of India, which is rich in these two resources. The belt is home to several large steel plants, as well as other industries that rely on coal and iron ore, such as power generation and chemicals.

Limestone and dolomite are also important minerals, but they are not as essential to the iron and steel industry as coal and iron ore. Bauxite and manganese are used in the aluminum and steel industries, respectively, but they are not as abundant in the Asansol-Durgapur region as coal and iron ore. Copper and petroleum are not used in the iron and steel industry, and they are not found in significant quantities in the Asansol-Durgapur region.

In conclusion, the Asansol-Durgapur industrial belt is developed primarily due to the availability of coal and iron ore. These two raw materials are essential to the iron and steel industry, and they are abundant in the region. The belt is home to several large steel plants, as well as other industries that rely on coal and iron ore.

The correct answer is (a) Fuller.

Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are a form of carbon with a cylindrical nanostructure. They are composed of rolled-up sheets of graphene, which is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. CNTs have a wide range of potential applications in nanotechnology, electronics, and materials science.

The first CNTs were discovered in 1991 by Sumio Iijima, a Japanese scientist working at NEC Corporation. Iijima was studying soot produced by arc discharge between carbon electrodes and observed that the soot contained long, thin, cylindrical particles. He named these particles "buckytubes" after Buckminster Fuller, the American architect who designed geodesic domes.

In 1993, Richard Smalley, Robert Curl, and Harold Kroto, three American scientists, were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their discovery of fullerenes, a class of molecules that includes buckminsterfullerene (C60). Fullerenes are spherical or ellipsoidal molecules composed of carbon atoms arranged in a cage-like structure.

The discovery of fullerenes led to the discovery of CNTs. In 1995, Donald Bethune, a Canadian scientist working at IBM Almaden Research Center, and his colleagues were able to synthesize CNTs by laser ablation of graphite. This method of synthesis is still used today to produce CNTs.

CNTs have a wide range of potential applications in nanotechnology, electronics, and materials science. They are being studied for use in a variety of applications, including:

• Electronics: CNTs can be used to make transistors, solar cells, and other electronic devices.
• Materials science: CNTs can be used to make composites, coatings, and other materials.
• Nanotechnology: CNTs can be used to make nanodevices, nanosensors, and other nanoscale structures.

CNTs are a promising new material with a wide range of potential applications. They are still in the early stages of development, but they have the potential to revolutionize a variety of industries.

The correct answer is: D. Peace Week

The United Nations declared the week of 21-27 March as Peace Week. This week is dedicated to promoting peace and understanding among all peoples. It is a time to reflect on the importance of peace and to work towards a more peaceful world.

The United Nations has been working for peace since its founding in 1945. The UN Charter states that the organization's primary purpose is to maintain international peace and security. The UN has a number of mechanisms in place to achieve this goal, including the Security Council, the General Assembly, and the International Court of Justice.

The UN also has a number of programs and initiatives that promote peace and understanding. These include the UN Peacebuilding Fund, the UN Office on Drugs and Crime, and the UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

Peace Week is an opportunity to raise awareness of the importance of peace and to promote the work of the United Nations in this area. It is a time to reflect on the challenges to peace and to work towards a more peaceful world.

Here are some additional information about the other options:

• Disarmament Week is observed from 24 to 30 October each year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1978 to promote the goal of general and complete disarmament.
• Week of Solidarity with the Peoples Struggling against Racism and Racial Discrimination is observed from 21 to 27 March each year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1966 to promote the struggle against racism and racial discrimination.
• Week of Solidarity with the Peoples of Non-Selfgoverning Territories is observed from 25 to 31 May each year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1960 to promote the decolonization of non-self-governing territories.

The correct answer is (c), senior citizens.

Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) is a government of India scheme launched in 2018 to provide free health checkups and treatment to senior citizens aged 60 years and above. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and is funded by the central government.

The scheme covers a wide range of health services, including general check-ups, blood tests, urine tests, ECG, X-rays, and ultrasounds. It also covers treatment for common diseases such as diabetes, hypertension, and heart disease.

To avail of the benefits of AVYAY, senior citizens need to register themselves with the nearest government hospital or primary health center. They can also register online through the government's website.

The scheme has been well-received by senior citizens and their families. It has helped to improve the health and well-being of senior citizens and has reduced the financial burden on their families.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the target group of the AVYAY scheme.

(a) Women: The AVYAY scheme is not specifically for women. It is for senior citizens aged 60 years and above.

(b) Children: The AVYAY scheme is not specifically for children. It is for senior citizens aged 60 years and above.

(d) Youth: The AVYAY scheme is not specifically for youth. It is for senior citizens aged 60 years and above.

The correct answer is: B. Depth.

A fathom is a unit of length equal to six feet (1.83 meters). It is used to measure the depth of water, especially in nautical contexts. The word "fathom" comes from the Old English word "faethm," which means "embrace." This is because a fathom was originally the distance between the outstretched arms of a man.

Sound is a wave that travels through a medium, such as air or water. The frequency of a sound wave is the number of waves that pass a given point in a given amount of time. The unit of frequency is the hertz (Hz).

Distance is the length of a path between two points. The unit of distance is the meter (m).

Frequency is not a unit of depth.

West Bengal has the postal headquarter of Sikkim state and Andaman and Nicobar Union Territory, apart from its own.

The correct answer is (b), Gonda.

Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary is a bird sanctuary located in the Gonda district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is spread over an area of 1,000 hectares (2,500 acres) and was established in 1982. The sanctuary is home to a variety of birds, including flamingos, pelicans, herons, storks, and egrets. It is also a popular spot for bird watching.

The other options are incorrect. Ghaziabad is a district in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the National Capital Region (NCR) and is one of the most populous districts in India. RaeBareli is a district in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the Awadh region and is known for its historical and cultural heritage. Unnao is a district in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the Awadh region and is known for its temples and mosques.

The correct answer is (b). Raja Bhoj Airport is located in Bhopal, the capital of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is the second busiest airport in the state after Indore Airport. The airport is named after Raja Bhoj, a 10th-century king of the Paramara dynasty. It is located about 11 kilometers from the city center. The airport has two terminals, one for domestic flights and one for international flights. It has a capacity of handling 5 million passengers per year. The airport is served by several airlines, including Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet, and Jet Airways. It offers flights to major cities in India and abroad.

Udaipur is a city in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is located on the banks of Lake Pichola. The city is known for its palaces, temples, and lakes. It is a popular tourist destination.

Indore is a city in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. It is the largest city in the state and the third largest city in central India. The city is known for its industries, education, and healthcare facilities.

Raipur is the capital of the Indian state of Chhattisgarh. It is the largest city in the state and the 13th largest city in India. The city is known for its industries, education, and healthcare facilities.

The correct answer is no article.

The article "a" or "an" is used before singular nouns that refer to a general or unspecified person or thing. The article "the" is used before singular nouns that refer to a specific person or thing that has already been mentioned or identified. In this case, the man who stole the car has not been previously mentioned or identified, so the article "a" or "an" is not appropriate. The article "the" is also not appropriate, because it would imply that the man who stole the car is the only man who could have stolen the car.

In this case, the best way to refer to the man who stole the car is without an article. This allows the listener to understand that the man is being referred to generally, without any specific information about him.

The correct answer is B. Tissues.

Cells with similar markers stick together and function as tissues. A tissue is a group of cells that are similar in structure and function. Tissues are the basic building blocks of organs, which are the basic functional units of an organism.

Organs are made up of different types of tissues that work together to perform a specific function. For example, the heart is an organ that is made up of muscle tissue, connective tissue, and epithelial tissue. The muscle tissue in the heart contracts to pump blood, the connective tissue provides support and structure, and the epithelial tissue lines the inside of the heart and helps to prevent infection.

Systems are made up of different organs that work together to perform a specific function. For example, the digestive system is made up of the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and rectum. These organs work together to break down food and absorb nutrients.

Organisms are made up of different systems that work together to maintain life. For example, the human body is made up of the digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, nervous system, endocrine system, immune system, and reproductive system. These systems work together to keep the body functioning properly.

The correct answer is: A. Increase growth in length.

The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often called the "master gland" because it produces hormones that control many other glands in the body.

One of the hormones produced by the pituitary gland is growth hormone (GH). GH is responsible for stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps to maintain muscle mass and bone density in adults.

If the pituitary gland produces too much GH, it can cause a condition called gigantism. Gigantism is a rare condition that causes people to grow to an abnormally large size. People with gigantism are typically taller than 7 feet tall.

If the pituitary gland produces too much GH after puberty, it can cause a condition called acromegaly. Acromegaly is a condition that causes the bones of the hands, feet, face, and jaw to grow abnormally large. People with acromegaly may also experience changes in their voice, sweating, and skin texture.

There are several treatments for gigantism and acromegaly. The most common treatment is surgery to remove part of the pituitary gland. Other treatments include medication and radiation therapy.

B. Unbalanced development of body is not a direct effect of oversecretion of hormone from pituitary gland. However, it can be a secondary effect of gigantism or acromegaly. People with these conditions may experience changes in their body proportions, such as a large head and small hands.

C. Body became curve is not a direct effect of oversecretion of hormone from pituitary gland. However, it can be a secondary effect of gigantism or acromegaly. People with these conditions may experience changes in their body posture, such as a stooped back.

D. None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. Mandamus.

A writ of mandamus is a court order that compels a public official to take a certain action or to refrain from taking a certain action. It is used to ensure that public officials comply with the law.

A writ of quo warranto is a court order that asks a person to show by what authority they are holding a certain office or position. It is used to challenge the right of a person to hold office.

A writ of certiorari is a court order that asks a higher court to review a decision made by a lower court. It is used to ensure that the law is applied correctly.

A writ of habeas corpus is a court order that asks a person to be brought before a court so that the court can determine whether they are being held lawfully. It is used to protect people from being held in prison without being charged with a crime.

In the case of an official who is taking an action which he is officially not entitled, a writ of mandamus can be used to prevent the official from taking the action. This is because a writ of mandamus is a court order that compels a public official to take a certain action or to refrain from taking a certain action. It is used to ensure that public officials comply with the law.

The correct answer is: A. Only conclusion I follows.

The statement says that any student who does not behave properly while in the school brings bad name to himself and also for the school. This does not mean that stricter discipline does not improve behaviour of the students. It is possible that stricter discipline can improve the behaviour of students, but it is also possible that it will not. The statement does not provide enough information to make a conclusion about whether or not stricter discipline will improve the behaviour of students.

Conclusion I follows from the statement because the statement says that any student who does not behave properly while in the school brings bad name to himself and also for the school. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that such student should be removed from the school.

Conclusion II does not follow from the statement because the statement does not say anything about whether or not stricter discipline will improve the behaviour of students. Therefore, it is not reasonable to conclude that stricter discipline does not improve behaviour of the students.

The correct answer is: B. Pawan Kumar Chamling

Pawan Kumar Chamling is the 11th and current Chief Minister of Sikkim. He is the longest-serving Chief Minister of any Indian state, having been in office since 1994. He is the leader of the Sikkim Democratic Front (SDF) party.

Chamling was born in 1947 in Namchi, Sikkim. He studied at the University of Delhi and the Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur. He worked as an engineer before entering politics.

Chamling was elected to the Sikkim Legislative Assembly in 1984. He became Chief Minister in 1994 after the SDF won the state elections. He has been re-elected Chief Minister four times since then.

Chamling is a popular leader in Sikkim. He is known for his development work and his commitment to the welfare of the people of Sikkim.

The other options are incorrect:

• A. Biplab Deb is the Chief Minister of Tripura.
• C. Conrad Sangma is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya.
• D. Manik Sarkar was the Chief Minister of Tripura from 1998 to 2018.

The correct answer is (a) 1st August 1882.

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is an Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to the transfer of property. It came into force on 1st August 1882. The Act applies to all parts of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

The Act deals with the transfer of movable and immovable property. It provides for the modes of transfer, the rights and liabilities of the transferor and the transferee, and the remedies for breach of contract.

The Act is a comprehensive and important piece of legislation that governs the transfer of property in India. It is a valuable resource for lawyers, judges, and anyone who is interested in the law of property.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the dates on which the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force.

The answer is A. Rival.

A rival is someone who competes with someone else for the same thing, especially in a game or sport. A spouse is a husband or wife. A partner is someone who shares an activity or business with another person. A colleague is a person who works in the same organization as another person. A companion is someone who accompanies another person on a journey or for company.

Rival is different from the rest of the options because it is the only word that implies competition. The other words all imply cooperation or companionship.

The correct answer is: A. Electromagnetic radio wave frequencies.

A kilohertz (kHz) is a unit of frequency equal to one thousand hertz. It is used to measure the frequency of electromagnetic waves, such as radio waves, microwaves, and light.

Electric resistance is measured in ohms (Ω). Power is measured in watts (W). Voltage is measured in volts (V).

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Indian Air Force (IAF) has a large and diverse fleet of helicopters, which are used for a variety of purposes, including transport, combat, and search and rescue. Some of the most common types of helicopters in the IAF fleet include the Chetak, Cheetah, MI-8s, MI-17s, and MI-26.

The Chetak is a light utility helicopter that is used for a variety of purposes, including transport, medical evacuation, and VIP transport. It is a single-engine helicopter that can carry up to six passengers or a payload of up to 1,300 kilograms.

The Cheetah is a light combat helicopter that is used for reconnaissance, light attack, and escort duties. It is a single-engine helicopter that can carry up to two pilots and a gunner. It is armed with a variety of weapons, including a machine gun, a rocket launcher, and a grenade launcher.

The MI-8s, MI-17s, and MI-26 are all medium-lift helicopters that are used for a variety of purposes, including transport, combat, and search and rescue. The MI-8 is a twin-engine helicopter that can carry up to 24 passengers or a payload of up to 4,000 kilograms. The MI-17 is a twin-engine helicopter that can carry up to 36 passengers or a payload of up to 5,600 kilograms. The MI-26 is a four-engine helicopter that can carry up to 100 passengers or a payload of up to 20,000 kilograms.

The IAF helicopter fleet is one of the largest and most capable in the world. It plays a vital role in the IAF's operations and is used to carry out a variety of missions.

The odd one out is D, Sonata. The other three options are all musical instruments, while a sonata is a piece of music written for one or more instruments.

A mouth organ, also known as a harmonica, is a free-reed aerophone that is played by blowing air through one or more holes in the instrument. The reeds vibrate in response to the air, producing sound.

An electric guitar is a stringed instrument that is played by plucking or strumming the strings. The strings are amplified by an electric pickup, which converts the vibrations of the strings into an electrical signal.

A keyboard is a musical instrument that is played by pressing keys. The keys are connected to levers that strike metal bars, which produce sound.

A sonata is a piece of music written for one or more instruments. It is typically in three movements, and the first movement is usually in sonata form. Sonata form is a musical structure that consists of an exposition, development, and recapitulation. The exposition introduces the main themes of the piece, the development explores these themes in more detail, and the recapitulation brings back the main themes in a new way.

The answer is: B. Chariot

A raft is a simple watercraft made by lashing together a number of logs or other floating materials, and used for river travel or crossing.

A sledge is a vehicle on runners, used for travelling over snow or ice.

A cart is a small vehicle, typically with two wheels, used for transporting goods or people.

A chariot is a two-wheeled horse-drawn vehicle used in ancient warfare and racing.

The word that is different from the rest is chariot. This is because the other three words are all used for transportation, while a chariot is used for warfare and racing.

The correct answer is: B. The heat generated by the flow of electrical current through the body.

Electrical burns are caused by the heat generated when an electric current passes through the body. The severity of the burn depends on the amount of current, the duration of the current flow, and the path of the current through the body.

The heat generated by an electric current is proportional to the square of the current. This means that a small increase in current can cause a large increase in heat. The duration of the current flow also affects the severity of the burn. The longer the current flows, the more heat is generated and the more severe the burn will be.

The path of the current through the body also affects the severity of the burn. Current that passes through the heart or brain can cause cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest, which can be fatal. Current that passes through major blood vessels can cause blood clots, which can also be fatal.

Electrical burns can be prevented by using proper safety precautions when working with electricity. These precautions include using insulated tools, wearing gloves, and working in a well-lit area. It is also important to be aware of the potential hazards of electricity and to take steps to avoid them.

A. Radiation pulses of the electricity: This is not the main cause of electrical burns. The heat generated by the flow of electrical current through the body is the main cause of electrical burns.

C. The high energy of electrons: This is not the main cause of electrical burns. The heat generated by the flow of electrical current through the body is the main cause of electrical burns.

The correct answer is: B. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

The book "The Wonder that was India" was written by Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India. It was first published in 1956 and is a comprehensive history of India from the Indus Valley Civilization to the Mughal Empire. The book is divided into three parts: the first part deals with the ancient period, the second part deals with the medieval period, and the third part deals with the modern period. Nehru's book is considered to be one of the most authoritative works on Indian history.

Option A is incorrect because J. Joshi is not the author of the book "The Wonder that was India".

Option C is incorrect because R. K. Mehta is not the author of the book "The Wonder that was India".

Option D is incorrect because A. L. Bansal is not the author of the book "The Wonder that was India".

The correct answer is A. Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates.

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic union of six Arab states in the Persian Gulf: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. The GCC was established on May 25, 1981, by the six states' heads of state. The GCC's stated goals are to promote economic and political cooperation among its members, to coordinate foreign policy, and to defend the region against external threats.

The GCC has been criticized for its human rights record, its lack of democracy, and its support for authoritarian regimes. However, the GCC has also been praised for its economic success and its role in promoting stability in the region.

The GCC is a significant regional organization with a growing impact on the global economy. The GCC's member states are major oil producers and exporters, and the GCC has a combined GDP of over $1 trillion. The GCC is also a major trading partner of the United States, and the GCC has been working to increase trade and investment with the United States.

The GCC is a complex and evolving organization, and its future is uncertain. However, the GCC is likely to continue to play a significant role in the region and in the global economy.

The other options are incorrect.

Option B, Second World Nations, is incorrect because the Second World Nations were the countries that were aligned with the Soviet Union during the Cold War. The GCC countries were not aligned with either the Soviet Union or the United States during the Cold War.

Option C, Third World Nations, is incorrect because the Third World Nations were the countries that were not aligned with either the Soviet Union or the United States during the Cold War. The GCC countries were not aligned with either the Soviet Union or the United States during the Cold War.

Option D, Fourth World Nations, is incorrect because the Fourth World Nations are the countries that are the poorest and least developed countries in the world. The GCC countries are not the poorest and least developed countries in the world.

The correct answer is: A. Saraswati Samman, 2012

Narendra Kohli was awarded the Saraswati Samman in 2012 for his novel "Aastha ka Aandhi". The Saraswati Samman is an Indian literary award given annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation for the best Hindi literary work of the year. It is one of the most prestigious literary awards in India.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Vyas Samman is a Hindi literary award given annually by the Madhya Pradesh government for the best Hindi literary work of the year.
• Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award in India. It is given annually by the Jnanpith Trust for the best literary work in any of the 22 scheduled languages of India.
• None of these is a literary award given to Narendra Kohli.

The correct answer is: B. constant

An antonym is a word that means the opposite of another word. In this case, the word "unstable" means not steady or firm. The opposite of this is "constant," which means unchanging or staying the same.

The other options are not opposites of "unstable."

• Option A, "changing," is similar to "unstable" in that it means not staying the same. However, "changing" can also mean to become different or to undergo a transformation. This is not the same as "unstable," which simply means not steady or firm.
• Option C, "stagnant," means not moving or flowing. This is not the same as "unstable," which can refer to things that are moving or changing.
• Option D, "steady," means firm or not easily moved. This is the opposite of "unstable."

The correct answer is D. China, France, USSR, UK and USA.

The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. These five countries were the victors of World War II and were given permanent seats on the Security Council in 1945. The Security Council is responsible for maintaining international peace and security. It has the power to authorize the use of force, to impose sanctions, and to establish peacekeeping operations.

The five permanent members of the Security Council have veto power, which means that they can block any resolution from being passed. This gives them a great deal of power and influence over the Security Council's decisions.

The five permanent members of the Security Council have been criticized for their use of veto power. Some argue that the veto power gives too much power to a small number of countries and prevents the Security Council from taking action on important issues. Others argue that the veto power is necessary to prevent the Security Council from being hijacked by a majority of countries that may not have the best interests of the world at heart.

The five permanent members of the Security Council are:

• China
• France
• Russia
• United Kingdom
• United States

The correct answer is: A) Free lunch to school children.

The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is a government-sponsored program that provides free lunches to school children in India. The program was launched in 1995 with the goal of improving school attendance and nutrition among children. The program is funded by the central government and implemented by the state governments.

The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is a very popular program and has been credited with improving school attendance and nutrition among children. However, the program has also been criticized for its quality and for the fact that it does not reach all children in need.

The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is a very important program that has the potential to improve the lives of millions of children in India. The program should be continued and expanded so that it can reach all children in need.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Free lunch to school children. This is the correct answer. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme provides free lunches to school children in India.
* Option B: Breakfast to school children. This is not the correct answer. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme does not provide breakfast to school children.
* Option C: Dinner to school children. This is not the correct answer. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme does not provide dinner to school children.
* Option D: Nutritional supplements to school children. This is not the correct answer. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme does not provide nutritional supplements to school children.

The correct answer is (c), a nutrient mixture called TIVA.

TIVA is a nutrient mixture that has been developed by scientists at the Chandra Shekhar Azad University of Agriculture and Technology. It is a mixture of essential nutrients that are needed for the growth and development of pulses. TIVA has been shown to reduce the percentage of flower droppings in pulses, which can lead to an increase in pulse production.

TIVA is a safe and effective way to improve the yield of pulses. It is also environmentally friendly and does not harm the plants or the environment. TIVA is a valuable tool for farmers who are looking to increase their pulse production.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

(a) An insecticide called TIVA: This is not the correct answer because TIVA is not an insecticide. It is a nutrient mixture.

(b) A fertilizer called TIVA: This is not the correct answer because TIVA is not a fertilizer. It is a nutrient mixture.

(d) A growth hormone called TIVA: This is not the correct answer because TIVA is not a growth hormone. It is a nutrient mixture.

The correct answer is: C. The Union Government.

Article 231 of the Indian Constitution states that the President may, by order, establish a common High Court for two or more States, and define the jurisdiction and powers of such High Court. This means that the Union Government has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more States.

Option A is incorrect because the State Government is not mentioned in Article 231.

Option B is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy are not mentioned in Article 231.

Option D is incorrect because the fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen are not mentioned in Article 231.

The correct answer is: A. habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.

Habeas corpus is a writ that orders a person who is being held in custody to be brought before a court to determine whether the detention is lawful. Mandamus is a writ that orders a public official to perform a legal duty. Prohibition is a writ that orders a lower court to stop hearing a case that it does not have jurisdiction over. Certiorari is a writ that orders a lower court to send the record of a case to a higher court for review. Quo warranto is a writ that asks a court to determine whether someone has the right to hold a public office.

Habeas corpus is the oldest of the writs and is considered to be the most important. It is a fundamental right that protects people from being held in unlawful detention. Mandamus is used to ensure that public officials comply with the law. Prohibition is used to prevent lower courts from overstepping their authority. Certiorari is used to review the decisions of lower courts. Quo warranto is used to challenge the right of someone to hold a public office.

All of these writs are important tools for ensuring the rule of law and protecting the rights of individuals.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a government agency that is responsible for the geological survey of India. It was established in 1851 and is headquartered in Kolkata. The GSI plays a crucial role in exploring and assessing mineral resources, regulating mining activities, and protecting the environment from mining impacts.

The GSI explores for minerals by conducting geological surveys, geophysical surveys, and geochemical surveys. It also assesses the economic potential of mineral deposits. The GSI regulates mining activities by issuing licenses and permits, and by monitoring compliance with environmental regulations. The GSI also protects the environment from mining impacts by conducting environmental impact assessments, and by monitoring the environmental performance of mines.

The GSI is a valuable resource for the Indian government and for the Indian people. It provides essential information about the country's mineral resources, and it helps to ensure that mining activities are conducted in a safe and environmentally responsible manner.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

* Exploring and assessing mineral resources: The GSI conducts geological surveys, geophysical surveys, and geochemical surveys to identify and assess mineral deposits. This information is used by the government to make decisions about where to mine and how to develop mineral resources.
* Regulating mining activities: The GSI issues licenses and permits for mining activities, and it monitors compliance with environmental regulations. This helps to ensure that mining activities are conducted in a safe and environmentally responsible manner.
* Protecting the environment from mining impacts: The GSI conducts environmental impact assessments, and it monitors the environmental performance of mines. This helps to identify and mitigate the environmental impacts of mining.

The correct answer is A) India.

Hill Tippera was a princely state in India that existed from the 16th century until 1947. It was located in the present-day state of Tripura. In 1947, Hill Tippera became a part of the Indian Union.

The other options are incorrect. Bangladesh was created in 1971 from the eastern part of Pakistan. Nepal is a landlocked country in South Asia. Bhutan is a landlocked country in South Asia.

The correct answer is: B. Socialist

The preamble of the Constitution of India states:

"We, the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:

Justice, social, economic and political;

Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

In our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution."

As you can see, the word "socialist" is not used in the preamble. The other options, "sovereign," "democratic," "secular," and "union," are all used in the preamble.

The preamble is the introductory statement of a constitution. It sets out the basic principles and purposes of the constitution. The preamble of the Indian Constitution is a very important document. It is the foundation of the Indian state and it sets out the values that the Indian people hold dear.

The correct answer is D. Excellent Coaches.

The Dronacharya Award is an Indian sports honour instituted in 1985 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to recognize coaches who have made significant contribution to the development of sports in India. It is named after Dronacharya, the legendary archery teacher of the Pandavas and Kauravas in the Mahabharata.

The award is given in three categories:

• Dronacharya Award for Lifetime Achievement
• Dronacharya Award for Distinguished Service
• Dronacharya Award for Promising Coach

The award consists of a cash prize of ₹5 lakh, a plaque, and a citation.

The award is given every year on the National Sports Day, which is celebrated on 29 August, the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand, the legendary hockey player.

The following are the criteria for selection of the awardees:

• The coach should have a minimum of 10 years of experience in coaching.
• The coach should have produced at least one international level sportsperson.
• The coach should have a good track record of success in coaching.
• The coach should be a role model for other coaches.

The Dronacharya Award is one of the most prestigious awards in Indian sports. It is a recognition of the hard work and dedication of coaches who have made a significant contribution to the development of sports in India.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Mahakavi Kalidasa was one of the greatest Sanskrit poets and dramatists. He lived during the reign of Chandragupta Vikramaditya, the third ruler of the Gupta dynasty. His famous works include Shakuntala, Raghuvansha, Meghdoot and Kumara Sambahava.

Shakuntala is a play about the love between a king and a forest nymph. Raghuvansha is an epic poem about the life of Rama, one of the most important figures in Hindu mythology. Meghdoot is a love poem about a cloud messenger. Kumara Sambahava is an epic poem about the birth of Kumara, the god of war.

Kalidasa's works are known for their beauty, their lyrical language, and their complex plots. He is considered one of the greatest poets and dramatists in the history of Sanskrit literature.

The correct answer is: **C) Boatmen**

Alkap is a form of folk song primarily sung by boatmen in the Mekong Delta of Vietnam. It is a long, narrative song that tells the story of a boatman's journey down the river. The song is often accompanied by a traditional instrument called the dan tranh, which is a stringed instrument similar to a zither.

Option A, fishermen, is incorrect because alkap is not a form of folk song primarily sung by fishermen. Fishermen in the Mekong Delta do sing folk songs, but these songs are different from alkap.

Option B, farmers, is incorrect because alkap is not a form of folk song primarily sung by farmers. Farmers in the Mekong Delta do sing folk songs, but these songs are different from alkap.

Option D, herders, is incorrect because alkap is not a form of folk song primarily sung by herders. Herders in the Mekong Delta do sing folk songs, but these songs are different from alkap.

The correct answer is: C. Early anaphase.

Chromosomes start separating at the beginning of anaphase. During anaphase, the spindle fibers contract, pulling the sister chromatids apart to opposite poles of the cell. This process is mediated by the anaphase-promoting complex (APC), which is a protein complex that triggers the destruction of the cohesin proteins that hold the sister chromatids together. Once the sister chromatids are separated, they are referred to as daughter chromosomes.

Metaphase is the stage of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate. The spindle fibers are attached to the centromeres of the chromosomes, and the chromosomes are in a condensed state.

Telophase is the final stage of mitosis, in which the nuclear envelope reforms around the daughter chromosomes, and the cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells.

Early anaphase is the stage of mitosis in which the sister chromatids are separated and begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell. This process is mediated by the anaphase-promoting complex (APC), which is a protein complex that triggers the destruction of the cohesin proteins that hold the sister chromatids together. Once the sister chromatids are separated, they are referred to as daughter chromosomes.

The correct answer is (a) 5 years.

The Finance Commission is a statutory body constituted by the President of India every five years to review the financial relations between the Union and the States and to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States;
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to enable it to meet the expenditure on schemes of development;
• The allocation of the shares of the Union in the net proceeds of taxes to be distributed among the States;
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the Union Territories by the Central Government; and
• Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

The Finance Commission is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members, who are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court. The other members of the Commission are usually experts in the fields of economics, finance, and public administration.

The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who places it before the Parliament. The Parliament is not bound to accept the recommendations of the Finance Commission, but it usually does so. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are implemented by the Central Government and the State Governments.

The Finance Commission has played a significant role in the development of the Indian economy. Its recommendations have helped to improve the financial relations between the Union and the States, and have also helped to augment the resources of the States. The Finance Commission has also helped to improve the quality of life of the people of India.

The correct answer is (c).

The share of industry in GDP of India in 2006-07 was 26.6%. This means that out of every $100 produced in India in 2006-07, $26.60 was contributed by the industrial sector.

The industrial sector is one of the three main sectors of the economy, along with the service sector and the agricultural sector. The industrial sector is responsible for the production of goods, such as cars, computers, and steel.

The share of industry in GDP has been increasing in India in recent years. In 2000-01, the share of industry in GDP was 23.3%. This increased to 26.6% in 2006-07 and to 28.0% in 2011-12.

The increase in the share of industry in GDP is due to a number of factors, including:

• The growth of the Indian economy
• The increasing investment in the industrial sector
• The increasing demand for Indian goods in the global market

The increase in the share of industry in GDP is a positive development for India. It indicates that the Indian economy is growing and that the industrial sector is playing an increasingly important role in the economy.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the share of industry in GDP of India in 2006-07 was not less than 20 percent. Option (b) is incorrect because the share of industry in GDP of India in 2006-07 was not between 20-25 percent. Option (d) is incorrect because the share of industry in GDP of India in 2006-07 was not between 35-40 percent.

The correct answer is A.

The cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). When the CRR is lowered, banks have more money to lend out, which increases credit creation.

Credit creation is the process by which banks create new money by lending out money that they have deposited. When a bank lends money, it creates a new deposit in the borrower's account. The borrower can then use this deposit to make purchases, which creates new deposits in other banks. This process can continue indefinitely, as long as banks are willing to lend out money.

The CRR is one of the tools that the RBI uses to control the money supply. By lowering the CRR, the RBI can increase the amount of money that banks have available to lend, which increases credit creation and the money supply.

Option B is incorrect because lowering the CRR increases credit creation, not decreases it.

Option C is incorrect because lowering the CRR does have an impact on credit creation.

Option D is incorrect because lowering the CRR does have an impact on credit creation.

The correct answer is A. demand curve for the factor.

The marginal value productivity curve (MVP) of a factor is a graph that shows the additional output that a firm can produce by using one more unit of that factor. The downward-sloping part of the MVP curve shows the demand curve for the factor. This is because, as a firm uses more of a factor, the marginal product of that factor declines. This means that the firm is willing to pay less for each additional unit of the factor.

The wages of a factor are determined by the intersection of the demand curve for the factor and the supply curve of the factor. The supply curve of a factor shows the quantity of the factor that workers are willing to supply at different wage rates. The intersection of the demand curve and the supply curve determines the equilibrium wage rate.

The level of employment of a factor is determined by the demand for the factor and the supply of the factor. The demand for a factor is determined by the marginal value productivity of the factor. The supply of a factor is determined by the willingness and ability of workers to supply the factor. The equilibrium level of employment is determined by the intersection of the demand curve and the supply curve.

The supply of a factor is not shown on the MVP curve. The MVP curve shows the demand for a factor, not the supply of a factor.

The answer is $boxed{175}$.

The sequence is generated by multiplying the previous number by 2 and then subtracting 12. For example, the first number is 90, which is 2 times 45 minus 12. The second number is 180, which is 2 times 90 minus 12. The third number is 12, which is 2 times 6 minus 12. And so on.

The next number in the sequence is 175, which is 2 times 87.5 minus 12.

Here is a table showing the first few numbers in the sequence:

Number | Formula
------- | --------
90 | 2 * 45 - 12
180 | 2 * 90 - 12
12 | 2 * 6 - 12
50 | 2 * 25 - 12
100 | 2 * 50 - 12
200 | 2 * 100 - 12
175 | 2 * 87.5 - 12

Option A, 150, is not in the sequence because it is not a multiple of 2.

Option B, 175, is in the sequence because it is a multiple of 2 and it is 12 less than the previous number in the sequence.

Option C, 225, is not in the sequence because it is not a multiple of 2.

Option D, 250, is not in the sequence because it is not a multiple of 2 and it is 12 less than the previous number in the sequence.

The correct answer is: C. Economic adviser.

A business economist is an economist who works in the business world. They use their knowledge of economics to help businesses make decisions about things like pricing, investment, and marketing. They may also be involved in forecasting economic trends and analyzing data.

A company secretary is a professional who is responsible for the administrative and legal affairs of a company. They are not typically involved in economic analysis or decision-making.

A liaison officer is a person who acts as a link between two or more groups or organizations. They may be involved in communication, coordination, and problem-solving. However, they are not typically involved in economic analysis or decision-making.

A controller of accounts is a person who is responsible for the financial reporting and accounting of a company. They may be involved in budgeting, forecasting, and financial analysis. However, they are not typically involved in economic analysis or decision-making.

The correct answer is: C. smaller than firm's total profits.

Quasi rent is the difference between the actual return on a factor of production and its opportunity cost. It is a temporary economic profit that arises when a factor of production is in fixed supply.

For example, suppose a firm owns a piece of land that is very valuable for its location. The firm could rent the land out for a very high price, but it chooses to use the land itself for its business. In this case, the firm is earning quasi rent on the land.

Quasi rent is not the same as economic profit. Economic profit is the total revenue of a firm minus all of its costs, including opportunity costs. Quasi rent, on the other hand, is only the difference between the actual return on a factor of production and its opportunity cost.

Therefore, quasi rent is always smaller than economic profit. This is because economic profit includes all of the firm's costs, including opportunity costs, while quasi rent only includes the difference between the actual return on a factor of production and its opportunity cost.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Quasi rent is equal to the firm's total profits. This is not correct because quasi rent is always smaller than economic profit, which is the total revenue of a firm minus all of its costs, including opportunity costs.
• Option B: Quasi rent is greater than firm's total profits. This is not correct because quasi rent is always smaller than economic profit.
• Option C: Quasi rent is smaller than firm's total profits. This is correct because quasi rent is only the difference between the actual return on a factor of production and its opportunity cost.
• Option D: Quasi rent is not related to firm's profits. This is not correct because quasi rent is a component of economic profit, which is the total revenue of a firm minus all of its costs, including opportunity costs.

The correct answer is C. gave in.

To give in means to stop resisting or arguing and do what someone else wants. In this case, the mounting pressure was so overwhelming that the person ultimately stopped resisting and did what the other person wanted.

The other options are not as accurate. To agree in means to express your approval of something. To cow in means to become afraid and submissive. To yield in means to give up control or possession of something.

The correct answer is A. Plague and Malaria.

Plague and malaria are both vector-borne diseases, which means they are transmitted to humans by an intermediate host, such as a mosquito or flea. Plague is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected fleas. Malaria is caused by a parasite called Plasmodium, which is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected mosquitoes.

Chicken pox and tetanus are both non-vector-borne diseases. Chicken pox is caused by the varicella zoster virus, which is spread through respiratory droplets. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which is found in soil and dust.

Mumps and the common cold are both respiratory infections that are spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Eye infections and influenza are also non-vector-borne diseases. Eye infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria, viruses, and parasites, and they are spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Influenza is caused by a virus that is spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

The correct answer is (a) Bharatmuni.

Bharatmuni was a sage and philosopher who lived in ancient India. He is credited with being the author of the Natyashastra, a treatise on the performing arts. The Natyashastra is one of the most important texts on Indian dance, music, and drama. It is considered to be the foundational text of Indian classical dance.

Bhasa was a playwright who lived in ancient India. He is credited with writing over 13 plays, which are considered to be some of the finest examples of Sanskrit drama.

Vasumitra was a Buddhist monk who lived in ancient India. He is credited with writing the Asanga-Vasumitra-samhita, a treatise on Buddhist philosophy.

Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher who lived in ancient India. He is credited with founding the Madhyamaka school of Buddhist philosophy.

The Natyashastra is a vast and complex text that covers a wide range of topics, including the history of the performing arts, the theory of drama, the techniques of acting, dancing, and music, and the construction of theaters. It is an essential text for anyone interested in the performing arts of India.

The correct answer is: C. Day and Night

Photosynthesis is a process used by plants and other organisms to convert light energy into chemical energy that can later be released to fuel the organisms' activities. This chemical energy is stored in molecules of the sugar, glucose.

The process of photosynthesis can be summarized by the following chemical equation:

6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2

In this equation, six molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) and six molecules of water (H2O) are combined with light energy to produce one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) and six molecules of oxygen (O2).

Photosynthesis takes place in two stages: the light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle.

The light-dependent reactions take place in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts. In these reactions, light energy is used to split water molecules into hydrogen ions (H+) and oxygen gas (O2). The hydrogen ions are then used to produce ATP, a molecule that stores energy. The oxygen gas is released into the atmosphere.

The Calvin cycle takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts. In this cycle, carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to produce glucose (C6H12O6). The Calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH, which were produced in the light-dependent reactions, to power its reactions.

Photosynthesis is essential for life on Earth. It is the process by which plants produce the oxygen that we breathe and the food that we eat. Photosynthesis also helps to regulate the Earth's climate by removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: Photosynthesis does not occur only during the day. It can also occur at night, as long as there is enough light.
• Option B: Photosynthesis does not occur only during the night. It can also occur during the day, as long as there is enough light.
• Option D: Photosynthesis is a real process that occurs in plants and other organisms. It is not a made-up process.

The correct answer is: B. White and black

White and black are the most convenient colors during day and night time because they are the most visible. White reflects all colors of light, while black absorbs all colors of light. This means that they are easy to see in both bright and dark conditions.

Orange and blue are less visible during the day because they are not as bright as white. Yellow and blue are also less visible during the night because they are not as dark as black. Red and green are the least visible colors during both day and night because they are in the middle of the visible spectrum.

In addition, white and black are often used in safety clothing and equipment because they are easy to see. This makes them a good choice for clothing and equipment that is used during both day and night time.

The correct answer is (c) Kanpur.

The Institute of Paper Technology (IOPT) is a government-funded technical institute located in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh, India. It was established in 1948 as the Central Institute of Paper Technology (CIPT) and was renamed IOPT in 1972. The institute offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs in paper technology and allied fields. It is affiliated to the University of Allahabad.

The institute has a sprawling campus spread over 100 acres. It has well-equipped laboratories, workshops, and libraries. The institute also has a hostel facility for its students.

The institute offers a number of scholarships and financial assistance to its students. It also has a placement cell that helps its students in getting jobs after completing their studies.

The institute has a good reputation and is considered to be one of the best institutes for paper technology in India. It has produced a number of successful alumni who are working in various fields related to paper technology.

The other options are incorrect because:

(a) Saharanpur is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the Saharanpur district. The city is known for its leather industry.
(b) Meerut is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the Meerut district. The city is known for its military and educational institutions.
(d) Gorakhpur is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the Gorakhpur district. The city is known for its religious importance.

The correct answer is (c) Year 1959.

The Panchayati Raj System was introduced in India in 1959. It is a system of local self-government in India. The system was introduced by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report in 1957. The report recommended the establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj system at the village, block and district levels.

The Panchayati Raj System is based on the principle of decentralization of power. It aims to involve the people in the decision-making process and to ensure their participation in the development process. The system has been successful in empowering the people and in bringing about development at the grassroots level.

The Panchayati Raj System has been amended several times since its inception. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992, have given a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System. The amendments have also made provisions for reservation of seats for women and SC/STs in the Panchayati Raj institutions.

The Panchayati Raj System is an important part of the Indian democracy. It has played a significant role in the development of the country. The system has been successful in empowering the people and in bringing about development at the grassroots level.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Year 1950: The Constitution of India was adopted in 1950. However, there was no provision for Panchayati Raj in the Constitution.

(b) Year 1952: The first general elections to the Lok Sabha were held in 1952. However, there was no provision for Panchayati Raj in the Constitution.

(d) Year 1989: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992, gave a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System. However, the system was introduced in India in 1959.

The correct answer is: D. none of the above

The word "university" is a common noun, which means that it does not need to be preceded by an article. In fact, using an article with a common noun can sometimes sound strange or incorrect. For example, you would not say "I went to the school" or "I bought the car." You would simply say "I went to school" or "I bought a car."

The same is true for the word "university." You would not say "My brother studies in the university." You would simply say "My brother studies at university."

There are a few exceptions to this rule. For example, if you are talking about a specific university, you might use an article. For example, you might say "I went to the University of California, Berkeley."

However, in general, you do not need to use an article with the word "university."

The correct answer is: B. displayed, in.

The word "displayed" means to show or exhibit something. In this case, the great scientist showed his ability and moderation throughout the conference. The word "in" indicates that the scientist's ability and moderation were evident throughout the entire conference.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• A. "felt" does not make sense in this context. The scientist did not feel his ability and moderation; he displayed them.
• C. "disclosed" means to reveal something that was previously unknown. In this case, the scientist did not reveal anything new about himself; he simply showed his ability and moderation.
• D. "conducted" means to lead or manage something. In this case, the scientist did not lead or manage the conference; he was simply a participant.
• E. "presented" means to give a speech or lecture. In this case, the scientist did not give a speech or lecture; he simply participated in the conference.

The correct answer is: A) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zilla Parishad.

The Panchayati Raj system in West Bengal is a three-tier system of local self-government. The three tiers are:

* Gram Panchayat: The Gram Panchayat is the lowest tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a village-level body that is responsible for the development and administration of the village.
* Panchayat Samiti: The Panchayat Samiti is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a block-level body that is responsible for the development and administration of the block.
* Zilla Parishad: The Zilla Parishad is the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a district-level body that is responsible for the development and administration of the district.

The Panchayati Raj system in West Bengal is based on the principle of devolution of power. This means that the power to make decisions about local development and administration is devolved from the state government to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

The Panchayati Raj system in West Bengal has been successful in promoting local development and in empowering the people. It has also helped to improve the quality of life of the people in rural areas.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the three-tier structure of the Panchayati Raj system in West Bengal.

The correct answer is A) 13.84%.

The decadal growth rate of population in West Bengal from 2001 to 2011 was 13.84%. This means that the population of West Bengal increased by 13.84% in the 10 years from 2001 to 2011. This is a relatively low growth rate compared to other states in India, and it is likely due to a number of factors, including a decline in fertility rates, an increase in urbanization, and an aging population.

Option B is incorrect because the decadal growth rate of population in West Bengal from 2001 to 2011 was not 15.64%.

Option C is incorrect because the decadal growth rate of population in West Bengal from 2001 to 2011 was not 17.94%.

Option D is incorrect because the decadal growth rate of population in West Bengal from 2001 to 2011 was not 19.24%.

The correct answer is A) Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah.

Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah was a Muslim ruler of Bengal from 1342 to 1357. He was the founder of the Ilyas Shahi dynasty, which ruled Bengal for over a century. Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah was born in 1299 in the village of Ilyasnagar in present-day Bangladesh. He was the son of a Muslim merchant. Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah began his career as a soldier in the army of the Delhi Sultanate. He rose to prominence during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq. In 1342, Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah declared independence from the Delhi Sultanate and founded the Ilyas Shahi dynasty. He ruled Bengal until his death in 1357.

Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah was a successful ruler. He expanded the territory of Bengal and established a strong central government. He also promoted trade and agriculture. Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah was a devout Muslim. He built many mosques and madrasas in Bengal. He also patronized the arts and literature.

Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah was a popular ruler. He was known for his justice and generosity. He was also a skilled military leader. Shamsuddin Ilyas Shah is considered to be one of the greatest rulers of Bengal.

The other options are incorrect because:

* B) Alauddin Hussain Shah was the third sultan of the Ilyas Shahi dynasty. He ruled Bengal from 1357 to 1389.
* C) Ghiyasuddin Azam Shah was the fourth sultan of the Ilyas Shahi dynasty. He ruled Bengal from 1389 to 1410.
* D) Sikandar Shah was the fifth sultan of the Ilyas Shahi dynasty. He ruled Bengal from 1410 to 1414.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Anandabazar Patrika Online is a Bengali-language news website based in Kolkata, India. It is the online version of the Anandabazar Patrika, one of the oldest and most popular newspapers in West Bengal. The website was launched in 2000 and is one of the most visited news websites in India.

Ei Samay Online is a Bengali-language news website based in Kolkata, India. It is the online version of the Ei Samay, a Bengali-language daily newspaper. The website was launched in 2007 and is one of the most visited news websites in West Bengal.

Bartaman Patrika Online is a Bengali-language news website based in Kolkata, India. It is the online version of the Bartaman Patrika, a Bengali-language daily newspaper. The website was launched in 2008 and is one of the most visited news websites in West Bengal.

All three websites provide news and information on a variety of topics, including politics, business, sports, entertainment, and lifestyle. They also offer live streaming of news events and video content.

The correct answer is (d). Savannah is not a temperate grassland. It is a tropical grassland.

A temperate grassland is a grassland biome found in temperate regions (between 30 and 50 degrees latitude) in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. Temperate grasslands are characterized by a warm, temperate climate with hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters. The dominant plant life in temperate grasslands is grasses, which are adapted to the dry summers and cold winters. Other common plants in temperate grasslands include shrubs, trees, and wildflowers.

The Pampas is a temperate grassland located in South America. The Pampas is the largest grassland in the world, covering an area of over 7 million square kilometers. The Pampas is characterized by its rolling hills, lush grasslands, and abundant wildlife. The Pampas is an important agricultural region, and is home to a variety of livestock, including cattle, sheep, and horses.

The Veld is a temperate grassland located in South Africa. The Veld is the second largest grassland in the world, covering an area of over 4 million square kilometers. The Veld is characterized by its dry, sandy soil, low rainfall, and sparse vegetation. The Veld is an important grazing area for livestock, and is home to a variety of wildlife, including lions, leopards, and elephants.

The Downs is a temperate grassland located in Australia. The Downs is the third largest grassland in the world, covering an area of over 3 million square kilometers. The Downs is characterized by its rolling hills, red soil, and sparse vegetation. The Downs is an important grazing area for livestock, and is home to a variety of wildlife, including kangaroos, wallabies, and emus.

Savannah is a tropical grassland located in Africa, South America, and Australia. Savannah is characterized by its tall grasses, scattered trees, and hot, dry climate. Savannah is an important grazing area for livestock, and is home to a variety of wildlife, including elephants, lions, and zebras.

The correct answer is C. Subcutaneous fat layer.

The subcutaneous fat layer is the layer of fat that lies beneath the dermis, the layer of skin below the epidermis. It is made up of adipose tissue, which is a type of connective tissue that stores fat. The subcutaneous fat layer acts as an insulator against heat and cold, and it also helps to cushion the body against shocks.

The dermis is the layer of skin that lies beneath the epidermis. It is made up of connective tissue, blood vessels, nerves, and sweat glands. The dermis does not act as an insulator against heat or cold, and it does not help to cushion the body against shocks.

The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. It is made up of epithelial tissue, which is a type of tissue that lines the surfaces of the body. The epidermis does not act as an insulator against heat or cold, and it does not help to cushion the body against shocks.

Therefore, the subcutaneous fat layer is the correct answer to the question.

The correct answer is C. PROM.

• PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association) is a standard for thin, credit-card-sized expansion cards used in laptops.
• ISA (Industry Standard Architecture) is a 16-bit expansion bus standard for IBM PC compatible computers.
• EISA (Extended Industry Standard Architecture) is an 32-bit expansion bus standard for IBM PC compatible computers.
• PROM (Programmable Read-Only Memory) is a type of non-volatile memory that can be programmed once and then read many times.

PROM is not a type of expansion slot or bus design used in Advanced-Technology class systems.

The actress Madhabi Mukherjee was seen as a child artist in the movie 'Kankantala Light Railway' in 1950. The movie was directed by Premendra Mitra.

The correct answer is: A. Large intestine.

The large intestine is the final part of the digestive system. It is about 5 feet long and 3 inches in diameter. The large intestine absorbs water and salts from food waste, and it stores food waste until it is eliminated from the body.

The large intestine is home to a large number of bacteria. These bacteria help to break down food waste and produce vitamins that are essential for human health. Some of the vitamins that are produced by bacteria in the large intestine include vitamin K, vitamin B12, and biotin.

The bacteria in the large intestine also help to protect the body from harmful bacteria. They do this by competing with harmful bacteria for food and by producing substances that kill harmful bacteria.

The bacteria in the large intestine are important for human health. They help to break down food waste, produce vitamins, and protect the body from harmful bacteria.

The small intestine is the part of the digestive system that is located between the stomach and the large intestine. It is about 20 feet long and 1 inch in diameter. The small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients from food.

The stomach is a muscular sac that is located in the upper abdomen. It is about 10 inches long and 3 inches in diameter. The stomach is responsible for breaking down food and mixing it with digestive juices.

None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is D. Bengal School is not a traditional painting style of Bengal.

The other three options are traditional painting styles of Bengal:

* Kalighat painting is a style of Indian painting that originated in Kalighat, a neighborhood in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. It is characterized by its use of bright colors, bold outlines, and simple compositions. Kalighat paintings often depict religious themes, such as scenes from the life of the Hindu goddess Kali.
* Pattachitra is a style of Indian painting that originated in the eastern Indian states of Odisha and West Bengal. It is characterized by its use of natural pigments, such as rice paste, vegetable dyes, and clay, and its intricate designs. Pattachitra paintings often depict religious themes, such as scenes from the life of the Hindu god Krishna.
* Madhubani painting is a style of Indian painting that originated in the Mithila region of India, which is now located in the Indian state of Bihar and the Nepalese state of Mithila. It is characterized by its use of natural pigments, such as rice paste, vegetable dyes, and clay, and its intricate designs. Madhubani paintings often depict religious themes, such as scenes from the life of the Hindu goddess Lakshmi.

The answer is C. Annoyed.

Happy, delighted, and elated are all words that describe positive emotions. Annoyed, on the other hand, is a word that describes a negative emotion.

Happy is a feeling of joy or contentment. Delighted is a feeling of great pleasure or satisfaction. Elated is a feeling of great happiness or excitement. Annoyed is a feeling of irritation or displeasure.

In the context of the question, the word that is different from the rest is annoyed. This is because the other three words (happy, delighted, and elated) all describe positive emotions, while annoyed describes a negative emotion.

The correct answer is: A. will wait... will be

The sentence is about the future, so we need to use the future tense. Option A is the only option that uses the future tense. Option B uses the present tense, which is not correct because the sentence is about the future. Option C uses the present perfect tense, which is not correct because the sentence is about the future. Option D uses the past perfect tense, which is not correct because the sentence is about the future.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: will wait... will be
  This option is correct because it uses the future tense. The sentence is about the future, so we need to use the future tense. The verb "wait" is in the simple future tense, and the verb "be" is in the simple future tense.

• Option B: will wait... have been
  This option is not correct because it uses the present tense. The sentence is about the future, so we need to use the future tense. The verb "wait" is in the simple future tense, but the verb "have been" is in the present perfect tense.

• Option C: will wait... are
  This option is not correct because it uses the present perfect tense. The sentence is about the future, so we need to use the future tense. The verb "wait" is in the simple future tense, but the verb "are" is in the present perfect tense.

• Option D: have waited... have been
  This option is not correct because it uses the past perfect tense. The sentence is about the future, so we need to use the future tense. The verb "wait" is in the simple future tense, but the verb "have been" is in the past perfect tense.