WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-6

The correct answer is B. 23.

The African Development Bank (AfDB) is a development bank that makes loans to African countries. It was founded in 1964 and is headquartered in Abidjan, Côte d'Ivoire. The AfDB has 54 regional members, which are all African countries. It also has 27 non-regional members, which are countries from outside Africa. The non-regional members are:

• Algeria
• Argentina
• Australia
• Austria
• Belgium
• Brazil
• Canada
• China
• Denmark
• Finland
• France
• Germany
• Greece
• India
• Italy
• Japan
• Korea, Republic of
• Kuwait
• Netherlands
• Norway
• Portugal
• Saudi Arabia
• Spain
• Sweden
• Switzerland
• United Kingdom
• United States

The AfDB's non-regional members provide financial support to the bank and help to promote economic development in Africa. They also serve on the bank's board of directors and help to set its policies.

The correct answer is (b), Coniferales.

Coniferales is the most advanced order in Gymnosperms because it contains the most diverse and widespread species. Conifers are characterized by their needle-like leaves, cones, and woody stems. They are found in a variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, and mountains.

Cycadales are an order of gymnosperms that are characterized by their large, palm-like leaves and their unique reproductive structures. Cycads are found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.

Gnetales are an order of gymnosperms that are characterized by their unusual combination of features. Gnetophytes have some features that are similar to angiosperms, such as flowers and fruits. However, they also have some features that are similar to other gymnosperms, such as cones and seeds. Gnetophytes are found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.

Taxales is an order of gymnosperms that are characterized by their small, scale-like leaves and their cones. Taxales are found in temperate and tropical regions around the world.

In conclusion, Coniferales is the most advanced order in Gymnosperms because it contains the most diverse and widespread species.

There are 4 districts in Malda division viz, Malda, North Dinajpur, South Dinajpur and Murshidabad.

The correct answer is D. Concealed.

A synonym is a word that means the same as another word. In this case, the word "latent" means "hidden" or "not apparent." The other options do not have the same meaning as "latent."

• Option A, "prompt," means "quick or ready to act."
• Option B, "lethargic," means "lazy or inactive."
• Option C, "apparent," means "obvious or easy to see."

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Concealed.

The correct answer is D. reduced to zero.

Weight is the force of gravity acting on an object. The force of gravity is proportional to the mass of the object and the mass of the Earth. The mass of an object is the same everywhere, but the force of gravity is different at different distances from the Earth.

When an object is in orbit around the Earth, it is moving at a speed that is just fast enough to keep it from falling back to Earth. The force of gravity is still acting on the object, but it is also being counteracted by the object's inertia. The object is constantly falling towards the Earth, but it is also moving sideways so fast that it never actually hits the ground.

The force of gravity is strongest at the surface of the Earth and gets weaker as you get further away. When an object is in orbit, it is much further away from the Earth than it is on the surface, so the force of gravity is much weaker. This is why the weight of an object in orbit is reduced to zero.

Option A is incorrect because the weight of an object in orbit is not the same as on the Earth. Option B is incorrect because the weight of an object in orbit is not slightly more than that on the Earth. Option C is incorrect because the weight of an object in orbit is not less than that on the Earth.

The correct answer is D. Annoy.

The word "irk" means to irritate or bother someone. It is a verb that is often used to describe someone who is being annoying or frustrating. For example, you might say that someone is "irking" you if they are constantly talking over you or if they are always making the same mistakes.

The other options are not synonyms of "irk."

• Bore: to make someone feel bored or uninterested.
• Insult: to say something that is offensive or disrespectful to someone.
• Urge: to strongly encourage someone to do something.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "time" is a non-count noun, which means it does not have a plural form and does not take a determiner (such as a or an) unless it is modified by a word that specifies the type of time. In the sentence "I didn't have time for breakfast," the word "time" is not modified, so it does not take an article.

Here are some other examples of non-count nouns:

• water
• air
• love
• happiness
• information
• money

Note that some non-count nouns can be used with articles when they are modified by a word that specifies the type of non-count noun. For example, we can say "I drank a glass of water" or "I need some information."

The correct answer is: B. Both 1 and 3

Monopolistic firms incur advertisement cost to differentiate their goods from those of their competitors and to avoid price wars.

Monopolistic firms have a certain degree of market power, which means that they can charge a price above marginal cost. However, they also face competition from other firms, so they cannot charge a price that is too high. In order to maintain their market share, monopolistic firms need to differentiate their goods from those of their competitors. This can be done through advertising, which can create a brand identity and make consumers more likely to choose one firm's product over another.

Advertising can also be used to avoid price wars. If one firm lowers its price, other firms may be forced to do the same in order to remain competitive. This can lead to a cycle of price reductions, which can be harmful to all firms involved. Advertising can help to prevent this by creating a perception of value for consumers. When consumers believe that a product is worth its price, they are less likely to switch to a lower-priced product.

In conclusion, monopolistic firms incur advertisement cost to differentiate their goods from those of their competitors and to avoid price wars.

The correct answer is D. Vitamin C.

Milk is a good source of calcium, protein, and carbohydrates. It is also a good source of phosphorus, potassium, riboflavin, and vitamin B12. However, milk is a poor source of vitamin C.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for human health. It is involved in many important bodily functions, including the production of collagen, the absorption of iron, and the maintenance of a healthy immune system. Vitamin C is also a powerful antioxidant, which means that it can help to protect cells from damage caused by free radicals.

The recommended daily intake of vitamin C for adults is 90 milligrams. One cup of whole milk contains only 10 milligrams of vitamin C. Therefore, milk is not a good source of this important nutrient.

Other good sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, broccoli, and strawberries.

The correct answer is (a) 2024.

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a nationwide cleanliness campaign launched by the Government of India on 2 October 2014. The campaign aims to achieve the target of "Clean India" by the year 2024. The campaign is based on the principle of "Clean India, Healthy India" and aims to make India a clean and hygienic country.

The campaign has been divided into two phases. The first phase, which was launched in 2014, focused on creating awareness about the importance of cleanliness and hygiene. The second phase, which was launched in 2015, focused on implementing the campaign on the ground.

The campaign has been successful in making a significant impact on the cleanliness of India. The number of toilets built in India has increased significantly since the launch of the campaign. The campaign has also helped to improve the awareness of cleanliness and hygiene among the people of India.

However, the campaign has also faced some challenges. One of the major challenges has been the lack of participation from the people. The campaign has also been criticized for being too ambitious and for not being realistic.

Despite the challenges, the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a significant step towards making India a clean and hygienic country. The campaign has the potential to make a positive impact on the lives of millions of people in India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the target year of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

The odd one out is C. RWB. The other options are all three-letter acronyms that are commonly used in the English language. CHM stands for chemistry, HMR stands for human resources, DIN stands for Deutsches Institut für Normung (German Institute for Standardization), and LPU stands for linear predictive coding. RWB, on the other hand, is not a commonly used three-letter acronym. It could stand for "red, white, and blue," but this is not a common usage.

The correct answer is: **B) Fishermen**.

The Matsyajibi Bandhu scheme is a financial assistance scheme for fishermen in West Bengal, India. The scheme was launched in 2017 by the Chief Minister of West Bengal, Mamata Banerjee. The scheme provides financial assistance to fishermen for the purchase of fishing boats, nets, and other equipment. The scheme also provides financial assistance for the construction of fish ponds and other infrastructure.

The scheme has been successful in providing financial assistance to fishermen and helping them to improve their livelihood. The scheme has also helped to increase the production of fish in West Bengal.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the target beneficiaries of the Matsyajibi Bandhu scheme. Farmers are not the target beneficiaries of the scheme because the scheme is specifically designed for fishermen. Poultry farmers and dairy farmers are also not the target beneficiaries of the scheme because the scheme is not designed for them.

The correct answer is D. Collagen.

Collagen is a protein that is the main structural component of connective tissue. It is found in skin, bones, tendons, ligaments, and cartilage. Collagen is also found in the walls of blood vessels and the digestive system.

Lipids are a type of molecule that includes fats, oils, and waxes. They are found in all cells and are an important source of energy. Lipids are also used to make hormones and other substances that are necessary for the body to function properly.

Carbohydrates are a type of molecule that includes sugars, starches, and cellulose. They are the body's main source of energy. Carbohydrates are also used to make other substances that are necessary for the body to function properly.

Cholesterol is a type of lipid that is found in the blood. It is an important substance for the body, but too much cholesterol can lead to health problems such as heart disease.

In conclusion, the major constituent of connective tissue is collagen. Collagen is a protein that is found in skin, bones, tendons, ligaments, and cartilage. It is also found in the walls of blood vessels and the digestive system.

The correct answer is (d) Monism.

Brahma Samaj is a Hindu reform movement founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. It is based on the principle of monism, which is the belief that there is only one ultimate reality. This reality is Brahman, which is both the material and spiritual world. Brahman is impersonal and unknowable, but it can be experienced through meditation and devotion.

Monotheism is the belief in one God. Polytheism is the belief in many gods. Atheism is the belief that there is no God.

Brahma Samaj rejects the caste system and idol worship. It promotes education and social reform. It has been influential in the development of modern Hinduism.

The correct answer is B. 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977.

The Internal Emergency was a period of 21 months from 25 June 1975 to 21 March 1977 when the Indian government under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was given emergency powers by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed. The Emergency was controversial and led to widespread arrests and suppression of civil liberties.

The Emergency was declared after a series of political setbacks for Gandhi's government, including the defeat of her Congress Party in the 1974 Gujarat Legislative Assembly election and the Allahabad High Court's judgment in the Raj Narain case, which found her guilty of electoral malpractice. Gandhi claimed that the Emergency was necessary to maintain law and order and to deal with the threat of internal subversion.

Under the Emergency, the government was given sweeping powers to arrest and detain people without trial, to censor the press, and to suspend civil liberties. Thousands of people were arrested, including political opponents, journalists, and activists. The press was censored and the opposition was silenced.

The Emergency was lifted on 21 March 1977, after Gandhi's Congress Party was defeated in the 1977 general election. The Emergency is widely considered to be a dark chapter in Indian history.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the actual dates of the Emergency.

The correct answer is: C. Both A & B

The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of a wave for an observer moving relative to the wave source. It is named after the Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who described the phenomenon in 1842.

The Doppler effect can be observed for all types of waves, including sound waves, light waves, and water waves. For sound waves, the Doppler effect is commonly heard as the change in pitch of a train whistle or an ambulance siren as it passes by.

The Doppler effect is caused by the relative motion between the wave source and the observer. When the source of the wave is moving towards the observer, the waves are compressed and the frequency of the wave increases. When the source of the wave is moving away from the observer, the waves are stretched and the frequency of the wave decreases.

The Doppler effect can be used to measure the speed of objects. For example, astronomers use the Doppler effect to measure the speed of stars and galaxies.

The Doppler effect can also be used to create special effects, such as the "whoosh" sound that is heard when a car passes by.

Here are some additional details about each option:

• Option A: A doppler effect occurs when a source of sound moves away from you. This is because the waves are stretched as the source moves away, which causes the frequency of the wave to decrease.
• Option B: A doppler effect occurs when a source of sound moves towards you. This is because the waves are compressed as the source moves towards you, which causes the frequency of the wave to increase.
• Option C: Both A & B. This is the correct answer, as the Doppler effect can occur when the source of sound moves towards or away from the observer.
• Option D: None of the above. This is the incorrect answer, as the Doppler effect can occur when the source of sound moves towards or away from the observer.

The correct answer is C. fermentation.

Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic molecules, especially carbohydrates, without the involvement of oxygen. The process is used to make alcoholic beverages, such as beer and wine, and to produce bread and other baked goods.

Saponification is a chemical reaction that produces soap and glycerin from fats and oils. The reaction is catalyzed by an alkali, such as sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide.

Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction that adds hydrogen to an organic compound. The reaction is often used to convert unsaturated fats into saturated fats.

Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction that breaks down a compound into its constituent elements by the addition of water. The reaction is often used to break down proteins into amino acids.

In the reaction that converts sugar solution into alcohol, yeast cells convert the sugar into alcohol and carbon dioxide. The reaction is an example of fermentation.

The correct answer is: A. infinite.

A demand curve which is parallel to the x-axis is a perfectly inelastic demand curve. This means that the quantity demanded of a good is not affected by changes in the price of the good. In other words, consumers are willing to buy the same quantity of the good regardless of the price.

A perfectly inelastic demand curve is represented by a vertical line. This is because the quantity demanded is the same at all prices.

The following are the four types of demand elasticity:

• Perfectly inelastic demand: The quantity demanded does not change at all in response to a change in price.
• Inelastic demand: The quantity demanded changes by a smaller percentage than the price changes.
• Unitary elastic demand: The quantity demanded changes by the same percentage as the price changes.
• Elastic demand: The quantity demanded changes by a larger percentage than the price changes.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (c) Maharashtra.

Dahi Handi is a traditional game played in Maharashtra, India. It involves a human pyramid being formed to reach a pot of curd (dahi) suspended from a height. The game is played on the occasion of Janmashtami, the birthday of Krishna.

In 2014, the Maharashtra government declared Dahi Handi as an adventure sport. This was done to promote the game and to encourage people to participate in it. The government also announced a prize money of Rs. 1 lakh for the winning team.

The other options are incorrect. Madhya Pradesh is a state in central India. Gujarat is a state in western India. Rajasthan is a state in northwestern India.

The correct answer is (a) Father.

The father is the natural guardian of a Muslim female child. This is because the father is the one who is responsible for providing for and protecting his daughter. The mother is also a guardian, but her role is secondary to the father's. The grandfather and grandmother are not natural guardians, but they may be appointed as guardians if the father and mother are not available.

The father's role as guardian is based on the Quran, which states that "Men are in charge of women by [right of] what Allah has given one over the other and what they spend [for maintenance] from their wealth." (4:34) This means that the father has the responsibility to provide for and protect his daughter, and he has the authority to make decisions on her behalf.

The mother's role as guardian is based on the hadith, which are sayings and actions of the Prophet Muhammad. The Prophet said, "The mother is the best guardian for her child." (Sunan Ibn Majah) This means that the mother has a right to be involved in her child's upbringing, and she should be consulted on important decisions.

The grandfather and grandmother are not natural guardians, but they may be appointed as guardians if the father and mother are not available. This is because they are the next of kin, and they have a responsibility to care for their grandchildren.

In conclusion, the father is the natural guardian of a Muslim female child. The mother is also a guardian, but her role is secondary to the father's. The grandfather and grandmother are not natural guardians, but they may be appointed as guardians if the father and mother are not available.

The correct answer is: A) Colorful processions and body piercing rituals.

Gajan is a folk dance performed during the Bengali month of Chaitra to worship Lord Shiva. It is known for its colorful processions and body piercing rituals. The dancers wear colorful costumes and masks, and they pierce their bodies with hooks and skewers. The dance is performed to the accompaniment of drums and cymbals, and it is a very lively and energetic performance.

Option B is incorrect because Gajan is not known for its slow and graceful movements. The dance is very lively and energetic, and the dancers move quickly and with a lot of energy.

Option C is incorrect because Gajan is not known for its use of elaborate masks. The dancers typically wear simple masks, or they may not wear masks at all.

Option D is incorrect because Gajan is not known for its martial arts-inspired movements. The dance is not a martial art, and the movements are not inspired by martial arts.

The correct answer is (c).

To calculate the percentage, we divide the part by the whole and multiply by 100. In this case, the part is 12 mm and the whole is 18 cm. So, we have:

$12 text{ mm} div 18 text{ cm} times 100% = 6.67%$

Therefore, 12 mm is 6.67% of 18 cm.

Option (a) is incorrect because 6.7% is not equal to 6.67%.

Option (b) is incorrect because 6.6% is not equal to 6.67%.

Option (d) is incorrect because 7.0% is not equal to 6.67%.

The correct answer is (c) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar.

Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar was a Bengali polymath who is considered one of the greatest reformers of 19th-century India. He was a pioneer in the field of education and social reform, and he played a major role in the abolition of sati (widow burning) and the legalization of widow remarriage.

Raja Rammohan Roy was a Bengali polymath and social reformer who is considered one of the most influential figures in Indian history. He was a pioneer in the field of education and social reform, and he played a major role in the establishment of the Brahmo Samaj, a Hindu reform movement.

Kishan Chandra Sen was a Bengali poet, writer, and social reformer. He was a pioneer in the field of education and social reform, and he played a major role in the establishment of the Young Bengal movement, a group of young Bengali intellectuals who advocated for social and political reform.

Pandit Guru Dutt was a Bengali scholar and social reformer. He was a pioneer in the field of education and social reform, and he played a major role in the establishment of the Hindu Mela, a religious and cultural festival.

All of these figures were important reformers in 19th-century India, but Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar was the greatest supporter of widow remarriage. He argued that widow remarriage was a necessary reform to improve the lives of widows and to prevent them from becoming social outcasts. He also argued that widow remarriage was consistent with Hindu scriptures. In 1856, he successfully lobbied the British government to pass the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act, which legalized widow remarriage in India.

The correct answer is: D. Left auricle

The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. The left atrium then pumps the blood into the left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps the blood out of the heart to the rest of the body.

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood from the right atrium to the lungs. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body.

The left auricle and right auricle are the two upper chambers of the heart. The left ventricle and right ventricle are the two lower chambers of the heart.

The correct answer is (b).

M is brother of N and B is brother of N. This means that N and B are both brothers of M. Therefore, N is brother of M.

The other options are not necessarily true. For example, M is brother of D, but D is not necessarily brother of M.

The correct answer is (b).

Two numbers x and y are in the ratio 5 : 7. This means that x is 5 parts and y is 7 parts. We can write this as a proportion:

$$x:y = 5:7$$

We also know that the sum of x and y is 18. We can write this as an equation:

$$x+y = 18$$

We can solve this equation for x by multiplying both sides by 7:

$$7x+7y = 126$$

Subtracting 7y from both sides, we get:

$$7x = 126-7y$$

Dividing both sides by 7, we get:

$$x = frac{126}{7} - y$$

Substituting in the value of y from the proportion, we get:

$$x = frac{126}{7} - 7$$

Simplifying, we get:

$$x = 5$$

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

The correct answer is D.

Bangla Sahayata Kendra (BSK) is a one-stop shop for government services, banking services, and insurance services. It is a government initiative to provide citizens with a convenient and accessible way to access these services. BSK centers are located throughout the country and offer a wide range of services, including:

* Passport and visa applications
* Birth and death registration
* Income tax filing
* Property tax payment
* Banking services
* Insurance services
* And more

BSK centers are staffed by trained and knowledgeable personnel who can help citizens with all aspects of these services. They are also equipped with the latest technology to make the process of accessing these services as easy and efficient as possible.

BSK is a valuable resource for citizens and has been instrumental in making government services more accessible and user-friendly. It is a great example of how technology can be used to improve the lives of citizens.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Government services. BSK centers offer a wide range of government services, including passport and visa applications, birth and death registration, income tax filing, property tax payment, and more.
* Option B: Banking services. BSK centers offer a variety of banking services, including account opening, money transfer, and bill payment.
* Option C: Insurance services. BSK centers offer a variety of insurance services, including life insurance, health insurance, and car insurance.

The correct answer is D. made off with.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A. made good means to compensate for a loss or damage.
• B. made do with means to manage or get along with what is available.
• C. made up means to invent or fabricate something.

The thief made off with all the money means that the thief stole all the money and ran away with it.

In 1981, Aparna Sen made her debut as a film director with 36 Chowringhee Lane which won National and International Awards.

The correct answer is: A. no articles

The sentence "Although brown rice is better for you, most people prefer white rice" is a comparison. In comparisons, we do not use articles.

Here are some more examples of comparisons without articles:

• I like dogs better than cats.
• Coffee is more expensive than tea.
• The weather in London is colder than the weather in Paris.

In the sentence "Although brown rice is better for you, most people prefer white rice," the word "better" is used to compare brown rice and white rice. Brown rice is better for you because it contains more fiber and nutrients than white rice. However, most people prefer white rice because it has a softer texture and a more neutral flavor.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is C. Local Area Network (LAN).

A LAN is a computer network that connects computers and other devices within a limited area such as a home, school, office building, or small group of buildings. A LAN can be used to share resources such as files, printers, and internet access.

An Intranet is a private network that uses Internet technologies to share information, applications, and computing services within a limited group of users. Intranets are often used by businesses to share information with employees, customers, and suppliers.

An Internet is a global wide area network that connects computer systems across the world. The Internet is made up of millions of smaller networks, including LANs, MANs, and WANs.

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a computer network that covers a large geographic area such as a country or continent. WANs are typically made up of several smaller networks, such as LANs and MANs, that are connected together using high-speed data links.

The correct answer is A. Tin and silver.

Tin and silver are both malleable, meaning they can be easily shaped or formed without breaking. They are also both good conductors of electricity, meaning they allow electricity to flow through them easily.

Iodine and xenon are not malleable. Iodine is a solid at room temperature, but it is a brittle solid that can easily break into small pieces. Xenon is a gas at room temperature, so it cannot be shaped or formed at all.

Iodine and xenon are also not good conductors of electricity. Iodine is a poor conductor of electricity, and xenon is an insulator, meaning it does not conduct electricity at all.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Tin and silver.

The correct answer is (c) Rihand.

Rihand Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Son River in Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is the highest dam in India and the second highest in Asia. The dam was constructed between 1954 and 1962 and is operated by the Damodar Valley Corporation.

The dam is 90 meters (295 feet) high and 640 meters (2,100 feet) long. It has a reservoir with a capacity of 12.7 billion cubic meters (444 billion cubic feet). The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.

Mata-Tila Dam is a masonry dam on the Tons River in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand, India. It is the highest masonry dam in India. The dam was constructed between 1961 and 1964 and is operated by the Uttarakhand Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited.

The dam is 60 meters (197 feet) high and 375 meters (1,230 feet) long. It has a reservoir with a capacity of 1.2 billion cubic meters (42 billion cubic feet). The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.

Mela Dam is an earthfill dam on the Tons River in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand, India. It is the second highest dam in Uttarakhand. The dam was constructed between 1972 and 1978 and is operated by the Uttarakhand Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited.

The dam is 58 meters (190 feet) high and 3,000 meters (9,800 feet) long. It has a reservoir with a capacity of 1.1 billion cubic meters (39 billion cubic feet). The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.

Ram-Ganga Dam is an earthfill dam on the Ramganga River in Bijnor district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is the third highest dam in Uttar Pradesh. The dam was constructed between 1961 and 1964 and is operated by the Uttar Pradesh Irrigation Department.

The dam is 55 meters (180 feet) high and 2,000 meters (6,600 feet) long. It has a reservoir with a capacity of 0.8 billion cubic meters (29 billion cubic feet). The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.

The correct answer is: C. Anil Kumble

Anil Kumble is the only Indian bowler to take more than 500 Test wickets. He took 619 wickets in 132 Tests, at an average of 29.55. He is also the only Indian bowler to take all 10 wickets in a Test innings, which he did against Pakistan in 1999.

Kapil Dev is the second-highest wicket-taker for India in Tests, with 434 wickets. He played 131 Tests for India, from 1978 to 1994.

Zaheer Khan is the third-highest wicket-taker for India in Tests, with 311 wickets. He played 92 Tests for India, from 2000 to 2014.

Harbhajan Singh is the fourth-highest wicket-taker for India in Tests, with 417 wickets. He played 106 Tests for India, from 1998 to 2015.

The correct answer is: Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3).

Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also known as baking soda or sodium bicarbonate. It is a white, crystalline solid that is used in a variety of applications, including baking, cleaning, and fire extinguishing.

In fire extinguishers, sodium hydrogen carbonate is used to create a chemical reaction that produces carbon dioxide gas. The carbon dioxide gas smothers the fire by displacing the oxygen in the air.

The other options are incorrect. Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2) is also known as bleach. It is a white, solid that is used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is also known as lye. It is a white, solid that is used in a variety of applications, including soap making, paper making, and metal processing. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is also known as washing soda. It is a white, crystalline solid that is used in a variety of applications, including laundry detergent, glassmaking, and water treatment.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (a) Tenth Schedule.

The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was enacted in 1985. It was introduced to prevent defections in Parliament and State Legislatures. The Act provides for the disqualification of a member of Parliament or State Legislature if he/she voluntarily gives up his/her membership of a political party or joins another political party without the prior permission of his/her party. The Act also provides for the disqualification of a member if he/she votes in the House contrary to the whip issued by his/her party.

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the Scheduled Languages of India. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with the administration of tribal areas in India. The Second Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the states and union territories of India.

The correct answer is: B. Electric discharge

Lightning is a sudden electrostatic discharge that occurs between a cloud and the ground or between two clouds. It is caused by the buildup of electrical charge in the atmosphere. When the charge becomes strong enough, it discharges in the form of a lightning bolt.

Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit. It is measured in watts.

Electric leak is a flow of electric current through an unintended path. It can occur when there is a break in the insulation of an electrical wire or when there is a contact between two conductors of different potentials.

Electric pressure is the force per unit area exerted by an electric field. It is measured in volts per meter.

In conclusion, lightning is caused by an electric discharge, not by electric power, electric leak, or electric pressure.

The correct answer is: C. 2002

Lata Mangeshkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2002. She was the first singer to receive the award.

The Bharat Ratna is awarded by the President of India to citizens of India in recognition of exceptional service to the nation. It is the highest civilian award in India and is awarded in the Republic Day honours list.

Lata Mangeshkar was born in Indore, India, in 1929. She began her singing career at the age of 13 and has since sung over 25,000 songs in over 36 languages. She is considered to be one of the greatest singers of all time.

She has received numerous awards for her singing, including the Padma Bhushan, the Padma Vibhushan, and the Padma Shri. She was also awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2002.

Lata Mangeshkar is a national icon in India and is known as the "Nightingale of India". She is a symbol of Indian culture and music.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: 2000. This is incorrect because Lata Mangeshkar was not awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2000.
• Option B: 2001. This is incorrect because Lata Mangeshkar was not awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2001.
• Option C: 2002. This is the correct answer because Lata Mangeshkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2002.
• Option D: 2003. This is incorrect because Lata Mangeshkar was not awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2003.

The correct answer is: A) Strong, pre-monsoon thunderstorms.

Nor'westers are strong, pre-monsoon thunderstorms that occur in the Indian subcontinent, particularly in the states of West Bengal, Odisha, and Jharkhand. They are caused by the sudden intrusion of cold, dry air from the north-west, which meets with the warm, moist air from the Bay of Bengal. This interaction leads to the formation of thunderstorms, which can be accompanied by heavy rain, hail, and strong winds.

Nor'westers are most common during the months of March and April, but they can also occur in May and June. They are a regular feature of the weather in the Indian subcontinent, and they can cause significant damage to crops and property.

Option B is incorrect because nor'westers are not persistent cold winds. They are strong, but they are not necessarily cold.

Option C is incorrect because nor'westers are not hot and dry winds. They are caused by the intrusion of cold, dry air from the north-west.

Option D is incorrect because nor'westers are not dense winter fog. They are thunderstorms, and they are not associated with fog.

The correct answer is: A. the parallels of longitude.

The Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours. This means that the Sun appears to move across the sky from east to west. The time at a place is determined by the position of the Sun in the sky. The Sun is directly overhead at noon at the equator. As you move north or south of the equator, the Sun appears lower in the sky at noon. The time difference between two places is equal to the difference in their longitude. Longitude is measured in degrees, with 180 degrees of longitude from the Prime Meridian to the International Date Line.

The parallels of latitude are circles that run east and west around the Earth. They are not used to determine the time at a place. The distance from the equator does not affect the time at a place. The distance from the Prime Meridian does not affect the time at a place.

The correct answer is A. Genetics.

Genetics is the study of genes and heredity. It is a branch of biology that deals with the transmission of genetic information from parents to offspring. Genetics also studies the variation of inherited traits within a population.

Evolution is the process by which species change over time. It is a gradual process that can take millions of years. Evolution is driven by natural selection, which is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.

Embryology is the study of the development of an embryo from conception to birth. It is a branch of biology that deals with the formation and development of the embryo. Embryology is a complex field that involves the study of many different aspects of development, including cell division, tissue differentiation, and organogenesis.

Molecular biology is the study of the structure and function of molecules that make up living things. It is a branch of biology that deals with the study of the molecules that are essential for life, such as DNA, RNA, proteins, and carbohydrates. Molecular biology is a rapidly growing field that is essential for understanding the basic processes of life.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "It is the study of hereditary characters transmitted from parents to offspring" is A. Genetics.

The correct answer is (b). Roopkund is a glacial lake in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an altitude of 5,042 meters (16,540 feet) and is known for the hundreds of human skeletons that have been found on its shores. The skeletons are believed to be those of a group of people who were caught in a snowstorm in the 14th century.

Dodital is a lake located in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an altitude of 3,024 meters (9,921 feet) and is a popular tourist destination. There have been no reports of human skeletons being found in Dodital.

Hemkund is a lake located in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an altitude of 4,329 meters (14,220 feet) and is a popular Hindu pilgrimage site. There have been no reports of human skeletons being found in Hemkund.

Naukuchiya Tal is a lake located in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India. It is located at an altitude of 3,048 meters (10,024 feet) and is a popular tourist destination. There have been no reports of human skeletons being found in Naukuchiya Tal.

The correct answer is: D. Badminton.

The Thomas Cup is an international badminton competition contested by the men's national teams of the member associations of the Badminton World Federation (BWF). It is the world's oldest badminton competition, having been held since 1949. The tournament is named after Sir George Alan Thomas, a former president of the BWF.

The Thomas Cup is held every two years, with the exception of the years when the Summer Olympics are held. The current holders of the Thomas Cup are Indonesia, who won the 2020 Thomas Cup Final against China.

The Thomas Cup is played in a round-robin format, with each team playing each of the other teams in their group once. The top two teams from each group progress to the knockout stage, which consists of a single-elimination tournament.

The Thomas Cup is one of the most prestigious badminton tournaments in the world. It is a major goal for any badminton player to represent their country in the Thomas Cup. The tournament is also a major source of revenue for the BWF.

The other options are incorrect because they are not associated with badminton. Hockey is a team sport in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. Football is a team sport in which two teams of eleven players try to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms. Basketball is a team sport in which two teams of five players each try to score points by throwing a ball through a hoop elevated 10 feet above the ground.

The correct answer is C. Scullery.

A. Satire is a genre of literature and performing arts, usually fiction and less frequently in non-fiction, in which vices, follies, abuses, and shortcomings are held up to ridicule, ideally with the intent of shaming individuals, corporations, government, or society itself into improvement.

B. Scissors are a tool consisting of two blades pivoted so that the sharpened edges slide against each other when the handles opposite the pivot are closed. They are used for cutting various thin materials, such as paper, cardboard, metal foil, cloth, rope, wire, and food.

D. Spouse is a person's husband or wife.

Academy of Fine Arts was formally established in 1933 by Lady Ranu Mukherjee. It was initially located in a room in the Indian Museum. Later it was shifted to a much larger space in the Cathedral Road by the patronage of Chief Minister Dr. BC Roy and Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.

The correct answer is: A) Trial of European British subjects by Indian judges.

The Ilbert Bill controversy was a major political crisis in British India in 1883. The bill proposed to allow Indian judges to try European British subjects in criminal cases. This was a controversial issue, as many Europeans believed that they should only be tried by their own kind. The controversy led to a great deal of debate and agitation, and ultimately the bill was withdrawn.

The other options are incorrect because they are not related to the issue of trial of European British subjects by Indian judges.

Option B: Land revenue collection is the process of collecting taxes on land. This is a separate issue from the trial of European British subjects by Indian judges.

Option C: Education reforms are changes to the way education is provided. This is a separate issue from the trial of European British subjects by Indian judges.

Option D: Religious freedom is the right to practice one's religion without interference from the government. This is a separate issue from the trial of European British subjects by Indian judges.

The correct answer is: **B) Growing multiple crops in the same field.**

Intercropping is a cropping system in which two or more crops are grown simultaneously in the same field. It is a common practice in many parts of the world, including West Bengal. Intercropping can be used to improve crop yields, reduce soil erosion, and control pests and diseases.

There are many different ways to intercrop, but the most common method is to plant two or more crops in alternating rows. This method allows each crop to have its own space to grow, while also providing some benefits to the other crop. For example, one crop may provide shade for the other, or one crop may help to suppress weeds.

Intercropping can also be used to create a more diverse landscape. This can help to attract beneficial insects and birds, which can help to control pests. Additionally, intercropping can help to improve soil health by providing a variety of nutrients and organic matter.

Overall, intercropping is a beneficial practice that can improve crop yields, reduce soil erosion, and control pests and diseases. It is a common practice in many parts of the world, including West Bengal.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Option A: Growing crops in different seasons is called crop rotation. This is a different practice from intercropping.
* Option B: Growing multiple crops in the same field is called intercropping. This is the correct answer.
* Option C: Importing agricultural produce is not related to intercropping.
* Option D: Large-scale monoculture is a farming practice in which a single crop is grown over a large area. This is not related to intercropping.

India's first satellite is named after Aryabhatta. Aryabhata was an Indian mathematician, astronomer, and physicist who lived in the 5th century CE. He is considered to be one of the greatest mathematicians of all time, and his work had a profound impact on the development of mathematics and astronomy in India and the Islamic world.

Aryabhata was born in Pataliputra, the capital of the Gupta Empire. He studied mathematics and astronomy at a young age, and he is said to have written several treatises on these subjects. However, none of these treatises have survived to the present day.

Aryabhata's most famous work is the Aryabhatiya, which was written in 499 CE. The Aryabhatiya is a treatise on mathematics and astronomy, and it is considered to be one of the most important works in the history of Indian mathematics.

The Aryabhatiya contains a number of important mathematical results, including the following:

• The value of pi to 39 decimal places
• The formula for the area of a circle
• The formula for the volume of a sphere
• The formula for the sine function

The Aryabhatiya also contains a number of important astronomical results, including the following:

• The discovery of the precession of the equinoxes
• The discovery of the equation of time
• The discovery of the solar and lunar eclipses

Aryabhata's work had a profound impact on the development of mathematics and astronomy in India and the Islamic world. His work was translated into Arabic in the 8th century, and it was studied by many of the leading mathematicians and astronomers of the Islamic world.

Aryabhata is considered to be one of the greatest mathematicians of all time. His work had a profound impact on the development of mathematics and astronomy in India and the Islamic world. He is also considered to be one of the founders of the Indian school of mathematics.

The other options are incorrect because they are not mathematicians or astronomers.

The correct answer is D) Jute.

Murshidabad district is located in the state of West Bengal, India. It is one of the most populous districts in India. The district is known for its production of jute, which is a type of fiber that is used to make textiles. Jute is a major export crop for India, and the Murshidabad district is one of the largest producers of jute in the country.

The other options are incorrect. Betel leaf (paan) is a type of leaf that is used in Indian cuisine. Oranges are a type of citrus fruit that is grown in many parts of the world. Tea is a type of beverage that is made from the leaves of the Camellia sinensis plant.

The correct answer is (d), iodine.

Iodine is a trace element that is essential for human health. It is required for the production of thyroid hormones, which are essential for growth and development, metabolism, and brain function. Iodine deficiency can lead to a number of health problems, including goiter, hypothyroidism, and mental retardation.

Seaweeds are an important source of iodine. They can accumulate iodine from seawater, and some species can contain up to 100 times the amount of iodine found in other foods. Iodine-rich seaweeds include kelp, nori, and kombu.

Sulphur, chlorine, and bromine are also trace elements that are essential for human health. However, they are not as readily available from seaweed as iodine is. Sulphur is found in many foods, including meat, poultry, fish, eggs, dairy products, and legumes. Chlorine is found in table salt and in many processed foods. Bromine is found in very small amounts in some foods, such as seafood and dairy products.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Seaweeds are important source of which one of the following?" is (d), iodine.

The correct answer is C) 77.08%.

The literacy rate of West Bengal as per the 2011 census is 77.08%. This means that 77.08% of the population of West Bengal aged 7 and above can read and write. The literacy rate of West Bengal has increased significantly over the past few decades. In 1951, the literacy rate of West Bengal was only 29.5%. The increase in literacy rate is due to a number of factors, including the expansion of education, the improvement in economic conditions, and the government's efforts to promote literacy.

The literacy rate of West Bengal is higher than the national average of 74.04%. However, there is still a significant gender gap in literacy rates. The literacy rate of females in West Bengal is 70.69%, which is lower than the literacy rate of males, which is 83.47%. The government of West Bengal is taking steps to address the gender gap in literacy rates, such as by providing scholarships and other incentives for girls to attend school.

The literacy rate of West Bengal is an important indicator of the state's development. A high literacy rate is associated with a number of benefits, such as higher economic growth, lower poverty rates, and better health outcomes. The government of West Bengal is committed to increasing the literacy rate of the state and is working to provide all citizens with access to quality education.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{1}{128}}$.

The probability of occurrence of a particular outcome in a probability distribution is the product of the probabilities of each of the events that must occur for the outcome to occur. In this case, the outcome is getting 1, 5, and 6 on three identical dice. The events that must occur for this outcome to occur are:

• The first die must come up 1.
• The second die must come up 5.
• The third die must come up 6.

The probability of the first die coming up 1 is $frac{1}{4}$. The probability of the second die coming up 5 is $frac{1}{8}$. The probability of the third die coming up 6 is $frac{1}{4}$. Therefore, the probability of getting 1, 5, and 6 on three identical dice is $frac{1}{4} times frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{4} = frac{1}{128}$.

Option A is incorrect because the probability of getting 3, 4, and 5 on three identical dice is $frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{4} = frac{1}{256}$.

Option B is incorrect because the probability of getting 1, 2, and 5 on three identical dice is $frac{1}{4} times frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{4} = frac{1}{64}$.

Option D is incorrect because the probability of getting 5 on three identical dice is $frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{8} times frac{1}{4} = frac{1}{256}$.

The correct answer is A) Election of the first Communist government.

In 1972, the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)) won the West Bengal Legislative Assembly elections, defeating the Indian National Congress (INC). The CPI(M) formed a government with the support of the Forward Bloc and the Revolutionary Socialist Party. The election of the CPI(M) government was a major political shift in West Bengal, as it was the first time that a communist party had come to power in a state in India. The CPI(M) government implemented a number of socialist policies, including land reforms, the expansion of education and healthcare, and the development of rural infrastructure. The CPI(M) government also played a key role in the Green Revolution in West Bengal.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

B) Dismissal of the state government by the Centre: The West Bengal government was dismissed by the Centre in 1977, not in 1972.
C) Merger of several princely states with West Bengal: No princely states were merged with West Bengal in 1972.
D) Introduction of the Panchayati Raj system: The Panchayati Raj system was introduced in India in 1992, not in 1972.

The correct answer is: A. Pancreas.

The pancreas is a gland that is both endocrine and exocrine. The endocrine part of the pancreas produces hormones that are released into the bloodstream, while the exocrine part of the pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine.

The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized gland that is located at the base of the brain. It is often called the "master gland" because it produces hormones that control the function of other glands in the body.

The adrenal glands are two small, triangular glands that are located on top of each kidney. They produce hormones that help the body to respond to stress, regulate blood pressure, and control blood sugar levels.

The pineal gland is a small, cone-shaped gland that is located in the brain. It produces a hormone called melatonin, which helps to regulate the body's sleep-wake cycle.

The pancreas is the only gland that is both endocrine and exocrine.

The correct answer is (b), Section 125 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 talks about 'Onerous Gift'.

A gift is said to be onerous if the donor imposes on the donee any burden or obligation in respect of the gift. For example, if a person gives a house to another person on the condition that the donee will take care of the donor for the rest of his life, the gift is said to be onerous.

Section 125 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the consequences of an onerous gift. It provides that if the donee does not perform the burden or obligation imposed on him by the donor, the gift may be revoked by the donor. However, the donor cannot revoke the gift if the donee has already performed the burden or obligation.

The other options are incorrect because they do not deal with onerous gifts. Section 124 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the general principles of gift. Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the acceptance of a gift. Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the revocation of a gift.

The correct answer is (a) 25.

The least distance of distinct vision is the closest distance at which an object can be placed in front of the eye and still be seen clearly. It is typically about 25 cm for a person with normal vision.

Option (b) is incorrect because 5 cm is too close for the eye to focus on an object. Option (c) is incorrect because 75 cm is too far for the eye to focus on an object. Option (d) is incorrect because 100 cm is too far for the eye to focus on an object.

The correct answer is A. accede.

To accede means to agree to a request or demand. In this case, the Government has decided not to agree to the militants' demands, even though they are exerting immense pressure.

The other options are incorrect because they do not mean to agree to a request or demand.

• To yield means to give way to pressure or force. The Government is not giving way to the militants' pressure.
• To oblige means to do something that someone asks you to do. The Government is not doing something that the militants are asking them to do.
• To confirm means to state something as true or correct. The Government is not stating that the militants' demands are true or correct.

Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi is distinguished as the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India. She was appointed to the Supreme Court in 1989, and served until her retirement in 1996. She was the first woman to hold this position, and her appointment was a landmark moment in the history of Indian law.

Ms. Beevi was born in 1927 in the state of Kerala. She studied law at the University of Madras, and after graduating she worked as a lawyer in the state of Tamil Nadu. In 1962, she was appointed as a judge of the Madras High Court. She was the first woman to be appointed to this position.

In 1989, Ms. Beevi was appointed to the Supreme Court of India. She was the first woman to hold this position. She served on the Supreme Court for seven years, and during her time on the court she made a number of important rulings. She was a strong advocate for women's rights, and she played a key role in the development of Indian law on this issue.

Ms. Beevi retired from the Supreme Court in 1996. She is now a retired judge, and she continues to be an active advocate for women's rights. She is a role model for women in India, and she has made a significant contribution to the development of Indian law.

The other options are incorrect.

• Option A is incorrect because Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi was not the first lady of Bangladesh. The first lady of Bangladesh is Sheikh Hasina Wajed.
• Option B is incorrect because Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi was not a judge of the High court. She was a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Option C is incorrect because Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi was not a judge of the High court. She was a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Option D is incorrect because Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi was not the governor of a state. She was a judge of the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is C. The Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison people without trial.

The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government in 1919. It was a set of repressive laws that gave the government the power to imprison people without trial. The act was passed in response to the growing nationalist movement in India. The nationalists were demanding independence from British rule, and the British government was afraid that they would incite violence. The Rowlatt Act was seen as a way to suppress the nationalist movement.

The act was met with widespread protests and demonstrations. The most famous of these was the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in which British troops opened fire on a crowd of unarmed protesters, killing hundreds of people. The Rowlatt Act was repealed in 1922, but it remains a symbol of British repression in India.

Option A is incorrect because the Home Rule Movement was a nationalist movement that was demanding self-government for India. The Rowlatt Act was not passed to kill the Home Rule Movement.

Option B is incorrect because the Punjab protest movement was a movement that was demanding justice for the victims of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Rowlatt Act was not passed to kill the Punjab protest movement.

Option D is incorrect because the Rowlatt Act was passed to authorize the government to imprison people without trial.

The correct answer is A. Went/had taken.

The sentence is in the past perfect tense, which is used to talk about an event that happened before another event in the past. In this case, the event that happened before is "they had taken dinner," and the event that happened after is "they went out for an evening walk."

The past perfect tense is formed with the past participle of the verb (in this case, "taken") and the auxiliary verb "had." The past participle of "go" is "gone," so the past perfect tense of "go" is "had gone."

The other options are incorrect because they are not in the past perfect tense. Option B, "Go/had taken," is in the simple present tense. Option C, "Have gone/took," is in the present perfect tense. Option D, "Are going/took," is in the present progressive tense.

Here is a diagram that shows the tenses of the verbs in the sentence:

Tense | Verb
------- | --------
Past perfect | had taken
Past | went

I hope this explanation is helpful!

The correct answer is: B. Explicit

Explicit costs are costs that a firm incurs in order to produce its goods or services. These costs are directly paid out by the firm, such as wages paid to workers, rent paid for office space, and the cost of raw materials.

Implicit costs are costs that a firm incurs but does not directly pay out. These costs are the opportunity costs of using resources that the firm already owns, such as the opportunity cost of using the time of its owners.

Real costs are costs that are measured in terms of real goods and services. Nominal costs are costs that are measured in terms of money.

In the context of the question, the cost which a firm incurs for purchasing or hiring factors is an explicit cost. This is because the firm directly pays out money for these costs.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The "Sabuj Sathi" scheme is a government initiative in Bangladesh that aims to provide bicycles to students from poor families. The scheme has been praised for its potential to promote environmental awareness, road safety, and physical activity.

Bicycles are a sustainable form of transportation that do not produce emissions. This makes them a good option for reducing air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. Additionally, bicycles are a relatively safe form of transportation. They are less likely to be involved in accidents than cars or motorcycles. Finally, cycling is a good form of physical activity. It can help to improve cardiovascular health and reduce the risk of obesity and other chronic diseases.

The "Sabuj Sathi" scheme has the potential to promote all of these benefits. By providing bicycles to students, the scheme can help to reduce air pollution, improve road safety, and promote physical activity. This can have a positive impact on the health of the population and the environment.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

* Environmental awareness: Bicycles are a sustainable form of transportation that do not produce emissions. This makes them a good option for reducing air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
* Road safety: Bicycles are a relatively safe form of transportation. They are less likely to be involved in accidents than cars or motorcycles.
* Physical activity: Cycling is a good form of physical activity. It can help to improve cardiovascular health and reduce the risk of obesity and other chronic diseases.

Murshidabad district in Bengal is famous for silk industry from medieval times. It is a major centre for theproduction of silk fabrics. Santipur, Fulia in Nadia district; Dhaniakhali and Begampur in Hooghly; Sanudragrah, Dhatrigam and Ketugram in Bardhaman and Bishnupur in Bankura are major silk producing centres of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (c) 1995.

The Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) is a school meal programme in India that provides free lunches to students in primary and upper primary schools. The scheme was launched in 1995 by the Government of India with the objective of improving the nutritional status of children and reducing school dropout rates. The scheme is implemented by the state governments and Union Territories, and is funded by the central government.

The MDMS is a centrally sponsored scheme, which means that the central government provides funds to the state governments for implementation of the scheme. The state governments are responsible for the selection of schools, procurement of foodgrains, preparation and distribution of meals, and monitoring of the scheme.

The MDMS is a major initiative of the Government of India to improve the nutritional status of children and reduce school dropout rates. The scheme has been successful in achieving its objectives, and has been widely praised for its impact on the lives of children.

The following are the options for the question:

(a) 1985: The Mid-day Meal Scheme was not launched in 1985.
(b) 1990: The Mid-day Meal Scheme was not launched in 1990.
(c) 1995: The Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched in 1995.
(d) 1997: The Mid-day Meal Scheme was not launched in 1997.

The correct answer is A. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was a Bengali Hindu saint and reformer who is considered the most important figure in the Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition. He was born in Nabadwip, Bengal, India, into a Brahmin family. His original name was Nimai Pandit. He was a brilliant scholar and a gifted poet. He renounced his family and social life at the age of 24 and began to preach the message of love and devotion to Krishna. He traveled extensively throughout India, spreading his message and establishing temples and monasteries. He is also known for his ecstatic singing and dancing, which he used to express his love for Krishna.

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu's teachings had a profound impact on the religious and social life of Bengal. He emphasized the importance of love and devotion to Krishna, and he rejected the caste system and other social distinctions. He also promoted the use of the vernacular language, Bengali, in religious texts and rituals.

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu's teachings continue to be influential today. He is considered one of the most important figures in Hindu history, and his teachings are followed by millions of people around the world.

The other options are incorrect.

• Mirabai was a Rajput princess who lived in the 16th century. She was a devotee of Krishna, and her poems and songs are still popular today.
• Sankaracharya was a Hindu philosopher and reformer who lived in the 8th century. He is considered one of the most important figures in Hindu history.
• Kabir was a 15th-century poet and saint who is considered one of the founders of the Kabir Panth, a Hindu-Muslim syncretic sect.

The correct answer is: Only argument II is strong.

Argument I is a weak argument because it is based on the assumption that students will only be serious about their studies if they have to pay a lot of money. This is not necessarily true. There are many students who are very serious about their studies even though they do not have to pay a lot of money for tuition.

Argument II is a strong argument because it is based on the fact that increasing tuition fees will make it more difficult for meritorious poor students to afford post-graduate education. This is a serious concern, as it means that these students will be less likely to be able to achieve their full potential.

In conclusion, only argument II is strong.

The correct answer is A) Winter rice.

Boro is a short-duration rice variety that is grown in the winter season in West Bengal. It is a high-yielding variety that is resistant to pests and diseases. Boro rice is a major staple food in West Bengal and is also exported to other countries.

Jute is a long, soft fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including textiles, carpets, and bags. Jute is grown in the Ganges Delta region of India, including West Bengal.

Tea is a beverage that is made from the leaves of the Camellia sinensis plant. Tea is grown in the Himalayan foothills of India, including West Bengal.

Mangoes are a tropical fruit that is native to India. Mangoes are grown in many parts of India, including West Bengal.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is: A) Meet certain population and economic criteria.

A census town is a settlement that has a population of at least 5,000 and a density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer, and that has at least 75% of its male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.

Option B is incorrect because census towns can be either urban or rural in nature.

Option C is incorrect because census towns can have a high population density.

Option D is incorrect because census towns are required to have basic amenities such as water supply, sanitation, electricity, and education.

The correct answer is D. Inert gases.

Elements with atomic numbers 10, 18, 36, and 54 are neon, argon, krypton, and xenon, respectively. These elements are all inert gases, which means that they are very stable and do not react with other elements. They are also all colorless, odorless, and tasteless gases.

Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements that are essential for many modern technologies. They are found in small amounts in the Earth's crust and are difficult to extract. Light metals are a group of elements that are relatively light in weight. They are often used in construction and manufacturing. Halogens are a group of elements that are highly reactive and form salts with other elements.

Here is a table of the elements with atomic numbers 10, 18, 36, and 54, along with their names, symbols, and properties:

Element | Atomic number | Symbol | Properties
------- | -------- | -------- | --------
Neon | 10 | Ne | Colorless, odorless, tasteless gas. Inert.
Argon | 18 | Ar | Colorless, odorless, tasteless gas. Inert.
Krypton | 36 | Kr | Colorless, odorless, tasteless gas. Inert.
Xenon | 54 | Xe | Colorless, odorless, tasteless gas. Inert.

The odd one out is B. Snake.

All the other options are birds.

• A. Chicken is a domesticated bird that is raised for its meat and eggs.
• C. Swan is a large water bird with a long neck and graceful wings.
• D. Crocodile is a large reptile with a long, thick body and a long, narrow snout.
• E. Frog is an amphibian with a long body, short legs, and a large head.

Snakes are reptiles that are not birds. They are long, thin, and have no legs. They are carnivores and eat other animals, such as rodents, birds, and lizards.

The correct answer is A. NNP = GNP - Depreciation.

Net national product (NNP) is the total market value of all final goods and services produced by a country's economy in a given year, minus depreciation. It is calculated by taking the gross national product (GNP) and subtracting the value of capital that has been used up in the production process.

Depreciation is the decrease in the value of an asset over time due to wear and tear or obsolescence. It is an important factor in calculating NNP because it reflects the fact that some of the output produced in a given year is used up to maintain the existing capital stock.

GNP is calculated by taking the total value of all final goods and services produced by a country's economy in a given year and adding the value of net factor income from abroad. Net factor income from abroad is the difference between the income that residents of a country earn from investments abroad and the income that foreigners earn from investments in the country.

NNP is a more accurate measure of a country's economic output than GNP because it takes into account the depreciation of capital. However, it is important to note that NNP does not include the value of goods and services that are produced but not sold, such as home production and volunteer work.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: NNP = GNP - Depreciation. This is the correct answer. NNP is calculated by taking the GNP and subtracting the value of depreciation.
• Option B: NNP = GNP + Depreciation. This is incorrect. NNP is calculated by taking the GNP and subtracting the value of depreciation, not adding it.
• Option C: NNP = GNP + Direct Tax. This is incorrect. Direct taxes are taxes that are levied directly on individuals or businesses, such as income tax and corporate tax. NNP is not affected by direct taxes.
• Option D: NNP = GNP + Indirect Tax. This is incorrect. Indirect taxes are taxes that are levied on goods and services, such as sales tax and value-added tax. NNP is not affected by indirect taxes.

The correct answer is: B. Both I and II

Ajanta paintings are a series of Buddhist cave paintings and sculptures located in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India. The caves were built between the 2nd century BCE and the 6th century CE, during the Vakataka dynasty. The paintings depict scenes from the life of Buddha, as well as other Buddhist stories and legends. They are considered to be some of the finest examples of Buddhist art in the world.

The paintings are divided into two main groups: the earlier group, which is predominantly Buddhist, and the later group, which includes both Buddhist and secular themes. The earlier group of paintings is characterized by its use of bright colors and its depiction of scenes from the life of Buddha. The later group of paintings is more varied in its subject matter, and includes scenes from Hindu mythology, as well as secular scenes of everyday life.

The Ajanta paintings are a valuable source of information about the history and culture of India. They provide insights into the Buddhist religion, as well as the social and political life of India during the Gupta period. The paintings are also a beautiful example of Indian art, and are a popular tourist destination.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option I: Buddhist elements. The Ajanta paintings depict scenes from the life of Buddha, as well as other Buddhist stories and legends. They are considered to be some of the finest examples of Buddhist art in the world.
• Option II: Secular aspects. The later group of Ajanta paintings includes both Buddhist and secular themes. The secular scenes depict everyday life in India during the Gupta period.
• Option III: Jain culture. The Ajanta paintings do not depict scenes from Jain culture.

The correct answer is: B. Atria

The atria are the upper chambers of the heart. They are responsible for receiving blood from the body and lungs and then pumping it to the ventricles. The ventricles are the lower chambers of the heart. They are responsible for pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs.

A. Ventricles are the lower chambers of the heart. They are responsible for pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs.

C. Both A & B is incorrect because the atria are not the ventricles.

D. None of the above is incorrect because the atria are the upper chambers of the heart.

The correct answer is (d) Lactic Acid.

Lactic acid is a type of organic acid that is produced when bacteria convert sugar into energy. It is found in sour milk products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as in sauerkraut and kimchi. Lactic acid is also produced in the muscles during exercise.

Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar. It is also found in some fruits and vegetables. Butyric acid is a type of fatty acid that is found in butter and other dairy products. Tartaric acid is a type of organic acid that is found in grapes and other fruits.

Lactic acid is a weak acid that has a sour taste. It is used in food as a preservative and flavoring agent. It is also used in cosmetics and pharmaceuticals.

The correct answer is: A. MR = MC

A pure monopolist is the only seller of a good or service in a market. This means that the monopolist has a great deal of market power and can set the price of its product. The monopolist will choose to produce the level of output where marginal revenue (MR) equals marginal cost (MC). This is because the monopolist will maximize its profits by producing the level of output where the additional revenue from selling one more unit of output is equal to the additional cost of producing that unit of output.

If the monopolist produces at a level of output where MR > MC, then the monopolist is producing too much output. This is because the monopolist is selling units of output where the additional revenue from selling one more unit of output is greater than the additional cost of producing that unit of output. The monopolist could increase its profits by producing less output.

If the monopolist produces at a level of output where MR < MC, then the monopolist is producing too little output. This is because the monopolist is selling units of output where the additional revenue from selling one more unit of output is less than the additional cost of producing that unit of output. The monopolist could increase its profits by producing more output.

Therefore, the equilibrium level of output for the pure monopolist is where MR = MC.

The correct answer is: B. Kharavela

Kharavela was a king of the Mahameghavahana dynasty of Kalinga, who ruled in the 2nd century BCE. He was a great patron of Jainism, and his reign saw the construction of many Jain temples and monasteries. He is also known for his inscriptions, which provide valuable information about the history of Kalinga and Jainism.

Kanishka was a Kushan emperor who ruled in the 1st and 2nd centuries CE. He was a patron of Buddhism, and his reign saw the spread of Buddhism to Central Asia and China.

Pushyamitra Sunga was a king of the Sunga dynasty who ruled in the 2nd century BCE. He was a patron of Hinduism, and his reign saw the construction of many Hindu temples and monasteries.

Samudragupta was a Gupta emperor who ruled in the 4th century CE. He was a patron of Hinduism, and his reign saw the spread of Hinduism to Southeast Asia.

Kharavela was the only ruler among the four options who was a patron of Jainism.

The correct answer is: A. no less

• No less means "not less than." In this case, the sentence is saying that there are not less than 60 boys in the class.
• No fewer means "not fewer than." This is a synonym for "no less."
• No lesser is not a grammatically correct phrase.
• No few is not a grammatically correct phrase. It is a common mistake to use "few" instead of "less" when comparing numbers. For example, you would say "there are fewer than 60 boys in the class," not "there are few than 60 boys in the class."

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (a) Caspian Sea.

The Caspian Sea is a salt lake located between Europe and Asia. It is the largest lake in the world by surface area, and it is also the largest inland body of water in the world. The Caspian Sea has a salinity of about 1.2%, which is much lower than the salinity of the ocean, which is about 35%.

The Caspian Sea is a closed basin, which means that it does not have an outlet to the ocean. This means that the water in the Caspian Sea is not able to mix with the water in the ocean, and as a result, the salinity of the Caspian Sea is much lower than the salinity of the ocean.

The Caspian Sea is also a very shallow lake, with an average depth of only 17 meters. This shallowness makes it easier for the sun to evaporate the water from the lake, which also contributes to the low salinity of the Caspian Sea.

The Caspian Sea is home to a variety of fish species, including sturgeon, which are the source of caviar. The Caspian Sea is also a popular tourist destination, and it is home to a number of resorts.

The Caspian Sea is a unique and important body of water, and it is worth taking the time to learn more about it.

The other options are incorrect because they are all bodies of water that have a higher salinity than the Caspian Sea. The Dead Sea has a salinity of about 34%, the Mediterranean Sea has a salinity of about 38%, and the Red Sea has a salinity of about 41%.

The correct answer is B. Shravanbelagola.

Shravanbelagola is a town in the Indian state of Karnataka. It is famous for the monolithic statue of Gomateshwara, a Jain saint. The statue is 58 feet tall and is carved out of a single piece of granite. It is one of the largest monolithic statues in the world.

Mount Abu is a hill station in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is a popular tourist destination and is home to many Jain temples. The highest peak in Mount Abu is Guru Shikhar, which is 1,722 meters (5,650 feet) tall.

Kusinagara is a town in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is the place where Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment. The town is also home to many Buddhist temples and monasteries.

Kalinga is a region in the Indian state of Odisha. It is known for its history and culture. The region was once ruled by the Kalinga dynasty.

The correct answer is C. My father told us that we should study and get a good division in the examination.

The other options are incorrect because they do not use the correct verb tense. In the original sentence, the verb "study" is in the present tense. This means that the father is telling his children to study now, in the present moment. The other options use the past tense, which would indicate that the father is telling his children to study in the past. This is not what the sentence means.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: My father said us that we should study and got a good division in the examination.

This option is incorrect because it uses the past tense verb "said" instead of the present tense verb "tells." The father is not telling his children that they studied in the past, he is telling them to study now.

• Option B: My father told us that we should studied and got a good division in the examination.

This option is incorrect because it uses the past tense verb "studied" instead of the present tense verb "study." The father is not telling his children that they studied in the past, he is telling them to study now.

• Option C: My father told us that we should study and get a good division in the examination.

This option is correct because it uses the present tense verb "tells" and the present tense verb "study." The father is telling his children to study now, in the present moment.

• Option D: My father told to us that we should study and get a good division in the examination.

This option is incorrect because it uses the preposition "to" after the verb "told." The preposition "to" is used after verbs like "ask," "tell," and "order" when the person being spoken to is the direct object of the verb. In this sentence, the father is not telling his children to study, he is telling them that they should study. Therefore, the preposition "to" is not necessary.

The correct answer is A. None is implicit.

The statement only tells us that Arun is unable to manage with his present salary. It does not tell us anything about the new company's salary, work environment, or whether Arun has already been offered a job at the new company. Therefore, we cannot make any assumptions about the new company.

Assumption I: The new company has better work environment.

This assumption is not implicit in the statement. The statement only tells us that Arun is unable to manage with his present salary. It does not tell us anything about the new company's work environment. For example, it is possible that Arun is unhappy with his present salary because he is not being paid enough, but he is happy with his work environment. Therefore, we cannot assume that the new company has a better work environment than the present company.

Assumption II: The present company offers moderate pay packets.

This assumption is also not implicit in the statement. The statement only tells us that Arun is unable to manage with his present salary. It does not tell us anything about the present company's pay packets. For example, it is possible that Arun is unhappy with his present salary because he is not being paid enough, but the present company's pay packets are actually quite high. Therefore, we cannot assume that the present company offers moderate pay packets.

Assumption III: The new company offers higher salary to all its employees.

This assumption is also not implicit in the statement. The statement only tells us that Arun is unable to manage with his present salary. It does not tell us anything about the new company's salary. For example, it is possible that Arun is unhappy with his present salary because he is not being paid enough, but the new company's salary is actually quite low. Therefore, we cannot assume that the new company offers higher salary to all its employees.

The correct answer is: A. Ovary

An ovary is the female reproductive organ in flowering plants. It is located in the pistil, which is the female part of the flower. The ovary contains ovules, which are the female gametes. After fertilization, the ovules develop into seeds.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A flower is the reproductive structure of an angiosperm. It is typically composed of four main parts: the sepals, petals, stamens, and pistil. The sepals and petals are the non-reproductive parts of the flower. The stamens are the male reproductive organs, and the pistil is the female reproductive organ.
• A gynoecium is the female reproductive organ of a flower. It is composed of the stigma, style, and ovary. The stigma is the part of the gynoecium that receives pollen. The style is the tube that connects the stigma to the ovary. The ovary is the part of the gynoecium that contains the ovules.
• An ovule is the female gamete of a flowering plant. It is located in the ovary. After fertilization, the ovule develops into a seed.

Vishnupur is famous for its handicrafts and silk sarees. It is also famous for its own school of Gharana of classical music. The local sculptures, handicrafts, handmade fabrics and handprint clothes are simply exquisite.

The correct answer is A. Chloroplast.

Chloroplasts are organelles found in plant cells and algae that are responsible for photosynthesis. They contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that absorbs sunlight and uses it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.

Centrosomes are organelles found in animal cells that are responsible for cell division. They contain centrioles, which are cylindrical structures that help to organize the microtubules that form the mitotic spindle.

Tonoplasts are the membranes that surround the vacuoles of plant cells. They regulate the movement of water and solutes into and out of the vacuole.

Nematocysts are stinging cells found in cnidarians, such as jellyfish and sea anemones. They are used to capture prey.

Therefore, the only option that plays an important role in photosynthesis is A. Chloroplast.

The correct answer is (a).

The father's age is 38 years, and he was as old as his son is now at the time of his son's birth. This means that the father is 38 years older than his son. Five years ago, the father was 33 years old and the son was 5 years old. Therefore, the son's age five years ago was 14 years.

Option (b) is incorrect because the son is 14 years younger than his father. Option (c) is incorrect because the son is 33 years younger than his father. Option (d) is incorrect because the son is 38 years old.

The correct answer is (d).

Article 326 of the Indian Constitution provides for adult suffrage. It states that "every citizen of India who is not less than eighteen years of age on such date as may be fixed in that behalf by Parliament by law on the recommendation of the Election Commission shall be entitled to be registered as a voter at any election to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of a State."

Article 322 deals with the appointment of Election Commissioners. Article 324 deals with the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament and to the Legislatures of States. Article 325 deals with the preparation of electoral rolls.

The correct answer is C. Power.

Power is the rate at which work is done. It is measured in watts, which are joules per second. The formula for power is $P = frac{W}{t}$, where $P$ is power, $W$ is work, and $t$ is time.

Capacity is the ability to hold or contain something. It is measured in liters, cubic meters, or other units of volume.

Energy is the ability to do work. It is measured in joules, calories, or other units of energy.

Current is the flow of electricity. It is measured in amperes, or amps.

To summarize, the rate of doing work is called power. Power is measured in watts, which are joules per second. The formula for power is $P = frac{W}{t}$, where $P$ is power, $W$ is work, and $t$ is time.

The physiographic divisions of West Bengal are Northern mountains, Western plateau, Plains of the North and South region.

The correct answer is: **B) Connect all villages with roads**.

The Banglar Mukhyamantri Gram Sadak Yojana (BGMSY) is a rural road development programme in West Bengal, India. It was launched in 2001 with the objective of providing all-weather road connectivity to all villages with a population of 500 or more. The scheme is being implemented by the Public Works Department (PWD) of West Bengal.

The BGMSY has been a major success in improving rural connectivity in West Bengal. As of 2018, the scheme has constructed over 30,000 km of roads, connecting over 30,000 villages. The scheme has also helped to improve the socio-economic conditions of rural people by providing them with better access to markets, schools, hospitals, and other essential services.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Option A is incorrect because the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana (PMVVY) is the scheme that aims to provide electricity to all villages.
* Option C is incorrect because the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is the scheme that aims to provide clean drinking water to all villages.
* Option D is incorrect because the BharatNet project is the scheme that aims to provide internet connectivity to all villages.

The correct answer is C. Both 1 and 2.

A firm maximizes its profit by producing at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. This is because at this point, the firm is producing the quantity of output where the additional revenue from selling one more unit of output is equal to the additional cost of producing one more unit of output.

The marginal cost curve cuts the average cost curve from below at the minimum point of the average cost curve. This is because the marginal cost curve represents the additional cost of producing one more unit of output, while the average cost curve represents the average cost of producing all units of output. At the minimum point of the average cost curve, the average cost of producing one more unit of output is equal to the marginal cost of producing one more unit of output.

Therefore, a firm maximizes its profit by producing at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost and the marginal cost curve cuts the average cost curve from below.

Option A is incorrect because it only states that condition 1 must be fulfilled. Option B is incorrect because it only states that condition 2 must be fulfilled. Option D is incorrect because both conditions 1 and 2 must be fulfilled for a firm to maximize its profit.

The correct answer is (a). Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is unidirectional.

Energy flow in an ecosystem is the movement of energy from one organism to another. The sun is the ultimate source of energy for all ecosystems. Plants use the sun's energy to create food through photosynthesis. Animals eat plants or other animals to get energy. When an organism dies, its energy is released back into the ecosystem through decomposition.

Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional, meaning that it flows in one direction only. The sun's energy is used by plants to create food, which is then eaten by animals. The animals' waste products and dead bodies are then decomposed, releasing the energy back into the ecosystem. However, the energy that is released during decomposition is not as much as the energy that was originally used by the plants. This is because some of the energy is lost as heat during the process of photosynthesis.

The loss of energy at each trophic level is known as the 10% rule. This rule states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. This is because some of the energy is lost as heat during the process of digestion. The remaining 90% of the energy is lost as heat or used for other purposes, such as growth and reproduction.

The 10% rule is important because it limits the number of trophic levels that can exist in an ecosystem. If there were too many trophic levels, there would not be enough energy to support all of the organisms. This is why most ecosystems have only four or five trophic levels.

The 10% rule also explains why top predators are often rare. Top predators are at the top of the food chain and they only get a small amount of energy from the organisms below them. This means that they need to eat a lot of food to survive. As a result, top predators are often very large and they have a slow metabolism.

(b) Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is cyclic. This is not correct because energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional.

(c) Relative loss of energy in natural ecosystem decreases with increasing trophic levels. This is not correct because the 10% rule states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

(d) Species at progressively higher tropic levels appear to be less efficient, in using available energy. This is not correct because the 10% rule states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. This means that all species, regardless of their trophic level, are equally inefficient at using available energy.

Adyapith temple is located in North 24 Parganas. It was founded by Shri Anand Thakur in 1915. Adya Maa, the different form of Goddess Kali is worshiped here.

Rabindra Sarobar Stadium is located in Southern Avenue of Kolkata.

The correct answer is (d) Sam Pitroda.

Sam Pitroda is an Indian politician and technocrat who served as the Chairman of the National Knowledge Commission from 2005 to 2009. He is also the founder of the Rajiv Gandhi Foundation and the Sam Pitroda Foundation.

Rahul Gandhi is an Indian politician who is the President of the Indian National Congress. He is the son of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Sonia Gandhi.

Rahul Bajaj is an Indian industrialist who is the Chairman of Bajaj Auto. He is the son of Jamnalal Bajaj, the founder of Bajaj Auto.

M. S. Swaminathan is an Indian agricultural scientist who is known as the "Father of the Green Revolution in India". He is the recipient of the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award.

The answer to the question "Trouble : Safety :: Freedom : ?" is Liberty.

• Trouble is the opposite of safety, and freedom is the opposite of slavery.
• Liberty is the state of being free within society from oppressive restrictions imposed by authority on one's way of life, behavior, or political views.
• Independence is the state of being free from the control of others.
• Patience is the ability to accept or tolerate delay, trouble, or suffering without getting angry or upset.
• Slavery is the state of being a slave. A slave is a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to work for them without pay.

In the analogy "Trouble : Safety :: Freedom : ?", the first two terms are opposites of each other, and the third term is the opposite of the fourth term. This means that the answer to the question is the word that is the opposite of slavery. The word that is the opposite of slavery is liberty.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "garden" is a common noun, which means it refers to a general class of things. In this case, the garden is not a specific garden, but rather any garden that is near the speaker's house. Therefore, we do not need to use an article.

If we were to use an article, it would imply that we are talking about a specific garden. For example, if we said "Let's sit in the garden near my house," we would be implying that there is only one garden near the speaker's house, and that we are talking about that specific garden.

However, in this case, we are not talking about a specific garden. We are simply saying that we want to sit in a garden that is near the speaker's house. Therefore, we do not need to use an article.

The correct answer is: Arjuna Award.

The Arjuna Award is the second highest sporting honour of India, awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to recognize outstanding performance in National and International sports. It is named after Arjuna, the Pandava prince in the Indian epic Mahabharata, who was known for his skills in archery.

The award was instituted in 1961 and is given annually to sportspersons who have excelled in their respective fields. The award consists of a cash prize, a scroll of honour, and a blazer with the Arjuna Award emblem.

Some of the notable recipients of the Arjuna Award include:

• P. V. Sindhu (Badminton)
• Saina Nehwal (Badminton)
• M. S. Dhoni (Cricket)
• Virat Kohli (Cricket)
• Sachin Tendulkar (Cricket)
• Leander Paes (Tennis)
• Sania Mirza (Tennis)
• Mary Kom (Boxing)
• Abhinav Bindra (Shooting)
• Neeraj Chopra (Javelin Throw)

The other options are:

• Jamnalal Bajaj Award: This award is given for outstanding contribution to trade and industry.
• Tagore Award: This award is given for outstanding contribution to literature and education.
• Moortidevi Award: This award is given for outstanding contribution to social service.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The mining industry in West Bengal contributes to the state's economy by:

* Providing employment opportunities: The mining industry employs a large number of people in West Bengal, both directly and indirectly. Direct employment is generated in the mining sector itself, while indirect employment is generated in the supporting industries, such as transportation, construction, and manufacturing.
* Generating revenue: The mining industry generates a significant amount of revenue for the state government through taxes and royalties. This revenue can be used to fund essential services, such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
* Promoting industrial development: The mining industry provides the raw materials that are essential for many industries, such as steel, cement, and power generation. This helps to promote industrial development in the state.

In addition to these economic benefits, the mining industry also has a number of social and environmental impacts. These impacts need to be carefully considered when planning and developing mining projects.

The correct answer is under.

The Police Property Act is a law that governs the management of property that is seized by the police. The Act states that property that has not been claimed by its owner after a certain period of time must be sold. The sale of the property is carried out under the authority of the Act.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the relationship between the Police Property Act and the sale of unclaimed property.

• In is incorrect because it suggests that the sale of unclaimed property is a part of the Police Property Act. However, the Act only governs the management of property that is seized by the police, not the sale of unclaimed property.
• Of is incorrect because it suggests that the sale of unclaimed property is a result of the Police Property Act. However, the Act does not require that unclaimed property be sold. The decision to sell unclaimed property is made by the police, not by the Act.
• About is incorrect because it suggests that the sale of unclaimed property is a topic that is discussed in the Police Property Act. However, the Act does not discuss the sale of unclaimed property.

The correct answer is: C. Abhinav Bindra.

Abhinav Bindra is an Indian former sport shooter. He is the first Indian to win an individual gold medal at the Olympics, and the first Indian shooter to win any individual medal at the Olympics. He won the gold medal in the 10 metre air rifle event at the 2008 Summer Olympics in Beijing, China.

Gagan Narang is an Indian sport shooter. He has won a total of 10 medals at the World Championships, including four gold medals. He is the first Indian shooter to win a gold medal at the World Championships. He has also won a total of 14 medals at the Commonwealth Games, including six gold medals.

Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore is an Indian politician and former sport shooter. He is the first Indian to win a silver medal in shooting at the Olympics. He won the silver medal in the men's double trap event at the 2004 Summer Olympics in Athens, Greece.

Sushil Kumar is an Indian wrestler. He is the first Indian to win a gold medal in wrestling at the Olympics. He won the gold medal in the men's 66 kg freestyle event at the 2012 Summer Olympics in London, England.

The correct answer is D) All of the above.

The Banga Lakshmi Award is a prestigious award given to women achievers in the field of business and entrepreneurship, social work, and art and culture. It is conferred by the Banga Lakshmi Foundation, a non-profit organization that aims to promote the empowerment of women in India.

The award was instituted in 2008 by the founder of the foundation, Smt. Jyotsna Poddar, a successful businesswoman and philanthropist. The award is given annually to women who have made significant contributions in their respective fields and have inspired others to achieve their goals.

The award consists of a cash prize, a citation, and a trophy. The winners are selected by a jury of eminent personalities from various fields.

The Banga Lakshmi Award is a recognition of the achievements of women and an inspiration to others to follow their dreams. It is a symbol of hope and empowerment for women across India.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* Business and entrepreneurship: The Banga Lakshmi Award is conferred upon women achievers in the field of business and entrepreneurship. The award recognizes women who have made significant contributions to the growth and development of the Indian economy.
* Social work: The Banga Lakshmi Award is conferred upon women achievers in the field of social work. The award recognizes women who have made significant contributions to the upliftment of the poor and marginalized sections of society.
* Art and culture: The Banga Lakshmi Award is conferred upon women achievers in the field of art and culture. The award recognizes women who have made significant contributions to the enrichment of Indian culture and heritage.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

In a monopolized market, the monopolist is the only seller of a good or service. This means that the monopolist has a great deal of market power and can set the price of its product. The monopolist will set the price at a level where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. This is the point where the monopolist makes the most profit.

In the long run, the monopolist will produce at a level where long-run marginal cost equals long-run average cost. This is the point where the monopolist minimizes its costs.

Therefore, in the long run, a monopolized market is in equilibrium when the monopolist produces where the price is equal to long-run marginal cost and long-run average cost, and the price is not below the long-run average cost.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Option A: Zero economic profit is earned by the monopolist.

In the long run, a monopolist will only earn a normal profit. This is a profit that is just enough to cover the costs of production, including the opportunity cost of capital. The monopolist will not earn an economic profit, which is a profit that is greater than the opportunity cost of capital.

• Option B: Production takes place where the price is equal to long-run marginal cost and long-run average cost.

In the long run, the monopolist will produce where the price is equal to long-run marginal cost and long-run average cost. This is the point where the monopolist makes the most profit.

• Option C: Production takes place where long-run marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue, and the price is not below the long-run average cost.

In the long run, the monopolist will produce where long-run marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue. This is the point where the monopolist minimizes its costs. The price will not be below the long-run average cost, because the monopolist would not be able to cover its costs if the price were below the long-run average cost.

The Western plateau and the adjoining uplands cover an area comprising the whole of Purulia district, the western part of Birbhum, Bankura and Bardhaman districts and west Midnapore district.

The correct answer is: B. A code for moral and virtuous life

Dhamma is a Buddhist term that can be translated as "truth," "law," or "righteousness." It is a code of conduct that emphasizes compassion, non-violence, and living in harmony with others. Ashoka the Great, the third emperor of the Mauryan Empire, was a devout Buddhist who tried to instill Dhamma as the governing principle of his empire. He issued edicts promoting Dhamma and built stupas and pillars inscribed with Dhamma teachings.

Option A is incorrect because Dhamma is not a code for economic and judiciary. Dhamma is a code of conduct that emphasizes moral and virtuous living. It does not specifically address economic or judicial matters.

Option C is incorrect because Dhamma is not a code for religious reforms. Dhamma is a code of conduct that is open to people of all faiths. It does not promote any particular religion or religious reform.

Option D is incorrect because Dhamma is a code of conduct that is relevant to all spheres of life. It is not limited to any one sphere of life.

The correct answer is: B. relative humidity.

A hygrometer is an instrument used to measure the amount of water vapor in the air. It is often used to measure the relative humidity, which is the ratio of the amount of water vapor in the air to the maximum amount of water vapor that the air can hold at a given temperature.

The purity of milk is measured by a variety of methods, including the Babcock test, the Gerber test, and the Soxhlet test. The specific gravity of a liquid is a measure of its density relative to the density of water. It is calculated by dividing the density of the liquid by the density of water.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is: C. rocks, weathering.

Weathering is the process by which rocks are broken down into smaller pieces. This can happen through physical weathering, such as when rocks are broken down by wind or water, or chemical weathering, such as when rocks are dissolved by acids. The products of weathering, such as sand and gravel, are a major source of sediments for erosion. Erosion is the process by which sediments are moved from one place to another, usually by wind or water.

Option A is incorrect because deposition is the process by which sediments are deposited, not the process by which they are formed. Option B is incorrect because weathering is the process by which rocks are broken down, not the process by which they are deposited. Option D is incorrect because rocks are not the only source of sediments for erosion. Sediments can also be formed from the remains of plants and animals.

The correct answer is: D. Zinc

Galvanizing is a process of applying a protective zinc coating to iron or steel. This coating helps to prevent the metal from rusting and corroding. Zinc is the most common metal used for galvanizing, as it is highly resistant to corrosion.

Lead is not a good choice for galvanizing, as it is not as resistant to corrosion as zinc. Aluminium is also not a good choice, as it is not as strong as zinc. Copper is a good conductor of electricity, but it is not as strong as zinc and is more expensive.

Therefore, the best metal to use for galvanizing is zinc.

The Nehru Trophy is an annual international field hockey tournament held in India. It is named after Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India. The tournament was first held in 1952 and is currently contested by eight teams from India and other Asian countries. The Nehru Trophy is one of the most prestigious field hockey tournaments in the world.

The Nehru Trophy is a round-robin tournament, with each team playing each other once. The top four teams at the end of the round-robin stage advance to the semi-finals. The winners of the semi-finals meet in the final, while the losers play in the third-place match.

The Nehru Trophy has been won by a number of different teams over the years. India has won the tournament a record 23 times, followed by Pakistan (11 times), Malaysia (5 times), and Australia (3 times).

The Nehru Trophy is a major event in the Indian sporting calendar. It is a popular event with both spectators and players. The tournament is seen as a showcase for the best field hockey players in India and Asia.

The Nehru Trophy is a prestigious tournament that is held in high regard by the Indian hockey community. It is a tournament that is rich in history and tradition. The Nehru Trophy is a tournament that is sure to continue to be a major event in the Indian sporting calendar for many years to come.

Option A: Hockey is the correct answer. The Nehru Trophy is an annual international field hockey tournament held in India. It is named after Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India. The tournament was first held in 1952 and is currently contested by eight teams from India and other Asian countries. The Nehru Trophy is one of the most prestigious field hockey tournaments in the world.

Option B: Football is incorrect. The Nehru Trophy is not a football tournament.

Option C: Kabaddi is incorrect. The Nehru Trophy is not a kabaddi tournament.

Option D: Table Tennis(woman) is incorrect. The Nehru Trophy is not a table tennis tournament.

The odd word in the given alternatives is "fraternity".

The other three words, "liberty", "society", and "equality", are all related to the concept of freedom. Liberty is the state of being free from restrictions or control. Society is a group of people who live together in a community. Equality is the state of being equal, especially in status, rights, and opportunities.

Fraternity, on the other hand, is a feeling of brotherly love or friendship. It is not directly related to the concept of freedom.

In conclusion, the odd word in the given alternatives is "fraternity".

The correct answer is B. Pandu Rajar Dhibi.

Pandu Rajar Dhibi is a Neolithic site located in the Birbhum district of West Bengal, India. It is one of the earliest known settlements in the region and is famous for its polished stone tools and pottery. The site was first excavated in 1956 by the Archaeological Survey of India and has since been the subject of several more excavations.

The site is located on a low-lying terrace on the banks of the Damodar River. It covers an area of about 10 hectares and is divided into two main parts: the habitation area and the burial ground. The habitation area is characterized by a series of circular and oval pits, which are thought to have been used as houses. The burial ground is located to the south of the habitation area and contains a number of graves, which have been dated to the Neolithic period.

The most significant finds from Pandu Rajar Dhibi are the polished stone tools and pottery. The stone tools are made from a variety of materials, including chert, chalcedony, and quartz. They include a variety of types of tools, such as axes, chisels, and knives. The pottery is also made from a variety of materials, including clay, terracotta, and stone. It includes a variety of types of vessels, such as bowls, jars, and cups.

The finds from Pandu Rajar Dhibi provide valuable insights into the early history of West Bengal. They show that the region was inhabited by a Neolithic people who were skilled in the manufacture of stone tools and pottery. The site is also important because it provides evidence of the earliest known contact between the people of West Bengal and the people of the Indus Valley Civilization.

The other options are incorrect because they are not Neolithic sites in West Bengal. Tamluk is a Buddhist site, Chandraketugarh is a Gupta-era site, and Mayapur is a modern-day religious site.

The correct answer is: A. Intellectual

An intellectual is a person who engages in critical thinking, research, and scholarship in an area of knowledge. Intellectuals are often seen as being more intelligent and cultured than the average person. They may be involved in academia, journalism, or other fields that require a high level of education and expertise.

An aristocrat is a member of a social class that is considered to be superior to others because of their wealth, power, or social status. Aristocrats often have a strong sense of entitlement and believe that they are better than others.

An elite is a group of people who are considered to be the best or most important in a particular field or area. The elite may be made up of the most talented, successful, or wealthy people in a society.

A highbrow is a person who is considered to be sophisticated and cultured. Highbrows are often interested in the arts, literature, and other forms of high culture. They may be seen as being snobbish or pretentious by some people.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "A person claiming to be superior in culture and intellect to others" is A. Intellectual.

The correct answer is A. Power.

Power is the rate at which energy is transferred or converted. It is measured in watts, which are joules per second. The higher the power, the faster the energy is transferred.

Option B, watt, is a unit of power. It is equal to one joule per second.

Option C, volt, is a unit of electric potential. It is equal to the work done per unit charge in moving a charge from one point to another.

Option D, potential, is a measure of the ability of a system to do work. It is often used to refer to the electric potential, which is the work done per unit charge in moving a charge from one point to another.

The correct answer is A) Dhaka, Bangladesh.

Dhakai Jamdani is a type of muslin saree that is known for its intricate weaving. It is believed to have originated in Dhaka, Bangladesh, during the Mughal period. The saree is made from a fine, sheer fabric that is often decorated with gold and silver thread. It is considered to be one of the most luxurious and beautiful sarees in the world.

The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to regions where Dhakai Jamdani is made. Murshidabad is a district in West Bengal, India, where another type of muslin saree, known as Murshidabadi muslin, is made. Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh, India, where a type of silk saree, known as Banarasi silk, is made. Kanchipuram is a city in Tamil Nadu, India, where a type of cotton saree, known as Kanchipuram cotton, is made.

The correct answer is A. floor crossing.

Floor crossing is the act of a member of a legislature leaving their party to join another party. It is often done for political expediency, such as to gain a position of power or influence. Floor crossing can also be done for ideological reasons, such as when a member believes that their party has become too extreme or corrupt.

Floor crossing is a controversial issue, as it can undermine the stability of a government and lead to a loss of public confidence in the political system. However, it is also a legitimate form of political expression, and it is protected by freedom of speech laws in many countries.

The other options are incorrect.

• B. Fourth estate is a term used to describe the press, as it is seen as a separate and independent branch of government that acts as a watchdog over the other branches.
• C. Fifth column is a term used to describe a group of people who are secretly working to undermine a country from within.
• D. Free ports are ports that are not subject to customs duties or other restrictions.

The correct answer is: B. west

Rain is falling vertically downwards. To a man running east-wards, the rain will appear to be coming from west because the man is moving towards the east and the rain is falling vertically downwards. The rain will appear to be coming from the west because the man is moving towards the east and the rain is falling vertically downwards. The man is moving towards the east, so the rain will appear to be coming from the west.

Option A is incorrect because the man is moving towards the east and the rain is falling vertically downwards. The man is not moving towards the west, so the rain will not appear to be coming from the east.

Option C is incorrect because the man is moving towards the east and the rain is falling vertically downwards. The man is not moving towards the northeast, so the rain will not appear to be coming from the northeast.

Option D is incorrect because the man is moving towards the east and the rain is falling vertically downwards. The man is not moving towards the southeast, so the rain will not appear to be coming from the southeast.

The correct answer is A. M.S. Dhoni.

In March 2008, India played a tri-series ODI tournament against Australia and New Zealand. India won the tournament, defeating Australia in the final. The Indian team was captained by M.S. Dhoni.

Anil Kumble was the Indian team's coach at the time. Rahul Dravid was the Indian team's vice-captain. Saurav Ganguly had retired from international cricket in 2007. Sachin Tendulkar was a member of the Indian team, but he was not the captain.

M.S. Dhoni was appointed the captain of the Indian cricket team in 2007. He led India to victory in the 2011 Cricket World Cup, and he is considered to be one of the greatest captains in the history of Indian cricket.

The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of West Bengal is 28, which is lower than the national average of 34.6

The correct answer is B. Storm.

A sudden fall of atmospheric pressure indicates a storm is coming. This is because the air pressure drops as the storm approaches. The lower air pressure causes the wind to pick up and the clouds to thicken. The storm may bring rain, snow, or hail.

Option A is incorrect because fair weather is usually associated with high air pressure.

Option C is incorrect because rain is not always associated with a sudden fall in air pressure. Rain can occur in any weather condition, including fair weather.

Option D is incorrect because cold weather is not always associated with a sudden fall in air pressure. Cold weather can occur in any weather condition, including fair weather.

The missing term is 101.

The sequence is a list of numbers where each number is formed by adding the previous two numbers. So, the first number is 11, and the second number is 10, which is formed by adding 11 and 1. The third number is 101, which is formed by adding 10 and 11. The fourth number is 100, which is formed by adding 101 and 10. The fifth number is 1001, which is formed by adding 100 and 101. The sixth number is 1000, which is formed by adding 1001 and 100. The seventh number is 10001, which is formed by adding 1000 and 1001.

Option A, 101, is the correct answer because it is formed by adding the previous two numbers, 10 and 11.

Option B, 110, is not the correct answer because it is not formed by adding the previous two numbers.

Option C, 111, is not the correct answer because it is not formed by adding the previous two numbers.

Option D, None of these, is not the correct answer because there is a missing term in the sequence, and 101 is the correct answer.

The building of Calcutta High Court was architected by Walter Granville. The architecture is based on the model of Stadt-Haus or which is also known as Cloth Hall of Belgium.

The correct answer is: A. Lalitaditya Muktapida.

Lalitaditya Muktapida was the founder of the Karkota dynasty in Kashmir. He was a powerful ruler who expanded his kingdom to include much of northern India. He was also a patron of the arts and literature.

Durlabahaka was a king of the Karkota dynasty who ruled after Lalitaditya Muktapida. He was not as successful as his predecessor and was eventually overthrown by his son, Durlabhvardhana.

Durlabhvardhana was the son of Durlabahaka and the last ruler of the Karkota dynasty. He was overthrown by the Utpala dynasty in the early 9th century.

The Karkota dynasty was a powerful dynasty that ruled Kashmir from the 7th to the 9th centuries. They were known for their military prowess and their patronage of the arts and literature.

The correct answer is: B) Malda.

Bangarh is an archaeological site in Malda district, West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Mahananda River, about 150 kilometers from Kolkata. The site was first excavated in 1926-27 by the Archaeological Survey of India. Excavations have revealed evidence of human habitation from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. The site is best known for its Buddhist stupas and monasteries.

The ancient city of Kotivarsha was located at Bangarh. Kotivarsha was the capital of the Pundravardhana kingdom. The kingdom was ruled by the Gupta dynasty from the 4th to the 6th centuries CE.

The other options are incorrect because:

* Murshidabad is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 200 kilometers from Kolkata. The district is known for its historical monuments, including the Hazarduari Palace and the Katra Mosque.
* Nadia is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Ganges River, about 100 kilometers from Kolkata. The district is known for its temples, including the Dakshineswar Kali Temple and the Tarapith Temple.
* North Dinajpur is a district in West Bengal, India. It is located on the banks of the Mahananda River, about 300 kilometers from Kolkata. The district is known for its tea gardens and its wildlife sanctuaries, including the Buxa Tiger Reserve.

The correct answer is Patrick Roy. He has 551 career wins.

Grant Fuhr is a Canadian former professional ice hockey goaltender who played 19 seasons in the National Hockey League (NHL) for the Edmonton Oilers, Los Angeles Kings, St. Louis Blues, Buffalo Sabres, and Calgary Flames. He is the Oilers' all-time leader in wins (310), games played (463), and shutouts (50). Fuhr was inducted into the Hockey Hall of Fame in 2003.

Patrick Roy is a Canadian former professional ice hockey goaltender who played 22 seasons in the National Hockey League (NHL) for the Montreal Canadiens, Colorado Avalanche, and New Jersey Devils. He is the NHL's all-time leader in wins (551), games played (1,029), and shutouts (104). Roy was inducted into the Hockey Hall of Fame in 1999.

Chris Osgood is a Canadian former professional ice hockey goaltender who played 17 seasons in the National Hockey League (NHL) for the Detroit Red Wings, St. Louis Blues, and New York Islanders. He is the Red Wings' all-time leader in wins (401), games played (744), and shutouts (55). Osgood was inducted into the Hockey Hall of Fame in 2017.

Mike Vernon is a Canadian former professional ice hockey goaltender who played 22 seasons in the National Hockey League (NHL) for the Detroit Red Wings, Calgary Flames, San Jose Sharks, and Tampa Bay Lightning. He is the Flames' all-time leader in wins (314), games played (513), and shutouts (40). Vernon was inducted into the Hockey Hall of Fame in 2011.

The correct answer is (b).

Section 357B of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013. This section provides for the treatment of the victim of a crime. The section states that the police shall, as soon as possible after receiving information about the commission of a cognizable offence, provide the victim with the following facilities:

• Medical treatment
• Counselling
• Financial assistance
• Legal aid
• Protection from the accused

The section also states that the police shall take all necessary steps to ensure that the victim is not harassed or intimidated by the accused or any other person.

Section 357B is an important provision that seeks to protect the rights of the victim of a crime. It is a step in the right direction towards ensuring that victims of crime are treated with dignity and respect.

The other options are incorrect. Section 198B deals with the power of the court to take cognizance of an offence on a complaint made by a public servant. Section 357C deals with the power of the court to direct the accused to pay compensation to the victim.

The correct answer is: C. Silsilahs.

A silsilah () is a Sufi order or chain of spiritual transmission. It is a lineage of teachers and disciples, each of whom has been initiated into the order by their predecessor. The silsilah is said to be a living tradition, passed down from master to disciple over the generations.

The silsilah is an important part of Sufi practice. It provides a framework for spiritual development, and it helps to connect Sufis to their spiritual heritage. The silsilah also provides a sense of community and belonging for Sufis.

There are many different silsilahs in the world, each with its own unique teachings and practices. Some of the most well-known silsilahs include the Naqshbandi, Chishti, and Suhrawardi silsilahs.

Khangahs, Qalandars, and Darveshs are all terms that are sometimes used to refer to Sufis. However, they do not have the same meaning as silsilah.

A khangah is a Sufi lodge or monastery. It is a place where Sufis can live and practice their religion. Qalandars are a type of Sufi who live a wandering, ascetic lifestyle. Darveshs are a type of Sufi who are known for their poverty and humility.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Different Sufi schools or orders in India were known as" is C. Silsilahs.

The correct answer is: A. Agra Fort

The Agra Fort is a 16th-century Mughal palace fort located in Agra, India. It was commissioned by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1565 and was completed by his son, Jahangir, in 1608. The fort is one of the most popular tourist destinations in India and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The fort is rectangular in shape and is surrounded by a moat. It has four main gates, each of which is decorated with intricate carvings and inlay work. The fort is also home to a number of palaces, mosques, and other buildings.

The Agra Fort is said to possess the unique feature of being exactly equal in length and breath. This is because the fort was built on a square grid, with each side of the fort being the same length. This unique feature makes the Agra Fort one of the most distinctive Mughal buildings in India.

The other options are incorrect because they are not rectangular in shape. The Red Fort is a pentagonal fort, the Taj Mahal is an octagonal tomb, and the Buland Darwaza is a gateway.

The correct answer is B. 4000.

The resistance of a wire is given by the equation $R = frac{rho L}{A}$, where $rho$ is the resistivity of the material, $L$ is the length of the wire, and $A$ is the cross-sectional area of the wire. In this case, we are given that $rho = 200 Omega cdot m$, $L = 20 m$, and $A = 1 text{ cm}^2 = 10^{-4} text{ m}^2$. Substituting these values into the equation, we get $R = frac{200 Omega cdot m cdot 20 m}{10^{-4} text{ m}^2} = 4000 Omega$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the resistance of a wire with a length of 40 m, not 20 m. Option C is incorrect because it is the resistance of a wire with a cross-sectional area of 80 cm$^2$, not 1 cm$^2$. Option D is incorrect because it is the resistance of a wire with a resistivity of 2000 $Omega cdot m$, not 200 $Omega cdot m$.

The correct answer is: C. erratic

The word "erratic" means "not regular or consistent; unpredictable." This is the best description of how time can seem during wartime. At one moment, the war can seem to drag on forever, and at another moment, it can seem to have passed in the blink of an eye. This is because wartime is a time of great upheaval and change, and it can be difficult to keep track of time when everything is constantly changing.

The other options are not as accurate descriptions of how time can seem during wartime. The word "misleading" means "giving a false or misleading impression." This is not an accurate description of how time can seem during wartime, because time does not actually change during wartime. The word "whimsical" means "governed by caprice or impulse; unpredictable." This is not an accurate description of how time can seem during wartime, because time is not actually governed by caprice or impulse. The word "unpredictable" is similar to the word "erratic," but it is not as specific. The word "unpredictable" can be used to describe anything that is not certain to happen, while the word "erratic" is specifically used to describe something that is not regular or consistent.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: C. erratic

The correct answer is C. the.

The article "the" is used before a noun to refer to a specific thing that has already been mentioned or is known to the listener or reader. In this case, the speaker has already mentioned that they live in an apartment, so the listener or reader knows that they are talking about a specific apartment. Therefore, the article "the" is used to refer to that specific apartment.

The article "a" is used before a noun to refer to a general thing or to a thing that is not specific. In this case, the speaker is not talking about a general apartment or an apartment that is not specific, so the article "a" is not used.

The article "an" is used before a noun that begins with a vowel sound. In this case, the noun "apartment" does not begin with a vowel sound, so the article "an" is not used.

The answer "none of the above" is not correct because the article "the" is the only article that can be used in this sentence.

The correct answer is Sachin Tendulkar. He was declared as the ICC Cricketer of the 20th Century in 2000. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of cricket. He is the leading run-scorer of all time in international cricket, and the only player to have scored more than 30,000 runs in both Test and One Day International (ODI) cricket. He is also the only player to have scored 100 international centuries, and the only player to have scored a double century in a One Day International.

Kapil Dev is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest all-rounders in the history of the game. He is the only Indian cricketer to have taken more than 400 wickets in Test cricket, and he is also the only Indian cricketer to have scored more than 5,000 runs in Test cricket. He was the captain of the Indian team that won the 1983 Cricket World Cup.

Rahul Dravid is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of the game. He is the only Indian batsman to have scored more than 13,000 runs in Test cricket, and he is also the only Indian batsman to have scored more than 10,000 runs in One Day International cricket. He was the captain of the Indian team that won the 2011 Cricket World Cup.

Anil Kumble is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest bowlers in the history of the game. He is the only Indian bowler to have taken more than 600 wickets in Test cricket, and he is also the only Indian bowler to have taken more than 300 wickets in One Day International cricket. He was the captain of the Indian team that won the 2007 ICC World Twenty20.

The correct answer is C) Monsoon.

The monsoon is the wet season in West Bengal, India. It is caused by the seasonal reversal of the Indian Ocean's surface winds. The monsoon winds blow from the southwest during the summer months, bringing moisture-laden air from the Indian Ocean. This moisture falls as rain over West Bengal, causing the annual rainfall to peak during the monsoon season.

The winter season in West Bengal is dry, with little rainfall. The summer season is hot and humid, with some rainfall. The post-monsoon season is a transition period between the monsoon and winter seasons, with moderate rainfall.

Here is a table showing the average monthly rainfall in Kolkata, West Bengal:

| Month | Rainfall (mm) |
|---|---|
| January | 6.4 |
| February | 10.2 |
| March | 19.1 |
| April | 31.8 |
| May | 59.7 |
| June | 165.1 |
| July | 307.4 |
| August | 334.1 |
| September | 192.3 |
| October | 137.4 |
| November | 67.9 |
| December | 25.4 |

As you can see, the monsoon season (June-September) receives the majority of the annual rainfall in Kolkata.

The correct answer is C. Tughlaqabad.

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He was the third sultan of the Delhi Sultanate, and he ruled from 1320 to 1325. He was a powerful and ambitious ruler, and he expanded the Delhi Sultanate to its greatest extent. He also founded the city of Tughlaqabad, which was the third city of Delhi.

Farukkhabad was founded by Firuz Shah Tughluq, the fifth sultan of the Tughlaq dynasty. It was located in the present-day state of Uttar Pradesh, India. Firuzabad was a prosperous city, and it was the capital of the Tughlaq dynasty for a time.

Firozabad was founded by Firuz Shah Tughluq, the fifth sultan of the Tughlaq dynasty. It was located in the present-day state of Uttar Pradesh, India. Firuzabad was a prosperous city, and it was the capital of the Tughlaq dynasty for a time.

None of the above is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is (b).

The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college comprising all the members of both Houses of Parliament. The electoral college consists of elected members of both Houses of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President is elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The voting is done by secret ballot. The candidate who secures a majority of the votes polled is elected as the Vice-President.

Option (a) is incorrect because it only includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament. The electoral college also includes nominated members of Rajya Sabha.

Option (c) is incorrect because it only includes elected members of Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies. The electoral college does not include nominated members of Rajya Sabha or State Assemblies.

Option (d) is incorrect because it only includes elected members of State Assemblies. The electoral college does not include nominated members of State Assemblies.

The correct answer is (b). Jhumpa Lahiri is a writer, not an actress.

Deepak Chopra is a physician and alternative medicine advocate.

Sunita Williams is an American astronaut.

Zubin Mehta is an Indian conductor.

The correct answer is A) Hooghly River.

The Hooghly River is a distributary of the Ganges River in eastern India. It is the main river in West Bengal and is a major transportation artery for the region. The Hooghly River is also a major source of irrigation and drinking water for West Bengal.

The Damodar River is a river in eastern India. It is a major tributary of the Ganges River. The Damodar River is a major source of hydroelectric power for India.

The Teesta River is a river in northeastern India and Bangladesh. It is the main river in the Teesta basin. The Teesta River is a major source of irrigation and drinking water for the region.

The Subarnarekha River is a river in eastern India. It is a major tributary of the Brahmani River. The Subarnarekha River is a major source of irrigation and drinking water for the region.

The Hooghly River is the most important waterway in West Bengal because it is the main river in the region and is a major transportation artery. The Hooghly River is also a major source of irrigation and drinking water for West Bengal.

The correct answer is (a).

The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is a law that allows people of any religion to marry each other. It is a secular law, which means that it is not based on any particular religion. The Act provides for a simple and uniform procedure for marriage, and it also provides for the registration of marriages.

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is a law that governs marriages between Hindus. It is a religious law, and it is based on the Hindu scriptures. The Act provides for a number of requirements that must be met in order for a Hindu marriage to be valid.

The Muslim Law is a set of laws that govern the personal affairs of Muslims. It is a religious law, and it is based on the Quran and the Sunnah. The Muslim Law does not allow a Muslim woman to marry a non-Muslim man.

The Christian Marriage Act, 1872 is a law that governs marriages between Christians. It is a religious law, and it is based on the Bible. The Act provides for a number of requirements that must be met in order for a Christian marriage to be valid.

In conclusion, a Muslim female can perform a valid marriage with a non-Muslim under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.

The correct answer is (b), Justice M. B. Shah.

Justice M. B. Shah was the head of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) formed by the Government of India on black money. The SIT was formed in 2014 to investigate black money cases and to recommend measures to curb the generation and circulation of black money in the country.

Justice Shah was a retired Supreme Court judge who had a long and distinguished career in the judiciary. He was known for his integrity and his commitment to justice. He was also a strong advocate of judicial reforms.

The SIT was a high-powered body with a mandate to investigate black money cases across the country. It had the power to summon witnesses, to seize documents, and to conduct raids. The SIT also had the power to recommend prosecution of those found guilty of black money offences.

The SIT has made significant progress in its investigations. It has filed charge sheets in several cases and has also recovered a large amount of black money. The SIT's work has been instrumental in bringing black money to light and in helping the government to take action against those who have been involved in its generation and circulation.

The SIT's work has been widely appreciated. It has been praised for its professionalism and its commitment to justice. The SIT's work has also been instrumental in raising awareness about the problem of black money and in helping the government to take action against it.

The SIT's work is ongoing. It is continuing to investigate black money cases and to recommend measures to curb the generation and circulation of black money in the country. The SIT's work is essential to the fight against black money and to the achievement of the government's goal of making India a corruption-free society.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Justice H. L. Dattu is a retired Supreme Court judge who was the Chief Justice of India from 2015 to 2017. He is not the head of the SIT.

(c) Justice Altamas Kabir is a retired Supreme Court judge who was the Chief Justice of India from 2012 to 2013. He is not the head of the SIT.

(d) Justice Raj Mani Chauhan is a retired Supreme Court judge who was the Chief Justice of the Punjab and Haryana High Court from 2007 to 2010. He is not the head of the SIT.

The correct answer is: C. fifteen centuries.

The ancient Olympic Games were held every four years for over 1,000 years, from 776 BC to 393 AD. They were banned by the Roman Emperor Theodosius I in 393 AD, who considered them to be a pagan festival. The modern Olympic Games were first held in 1896 in Athens, Greece.

The ancient Olympic Games were a religious festival held in Olympia, Greece, from 776 BC to 393 AD. The games were held every four years, and they were the most important sporting event in ancient Greece. The games were open to all free male citizens of Greece, and they included a variety of events, such as running, jumping, wrestling, and chariot racing.

The ancient Olympic Games were banned by the Roman Emperor Theodosius I in 393 AD. Theodosius was a Christian, and he considered the games to be a pagan festival. The ban on the games marked the end of the ancient Olympic Games, and it would be 1,500 years before the games were revived.

The modern Olympic Games were first held in 1896 in Athens, Greece. The games were revived by Pierre de Coubertin, a French educator and historian. Coubertin believed that the games would promote international peace and understanding. The first modern Olympic Games included 245 athletes from 14 countries, and they featured a variety of events, such as track and field, gymnastics, and swimming.

The modern Olympic Games have been held every four years since 1896, except during World War I and World War II. The games have grown significantly since their inception, and they now include athletes from over 200 countries. The games have also become a major commercial event, and they are now one of the most watched sporting events in the world.

When a body falls from an aeroplane, there is an increase in its kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. As the body falls, it gains speed, and therefore its kinetic energy increases. The other options are incorrect. Mass is a measure of how much matter is in an object. It does not change when an object falls. Acceleration is the rate at which an object's speed changes. The acceleration of an object in free fall is constant, regardless of its mass. Potential energy is the energy that an object has due to its position or state. The potential energy of an object in free fall increases as it falls, but this increase is offset by the increase in kinetic energy.

The correct answer is C. Writ of Mandamus.

A writ of mandamus is a court order issued to a government official or other public authority, compelling the official to take a certain action or to refrain from taking a certain action. The writ is used to compel the performance of a ministerial duty, which is a duty that is clearly defined and must be carried out in a certain way.

A writ of certiorari is a court order that orders a lower court to send up the record of a case for review. The writ is used to review a lower court's decision to see if it was correct.

A writ of habeas corpus is a court order that orders a person to be brought before a court to determine whether they are being held lawfully. The writ is used to protect people from being held in prison or other detention without being charged with a crime or being given a fair trial.

A writ of quo warranto is a court order that asks a person to show by what authority they are holding a certain office or position. The writ is used to challenge the right of a person to hold an office or position.

In the case of the question, the correct answer is C. Writ of Mandamus because the writ is used to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing.

The correct answer is (b). The 18th SAARC summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal from November 22-24, 2014. The theme of the summit was "Deeper Integration for a Prosperous South Asia." The summit was attended by the heads of state or government of the eight member states of SAARC: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Afghanistan. The summit was a success, with the leaders of the member states agreeing to a number of important initiatives, including the establishment of a SAARC Development Fund and the launch of a SAARC Free Trade Agreement.

(a) India is not the correct answer because the 18th SAARC summit was not held in India. The 18th SAARC summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal.

(c) Nepal is the correct answer because the 18th SAARC summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal.

(d) Pakistan is not the correct answer because the 18th SAARC summit was not held in Pakistan. The 18th SAARC summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal.

The correct answer is: A. will be the first to leave the industry, if the price falls.

A marginal firm is a firm that is operating at a loss. If the price of the good or service that the firm produces falls, the firm will continue to produce as long as the revenue from selling the good or service is greater than the variable costs of production. However, if the price falls below the variable costs of production, the firm will not be able to cover its costs and will have to shut down.

A firm that is operating at a loss is said to be "marginal" because it is on the margin of profitability. If the price falls, the firm will be the first to leave the industry because it is the firm that is least able to withstand a decline in price.

Option B is incorrect because a firm that is making a profit will not leave the industry, even if the price falls. Option C is incorrect because a firm that is making a profit will not reduce its price, unless it is forced to do so by competition. Option D is incorrect because a marginal firm is not the only type of firm that will leave the industry if the price falls. All firms that are operating at a loss will leave the industry if the price falls.

The correct answer is: B) Highly industrialized states.

Overfishing is the removal of a large percentage of fish from a particular population. This can have a number of negative consequences, including:

* Depleting the fish population, which can lead to the extinction of some species.
* Disrupting the marine food web, which can have knock-on effects on other marine life.
* Damaging the marine environment, through the use of destructive fishing practices such as bottom trawling.

Highly industrialized states are particularly vulnerable to overfishing, as they often have large populations and high levels of demand for seafood. This can lead to overfishing in coastal areas, as well as in international waters.

In addition, highly industrialized states often have poor environmental regulations, which can allow for the use of destructive fishing practices. This can further damage the marine environment and exacerbate the problem of overfishing.

The other options are incorrect because:

* West Bengal is a state in India, and is not a highly industrialized state.
* Desert areas are not typically home to large populations of fish, and are therefore not at risk of overfishing.
* Mountainous regions are also not typically home to large populations of fish, and are therefore not at risk of overfishing.

The correct answer is D. No maximum period.

A financial emergency can be proclaimed by the President of India if he is satisfied that a grave financial emergency exists whereby the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. The proclamation of a financial emergency has the effect of suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

The President can revoke the proclamation of a financial emergency at any time. However, the proclamation of a financial emergency can continue for a period of one year from the date of its commencement, unless it is approved by both Houses of Parliament within that period. If the proclamation is approved by both Houses of Parliament, it can continue for a further period of one year, and so on.

In other words, there is no maximum period for which a financial emergency can be proclaimed. However, the President must obtain the approval of both Houses of Parliament every year for the continuation of the financial emergency.

The answer is $boxed{113}$.

The sequence is $6, 13, 28, 59, 113, 198, dots$. Each term is the sum of the previous two terms.

Option A, $111$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two terms.

Option B, $113$, is correct because it is the sum of the previous two terms, $59$ and $28$.

Option C, $114$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two terms.

Option D, $122$, is incorrect because it is not the sum of the previous two terms.

The correct answer is Stephen Hawking.

Stephen Hawking was a theoretical physicist, cosmologist, and author who was director of research at the Centre for Theoretical Cosmology at the University of Cambridge at the time of his death. He was the Lucasian Professor of Mathematics at the University of Cambridge between 1979 and 2009. His book A Brief History of Time was a bestseller and has sold more than 25 million copies in 40 different languages.

Isaac Newton was an English physicist and mathematician who is considered one of the most influential scientists of all time. He is best known for his laws of motion and universal gravitation, which formed the basis of classical mechanics.

Hans Bethe was a German-American theoretical physicist who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1967 for his work on the nuclear reactions that power stars.

Albert Einstein was a German-born theoretical physicist who developed the theory of relativity, one of the two pillars of modern physics (alongside quantum mechanics). He is best known for his mass–energy equivalence formula E = mc2, which has been dubbed "the world's most famous equation".

The correct answer is: A. PQRS

The sentence is about the legal right of a tenant to the possession of their room. The first clause, "One has no right in law," states the main point of the sentence. The second clause, "of a tenant's room," provides more information about the right that is being discussed. The third clause, "to break open the lock," describes an action that would violate the tenant's right. The fourth clause, "and take its possession," completes the description of the action that would violate the tenant's right.

The other options are incorrect because they do not follow the logical order of the clauses. Option B, PRQS, puts the clause "to break open the lock" before the clause "of a tenant's room." This is illogical because the action of breaking open the lock cannot occur without first having a tenant's room. Option C, PRSQ, puts the clause "and take its possession" before the clause "to break open the lock." This is also illogical because the action of taking possession cannot occur without first breaking open the lock. Option D, SQRP, puts the clause "of a tenant's room" before the clause "One has no right in law." This is illogical because the right that is being discussed cannot be understood without first understanding the person who has the right.

The correct answer is: **C) Coastal areas**.

Soil erosion is the process of the topsoil being removed from the land by natural or human-caused forces. It is a major agricultural challenge in coastal areas because it can lead to a loss of fertile land, which is essential for growing crops. Soil erosion can also damage infrastructure, such as roads and buildings, and can pollute waterways.

There are a number of factors that contribute to soil erosion in coastal areas, including:

* **Wind:** Wind can pick up loose soil and carry it away, especially during storms.
* **Water:** Rain and waves can wash away soil, especially if the land is not properly protected.
* **Human activities:** Activities such as deforestation, agriculture, and construction can all contribute to soil erosion.

There are a number of things that can be done to prevent soil erosion in coastal areas, including:

* **Planting trees:** Trees help to hold the soil in place and prevent it from being washed away.
* **Using cover crops:** Cover crops are plants that are grown between rows of crops to help prevent soil erosion.
* **Terracing:** Terraces are built on hillsides to help slow down the flow of water and prevent soil erosion.
* **Contour farming:** Contour farming is a method of farming that follows the contours of the land to help prevent soil erosion.
* **No-till farming:** No-till farming is a method of farming that does not involve tilling the soil, which helps to keep the soil in place.
* **Water conservation:** Water conservation helps to reduce the amount of water that is used for irrigation, which can help to prevent soil erosion.

Soil erosion is a serious problem that can have a significant impact on the environment and the economy. By taking steps to prevent soil erosion, we can help to protect our land and our resources for future generations.

The correct answer is D. Einstein : Television.

Mulder is a scientist who discovered proteins. Curie is a scientist who discovered radium. Becquerel is a scientist who discovered radioactivity. Einstein is a scientist who developed the theory of relativity. Television is a device that allows people to watch moving images.

The relationship between Mulder and proteins is that Mulder discovered proteins. The relationship between Curie and radium is that Curie discovered radium. The relationship between Becquerel and radioactivity is that Becquerel discovered radioactivity. However, the relationship between Einstein and television is not that Einstein discovered television. Einstein developed the theory of relativity, which is a theory of gravity. Television is a device that allows people to watch moving images. Therefore, the relationship between Einstein and television is different from the relationships between Mulder, Curie, and Becquerel and their respective discoveries.

The correct answer is (c) Kerala.

Kerala is a state in India that is known for its high literacy rate, low population growth rate, and high standard of living. It is also one of the most politically stable states in India. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)) has been the ruling party in Kerala since 1957, making it the longest-serving democratically elected communist government in the world.

The CPI(M) was founded in 1964 as a split from the Communist Party of India (CPI). The CPI(M) is a Marxist-Leninist party that advocates for a socialist revolution in India. The party has a strong base of support in Kerala, where it has implemented a number of progressive policies, including land reforms, education reforms, and health reforms.

The CPI(M)'s rule in Kerala has been marked by a number of achievements, including a high standard of living, a low crime rate, and a high literacy rate. However, the party has also been criticized for its authoritarian style of governance and its suppression of dissent.

Despite these criticisms, the CPI(M) remains the most popular political party in Kerala. The party is expected to continue to rule the state for the foreseeable future.

The other options are incorrect because they are not states in India.

The correct answer is: D. had become/was ruling

The 16th century was a time of great expansion for the Austrian Empire. Under the rule of Emperor Charles V, the empire grew to include all of modern Austria, Belgium, the Netherlands, Czechoslovakia, Hungary and Spain as well as parts of Italy and Yugoslavia.

The use of the past perfect tense in the first clause ("had become") indicates that the expansion of the empire was a completed event by the 16th century. The use of the past progressive tense in the second clause ("was ruling") indicates that the emperor was actively ruling over this vast territory at the time.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the time frame or the nature of the emperor's rule.

• Option A ("has become/ruled") is incorrect because it uses the present perfect tense, which would indicate that the expansion of the empire is an ongoing event.
• Option B ("was becoming/has ruled") is incorrect because it uses the past progressive tense in the first clause and the present perfect tense in the second clause. This is a non-standard use of tenses that does not make sense in the context of the question.
• Option C ("was going to become/rule") is incorrect because it uses the future perfect in the first clause and the simple present tense in the second clause. This is also a non-standard use of tenses that does not make sense in the context of the question.
• Option E ("becomes/has been ruling") is incorrect because it uses the present tense in both clauses. This would indicate that the emperor is still ruling over the vast territory of the Austrian Empire, which is not the case.

Utkarsh Abhijan's objective is to monitor improvement in children's learning levels and assess the government education system.

The correct answer is: C. 2 nm to 200 nm.

Viruses are the smallest known life forms. They are so small that they can only be seen with an electron microscope. The size of a virus can vary depending on the type of virus, but most viruses are between 2 and 200 nanometers in diameter.

A nanometer is one billionth of a meter. To put this in perspective, a human hair is about 100,000 nanometers thick.

Viruses are not cells, and they do not have the ability to reproduce on their own. They can only replicate inside the cells of other organisms, which they do by hijacking the cell's reproductive machinery.

Viruses cause a wide range of diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Some of the most well-known viral diseases include the common cold, the flu, chickenpox, measles, and AIDS.

There is no cure for viral infections, but there are treatments that can help to relieve the symptoms and prevent the spread of the virus.

The four options in the question are all possible sizes for viruses. However, the most common size for a virus is between 2 and 200 nanometers. This is because viruses need to be small enough to enter the cells of their hosts, but they also need to be large enough to contain the genetic material that they need to replicate.

Option A is too small for most viruses. Option B is a possible size for some viruses, but it is not the most common size. Option C is the most common size for viruses. Option D is too large for most viruses.

The correct answer is: A. International Year of Freshwater

The United Nations declared 2006 as the International Year of Freshwater to focus attention on the importance of freshwater and to promote the sustainable management of freshwater resources. The year was a success in raising awareness of the issue of freshwater scarcity and in promoting action to address it.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. International Year of World's Indigenous People was declared in 2005.
• C. International Year of Deserts and Desertification was declared in 2006.
• D. International Literacy Year was declared in 1990.

The missing term is T. The sequence is a list of letters that are two places apart on the alphabet, starting with M.

M, N, O, L, R, I, V, T

M is two places before N, N is two places before O, O is two places before L, L is two places before R, R is two places before I, I is two places before V, and V is two places before T.

The answer is $boxed{text{D}}$.

The number series is $93, 309, 434, 498, 521, 533$. The difference between any two consecutive numbers is $116$. However, the difference between $498$ and $521$ is $23$, which is not a multiple of $116$. Therefore, $521$ is the wrong term.

Here is a step-by-step solution:

1. Find the difference between any two consecutive numbers.
2. If the difference is not a multiple of a certain number, then that number is the wrong term.
3. In this case, the difference between $498$ and $521$ is $23$, which is not a multiple of $116$. Therefore, $521$ is the wrong term.

The correct answer is: B. To gain possession of the wealth of India.

Mahmud of Ghazni was a 11th-century Turkic conqueror who invaded India 17 times. His primary motive was to plunder the wealth of India, particularly its gold and jewels. He also sought to spread Islam, but this was a secondary motive.

Option A is incorrect because Mahmud of Ghazni did not have a strong religious motivation. He was not particularly interested in converting Hindus to Islam, and he did not destroy Hindu temples for religious reasons.

Option C is incorrect because Mahmud of Ghazni was not particularly successful in spreading Islam in India. He converted a few Hindus to Islam, but the vast majority of Indians remained Hindu.

Option D is incorrect because Mahmud of Ghazni did not establish a Muslim state in India. He was a conqueror, not a ruler. He did not attempt to establish a permanent presence in India, and he returned to Ghazni after each invasion.

In conclusion, the most important cause of the invasion of Mahmud of Ghazni was to gain possession of the wealth of India.

The correct answer is: Virender Sehwag.

Virender Sehwag became the first Indian to score a triple century in Tests when he scored 304 not out against Pakistan in Multan in 2004. He is also the only Indian batsman to have scored two triple centuries in Tests.

Rahul Dravid is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He is the only batsman to have scored 13,289 runs in Test cricket without scoring a triple century.

Sachin Tendulkar is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as the greatest batsman of all time. He is the leading run-scorer in Test and ODI cricket, and the only batsman to have scored 100 international centuries.

V.V.S. Laxman is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time. He is the only batsman to have scored two double centuries in Test cricket against Australia.

The correct answer is D. O.

Blood group O is the universal donor because it does not have any A or B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. This means that it can be donated to people with any blood type, regardless of their own blood type.

Blood group A has A antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. People with blood type A can only receive blood from people with blood type A or AB.

Blood group B has B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. People with blood type B can only receive blood from people with blood type B or AB.

Blood group AB has both A and B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. People with blood type AB can only receive blood from people with blood type AB.

It is important to note that blood type is determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells. Antigens are proteins that the body's immune system can recognize. If a person receives blood that contains antigens that their body does not recognize, their immune system will attack the blood cells, which can lead to serious health problems.

For this reason, it is important to only receive blood from a donor with the same blood type.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "idea" is a non-count noun, which means it does not have a plural form and does not take a determiner (such as an article) unless it is modified by a word that specifies the kind of idea. In the sentence "That's a good idea," the word "idea" is modified by the adjective "good," so it takes the article "a." However, in the sentence "That's a good idea," the word "idea" is not modified by any adjective, so it does not take an article.

Here are some other examples of non-count nouns:

• water
• sand
• air
• love
• happiness

In each of these examples, the noun does not have a plural form and does not take a determiner unless it is modified by a word that specifies the kind of noun. For example, we can say "I like water" or "I like to swim in the water." However, we cannot say "I like a water" or "I like the water."

I hope this explanation is helpful! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is (a) Vitamin K.

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for blood clotting. It is also involved in bone metabolism and wound healing. Vitamin K is found in green leafy vegetables, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, cauliflower, and liver.

Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for vision, skin, and immune function. It is found in animal products such as liver, eggs, and dairy products, as well as in plant-based foods such as carrots, sweet potatoes, and dark leafy greens.

Vitamin B is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for energy production, metabolism, and nerve function. It is found in a variety of foods, including meat, poultry, fish, eggs, dairy products, legumes, nuts, and seeds.

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the immune system, wound healing, and collagen production. It is found in citrus fruits, berries, tomatoes, broccoli, and leafy green vegetables.

Vitamin K is the only vitamin that is directly involved in blood clotting. It is required for the production of prothrombin, a protein that is essential for the formation of blood clots. Vitamin K deficiency can lead to bleeding problems, such as easy bruising and prolonged bleeding from cuts.

The correct answer is: B. Mahavir Chakra

The Mahavir Chakra is the second highest peacetime gallantry award in India, after the Param Vir Chakra. It is awarded to officers and other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces for conspicuous gallantry in action against the enemy, not involving aerial operations.

The Ashoka Chakra is the highest peacetime gallantry award in India, awarded to officers and other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces for conspicuous gallantry in action against the enemy, not involving aerial operations.

The Vir Chakra is the third highest peacetime gallantry award in India, awarded to officers and other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces for conspicuous gallantry in action against the enemy, not involving aerial operations.

The Shaurya Chakra is the fourth highest peacetime gallantry award in India, awarded to officers and other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces for conspicuous gallantry in action against the enemy, not involving aerial operations.

The Mahavir Chakra is a gallantry award of India, instituted on 26 January 1950. It is the second highest peacetime gallantry award in India, after the Param Vir Chakra. It is awarded to officers and other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces for conspicuous gallantry in action against the enemy, not involving aerial operations. The award is a bronze medal, 35 millimetres in diameter, with a lotus flower in the centre. The obverse bears the effigy of the reigning monarch, and the reverse bears the inscription "Mahavir Chakra" in Devanagari script. The ribbon is of light blue with a central stripe of orange.

The Mahavir Chakra was first awarded on 15 August 1950, to 10 officers and 10 other ranks of the Indian Armed Forces. The most recent recipient of the award is Captain Tushar Mahajan, who was awarded the award posthumously on 26 January 2019.

The primary source of power generation in West Bengal is thermal power. In 2020, thermal power accounted for 72.8% of the state's electricity generation, followed by hydroelectric power (17.6%), solar power (7.9%), and wind power (1.7%).

Thermal power plants generate electricity by burning fossil fuels such as coal, oil, or natural gas. These plants are typically located near coal mines or other sources of fuel. Thermal power plants are the most common type of power plant in the world, and they account for the majority of electricity generation in many countries.

Hydroelectric power plants generate electricity by using the power of moving water. These plants are typically located near rivers or waterfalls. Hydroelectric power is a renewable source of energy, and it is often considered to be a clean source of energy. However, hydroelectric power plants can have a negative impact on the environment, such as by disrupting the flow of rivers and displacing people who live in the area.

Solar power plants generate electricity by using the sun's energy. These plants are typically located in sunny areas. Solar power is a renewable source of energy, and it is often considered to be a clean source of energy. However, solar power plants can be expensive to build and maintain.

Wind power plants generate electricity by using the wind's energy. These plants are typically located in windy areas. Wind power is a renewable source of energy, and it is often considered to be a clean source of energy. However, wind power plants can be expensive to build and maintain.

In conclusion, the primary source of power generation in West Bengal is thermal power. Thermal power plants generate electricity by burning fossil fuels such as coal, oil, or natural gas. These plants are typically located near coal mines or other sources of fuel. Thermal power plants are the most common type of power plant in the world, and they account for the majority of electricity generation in many countries.

The correct answer is (d) Thulma Blanket.

A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. The use of a GI is protected by law in order to prevent misrepresentation of the product's origin and to promote its quality and reputation.

Thulma Blanket is a type of woollen blanket that is made in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India. It is made from the wool of the Gaddi sheep, which are reared in the high altitudes of the Himalayas. The blankets are hand-woven on a traditional loom and are known for their warmth and durability.

Elephant Chilli is a type of chilli pepper that is grown in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is one of the hottest chillies in the world, with a Scoville heat rating of up to 1,000,000 SHU. The chillies are used in a variety of dishes, including curries, chutneys, and pickles.

Judima Wine Rice is a type of rice that is grown in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is a long-grain rice that is known for its aroma and flavor. The rice is used in a variety of dishes, including biryani, pulao, and khichdi.

Mahobas Pan is a type of betel leaf that is grown in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is a large, dark green leaf that is used in the preparation of betel quid. The quid is made by chewing the leaf with areca nut, lime, and other spices.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Thulma Blanket.

The correct answer is: C. The Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930.

On January 26, 1930, the Indian National Congress adopted the Purna Swaraj resolution, declaring India's independence from British rule. This day was subsequently observed as Independence Day by the Congress and its supporters. After India gained independence in 1947, January 26 was chosen as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution. This was done in recognition of the significance of the day in the history of the Indian independence movement.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that January 26 was considered to be an auspicious day. Option B is incorrect because the Quit India Movement was started on August 9, 1942. Option D is incorrect because the Congress did observe January 26 as the Independence Day in 1930.

Mushidabad was the capital of Siraj-ud-Daulah.

The correct answer is B. South Asia Cooperative Environment Programme.

SACEP is a regional intergovernmental organization working for the protection of the environment in South Asia. It was established in 1981 by the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) member states. The organization's headquarters are located in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

SACEP's mission is to promote cooperation among the SAARC member states in the field of environment and sustainable development. The organization works to address a range of environmental issues, including air pollution, water pollution, land degradation, and climate change.

SACEP's activities include:

• Promoting regional cooperation on environmental issues
• Providing technical assistance to member states
• Raising awareness about environmental issues
• Supporting research and development on environmental issues

SACEP is a valuable resource for the SAARC member states in their efforts to protect the environment. The organization's work is helping to improve the quality of life for people in South Asia.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the purpose of SACEP. Option A, South Asia Compatibility Environment Programme, is not a real organization. Option C, South Asia Connectivity Environment Programme, is not a real organization. Option D, South Asia Coercive Environment Programme, is not a real organization.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The Indian Air Force (IAF) has a large and diverse fleet of fighter aircraft, including the following:

• MIG-21 variant: The MIG-21 is a single-engine, supersonic jet fighter that was first introduced in the 1950s. It is the most numerous fighter aircraft in the IAF, with over 800 in service. The MIG-21 has been used in combat in several wars, including the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 and the Kargil War of 1999.
• MIG-23s, MIG-25s, MIG-27s, MIG-29s: The MIG-23, MIG-25, MIG-27, and MIG-29 are all single-engine, supersonic jet fighters that were developed in the Soviet Union. The MIG-23 was first introduced in the 1970s, the MIG-25 in the 1960s, the MIG-27 in the 1970s, and the MIG-29 in the 1980s. All four aircraft have been used in combat by the IAF.
• Jaguars: The Jaguar is a twin-engine, supersonic jet fighter that was developed jointly by India and the United Kingdom. It was first introduced in the 1980s and is used by the IAF for both air-to-air and air-to-ground combat.

The IAF's fighter force is one of the most powerful in the world. It is capable of carrying out a wide range of missions, including air superiority, ground attack, and reconnaissance. The IAF's fighter force is also well-trained and experienced, and has a proven track record in combat.

The correct answer is: A. 1 only

The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is a trade agreement between 12 Pacific Rim countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States, and Vietnam. The agreement was signed in February 2016, but it has not yet been ratified by all of the member countries.

The TPP is a comprehensive agreement that covers a wide range of issues, including trade in goods and services, investment, intellectual property, government procurement, and competition policy. The agreement is designed to reduce tariffs and other barriers to trade, and to promote investment and economic growth in the region.

The TPP has been controversial, with some critics arguing that it will harm American jobs and sovereignty. However, supporters of the agreement argue that it will boost American exports and create jobs.

The TPP is not a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only. It is a trade agreement that covers a wide range of issues.

The correct answer is on.

• On is used to indicate a specific day of the week. For example, "We go to work on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday."
• At is used to indicate a specific time. For example, "We go to work at 9:00 AM."
• In is used to indicate a specific period of time. For example, "We go to work in the morning."
• For is used to indicate a purpose or reason. For example, "We go to work for money."

In the sentence "We do not go for work on Sunday," the word "on" indicates that Sunday is a specific day of the week.

The correct answer is D. The gun recoils with the same momentum as the bullet.

When a bullet is fired from a gun, the expanding gases from the gunpowder push the bullet out of the barrel. This creates a force that acts in the opposite direction of the bullet's motion, causing the gun to recoil. The amount of recoil is equal to the momentum of the bullet, which is calculated by multiplying the mass of the bullet by its velocity.

The recoil of a gun can be significant, and it can be dangerous if it is not controlled. For this reason, gun designers use a variety of techniques to reduce recoil, such as using heavy barrels and recoil-absorbing stocks.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: The gun moves forward. This is not correct, as the gun actually recoils backwards.
• Option B: The gun jumps up. This is not correct, as the gun does not jump up.
• Option C: The gun does not move. This is not correct, as the gun does recoil.
• Option D: The gun recoils with the same momentum as the bullet. This is correct, as the recoil of a gun is equal to the momentum of the bullet.

The correct answer is: A. fungicide.

Zinc sulfide is a white powder that is commonly used as a fungicide. It is effective against a wide range of fungi, including those that cause plant diseases. Zinc sulfide is also used in some cosmetics and sunscreens to protect the skin from the sun's harmful UV rays.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: fungicide. Zinc sulfide is a fungicide, which means it is used to kill fungi. It is effective against a wide range of fungi, including those that cause plant diseases.
• Option B: herbicide. A herbicide is a substance that kills plants. Zinc sulfide is not a herbicide and is not used to kill plants.
• Option C: rodenticide. A rodenticide is a substance that kills rodents. Zinc sulfide is not a rodenticide and is not used to kill rodents.
• Option D: deodorant. Zinc sulfide is not a deodorant and is not used to prevent body odor.

The correct answer is: D. Vardhamana Mahavira.

Vardhamana Mahavira was the 24th Tirthankara, the last of the Jain Tirthankaras. He was born in Kundagrama, a village near Vaishali, in the Indian subcontinent, in the 6th century BCE. He renounced his royal life at the age of 30 and embarked on a life of asceticism. He attained Kaivalya (i.e., the supreme knowledge and final deliverance from the bonds of pleasure and pain) at the age of 42.

Rishabhanath was the first Tirthankara of the Jain tradition. He is said to have lived in the 9th Manvantara, and is credited with establishing the Jain religion.

Aristanemia was the second Tirthankara of the Jain tradition. He is said to have lived in the 10th Manvantara, and is credited with further developing the Jain religion.

Parsva Natha was the 23rd Tirthankara of the Jain tradition. He is said to have lived in the 8th century BCE, and is credited with reviving the Jain religion.

All three of these figures were important religious teachers who had a significant impact on the development of Jainism. However, it was Vardhamana Mahavira who attained Kaivalya, and is therefore considered to be the most important of the three.

The correct answer is: C. Manushi Chillar.

Manushi Chillar was crowned Miss World 2017 on 18 November 2017 at Sanya City Arena in Sanya, China. She is the sixth Indian woman to win the title. She was crowned by outgoing Miss World 2016, Stephanie Del Valle of Puerto Rico.

Chillar is a medical student from Haryana, India. She is fluent in Hindi, English, and Punjabi. She is also a trained classical dancer.

Prior to winning Miss World, Chillar was crowned Miss India 2017. She also won the titles of Miss Photogenic and Miss Talented at the Miss India pageant.

As Miss World, Chillar has traveled extensively and has met with world leaders, including Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India and President Donald Trump of the United States. She has also worked with various charities and organizations, including the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF).

In 2018, Chillar was appointed as a goodwill ambassador for the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA). She has also worked with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Food Programme (WFP).

Chillar is a role model for young women around the world. She is an inspiration to those who aspire to achieve their dreams. She is a strong advocate for education and women's empowerment. She is also a passionate advocate for social justice and human rights.

A. Andrea Meza is the current Miss Universe 2021. She is from Mexico.

B. Rolene Strauss is the Miss World 2014 titleholder from South Africa.

D. Aurore Kichenin is the Miss World 2016 France titleholder.

The correct answer is D. No error.

The sentence "According to the Bible, it is meek and humble who shall inherit the earth" is grammatically correct. The subject of the sentence is "it," which refers to the meek and humble. The verb is "shall inherit," and the object is "the earth." The sentence is also in the correct tense, as it is a statement about a general truth.

Option A, "According to the Bible," is the beginning of the sentence and introduces the topic. Option B, "it is meek and humble," is the subject of the sentence. Option C, "who shall inherit the earth," is the object of the sentence. Option D, "No error," is the correct answer, as there is no grammatical error in the sentence.

The correct answer is: C. The earth rotates from east to west.

The Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours. This rotation causes the Sun, Moon, and stars to appear to move across the sky from east to west.

Option A is incorrect because not all stars move from east to west. The Earth's rotation causes the stars to appear to move across the sky from east to west, but the stars themselves are not actually moving.

Option B is incorrect because the Earth does not rotate from west to east. The Earth rotates from east to west.

Option D is incorrect because the background of the stars does not move. The stars themselves are moving, but the background of the stars is not.

The Neora Valley National Park is located in the Alipurduar district of West Bengal, India. It is a 784 square kilometers (303 sq mi) protected area that was established in 1986. The park is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, rhinoceroses, and deer. It is also a popular destination for birdwatching.

Darjeeling is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the eastern Himalayas and is known for its tea plantations, mountains, and monasteries. The district is also home to the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Jalpaiguri is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the north-eastern part of the state and is bordered by Bhutan and Bangladesh. The district is home to the Jalpaiguri district forest division, which is responsible for managing the forests in the district.

Alipurduar is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the north-eastern part of the state and is bordered by Bhutan and Bangladesh. The district is home to the Neora Valley National Park, which is a protected area that is home to a variety of wildlife.

Kalimpong is a district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located in the north-eastern part of the state and is bordered by Bhutan and Nepal. The district is home to the Kalimpong district forest division, which is responsible for managing the forests in the district.

The correct answer is C. Alipurduar.

Ricky Ponting is an Australian former international cricketer who captained the Australian national team in all three formats of the game. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen of all time.

Ponting was born in Hobart, Tasmania, Australia, on 19 December 1974. He made his Test debut for Australia in 1995 and his One Day International (ODI) debut in 1996. He was appointed captain of the Australian Test team in 2004 and the ODI team in 2005.

Ponting led Australia to victory in the 2003 Cricket World Cup, the 2007 ICC World Twenty20, and the 2009 ICC Champions Trophy. He is the only player to have scored more than 13,000 runs in both Test and ODI cricket. He is also the only player to have scored more than 40 centuries in both formats of the game.

Ponting retired from international cricket in 2012. He is currently a commentator and analyst for Fox Sports.

The correct answer to the question "Cricketer Ricky Ponting belongs to: A. South Africa B. Australia C. England D. New Zealand" is B. Australia.

The correct answer is B. Mirabai.

Mirabai was born into a Rathore royal family of Kudki district of Pali, Rajasthan in the 16th century. She was a Hindu mystic poet and devotee of Krishna. She is considered one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement. Her poems are known for their devotional fervor and their beautiful imagery.

A. Ramananda was a 12th-century Hindu saint and teacher. He is considered the founder of the Ramanandi sect of Hinduism. He is also credited with spreading the Bhakti movement throughout India.

C. Tukaram was a 17th-century Hindu saint and poet. He is considered one of the most important figures in the Varkari sect of Hinduism. His poems are known for their devotional fervor and their simple language.

D. Kabir was a 15th-century Hindu-Muslim mystic poet. He is considered one of the most important figures in the Bhakti movement. His poems are known for their egalitarian message and their rejection of religious dogma.

The correct answer is C. Convex.

A convex lens is a lens that bulges outward at the center. It is thicker at the center than at the edges. Convex lenses are used in magnifying glasses, microscopes, and telescopes.

A concave lens is a lens that curves inward at the center. It is thinner at the center than at the edges. Concave lenses are used in eyeglasses to correct nearsightedness.

A plano-concave lens is a lens that is flat on one side and concave on the other side. It is used in some eyeglasses to correct astigmatism.

None of the above is not a valid answer.

The correct answer is D.

Bumpers are designed to absorb the impact of a collision and keep the occupants safe. When a car hits another car, the bumper crumples, which helps to slow the car down and prevent the occupants from being injured. If bumpers did not collapse, the impact of the collision would be transferred directly to the occupants, which could cause serious injuries or death.

Option A is incorrect because it is not the purpose of bumpers to damage the offending car. The purpose of bumpers is to protect the occupants of the car.

Option B is incorrect because it is not the purpose of bumpers to make it expensive to get the car repaired. The purpose of bumpers is to protect the occupants of the car.

Option C is incorrect because it is not true that the colliding car would then ram into the occupants and kill them. Bumpers are designed to absorb the impact of a collision and keep the occupants safe.

The correct answer is (d), tungsten. Tungsten is a very strong metal that can withstand high temperatures. It is also a good conductor of electricity, which is necessary for an electric bulb to work.

Magnesium is a light metal that is not very strong. It is also not a good conductor of electricity.

Iron is a strong metal, but it is not very good at conducting electricity. It is also not as heat-resistant as tungsten.

Nichrome is a nickel-chromium alloy that is a good conductor of electricity. It is also heat-resistant, but not as much as tungsten.

Tungsten is the best material for the filament of an electric bulb because it is strong, heat-resistant, and a good conductor of electricity.

The correct answer is (c), Netwarh (Uttarkashi).

Duryodhan and Karan are worshipped in Netwarh, a village in Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. The village is located on the banks of the Alaknanda River, about 100 kilometers from the state capital, Dehradun.

The temple of Duryodhan and Karan is located on a hilltop in the village. The temple is said to have been built by the Pandavas, the heroes of the Mahabharata. The Pandavas are said to have worshipped Duryodhan and Karan in order to seek their forgiveness for killing them in the Kurukshetra War.

The temple is a popular pilgrimage destination for Hindus. Devotees from all over the country visit the temple to seek the blessings of Duryodhan and Karan.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) Almora is a city in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. There is no temple of Duryodhan and Karan in Almora.

(b) Champawat is a district in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. There is no temple of Duryodhan and Karan in Champawat.

(d) Srinagar is a city in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. There is no temple of Duryodhan and Karan in Srinagar.

International Museum Day is observed on May 18 every year. It was first initiated by the International Council of Museums (ICOM) in 1977. The day is celebrated to raise awareness of the role of museums in the development of society and to promote their importance in the preservation of cultural heritage.

The theme for International Museum Day 2023 is "The Power of Museums". The theme highlights the role of museums in promoting social inclusion, understanding and cooperation among people. It also emphasizes the importance of museums in preserving and sharing cultural heritage.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: December 11 is the Feast of the Immaculate Conception, a Catholic holiday. It is not a day for celebrating museums.
• Option B: December 20 is the birthday of Nelson Mandela, a South African anti-apartheid revolutionary, political leader and philanthropist who served as President of South Africa from 1994 to 1999. It is not a day for celebrating museums.
• Option C: May 18 is the International Museum Day. It is a day for celebrating museums and their role in society.
• Option D: November 14 is the All Saints' Day, a Christian holiday. It is not a day for celebrating museums.

The correct answer is: A. They lack roots.

Bryophytes are a group of non-vascular plants that lack true roots, stems, and leaves. They are the simplest land plants and are found in moist habitats around the world. Bryophytes reproduce by spores, which are produced in capsules on the sporophyte. The sporophyte is a small, non-photosynthetic plant that is attached to the gametophyte, the photosynthetic plant that produces the spores.

Other green plant groups, such as ferns, mosses, and seed plants, have true roots, stems, and leaves. They also have a vascular system, which is a network of tubes that transports water and nutrients throughout the plant. This allows them to grow larger and live in drier habitats than bryophytes.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• A. They lack roots. Bryophytes do not have true roots. Instead, they have rhizoids, which are thin, thread-like structures that anchor the plant to the ground and absorb water and nutrients.
• B. They lack vascular tissue. Bryophytes do not have a vascular system, which is a network of tubes that transports water and nutrients throughout the plant. This makes them less efficient at transporting water and nutrients than other green plant groups.
• C. They produce spores. Bryophytes reproduce by spores, which are tiny, dust-like reproductive units. Spores are produced in capsules on the sporophyte. The sporophyte is a small, non-photosynthetic plant that is attached to the gametophyte, the photosynthetic plant that produces the spores.
• D. Their sporophytes is attached to gametophyte. The sporophyte of a bryophyte is attached to the gametophyte, the photosynthetic plant that produces the spores. This is because bryophytes do not have a vascular system, which makes it difficult for them to transport water and nutrients from the soil to the sporophyte.

The correct answer is: D. Neither I nor II is strong

Argument I is not strong because it does not provide any evidence that forcing legislators to resign from their profession would actually lead them to devote more time to the country. It is possible that they would simply find other ways to occupy their time, such as taking on additional paid work or pursuing hobbies.

Argument II is not strong because it is based on the assumption that nobody would contest elections if legislators were forced to resign from their profession. However, there is no evidence to support this assumption. It is possible that people would still be willing to run for office, even if they knew that they would have to give up their current profession.

In conclusion, neither argument I nor II is strong.