WBPSC Prelims Complete Test-8

The correct answer is (a) 6 - 14 Years.

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is a flagship program of the Government of India with the objective of universalization of elementary education in India. The program aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years.

The SSA was launched in 2001 and has been implemented in all states and union territories of India. The program is funded by the central government and the state governments.

The SSA has been successful in increasing the enrollment of children in schools and reducing the dropout rate. The program has also helped to improve the quality of education in government schools.

The SSA is a major step towards achieving the goal of education for all in India. The program has made a significant contribution to the development of education in India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not fall within the age group of 6-14 years.

The correct answer is D. Durgapur.

Kalyani, Salt Lake City, and Bidhannagar are all planned cities in West Bengal. They were developed in the 20th century to accommodate the growing population of the state. Durgapur, on the other hand, is a natural city that grew organically.

Kalyani is a city in Nadia district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the banks of the Hooghly River, about 100 kilometers north of Kolkata. The city was founded in 1957 as a planned city to accommodate the growing population of the state. It is now a major educational and industrial center.

Salt Lake City is a planned city in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. It was founded in 1972 by the Government of West Bengal to provide housing for the growing population of Kolkata. The city is located on the eastern fringes of Kolkata and is connected to the city by the Eastern Metropolitan Bypass. Salt Lake City is a major residential, commercial, and educational hub.

Bidhannagar is a planned city in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. It was founded in 1964 by the Government of West Bengal to provide housing for the growing population of Kolkata. The city is located on the northern fringes of Kolkata and is connected to the city by the Eastern Metropolitan Bypass. Bidhannagar is a major residential, commercial, and educational hub.

Durgapur is a city in Burdwan district in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is located on the banks of the Damodar River, about 200 kilometers west of Kolkata. The city was founded in 1956 as a planned city to accommodate the growing population of the state. It is now a major industrial center.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Paush Parbon is a major festival celebrated in Shantiniketan, West Bengal, India. It is a harvest festival that marks the end of the winter season and the beginning of the spring season. The festival is celebrated over a period of five days, from the full moon day of the month of Paush to the new moon day of the month of Magh.

The main attractions of Paush Parbon are the folk songs and dances, cultural performances, and handicraft exhibitions. The folk songs and dances are performed by local artists and depict the joys and sorrows of rural life. The cultural performances include music, dance, and drama. The handicraft exhibitions showcase the traditional arts and crafts of West Bengal.

Paush Parbon is a time for family and friends to come together and celebrate the harvest. It is also a time to enjoy the beautiful scenery and culture of Shantiniketan.

Here is a brief description of each option:

* Folk songs and dance: Folk songs and dances are an important part of Paush Parbon. They are performed by local artists and depict the joys and sorrows of rural life. The songs are usually about love, loss, and the beauty of nature. The dances are often energetic and lively.
* Cultural performances: Cultural performances include music, dance, and drama. They are performed by professional artists and showcase the rich culture of West Bengal. The music is usually traditional Bengali music, while the dance is often based on folk dances. The drama is usually based on Bengali literature.
* Handicraft exhibitions: Handicraft exhibitions showcase the traditional arts and crafts of West Bengal. They include a variety of items, such as pottery, textiles, and woodcarving. The items are usually made by local artisans and are of high quality.

The correct answer is: A. 1974

The Bank of Central African States (BEAC) is the central bank of the six member states of the Central African Economic and Monetary Community (CEMAC): Cameroon, Central African Republic, Chad, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. It was established on 1 January 1974 by the Treaty of Brazzaville, which was signed on 20 December 1973.

The BEAC's main objectives are to:

• Maintain monetary stability in the CEMAC region;
• Promote economic development in the CEMAC region;
• Supervise and regulate the banking system in the CEMAC region;
• Issue the common currency of the CEMAC region, the Central African CFA franc.

The BEAC is governed by a Board of Directors, which is composed of representatives of the six member states. The Board of Directors is responsible for setting the BEAC's policies and overseeing its operations.

The BEAC is headquartered in Yaoundé, Cameroon.

Kolkata Jain temple was built in 1867 by a jain named Rai Badridas Bahadoor Mookim.

The answer is D. BSDR.

The other options, A, B, C, and E, all have a pattern of alternating consonants and vowels. For example, in A, OUQT, the first letter is a vowel, the second letter is a consonant, the third letter is a vowel, and so on. In B, QFSE, the first letter is a consonant, the second letter is a vowel, the third letter is a consonant, and so on. In C, LKNJ, the first letter is a consonant, the second letter is a vowel, the third letter is a consonant, and so on. In E, UCYB, the first letter is a vowel, the second letter is a consonant, the third letter is a vowel, and so on.

However, in D, BSDR, the first letter is a consonant, the second letter is a consonant, the third letter is a vowel, and so on. This does not follow the pattern of the other options.

The correct answer is: B. S is the cousin of P

P is the son of Q. Q and R are sisters. T is the mother of R. S is the son of T.

To find the relationship between S and P, we can draw a family tree.

Q |   |   |
 /   /   /
 P   R   S

From the family tree, we can see that S is the son of T, who is the mother of R. R is the sister of Q, who is the mother of P. Therefore, S is the cousin of P.

A. T is the brother of Q is incorrect because T is the mother of R, not the brother of Q.
C. Q and S are sisters is incorrect because Q is the mother of P, not the sister of S.
D. S is the maternal uncle of P is incorrect because S is the cousin of P, not the maternal uncle of P.
E. R is the grandfather of P is incorrect because R is the sister of Q, not the grandfather of P.

The correct answer is (c). Deficit financing is the practice of a government spending more money than it takes in through taxes and other revenue. This can be done by borrowing money, printing money, or selling assets. Deficit financing can have a number of effects on the economy, including:

• Increasing the money supply: When the government borrows money, it creates new money. This can lead to inflation, as there is more money chasing the same amount of goods and services.
• Reducing interest rates: When the government borrows money, it drives up demand for loans. This can lead to lower interest rates, as lenders are willing to lend money at lower rates in order to compete for borrowers.
• Stimulating the economy: When the government spends money, it puts money into the hands of consumers and businesses. This can lead to increased spending and economic growth.
• Increasing the national debt: When the government borrows money, it adds to the national debt. This can be a problem if the debt becomes too large, as it can lead to higher interest rates and inflation.

In conclusion, deficit financing can have a number of effects on the economy, both positive and negative. It is important to weigh the costs and benefits of deficit financing before deciding whether or not to use it.

(a) Reduction in taxes: This is not an effect of deficit financing. In fact, deficit financing can often lead to an increase in taxes, as the government needs to raise revenue to pay off its debts.
(b) Increase in wages: This is also not an effect of deficit financing. Wages are determined by a number of factors, including the supply and demand for labor, the productivity of workers, and the minimum wage. Deficit financing does not have a direct impact on wages.
(d) Decrease in money supply: This is also not an effect of deficit financing. As mentioned above, deficit financing can lead to an increase in the money supply.

The correct answer is: C. House Management

The Greek word 'oikonomikos' means 'household management'. It is derived from the words 'oikos', meaning 'house', and 'nomos', meaning 'law' or 'custom'. The word 'economics' was first used in the 16th century to refer to the management of a household. It was not until the 18th century that the word began to be used to refer to the study of the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Business management is the process of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling a business.
• Economics is the social science that studies the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.
• Wealth management is the process of managing an individual's or family's financial assets.

The correct answer is (a). Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid. It is a powerful oxidizing agent and can dissolve gold and platinum. It is used in gold refining and in etching metals.

Nitric acid is a strong acid that is corrosive to metals. It is also a powerful oxidizing agent. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid that is also corrosive to metals. It is not as powerful an oxidizing agent as nitric acid, but it is still a strong enough oxidizing agent to dissolve gold and platinum.

Citric acid is a weak acid that is found in citrus fruits. It is not a strong enough oxidizing agent to dissolve gold or platinum. Benzoic acid is a weak acid that is found in many plants. It is not a strong enough oxidizing agent to dissolve gold or platinum.

Aqua regia is a dangerous substance and should be handled with care. It can cause severe burns to the skin and eyes. It can also be harmful if inhaled or ingested.

The correct answer is: A. Price does not at least cover average total cost.

In the long run, all costs are variable, so firms will only produce if the price they receive is greater than or equal to their average total cost. If price is less than average total cost, then the firm is making a loss on each unit it produces. In the long run, firms will not continue to produce at a loss, so they will eventually leave the industry.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect. Price equaling marginal cost is a condition for profit maximization, but it is not a necessary condition for firms to remain in the industry in the long run. Economies of scale are a type of cost advantage that can lead to lower average total costs, but they are not a guarantee that firms will remain in the industry in the long run. Price being greater than long run average cost is a condition for firms to make a profit, but it is not a necessary condition for firms to remain in the industry in the long run.

The correct answer is (a).

The student scored 74 marks in each test. The average marks in test (I) is 65, which is lower than the student's score. The average marks in test (II) is also 65, which is equal to the student's score. The average marks in test (III) is 60, which is lower than the student's score. The average marks in test (IV) is 82, which is higher than the student's score. Therefore, the student performed best in test (IV).

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

(a) Test (I): The average marks in test (I) is 65, which is lower than the student's score of 74. Therefore, the student did not perform best in test (I).
(b) Test (II): The average marks in test (II) is also 65, which is equal to the student's score of 74. Therefore, the student did not perform best in test (II).
(c) Test (III): The average marks in test (III) is 60, which is lower than the student's score of 74. Therefore, the student did not perform best in test (III).
(d) Test (IV): The average marks in test (IV) is 82, which is higher than the student's score of 74. Therefore, the student performed best in test (IV).

The correct answer is (a) shark. Sharks are the only fish that have three hearts. The first heart pumps blood to the gills, where it picks up oxygen. The second heart pumps blood to the rest of the body. The third heart pumps blood to the liver. Sharks have blue blood because their blood contains hemocyanin, a protein that carries oxygen. Hemocyanin contains copper, which gives it a blue color.

Option (b), blue whale, is incorrect. Blue whales are the largest animals on Earth, but they only have one heart.

Option (c), elephant, is incorrect. Elephants are the largest land animals on Earth, but they only have one heart.

Option (d), octopus, is incorrect. Octopuses are invertebrates, which means they do not have a skeleton. They also do not have a heart. Instead, they have a system of blood vessels that circulates blood throughout their body.

The correct answer is (d) Kedarnath.

Kedarnath is a town and a nagar panchayat in Rudraprayag district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is a Hindu pilgrimage site and one of the four Char Dhams. The Kedarnath Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the most important Hindu temples in India. The town is located in the Garhwal Himalayas at an altitude of 3,584 metres (11,768 ft).

The polling station at Kedarnath is located at an altitude of 3,480 metres (11,417 ft). It is the highest polling station in India. The polling station was set up in 1991 and is used to conduct elections for the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly and the Indian Parliament.

The other options are incorrect because they are not located in the Garhwal Himalayas. Rudraprayag is located in the Garhwal Himalayas, but the polling station is located at an altitude of 1,210 metres (3,970 ft). Bhimtal is located in the Kumaon Himalayas, and Gangotri is located in the Garhwal Himalayas.

The correct answer is A. 1940.

Germany invaded France on May 10, 1940, in the opening move of the Battle of France. The German army, led by General Heinz Guderian, broke through the French defenses in the Ardennes Forest and quickly advanced towards the English Channel. The French army was caught off guard and was quickly defeated. On June 22, 1940, France signed an armistice with Germany, and the country was divided into two zones: an occupied zone in the north and west, and an unoccupied zone in the south.

The invasion of France was a major turning point in World War II. It led to the fall of France and the establishment of a collaborationist government under Marshal Philippe Pétain. It also opened up the possibility of a German invasion of Britain.

The other options are incorrect. Option B is incorrect because Germany invaded the Soviet Union in 1941. Option C is incorrect because Germany invaded North Africa in 1942. Option D is incorrect because Germany invaded Italy in 1943.

The correct answer is: Diode.

A diode is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction only. It is used to "block" DC in an electronic circuit by allowing current to flow in one direction and blocking it in the other direction.

A resistance is an electrical component that opposes the flow of current. It is measured in ohms (Ω). The higher the resistance, the more the current is opposed.

A capacitance is an electrical component that stores charge. It is measured in farads (F). The higher the capacitance, the more charge is stored.

An inductance is an electrical component that stores energy in a magnetic field. It is measured in henries (H). The higher the inductance, the more energy is stored.

In conclusion, a diode is the only circuit element that can be used to "block" DC in an electronic circuit.

The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) is a political alliance in India. It was founded in 1998 by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and several other regional parties. The NDA has been in power at the national level since 2014.

The NDA is a right-wing political alliance. It is committed to Hindutva, a political ideology that promotes Hindu nationalism. The NDA also supports economic liberalization and globalization.

The NDA has been criticized for its Hindu nationalist policies and its close ties to the corporate sector. However, it has also been praised for its economic reforms and its strong stance against terrorism.

The correct answer to the question "National Democratic Alliance was founded in?" is B. 1998.

Option A is incorrect because the National Democratic Alliance was not founded in 1951. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1951.

Option C is incorrect because the National Democratic Alliance was not founded in 2004. The United Progressive Alliance was founded in 2004.

Option D is incorrect because the National Democratic Alliance was not founded in 1980. The Janata Party was founded in 1980.

The correct answer is (c) Tamil Nadu.

The sex ratio in Tamil Nadu was 996 females per 1000 males in 2011, which is the highest among all states in India. This means that there were 996 females for every 1000 males in Tamil Nadu in 2011.

Karnataka had a sex ratio of 973 females per 1000 males in 2011, Goa had a sex ratio of 971 females per 1000 males in 2011, and Andhra Pradesh had a sex ratio of 988 females per 1000 males in 2011.

There are a number of factors that contribute to the high sex ratio in Tamil Nadu. One factor is that the state has a strong tradition of female education and employment. Another factor is that the state has a relatively low rate of female infanticide.

The high sex ratio in Tamil Nadu is a positive sign for the state. It suggests that women are valued and respected in Tamil Nadu, and that they have the opportunity to live full and productive lives.

The correct answer is: A. Kidambi Srikanth

Kidambi Srikanth is an Indian professional badminton player. He is a former world No. 1 in men's singles, achieved on 23 April 2018. He is the first Indian male player to reach the finals of the All England Open, the World Championships, and the BWF World Tour Finals. He has also won the Commonwealth Games gold medal, the Asian Games silver medal, and the BWF Superseries Finals title.

H.S. Prannoy is an Indian professional badminton player. He is a former world No. 10 in men's singles, achieved on 22 August 2017. He is the first Indian male player to reach the semi-finals of the World Championships. He has also won the India Open, the Swiss Open, and the Hyderabad Open.

Ajay Jayaram is an Indian professional badminton player. He is a former world No. 11 in men's singles, achieved on 26 November 2012. He has won the India Open, the Singapore Open, and the China Open.

Sai Praneeth is an Indian professional badminton player. He is a former world No. 12 in men's singles, achieved on 13 August 2018. He has won the India Open, the Swiss Open, and the Hyderabad Open.

In the 2017 National Badminton Championship (Men), Kidambi Srikanth defeated H.S. Prannoy in the final to win the title.

The three notified varieties of rice common in West Bengal are Aman, Aus and Boro. According to Economic Survey 2017-18, three new rice varieties have been developed in West Bengal. These are Bhupesh, Dhruba and Rajdip.

The correct answer is (b). The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched in India in March 2015. The scheme aims to address the declining sex ratio at birth and the low female literacy rate in India. It provides a number of incentives to families who have girl children, such as cash rewards, scholarships, and free healthcare. The scheme has been successful in raising awareness about the importance of girls' education and empowerment.

(a) April 2015 is incorrect. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched in March 2015.
(c) February 2015 is incorrect. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched in March 2015.
(d) January 2015 is incorrect. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched in March 2015.

Under the Khadya Sathi scheme, people who are backward in socio-economic terms i.e. people from tribal groups, workers of tea gardens, pavement dwellers of Kolkata, drought affected area of Purulia, residents of Darjeeling hill area, etc are given foodgrains at Rs. 2 per kg.

The correct answer is D. Censor.

Bowdlerize is to remove or change parts of a text that are considered offensive or objectionable. This can be done for a variety of reasons, such as to make the text more appropriate for a wider audience or to protect the privacy of individuals.

Dictate is to give orders or instructions in a forceful or authoritative way. Persuade is to convince someone to do something by using reasoning or argument. Confuse is to make someone unsure or bewildered.

Of the above options, only censor is the closest synonym of bowdlerize.

The correct answer is D) Girl child education.

The Kanyashree Prakalpa is a West Bengal government scheme that provides financial assistance to adolescent girls to continue their education. The scheme was launched in 2013 with the goal of reducing the dropout rate among girls and improving their access to education. The scheme provides a one-time grant of Rs. 25,000 to girls who complete their secondary education. The grant can be used for tuition fees, books, uniforms, and other educational expenses.

The scheme has been successful in reducing the dropout rate among girls. In 2016, the dropout rate for girls in West Bengal was 10.7%, which was lower than the national average of 12.6%. The scheme has also been successful in improving girls' access to education. In 2016, the enrollment rate for girls in West Bengal was 94.2%, which was higher than the national average of 92.6%.

The Kanyashree Prakalpa is a successful scheme that has helped to improve the lives of girls in West Bengal. The scheme has reduced the dropout rate among girls and improved their access to education. This has had a positive impact on the lives of girls and their families.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the main focus of the Kanyashree Prakalpa scheme. Child nutrition, maternal health, and women's empowerment are all important issues, but they are not the primary focus of this scheme. The Kanyashree Prakalpa scheme is specifically designed to improve the lives of girls by providing them with financial assistance to continue their education.

The correct answer is C. Fellow of Royal Society.

The Royal Society is a learned society founded in 1660. It is the oldest scientific academy in the world. The society is a fellowship of distinguished scientists and engineers, and it is dedicated to promoting the advancement of science.

The title of Fellow of the Royal Society (FRS) is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions to science. The FRS is one of the most prestigious scientific honors in the world.

The other options are incorrect. Federation of Regulation Society is not a real organization. Fellow Research System is not a real term. None of the above is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: C. 2

The first band of a resistor color code indicates the first digit of the resistance value. The second band indicates the second digit of the resistance value. The third band indicates the number of zeros to multiply the first two digits by. The fourth band indicates the tolerance of the resistance value.

The color blue corresponds to the number 2. Therefore, a resistor with a blue band as its first band has a resistance value of 2.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the color blue.

Rabindra Sadan is a cultural centre and a theatre in Kolkata. It was established in 1967. It is one of the famous stages in Bengali theatre.

The correct answer is C. The Khalsa.

The Khalsa is a community of initiated Sikhs. It was founded by Guru Gobind Singh on Vaisakhi Day in 1699. The Khalsa is a panth, or community, of Sikhs who have undergone the Amrit Sanskar, or initiation ceremony. The Khalsa is open to all people, regardless of caste, gender, or social status.

The Khalsa is committed to living a life of truth, courage, compassion, and service. They are also committed to defending the Sikh faith and the rights of all people.

The Khalsa is a powerful symbol of Sikh identity and pride. They are a reminder of the strength and resilience of the Sikh faith.

The other options are incorrect.

A. The Gurudwara is a Sikh place of worship.
B. The Sangam is a confluence of rivers.
D. None of these is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: C. Democracy

Local governance is the foundation of democracy because it allows citizens to have a say in how their communities are run. When people are involved in local government, they are more likely to feel connected to their community and to participate in civic life. This can lead to a more informed and engaged citizenry, which is essential for a healthy democracy.

Elite system is a form of government in which power is held by a small group of people, usually the wealthy or the educated. This system is often characterized by corruption and a lack of accountability.

Secular state is a state that is not officially affiliated with any religion. This means that the government does not promote or endorse any particular religion, and that all religions are treated equally under the law.

Reservation is a system in which certain groups of people are given preferential treatment in education, employment, and other areas. This system is often used to address historical discrimination or to promote social equality.

In conclusion, local governance is the foundation of democracy because it allows citizens to have a say in how their communities are run. This can lead to a more informed and engaged citizenry, which is essential for a healthy democracy.

The answer is D. Cornea.

The cornea is the clear front part of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. It helps to focus light onto the retina at the back of the eye. The retina is a light-sensitive tissue that converts light into electrical signals that are sent to the brain. The brain interprets these signals as images.

The pupil is the black opening in the center of the iris. It controls the amount of light that enters the eye. The iris is the colored part of the eye that surrounds the pupil.

Vision is the sense of sight. It allows us to see the world around us.

The cornea is the only option that is not directly involved in vision. The other three options are all essential for vision.

The correct answer is: D. 18

The minimum age to qualify for Lok Sabha Elections is 18 years. This is the same as the minimum age to vote in India. The Constitution of India states that every citizen of India who is 18 years of age or older is eligible to be a member of Parliament.

Option A is incorrect because the minimum age to qualify for Rajya Sabha Elections is 30 years.

Option B is incorrect because the minimum age to qualify for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Elections is 18 years.

Option C is incorrect because the minimum age to qualify for State Legislative Assembly Elections is 21 years.

P.T. Usha, who came close to bagging a bronze finished fourth in the 400 m final in 1984 Olympics.

A. 400 m final: This is the correct answer. P.T. Usha finished fourth in the 400 m final at the 1984 Summer Olympics in Los Angeles, California. She ran a time of 49.12 seconds, which was just 0.01 seconds behind the bronze medalist, Valerie Brisco-Hooks of the United States.

B. 800 m final: P.T. Usha also competed in the 800 m final at the 1984 Olympics, but she did not finish as high as she did in the 400 m final. She finished sixth in a time of 1:58.61.

C. 400 m hurdle: P.T. Usha did not compete in the 400 m hurdle at the 1984 Olympics.

D. the marathon: P.T. Usha did not compete in the marathon at the 1984 Olympics.

The correct answer is (b). Cyclones occurring in the North Atlantic Ocean are known as hurricanes. Hurricanes are large, rotating storms that form over warm waters in tropical areas. They are known for their strong winds, heavy rains, and storm surges. Hurricanes can cause extensive damage to coastal areas and can be deadly.

A typhoon is a type of hurricane that forms in the western Pacific Ocean. Typhoons are similar to hurricanes in terms of their size, strength, and destructive power. However, typhoons tend to be more powerful than hurricanes.

A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that forms from a thunderstorm. Tornadoes are much smaller than hurricanes, but they can be just as destructive. Tornadoes can cause extensive damage to buildings and other structures, and they can also be deadly.

(d) None of these is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. the Rio Grande.

The Rio Grande is a river that flows from Colorado to the Gulf of Mexico. It forms the border between the United States and Mexico for more than 1,200 miles. The Rio Grande is the second longest river in Texas, after the Brazos River. It is also the longest river in the United States that is entirely within the country.

The Rio Grande is a major source of water for irrigation and drinking water. It is also a popular destination for fishing, boating, and swimming.

The Amazon is the largest river in the world by volume. It flows through Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador, Bolivia, and Venezuela. The Amazon is not a border river.

The Mississippi is the longest river in the United States. It flows from Minnesota to the Gulf of Mexico. The Mississippi is not a border river.

The Colorado is a river that flows from Colorado to the Gulf of California. It forms the border between the United States and Mexico for about 100 miles. The Colorado is not a major border river.

The correct answer is C. Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime Minister of India from 1964 to 1966. He signed the Tashkent Agreement with President Ayub Khan of Pakistan on January 10, 1966. The agreement was an attempt to resolve the Kashmir dispute between India and Pakistan.

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India from 1947 to 1964. He died in office on May 27, 1964.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India from 1950 to 1962. He died in office on February 2, 1962.

Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 to 1984. She was the daughter of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

The correct answer is A. halogen.

Halogens are elements in the periodic table that have seven valence electrons. They are highly reactive and form salts with metals. The halogens are fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), iodine (I), and astatine (At).

Transitive elements are elements in the periodic table that are in the d-block. They are characterized by having partially filled d-orbitals. The transitive elements are found in groups 3-12 of the periodic table.

Inert gases are elements in the periodic table that have a full valence shell of electrons. They are very stable and do not react with other elements. The inert gases are helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe), and radon (Rn).

Differential transitive elements are elements in the periodic table that have a valence shell of electrons that is not completely filled. They are found in groups 3-12 of the periodic table.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{A}}$.

The bond angle in the structure of a benzene molecule is 120°. This is because the carbon atoms in benzene are arranged in a regular hexagon, with each carbon atom bonded to two other carbon atoms and one hydrogen atom. The angle between any two adjacent carbon-carbon bonds is 120°, which is the angle formed by three equilateral triangles.

Option B is incorrect because the bond angle in a tetrahedral molecule is 109.5°. Option C is incorrect because the bond angle in a trigonal planar molecule is 120°. Option D is incorrect because the bond angle in a linear molecule is 180°.

The correct answer is: A. The temperature is 0°C.

Water will not be vaporized if the temperature is 0°C because water freezes at 0°C. The boiling point of water is 100°C, so water will vaporize at any temperature above 100°C. Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air. The higher the humidity, the less likely water is to vaporize. However, even at 100% humidity, water will vaporize if the temperature is high enough.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• A. The temperature is 0°C. Water freezes at 0°C, so it will not vaporize at this temperature.
• B. The humidity is 0%. Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air. The higher the humidity, the less likely water is to vaporize. However, even at 0% humidity, water will vaporize if the temperature is high enough.
• C. The humidity is 100%. At 100% humidity, the air is saturated with water vapor. This means that the air cannot hold any more water vapor, and any additional water vapor will condense into liquid water. However, even at 100% humidity, water will vaporize if the temperature is high enough.
• D. The temperature is 100°C. The boiling point of water is 100°C, so water will vaporize at this temperature.

The correct answer is: D. Girish Karnad.

Girish Karnad was an Indian playwright, actor, director, and screenwriter who wrote in Kannada and English. He was the recipient of the Jnanpith Award in 1998, India's highest literary award, for his play "Tughlaq". He was also awarded the Padma Shri in 1974, the Padma Bhushan in 1992, and the Padma Vibhushan in 2005.

Karnad was born in Dharwad, Karnataka, India, in 1938. He studied at the University of Pune and the University of Oxford. He began his career as a journalist and then turned to writing plays. His first play, "Yayati", was produced in 1961. He went on to write over 20 plays, including "Tughlaq", "Hayavadana", "Naga-Mandala", and "Aurangzeb".

Karnad also wrote several novels, short stories, and essays. He translated several works from Kannada to English and vice versa. He also directed several films, including "Utsav" and "Gods, Demons and Others".

Karnad was a versatile and accomplished writer who made significant contributions to Indian literature and theater. He was a pioneer in the use of English as a medium for writing about Indian themes. His work has been translated into many languages and has been performed all over the world.

A. Bhalachandra Nemade is a Marathi writer who is known for his novels, short stories, and essays. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 1992.

B. Raghuveer Chaudhari is a Gujarati writer who is known for his novels, short stories, and essays. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2014.

C. Pratibha Ray is an Odia writer who is known for her novels, short stories, and essays. She was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2016.

The correct answer is: B. Prime Minister

The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the NITI Aayog. The NITI Aayog is a government think tank in India that was set up in January 2015 by the Narendra Modi government. It is a successor to the Planning Commission, which was set up in 1950. The NITI Aayog is responsible for providing policy advice to the central government on matters of economic and social development. It also plays a role in coordinating the implementation of government policies.

The Prime Minister is the chairman of the NITI Aayog because he is the head of the government. The NITI Aayog is a government body, and the Prime Minister is the head of the government. The Prime Minister is responsible for the overall functioning of the NITI Aayog, and he is the one who appoints the members of the NITI Aayog.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the head of the government. The President is the head of state, but he is not the head of the government. The Vice President is the second-highest-ranking official in the government, but he is not the head of the government. The Finance Minister is the head of the Ministry of Finance, but he is not the head of the government.

The correct answer is (b), New Zealand.

New Zealand won the ICC World Test Championship in 2021, defeating India in the final. The match was played at the Rose Bowl in Southampton, England, from June 18 to 23, 2021. New Zealand won the match by eight wickets, becoming the first team to win the ICC World Test Championship.

India was the top-ranked team in the ICC Test Championship at the start of the tournament. They had won 12 of their 14 matches in the tournament, and they were the favorites to win the final. However, New Zealand played a brilliant match, and they were able to defeat India by eight wickets.

New Zealand's victory in the ICC World Test Championship was a historic achievement. They became the first team to win the tournament, and they also became the first team from outside of the "Big Three" (India, Australia, and England) to win a major ICC tournament.

The ICC World Test Championship is a Test cricket competition that was first held in 2019. The tournament is played between the top nine Test-playing nations, and it is a round-robin format. The top two teams at the end of the round-robin stage progress to the final.

The ICC World Test Championship is a major achievement for any Test-playing nation. It is a test of a team's strength and consistency over a long period of time. New Zealand's victory in the 2021 tournament was a testament to their hard work and dedication.

The correct answer is: D. Last work of a poet or musician before death.

A swan song is a final performance, effort, or utterance of great beauty, power, or significance, typically one given just before death. The term comes from the belief that swans sing a beautiful song just before they die.

Option A is incorrect because it is not specific to a swan song. Music can be sweet without being a swan song.

Option B is incorrect because it is not specific to a swan song. A melodious song can be in praise of someone without being a swan song.

Option C is incorrect because it is not specific to a swan song. Praise of a woman by her lover can be beautiful without being a swan song.

The correct answer is C. to.

The preposition "to" is used to indicate the destination of something. In this case, the letter was delivered to the speaker.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

• The preposition "for" is used to indicate the purpose of something. In this case, the letter was not delivered for the speaker, but to the speaker.
• The preposition "of" is used to indicate possession or association. In this case, the letter was not delivered of the speaker, but to the speaker.
• The preposition "on" is used to indicate a location or position. In this case, the letter was not delivered on the speaker, but to the speaker.

I hope this helps!

The correct answer is C. Singapore.

The historic meeting between U.S. President Donald Trump and North Korea's Leader Kim Jong-Un was held in Singapore on June 12, 2018. It was the first time that a sitting U.S. president had met with a North Korean leader. The meeting was held at the Capella Hotel on Sentosa Island.

The meeting was the culmination of months of diplomatic negotiations between the two countries. The goal of the meeting was to discuss the denuclearization of North Korea. The two leaders signed a joint statement in which they committed to working towards the "complete denuclearization of the Korean Peninsula."

The meeting was widely seen as a positive step forward in the relationship between the United States and North Korea. However, it remains to be seen whether the two countries will be able to achieve their goal of denuclearization.

Option A is incorrect because Pyongyang is the capital of North Korea.

Option B is incorrect because Seoul is the capital of South Korea.

Option D is incorrect because Taipei is the capital of Taiwan.

The answer is D. YCDZA.

In each of the other options, the letters are in alphabetical order. In option D, the letters are not in alphabetical order.

The correct answer is: B. Wave packet.

A wave packet is a localized wave that has both wave-like and particle-like properties. It is a mathematical construct that is used to describe the behavior of particles in quantum mechanics.

A wave packet can be thought of as a superposition of many different waves, each with a different wavelength. The superposition of these waves creates a wave packet that has a well-defined position and momentum.

Wave packets are used to describe the behavior of particles in a variety of different contexts, including the motion of electrons in atoms, the scattering of light by atoms, and the behavior of particles in quantum field theory.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A: A wave is a disturbance that travels through a medium, such as water or air. It has no definite position or momentum.
• Option C: A particle is a small, localized object with a definite mass and position. It does not have wave-like properties.
• Option D: None of the above is correct.

The correct answer is (b). The 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was a plan for the economic development of India. It was approved by the National Development Council in December 2011. The plan set a target of 8% GDP growth for the period. The plan also focused on improving infrastructure, education, health, and rural development.

The 12th Five Year Plan was a success in many ways. GDP growth averaged 7.4% during the period, which was higher than the target of 8%. The plan also helped to improve infrastructure, education, health, and rural development. However, the plan also faced some challenges, such as high inflation and a slowdown in the global economy.

Despite the challenges, the 12th Five Year Plan was a success in many ways. It helped to improve the lives of millions of Indians and laid the foundation for future growth.

Option (a) is incorrect because the target of development in the 'vision paper' of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) as accepted by the National Development Council was 8%.

Option (c) is incorrect because the target of development in the 'vision paper' of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) as accepted by the National Development Council was 8%.

Option (d) is incorrect because the target of development in the 'vision paper' of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) as accepted by the National Development Council was 8%.

The correct answer is C. Couragous. The correct spelling is "courageous".

A. Regular is spelled correctly. It means "happening or done at fixed times or intervals".
B. Criminal is spelled correctly. It means "a person who has committed a crime".
D. Garbage is spelled correctly. It means "waste material, especially refuse from homes and businesses".

The correct answer is: was written.

The Ramayana is an ancient Indian epic poem that was written by Valmiki. It is one of the most important works of Hindu literature and has been translated into many languages. The poem tells the story of Rama, a prince who is exiled from his kingdom and must fight to regain his throne. The Ramayana is a classic tale of good versus evil and has been an inspiration to many people throughout history.

The other options are incorrect because they do not agree with the tense of the sentence. The sentence is in the past tense, so the verb must also be in the past tense. The options "are written" and "will be written" are in the present tense and the future tense, respectively. The option "was been written" is not a grammatically correct sentence.

In conclusion, the correct answer is: was written.

The wholly state owned agency, the West Bengal Mineral Development and Trading Corporation Limited was incorporated in the year 1973. It handles all the issues regarding minerals in the state. It undertakes all the exploration and extraction of non-coal and coal minerals.

The correct answer is (b), Liberalisation of economy.

Liberalisation of economy is a process of reducing government control over the economy and allowing free market forces to operate. This can lead to increased economic growth, but it can also lead to increased inequality. This is because the benefits of economic growth are not always evenly distributed. Those who are already wealthy are often able to take advantage of new opportunities and increase their wealth, while those who are poor may not be able to benefit from the same opportunities.

Minimum-Needs Programme (MNP) is a government programme that aims to provide basic necessities such as food, education, and healthcare to the poor. This can help to reduce inequality by ensuring that everyone has access to basic necessities.

Taxation is a government policy that can be used to redistribute wealth. By taxing the wealthy more heavily and using the revenue to fund social programs, the government can help to reduce inequality.

Land reforms are government policies that aim to redistribute land ownership. This can help to reduce inequality by giving poor people access to land, which they can then use to generate income.

In conclusion, the correct answer is (b), Liberalisation of economy. This is because liberalisation of economy can lead to increased inequality, while the other options can help to reduce inequality.

The correct answer is: Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A.

The long run cost curve is L-shaped because, in the long run, all costs are variable. This means that firms can choose the size of their plants and the technology they use to produce their goods. As a result, firms can always produce at the lowest possible cost per unit of output.

The new techniques of production of large plants do reduce the total costs per unit of output. However, this is not the reason why the long run cost curve is L-shaped. The long run cost curve is L-shaped because, in the long run, all costs are variable.

Here is a more detailed explanation of each option:

• Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, the new techniques of production of large plants do not explain why the long run cost curve is L-shaped.
• Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A. This is the correct answer because, as explained above, the new techniques of production of large plants do reduce the total costs per unit of output, but this is not the reason why the long run cost curve is L-shaped.
• A is true, but R is false. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, the new techniques of production of large plants do reduce the total costs per unit of output.
• A is false, but R is true. This is not the correct answer because, as explained above, the long run cost curve is L-shaped, and the new techniques of production of large plants do reduce the total costs per unit of output.

The correct answer is (a). Ramnagar Legislative Constituency is a part of Udhamsingh Nagar Parliamentary Constituency.

Udhamsingh Nagar Parliamentary Constituency is one of the 5 Parliamentary Constituencies in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand state in northern India. It comprises the following 7 Assembly Constituencies:

1. Almora
2. Bageshwar
3. Champawat
4. Pithoragarh
5. Nainital
6. Udhamsingh Nagar
7. Ramnagar

The current Member of Parliament from Udhamsingh Nagar Parliamentary Constituency is Ajay Bhatt of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). He was elected in the 2019 Indian general election by defeating Manoj Kumar Bhatt of the Indian National Congress (INC) by a margin of 2,26,102 votes.

The Ramnagar Legislative Constituency is one of the 70 Legislative Constituencies in the Uttarakhand state of India. It is a part of the Udhamsingh Nagar Parliamentary Constituency. The current Member of Legislative Assembly from Ramnagar Legislative Constituency is Mohan Singh Bisht of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). He was elected in the 2022 Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly election by defeating Manoj Kumar Bhatt of the Indian National Congress (INC) by a margin of 22,000 votes.

The Chhokra dance is directed by a sarkar who leads a fairly large team of singers, musicians and players.

Ajitesh Bandopadhyay founded the theatre group 'Nandikar' in 1960.

The correct answer is: D. Saturn

Helium-3 is a rare isotope of helium that has three protons and two neutrons in its nucleus. It is a potential source of energy because it can be fused with hydrogen to produce helium-4, releasing energy in the process.

Saturn is the only planet in our solar system that is known to have a significant abundance of helium-3. Scientists believe that this helium-3 was deposited on Saturn by comets and asteroids that collided with the planet billions of years ago.

Helium-3 is a clean and safe source of energy, and it does not produce greenhouse gases. It is also a very efficient source of energy, and it can be used to generate electricity or to power spacecraft.

The other options are incorrect because they do not contain abundant quantities of helium-3.

• Earth: Earth's atmosphere contains a very small amount of helium-3, but it is not a significant source of this isotope.
• Moon: The Moon's surface does not contain any helium-3.
• Venus: Venus's atmosphere contains a small amount of helium-3, but it is not a significant source of this isotope.
• Saturn: Saturn is the only planet in our solar system that is known to have a significant abundance of helium-3.

The correct answer is: no article.

We cannot take a U-turn from here because there is no U-turn available. We cannot take an U-turn from here because "U-turn" is not a singular, countable noun. We cannot take the U-turn from here because there is no specific U-turn that we are referring to.

The article "a" is used before singular, countable nouns. The article "an" is used before singular, countable nouns that begin with a vowel sound. The article "the" is used before specific nouns.

In this case, "U-turn" is a singular, countable noun, but it does not begin with a vowel sound. Therefore, we cannot use the article "an". Additionally, there is no specific U-turn that we are referring to, so we cannot use the article "the". Therefore, the correct answer is "no article".

The correct answer is D. Both A and B.

Glycogen and fat are both reserve foods of fungi, but starch is not. Starch is a type of carbohydrate that is found in plants. It is made up of glucose molecules that are linked together in long chains. Fungi do not have chloroplasts, so they cannot produce their own food through photosynthesis. Instead, they must obtain their food from other sources, such as dead or decaying organic matter. Fungi can break down starch into glucose, which they can then use for energy. However, they do not store starch as a reserve food. Instead, they store glycogen and fat. Glycogen is a type of carbohydrate that is similar to starch, but it is more branched. This makes it easier for fungi to break down and use for energy. Fat is a type of lipid that is also used by fungi as a reserve food. It is a more efficient form of energy storage than glycogen.

In conclusion, the correct answer is D. Both A and B.

The correct answer is: C. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

• The Sachar Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 2005 to examine the social, economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India.
• The Srikrishna Commission was appointed by the Government of Maharashtra in 1992 to inquire into the Bombay riots of 1992-93.
• The Ranganath Misra Commission was appointed by the Government of India in 1987 to inquire into the anti-Sikh riots of 1984.
• The Nanavati Commission was appointed by the Government of Gujarat in 2002 to inquire into the Gujarat riots of 2002.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: This option is incorrect because it assigns the wrong mandate to the Sachar Committee. The Sachar Committee was appointed to examine the social, economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India, not to inquire into the Bombay riots of 1992.
• Option B: This option is incorrect because it assigns the wrong mandate to the Srikrishna Commission. The Srikrishna Commission was appointed to inquire into the Bombay riots of 1992, not to examine the socio-economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India.
• Option C: This option is correct because it assigns the correct mandate to each commission. The Sachar Committee was appointed to examine the social, economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India; the Srikrishna Commission was appointed to inquire into the Bombay riots of 1992; the Ranganath Misra Commission was appointed to inquire into the anti-Sikh riots of 1984; and the Nanavati Commission was appointed to inquire into the Gujarat riots of 2002.
• Option D: This option is incorrect because it assigns the wrong mandate to the Ranganath Misra Commission. The Ranganath Misra Commission was appointed to inquire into the anti-Sikh riots of 1984, not to examine the socio-economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India.

Asansol is the headquarters of West (Paschim) Bardhaman District of West Bengal.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{A. }275 text{ J}}$.

The kinetic energy of an object is given by the formula:

$$E_k = frac{1}{2}mv^2$$

where $m$ is the mass of the object and $v$ is its velocity.

In this case, we have $m = 22 text{ kg}$ and $v = 5 text{ m/s}$. Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

$$E_k = frac{1}{2}(22 text{ kg})(5 text{ m/s})^2 = 275 text{ J}$$

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the object is 275 J.

Option B is incorrect because it is half the correct answer. Option C is incorrect because it is five times the correct answer. Option D is incorrect because it is the same as option B.

The correct answer is: C. II and III

• Statement I is false. A simple monopoly firm does not always earn super normal profit. A monopoly firm is the only seller of a good or service in a market. It has a great deal of market power and can therefore charge a price above marginal cost. However, a monopoly firm may not always be able to earn super normal profit. This is because it may face competition from potential entrants into the market. If potential entrants see that the monopoly firm is earning super normal profit, they may enter the market and compete with the monopoly firm. This would drive down the price of the good or service and reduce the monopoly firm's profits.
• Statement II is true. Sweezy's kinked demand curve model is a model that explains the price rigidity of oligopoly firms. An oligopoly is a market structure in which there are a small number of firms. These firms interact strategically with each other and are aware of each other's actions. The kinked demand curve model assumes that oligopoly firms are price-makers. This means that they can set the price of their goods or services. However, the model also assumes that oligopoly firms are afraid to change their prices. This is because if one firm lowers its price, the other firms in the market will also lower their prices. This would lead to a price war and reduce the profits of all the firms in the market. Therefore, oligopoly firms are more likely to keep their prices unchanged, even if their costs change.
• Statement III is true. A perfectly competitive firm is a firm that is a price-taker. This means that the firm has no control over the price of its goods or services. The price is determined by the market forces of supply and demand. The perfectly competitive firm will therefore produce the quantity of output at which marginal cost equals price. This will ensure that the firm is earning normal profits.
• Statement IV is false. Firms under monopolistic competition earn economic profits in the short run, but these profits will be competed away in the long run. Monopolistic competition is a market structure in which there are a large number of firms selling similar but not identical goods or services. The firms in a monopolistically competitive market have some market power, but they do not have as much market power as a monopoly firm. This is because there are a large number of firms in the market, so each firm has a small share of the market. The firms in a monopolistically competitive market are price-makers, but they have a downward-sloping demand curve. This means that they can increase their prices without losing all of their customers. However, the firms in a monopolistically competitive market will not be able to earn super normal profits in the long run. This is because new firms will enter the market if they see that the existing firms are earning super normal profits. The entry of new firms will increase the supply of goods or services in the market, which will drive down prices and reduce the profits of the existing firms.

The correct answer is A. Dehradun.

The Forest Survey of India (FSI) is a national organization engaged in forest cover mapping, forest inventory and training in the field of remote sensing and GIS. It is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, India.

The FSI was established in 1981 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Indian Forest Act, 1927.

The FSI's main objective is to provide accurate and timely information on the status of forests in India. It does this by conducting forest cover surveys, forest inventory, and training in the field of remote sensing and GIS.

The FSI's forest cover surveys are conducted every two years. The latest survey was conducted in 2017. The survey results show that India's forest cover is 21.67% of the total land area.

The FSI's forest inventory is conducted every five years. The latest inventory was conducted in 2015. The inventory results show that India has 2,264 million cubic meters of standing forest stock.

The FSI also provides training in the field of remote sensing and GIS. The training is offered to government officials, forest officers, and other interested parties.

The FSI is a valuable resource for information on the status of forests in India. Its forest cover surveys, forest inventory, and training programs are essential for the management and conservation of India's forests.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the headquarters of the Forest Survey of India.

The correct answer is B. Mean is greater than median but less than mode.

A probability distribution with right skew is one in which the tail on the right side of the distribution is longer than the tail on the left side. This means that there are more data points with values that are greater than the mean than there are data points with values that are less than the mean.

The mode is the value that occurs most often in a data set. The median is the value that divides the data set into two equal parts, with half of the data points below the median and half of the data points above the median.

In a right-skew distribution, the mode is typically less than the median, which is typically less than the mean. This is because the tail on the right side of the distribution contains more data points that are greater than the mean, which pulls the mean up.

Here is a diagram that illustrates a right-skew distribution:

As you can see, the mode is the lowest value, the median is the middle value, and the mean is the highest value.

Therefore, the correct statement for the probability distribution is B. Mean is greater than median but less than mode.

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar.

Bhubaneswar is the capital of Odisha, India. It is the largest city in the state and the 10th largest city in India. Bhubaneswar is a planned city, with a well-developed infrastructure. It is home to many educational institutions, hospitals, and IT companies. The city is also a popular tourist destination, with many historical and cultural attractions.

In 2017, Bhubaneswar was awarded the 'Pierre Lenfant International Planning Excellence Award' by the American Planning Association. This award is given to cities that have made significant contributions to the field of urban planning. Bhubaneswar was awarded the prize for its efforts to improve the quality of life for its citizens, through initiatives such as the development of green spaces, the promotion of public transportation, and the implementation of sustainable development practices.

Bhubaneswar is a city that is constantly evolving and improving. It is a city that is committed to providing a high quality of life for its citizens. The city's efforts to improve the quality of life have been recognized by the American Planning Association, and Bhubaneswar is now a model for other cities around the world.

The other options are incorrect because they are not cities in India. Kolkata is the capital of West Bengal, India. Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana, India. Meerut is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh.

Arteries carry blood away from the heart to the tissues of the body. The correct answer is C.

Option A is incorrect because the heart is a muscle that pumps blood.

Option B is incorrect because the lungs are organs that take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

Option D is incorrect because the brain is an organ that controls the body's functions.

The correct answer is A) Honey.

Apiculture, or beekeeping, is the maintenance of bee colonies, commonly in man-made hives, by humans. Most such bees are honey bees in the genus Apis, but other honey-producing bees such as Melipona stingless bees are also kept. A beekeeper (or apiarist) keeps bees in order to collect their honey and other products that the hive produces (including beeswax, propolis, pollen, and royal jelly), to pollinate crops, or to produce bees for sale to other beekeepers.

Honey is a sweet, viscous food substance produced by bees and some related insects from the nectar of flowers or from secretions of plants. Bees collect nectar from flowers, which they convert into honey by regurgitating it, adding enzymes, and storing it in honeycombs. Honey is the only food that contains all the substances necessary to sustain life: carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals. It is also a good source of energy.

Wool is a natural fiber that is produced by sheep, goats, camels, and other mammals. It is a soft, fluffy material that is used to make clothing, blankets, and other textiles. Wool is a good insulator and is also water-resistant.

Milk is a nutrient-rich liquid produced by the mammary glands of mammals. It is the primary source of nutrition for infant mammals (including humans who are breastfed) before they are able to digest other types of food. Early-lactation milk contains colostrum, which carries the mother's antibodies to its young and can reduce the risk of many diseases. It contains many other nutrients including protein and lactose.

Eggs are laid by female animals of many different species, including birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish, and insects. Eggs are an important source of nutrition for humans and other animals. They are a good source of protein, vitamins, and minerals.

The correct answer is: **B) Cardamom**

Cardamom is a spice that is native to India and Sri Lanka. It is the third most expensive spice in the world, after saffron and vanilla. Cardamom is a member of the ginger family and has a strong, sweet flavor. It is used in a variety of cuisines, including Indian, Middle Eastern, and Scandinavian.

Ginger is a spice that is native to Asia. It has a strong, spicy flavor and is used in a variety of cuisines, including Indian, Chinese, and Japanese. Ginger is also used in herbal medicine.

Black pepper is a spice that is native to India. It is the most widely used spice in the world. Black pepper has a strong, pungent flavor and is used in a variety of cuisines, including Indian, Chinese, and European.

Cinnamon is a spice that is native to Sri Lanka and India. It has a sweet, woody flavor and is used in a variety of cuisines, including Indian, Chinese, and Middle Eastern. Cinnamon is also used in herbal medicine.

Cardamom is the only spice among the options that is cultivated in certain parts of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d). Duguit was a French jurist who is considered one of the founders of sociological jurisprudence. He argued that law is not a command of the state, but rather a product of social forces. This view is in contrast to the dualist theory, which holds that law is a separate and distinct system from morality.

Triepel, Anzilloti, and Oppenheim were all proponents of the dualist theory. Triepel argued that international law and domestic law are two distinct legal systems, each with its own sources, subjects, and sanctions. Anzilloti similarly argued that international law is a system of law that is separate from and superior to domestic law. Oppenheim also held that international law is a separate legal system, but he argued that it is not superior to domestic law.

Duguit's view of law is in contrast to the dualist theory in that he does not believe that law is a separate system from morality. He argues that law is a product of social forces, and that it is therefore subject to the same moral standards as any other social institution. This view has been influential in the development of sociological jurisprudence, which is a school of thought that emphasizes the social context of law.

The correct answer is (b), Qutubuddin Aibak.

Qutubuddin Aibak was a slave of a slave of Muhammad Ghori, the ruler of Ghor in Afghanistan. He was brought to India by Muhammad Ghori and became one of his most trusted generals. After Muhammad Ghori's death in 1206, Qutubuddin Aibak became the first Sultan of Delhi.

Mohammad Ghori was a Muslim ruler from the Ghurid dynasty. He invaded India several times in the 12th century and conquered large parts of the country. He was killed in battle in 1206.

Balban was a Turkic slave who served under Qutubuddin Aibak and Iltutmish. He became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266 and ruled for 20 years. He is known for his military reforms and for his efforts to consolidate the Delhi Sultanate.

Iltutmish was a Turkic slave who served under Muhammad Ghori and Qutubuddin Aibak. He became the Sultan of Delhi in 1211 and ruled for 25 years. He is known for his military conquests and for his patronage of architecture.

The correct answer is (c), Mahatma Gandhi.

Mahatma Gandhi was the founder and chairman of the Harijan Sewak Sangh, an organization dedicated to the upliftment of the Dalits, formerly known as "untouchables". The Harijan Sewak Sangh was founded in 1932, and Gandhi served as its chairman until his assassination in 1948.

Gandhi believed that the Dalits were being denied their basic human rights, and he worked tirelessly to improve their lives. He campaigned for their right to education, employment, and housing. He also worked to end the practice of untouchability, which was a social stigma that prevented Dalits from interacting with members of higher castes.

Gandhi's work with the Harijan Sewak Sangh had a profound impact on the lives of the Dalits. He helped to raise awareness of their plight and to secure some important legal and social reforms. His work also helped to inspire a new generation of Dalit leaders who would continue to fight for their rights in the years to come.

Gandhi's work with the Harijan Sewak Sangh is just one example of his lifelong commitment to social justice. He was a tireless advocate for the rights of all people, regardless of their race, religion, or caste. His work has had a lasting impact on the world, and he continues to be an inspiration to people around the globe.

The other options are incorrect.

(a) G.D. Birla was a wealthy Indian industrialist who was a close associate of Gandhi. However, he was not the founder of the Harijan Sewak Sangh.

(b) J.B. Kripalani was a prominent Indian politician who served as the President of the Indian National Congress from 1947 to 1950. However, he was not the founder of the Harijan Sewak Sangh.

(d) Vinoba Bhave was a Hindu monk and social activist who was a close associate of Gandhi. However, he was not the founder of the Harijan Sewak Sangh.

The correct answer is: **C) Both public and private sector enterprises**.

West Bengal's economy is characterized by a significant presence of both public and private sector enterprises. The state has a long history of state-led development, dating back to the early days of independence. In the 1950s and 1960s, the state government established a number of large public sector enterprises in key sectors such as steel, coal, and power. These enterprises played a major role in the state's economic development, and continue to be important players in the economy today.

In recent years, the state government has also made efforts to promote private sector investment. A number of reforms have been introduced to make it easier for businesses to operate in the state. As a result, private sector investment has increased significantly in recent years.

Today, West Bengal's economy is a mix of public and private sector enterprises. The state government plays a significant role in the economy, but the private sector is also playing an increasingly important role.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* **A) Public sector enterprises:** Public sector enterprises are enterprises that are owned and operated by the government. They are typically established to provide essential services or to promote economic development. In West Bengal, there are a number of large public sector enterprises in key sectors such as steel, coal, and power.
* **B) Private sector enterprises:** Private sector enterprises are enterprises that are owned and operated by private individuals or companies. They are typically established to make a profit. In West Bengal, there are a number of private sector enterprises in a variety of sectors, including manufacturing, services, and agriculture.
* **C) Both public and private sector enterprises:** West Bengal's economy is characterized by a significant presence of both public and private sector enterprises. The state government plays a significant role in the economy, but the private sector is also playing an increasingly important role.
* **D) None of the above:** This option is not correct. West Bengal's economy is characterized by a significant presence of both public and private sector enterprises.

The correct answer is: C. Either I or II is implicit

The statement "Interview conducted for selecting people for jobs should measure personality characteristics of candidates" does not explicitly state that performance on a job depends on personality characteristics, nor does it explicitly state that personality characteristics can be measured in an interview. However, both of these assumptions are necessary for the statement to be true.

If performance on a job does not depend on personality characteristics, then there is no point in measuring personality characteristics in an interview. Similarly, if personality characteristics cannot be measured in an interview, then there is no point in trying to do so.

Therefore, either assumption I or assumption II must be implicit in the statement.

The correct answer is: A. at its low temperature, bacteria and moulds are inactive.

Bacteria and molds are the main causes of food spoilage. They grow and multiply at temperatures between 40 and 140 degrees Fahrenheit. By keeping food below 40 degrees Fahrenheit, refrigerators slow down the growth of bacteria and molds, which helps to keep food fresh longer.

Option B is incorrect because bacteria and molds are not killed by cold temperatures. They are only slowed down.

Option C is incorrect because bacteria and molds are not frozen at cold temperatures. They are only slowed down.

Option D is incorrect because refrigerators do not sterilize food. Sterilization is the process of killing all living organisms, including bacteria and molds. Refrigerators do not kill all living organisms, so they do not sterilize food.

The correct answer is C. The directive principles of state policy.

Article 43(A) of the Indian Constitution states that the State shall endeavor to secure, by suitable legislation or executive action, participation of workers in management of industries. This means that the State should take steps to ensure that workers have a say in how their workplaces are run.

The directive principles of state policy are a set of principles that are not enforceable in court, but which the State is supposed to follow in making laws and policies. They are found in Part IV of the Constitution.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option A is incorrect because the State Government is not the only body that is responsible for implementing the directive principles of state policy. The Union Government is also responsible for this.
• Option B is incorrect because the Union Government is not the only body that is responsible for implementing the directive principles of state policy. The State Government is also responsible for this.
• Option D is incorrect because the fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen are a set of rights that are enforceable in court. The directive principles of state policy are not enforceable in court.

The correct answer is: B. AND, OR, NOT

Boolean logic is a system of logic that uses the values true and false to represent the outcome of logical expressions. It is used in many different fields, including computer science, mathematics, and philosophy.

The three main search expressions, or operators, recognized by Boolean logic are AND, OR, and NOT.

• AND is used to search for documents that contain all of the specified keywords. For example, if you search for "dog AND cat", you will find documents that contain both the words "dog" and "cat".
• OR is used to search for documents that contain any of the specified keywords. For example, if you search for "dog OR cat", you will find documents that contain either the word "dog" or the word "cat".
• NOT is used to exclude documents that contain the specified keyword. For example, if you search for "dog NOT cat", you will find documents that contain the word "dog" but do not contain the word "cat".

The other options are incorrect because they are not search expressions or operators recognized by Boolean logic.

The correct answer is (a) 1998-1999.

The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme is a credit card scheme for farmers in India. It was introduced in 1998-1999 by the Government of India to provide easy and affordable credit to farmers for agricultural purposes. The scheme is implemented by the State Governments and the Reserve Bank of India.

Under the KCC Scheme, farmers can avail a loan of up to Rs. 3 lakhs for agricultural purposes. The loan can be used for purchase of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, agricultural implements, and other inputs. The loan can also be used for construction of irrigation facilities, purchase of livestock, and other agricultural activities.

The KCC Scheme is a very popular scheme among farmers. It has helped to improve the agricultural productivity in India. The scheme has also helped to reduce the indebtedness of farmers.

The other options are incorrect because the KCC Scheme was not introduced in those years.

The correct answer is: A. Jena glass.

Jena glass is a type of optical glass that is used in making lenses and prisms. It is a borosilicate glass that is known for its high refractive index, low thermal expansion, and chemical durability. Jena glass is also known for its high optical quality, which makes it ideal for use in precision optical instruments.

Soft glass is a type of glass that is made from soda ash, lime, and silica. It is a relatively low-melting glass that is easy to work with. Soft glass is often used in making light bulbs, glassware, and other objects that do not require a high degree of optical quality.

Pyrex glass is a type of borosilicate glass that is known for its high thermal resistance. It is often used in making cookware, laboratory equipment, and other objects that need to withstand high temperatures. Pyrex glass is not as optically pure as Jena glass, so it is not typically used in making lenses and prisms.

Flint glass is a type of lead glass that is known for its high refractive index and dispersion. It is often used in making optical instruments, such as lenses and prisms. Flint glass is also used in making decorative objects, such as vases and chandeliers.

The correct answer is (b).

The day of the week repeats itself every 7 days. So, if it was Monday on January 15th 1989, it would be Monday again on January 20th 1990.

Option (a) is incorrect because Sunday is the day before Monday.

Option (c) is incorrect because Tuesday is the day after Monday.

Option (d) is incorrect because Wednesday is the day after Tuesday.

The correct answer is (d). Vidya Balan won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her performance in the 2005 film Parineeta. The other options are incorrect. Kareena Kapoor won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her performance in the 2001 film Kabhi Khushi Kabhie Gham. Priyanka Chopra won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her performance in the 2008 film Fashion. Rani Mukherjee won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her performance in the 2006 film Black.

Parineeta is a 2005 Indian Hindi-language romantic drama film directed by debutant Pradeep Sarkar and produced by Vidhu Vinod Chopra. The film stars Vidya Balan, Saif Ali Khan, Sanjay Dutt, and Raima Sen. The film is based on the 1856 Bengali novel of the same name by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay. The film tells the story of a young woman named Lalita (Balan) who falls in love with a young man named Shekhar (Khan). However, their love is forbidden by Lalita's father (Dutt). The film was a critical and commercial success, grossing over ₹100 crore (US$13 million) worldwide. Balan's performance was praised by critics, and she won the National Film Award for Best Actress.

The correct answer is: A. 11 December

International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is observed on 17 October every year. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1993. The day is an opportunity for people around the world to come together and recommit to the fight against poverty.

The theme for the 2023 International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is "Accelerating actions towards a poverty-free future for all." The theme highlights the need for urgent action to address the root causes of poverty and to ensure that everyone has the opportunity to live a dignified life.

The United Nations has set a number of goals for the eradication of poverty. These goals include:

• Halving the number of people living in extreme poverty by 2015.
• Achieving universal primary education by 2015.
• Promoting gender equality and empowering women.
• Reducing child mortality.
• Improving maternal health.
• Combating HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases.
• Ensuring environmental sustainability.
• Developing a global partnership for development.

The United Nations has made significant progress in the fight against poverty. However, there is still much work to be done. Millions of people around the world continue to live in extreme poverty. The United Nations is committed to working with governments, civil society organizations, and the private sector to eradicate poverty and achieve a better future for all.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the dates on which International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is observed.

The correct answer is: C. Virtual, magnified and erect.

A simple microscope is a device that uses a single lens to magnify an image of an object. The image formed by a simple microscope is always virtual, erect, and magnified.

A virtual image is an image that is formed by light rays that do not actually intersect. Instead, the light rays appear to come from a point behind the lens. A virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen.

An erect image is an image that is upright, or right-side-up. A virtual image is always erect.

A magnified image is an image that is larger than the object being viewed. The amount of magnification is determined by the focal length of the lens.

The image formed by a simple microscope is always virtual, erect, and magnified. This is because the lens of a simple microscope is a converging lens. A converging lens causes light rays to converge, or come together, at a point behind the lens. The image formed by a converging lens is always virtual, erect, and magnified.

The correct answer is A. Jayadeva.

Jayadeva was an Indian poet and musician who lived in the 12th century. He is best known for his Sanskrit poem Gita Govinda, which is a lyrical love story about Krishna and Radha. The poem is considered to be one of the greatest works of Sanskrit literature.

Kalidasa was an Indian poet and playwright who lived in the 4th or 5th century. He is considered to be one of the greatest writers in Sanskrit literature. His works include the plays Abhijñānaśākuntalam and Vikramōrvaśīyam, and the poems Meghadūta and Ritusamhāra.

Panini was an Indian grammarian who lived in the 5th century BCE. He is considered to be the father of Sanskrit grammar. His work, the Ashtadhyayi, is a comprehensive grammar of Sanskrit.

None of the above is the correct answer.

The correct answer is (d) Uttar Pradesh.

The decadal growth rate of population during 2001-2011 was maximum in the State of Uttar Pradesh. The population of Uttar Pradesh increased from 166,198,000 in 2001 to 200,379,000 in 2011, a growth rate of 20.16%. This was higher than the national growth rate of 17.64%.

The high growth rate of population in Uttar Pradesh is due to a number of factors, including a high fertility rate, a young population, and a net in-migration of people from other states. The high fertility rate means that women in Uttar Pradesh have an average of 2.7 children each, which is higher than the national average of 2.2 children. The young population means that a large proportion of the population is of child-bearing age, which contributes to the high growth rate. The net in-migration of people from other states means that more people are moving into Uttar Pradesh than are moving out, which also contributes to the high growth rate.

The high growth rate of population in Uttar Pradesh has a number of implications for the state. It puts a strain on resources such as food, water, and energy. It also puts a strain on infrastructure such as schools, hospitals, and roads. The high growth rate also makes it difficult for the state to provide basic services to its citizens.

The government of Uttar Pradesh has taken a number of measures to address the issue of population growth. These measures include providing family planning services, promoting education for girls, and creating jobs for women. The government has also launched a number of awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance of population control.

The high growth rate of population in Uttar Pradesh is a complex issue with no easy solutions. The government of Uttar Pradesh is working to address the issue, but it is a long-term challenge.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Utkarsh Bangla is a flagship skill development program of the Government of West Bengal. It was launched in 2017 with the objective of providing quality training to the youth of the state and making them employable. The program covers a wide range of skills, including IT, electronics, manufacturing, healthcare, and agriculture. It also provides training in entrepreneurship and soft skills.

Utkarsh Bangla has been successful in generating employment opportunities for the youth of West Bengal. In the first two years of its operation, the program has trained over 2 million people and generated over 1 lakh jobs. The program has also been successful in improving the employability of the youth. A study by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) found that the average salary of the youth who have been trained under Utkarsh Bangla is 15% higher than the average salary of the youth who have not been trained under the program.

Utkarsh Bangla is a unique program that has the potential to transform the lives of the youth of West Bengal. It is a well-designed and well-implemented program that is making a real difference in the lives of the people of the state.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

* Skill development: Utkarsh Bangla provides training in a wide range of skills, including IT, electronics, manufacturing, healthcare, and agriculture. This helps the youth to develop the skills they need to get a good job.
* Employment generation: Utkarsh Bangla has been successful in generating employment opportunities for the youth of West Bengal. In the first two years of its operation, the program has trained over 2 million people and generated over 1 lakh jobs.
* Industrial training: Utkarsh Bangla also provides industrial training to the youth. This helps them to get jobs in the manufacturing sector.

The correct answer is (c), Article 100.

Article 100 of the Constitution of India states that the Speaker shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes. This means that if there is a tie in a vote in the Lok Sabha, the Speaker's vote will be the deciding factor.

Article 99 of the Constitution deals with the qualifications for being a member of the Lok Sabha. Article 103 deals with the salaries and allowances of members of Parliament. Article 102 deals with the disqualifications for membership of Parliament.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the House. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Speaker holds office during the pleasure of the House. The Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of the members of the House.

The Speaker has a number of important powers and functions. The Speaker is responsible for maintaining order in the House. The Speaker also has the power to decide whether a matter is admissible for discussion in the House. The Speaker also has the power to adjourn the House or suspend a member from the House.

The correct answer is: B. Shawn Michaels

At the 1994 Royal Rumble, The Undertaker defeated Yokozuna in a Casket Match. At the 1998 Royal Rumble, The Undertaker defeated Shawn Michaels in a Casket Match.

A. Yokozuna is incorrect because he was The Undertaker's opponent in the 1994 Royal Rumble Casket Match.

C. Mabel is incorrect because he was The Undertaker's opponent at the 1995 King of the Ring.

D. Triple H is incorrect because he was The Undertaker's opponent at the 1997 Bad Blood.

The correct answer is A. amplitude.

Amplitude is the height of a wave, measured from its midline to its peak. It is a measure of the wave's energy. The amplitude of a wave does not affect its velocity, wavelength, or frequency.

Velocity is the speed at which a wave travels. It is determined by the wave's frequency and wavelength. The higher the frequency, the higher the velocity. The longer the wavelength, the lower the velocity.

Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs of a wave. It is a measure of the size of a wave. The wavelength of a wave does not affect its amplitude, velocity, or frequency.

Frequency is the number of waves that pass a given point in a given amount of time. It is measured in hertz (Hz). The higher the frequency, the more waves pass a given point in a given amount of time. The lower the frequency, the fewer waves pass a given point in a given amount of time.

In conclusion, the amplitude of a wave is independent of its velocity, wavelength, and frequency.

The answer is C. Goods.

A roster is a list of people who are assigned to a particular duty. Inventory is a list of goods that are available for sale or use. In both cases, the list is a record of something that is being used or managed.

Furnace is a device for heating something. Exports are goods that are sold to another country. Produce is food that is grown or raised. These words do not have the same relationship to each other as roster and duty.

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

The National Health Mission (NHM) is a flagship program of the Government of India aimed at achieving universal health coverage, improving maternal and child health, and strengthening healthcare infrastructure.

The NHM was launched in 2005 with the goal of providing affordable and accessible healthcare to all Indians. The mission has three main components:

* **Achieving universal health coverage:** The NHM aims to provide all Indians with access to essential healthcare services, including preventive, curative, and rehabilitative care. This includes providing free or low-cost treatment for common diseases, such as malaria, tuberculosis, and diarrhea.
* **Improving maternal and child health:** The NHM aims to reduce maternal and child mortality rates. This includes providing antenatal care and postnatal care to pregnant women, as well as immunization and nutrition services to children.
* **Strengthening healthcare infrastructure:** The NHM aims to improve the quality and availability of healthcare services in India. This includes building new hospitals and clinics, training healthcare workers, and providing essential medicines and equipment.

The NHM has been successful in achieving some of its goals. For example, the maternal mortality rate in India has declined by more than 50% since the NHM was launched. However, there are still many challenges that need to be addressed, such as the high prevalence of non-communicable diseases.

The NHM is a complex and ambitious program, but it has the potential to make a significant impact on the health of the Indian people.

The correct answer is: B. Low atmospheric pressure.

At higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower. This means that there is less air pressure pushing down on the water molecules. As a result, the water molecules have more energy and can move around more freely. This makes it easier for them to escape from the liquid state and enter the gas state, or boil.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Low temperature would cause the water molecules to move more slowly, making it harder for them to escape from the liquid state and enter the gas state.
• High temperature would cause the water molecules to move more quickly, making it easier for them to escape from the liquid state and enter the gas state.
• High atmospheric pressure would push down on the water molecules, making it harder for them to escape from the liquid state and enter the gas state.

The correct answer is (c). Puducheri is a union territory of India, located on the southeastern coast of India. It is bordered by the state of Tamil Nadu to the north, the state of Kerala to the south, and the state of Andhra Pradesh to the east. The territory has a population of over 700,000 people and its capital is Puducherry.

Puducherry was a French colony for over 300 years, from 1674 to 1954. It was granted independence by France on November 1, 1954, and became a union territory of India on November 14, 1954.

The territory of Puducheri is divided into four districts: Puducherry, Karaikal, Yanam, and Mahe. The district of Puducherry is the largest district in the territory, followed by Karaikal, Yanam, and Mahe.

The territory of Puducheri is a popular tourist destination, known for its beaches, temples, and French colonial architecture.

The correct answer is: B. the North Sea

The Rhine is the longest river in both Germany and Western Europe. It flows through Germany, France, Switzerland, Liechtenstein, and the Netherlands, and empties into the North Sea.

The Baltic Sea is an inland sea located in Northern Europe. It is bounded by Sweden, Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.

The Bay of Biscay is an inlet of the Atlantic Ocean located on the western coast of France and the northern coast of Spain.

The Adriatic Sea is an extension of the Mediterranean Sea located between Italy and the Balkan Peninsula.

The correct answer is: Both I and II are implicit.

The statement "If it does not rain throughout this month, most farmers would be in trouble this year" implies that timely rain is essential for farming and that most farmers are generally dependent on rains.

If it does not rain throughout this month, then crops will not grow and farmers will not be able to harvest them. This will lead to financial losses for farmers and may even force them to leave their farms.

The fact that most farmers are generally dependent on rains means that they rely on rain to water their crops. Without rain, they will not be able to grow their crops and will suffer financial losses.

Therefore, both assumptions I and II are implicit in the statement.

The correct answer is $boxed{frac{1}{4}}$.

Marginal revenue is the additional revenue that a firm earns from selling an additional unit of output. It is calculated by taking the derivative of the total revenue function with respect to the quantity sold.

In this case, the demand curve is given by $p = 16 - frac{1}{{sq}}$. The total revenue function is therefore $TR = pq = 16q - frac{q^2}{4}$. The marginal revenue function is $MR = frac{d}{dq}(TR) = 16 - frac{q}{2}$.

At $q = 4$, the marginal revenue is $frac{1}{4}$. This means that if the firm sells an additional unit of output, its revenue will increase by $frac{1}{4}$.

The other options are incorrect because they do not correspond to the marginal revenue function. Option A, $16$, is the price of the first unit of output. Option B, $8$, is the average revenue when $q = 4$. Option C, $4$, is the marginal revenue when $q = 2$.

The missing number is 11.

The numbers in the sequence are all prime numbers, except for 10, which is a composite number. The next prime number after 10 is 11.

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not a product of two smaller natural numbers. A composite number is a natural number greater than 1 that is not prime.

The correct answer is: C. Bamol

William J. Baumol is an American economist who is known for his work on industrial organization, public economics, and the economics of the arts. He is the author of numerous books, including "Economic Theory and Operations Analysis" (1959), "Business Behavior, Value and Growth" (1959), "The Theory of Price Discrimination" (1964), "Economics of the Public Sector" (1965), "Wealth and Welfare" (1968), "The Cost Disease of the Service Sector" (1967), "The Free Market and the Arts" (1978), "Superfairness: Choosing Among Three Values in Social Choice" (1985), "The Productivity Puzzle" (1991), "To Promote Growth: Innovation and the Wealth of Nations" (2002), and "The Free-Market Innovation Machine: Analyzing the Growth Miracle of Capitalism" (2004).

Robbins, Keynes, and Marshall are all well-known economists, but they did not write a book called "Economic Theory and Operations Analysis."

The correct answer is: B. anaesthetic

Chloroform is a potent anesthetic that can be used to induce unconsciousness. It is a colorless, flammable liquid that has a sweet, chloroform-like odor. Chloroform is a chlorinated hydrocarbon that is produced by the reaction of methane and chlorine. It is used as a solvent, a refrigerant, and an anesthetic.

An analgesic is a drug that relieves pain. Analgesics can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including headaches, muscle aches, and arthritis. There are many different types of analgesics, including over-the-counter medications such as ibuprofen and acetaminophen, and prescription medications such as codeine and morphine.

An antimalarial is a drug that is used to prevent or treat malaria. Malaria is a serious disease that is caused by a parasite that is transmitted to humans by mosquitoes. There are many different types of antimalarials, including chloroquine, quinine, and mefloquine.

An antibiotic is a drug that is used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics work by killing bacteria or preventing them from multiplying. There are many different types of antibiotics, including penicillin, amoxicillin, and tetracycline.

Chloroform is not an analgesic, antimalarial, or antibiotic. It is an anesthetic.

The Bandel Thermal Power Project of WBPDCL is located in Hooghly.

Digha and Kanthi or Contai are important sea beaches in the Sandy Coastal Plains region of West Bengal.

The correct answer is (d) PQL.

The sequence is a simple substitution cipher, where each letter is replaced by the letter three places after it in the alphabet. So, R becomes P, U becomes Q, A becomes L, and so on.

The missing term is therefore PQL, which comes after DWS in the alphabet.

(a) PIT is incorrect because T is not three places after S in the alphabet.
(b) GBM is incorrect because M is not three places after B in the alphabet.
(c) GDU is incorrect because U is not three places after D in the alphabet.

The correct answer is: A) Work for the welfare of people affected by mining.

The District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a statutory body established in each district to work for the welfare of people affected by mining. It is a non-profit trust with a corpus fund created by the mining companies operating in the district. The DMF is responsible for implementing various welfare schemes for the people affected by mining, such as providing drinking water, sanitation, education, health, and employment opportunities.

The other options are incorrect. Option B is incorrect because the DMF is supposed to discourage illegal mining activities. Option C is incorrect because the DMF is supposed to promote sustainable mining practices. Option D is incorrect because the DMF is supposed to increase government revenue from mining.

The correct answer is (b). The Kaveri River originates in the Brahmagiri Hills in Karnataka. It is the longest river in the Indian state of Karnataka and the second longest river in the Peninsular India. The river flows through the states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. It is a perennial river and its water is used for irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power generation.

The Sahyadri range is a mountain range in the Western Ghats of India. It is the longest mountain range in India and is known for its biodiversity. The Gavaligarh Hills are a mountain range in the Western Ghats of India. They are located in the state of Maharashtra. The Amarkantak is a hill station in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is the source of the Narmada River.

The Kaveri River is a major source of water for the people of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. It is also a major tourist attraction. The river is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, elephants, and monkeys. The Kaveri River is a vital part of the Indian ecosystem and is an important source of water for agriculture and industry.

At the time of independence (1947), West Bengal was divided into 14 districts viz, Bankura, Birbhum, Bardhaman, Kolkata, Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, Hooghly, Howrah, Malda, Midnapore, Murshidabad, Nadia, West Dinajpur and 24 Parganas.

The correct answer is D. No improvement.

The sentence "James sat there in stunned silence, to try to absorb what Reeta was saying" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly. The phrase "to try to absorb" is idiomatic and commonly used in this context. The other options are either grammatically incorrect or do not convey the intended meaning as clearly.

• Option A, "so as to try", is grammatically incorrect. The preposition "so as to" is used to introduce a purpose clause, but in this case the clause is not a purpose clause. The correct preposition to use here is "to".
• Option B, "trying", is grammatically correct, but it does not convey the intended meaning as clearly as the original sentence. The phrase "trying to absorb" suggests that James is actively trying to understand what Reeta is saying, but the sentence actually means that James is stunned and unable to speak.
• Option C, "as if trying", is grammatically correct, but it also does not convey the intended meaning as clearly as the original sentence. The phrase "as if trying" suggests that James is pretending to try to understand what Reeta is saying, but the sentence actually means that James is stunned and unable to speak.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. No improvement.

Kolkata has the highest population density of 24,306. Purulia district has the lowest population density of 468.

The correct answer is B. P.V. Sindhu.

P.V. Sindhu is an Indian badminton player who won the silver medal in the women's singles event at the 2016 Summer Olympics in Rio de Janeiro. She is the first Indian woman to win an individual silver medal at the Olympics.

Sania Mirza is an Indian professional tennis player. She has won six Grand Slam titles, three in women's doubles and three in mixed doubles. She is the first Indian player to win a Grand Slam title in singles, doubles, and mixed doubles.

Saina Nehwal is an Indian professional badminton player. She is the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Badminton World Championships, a bronze in 2010. She is also the first Indian woman to reach the final of the BWF World Tour Finals, in 2015.

Rituparna Das is an Indian professional badminton player. She is the first Indian woman to win a gold medal at the BWF World Junior Championships, in 2013. She is also the first Indian woman to reach the final of the BWF Superseries Premier, in 2017.

The correct answer is: B. Inelastic

The demand for life-saving drugs is inelastic because people are willing to pay a high price for them, even if the price goes up. This is because life-saving drugs are essential to people's health and well-being, and people are willing to do whatever it takes to get them.

An inelastic demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service does not change much when the price of the good or service changes. This means that people are not very sensitive to changes in price when it comes to essential goods and services.

In contrast, an elastic demand curve is a curve that shows that the quantity demanded of a good or service changes a lot when the price of the good or service changes. This means that people are very sensitive to changes in price when it comes to non-essential goods and services.

Here are some examples of goods and services that have inelastic demand curves:

• Life-saving drugs
• Food
• Water
• Housing

Here are some examples of goods and services that have elastic demand curves:

• Luxury goods
• Vacations
• Electronics
• Clothes

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

The correct answer is C) Boats and ferries.

The Sundarbans delta is a vast and largely inaccessible area, with many rivers and canals. As a result, boats and ferries are the most efficient and reliable mode of transport. They are also the only way to reach some parts of the delta.

Buses and trains are not practical in the Sundarbans because they require roads, which are not available in many parts of the delta. Airplanes are also not practical because they are expensive and there are no airports in the Sundarbans.

Therefore, boats and ferries are the only viable option for commuting in the Sundarbans delta.

Famous Hangseshwari temple is in Hooghly district of West Bengal.

The correct answer is D. secretive.

The word "nefarious" means evil or wicked. The word "progressive" means moving forward or developing. The word "systematic" means done or happening according to a fixed plan or system. The word "secretive" means keeping something secret or hidden.

In the context of the question, Pakistan has been vigorously pursuing a clandestine nuclear weapons programme. This means that Pakistan has been working on developing nuclear weapons in secret. This is a secretive activity because Pakistan does not want other countries to know about it.

The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the activity that Pakistan is engaged in. Pakistan is not evil or wicked, it is not developing nuclear weapons in order to move forward or develop, and it is not doing so according to a fixed plan or system. Pakistan is simply trying to keep its nuclear weapons program a secret.

The correct answer is: D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1954.

Dr. Zakir Hussain was the third President of India. He was not awarded the Bharat Ratna before becoming President.

V. V. Giri was the sixth President of India. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1977, after becoming President.

R. Venkataraman was the ninth President of India. He was not awarded the Bharat Ratna before becoming President.

Ballabhpur Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1977. Jorepokhri Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1985. Bibhutibhushan Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1980. Ramnabagan Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1981.

The correct answer is (a) Education for all.

The Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-2012) for education sector was based on the theme of "Education for all". The goal of this plan was to achieve universal elementary education and to improve the quality of education at all levels. The plan also emphasized the need to make education more relevant to the needs of the economy and society.

Option (b), Education with sports, is not the theme of the Eleventh Five Year Plan for education sector. However, the plan did recognize the importance of sports in education and called for the promotion of sports in schools and colleges.

Option (c), Compulsory elementary education, is one of the goals of the Eleventh Five Year Plan for education sector. The plan called for making elementary education compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 years.

Option (d), Vocationalisation of education, is not the theme of the Eleventh Five Year Plan for education sector. However, the plan did recognize the importance of vocational education and called for the expansion of vocational education programs.

The correct answer is C. Australia.

The Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Australia, covering an area of 424,400 square kilometers (163,600 square miles). It is located in the southern part of the country, between the Nullarbor Plain to the west and the Great Sandy Desert to the east. The desert is a vast, arid region with little vegetation. The average rainfall is only 125 millimeters (5 inches) per year, and the temperature can reach up to 50 degrees Celsius (122 degrees Fahrenheit).

The Great Victoria Desert is home to a variety of wildlife, including kangaroos, emus, lizards, and snakes. The desert is also a popular destination for tourists, who come to experience its unique landscape and wildlife.

The other options are incorrect. Canada is a country in North America. West Africa is a region in Africa. North America is a continent.

The correct answer is (d) VI.

The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, is an Act of the Parliament of India that provides for the dissolution of marriages among Muslims. The Act was passed in response to the demand of Muslim women for greater rights in marriage and divorce.

The Act provides for six grounds on which a Muslim wife can seek divorce from her husband:

1. Insanity. If the husband has been insane for a period of two years or more, the wife can seek divorce.
2. Leprosy. If the husband is a leper, the wife can seek divorce.
3. Venereal disease. If the husband is suffering from a venereal disease, the wife can seek divorce.
4. Impotency. If the husband is impotent, the wife can seek divorce.
5. Conversion to another religion. If the husband converts to another religion, the wife can seek divorce.
6. Desertion. If the husband deserts the wife for a period of two years or more, the wife can seek divorce.

In addition to these six grounds, the Act also provides for a seventh ground on which a Muslim wife can seek divorce, namely, cruelty. However, the definition of cruelty under the Act is very narrow and it is difficult for a wife to prove that her husband has been cruel to her.

The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, is a landmark piece of legislation that has given Muslim women greater rights in marriage and divorce. However, the Act is still not perfect and there are a number of areas where it can be improved. For example, the definition of cruelty under the Act is too narrow and it is difficult for a wife to prove that her husband has been cruel to her. Additionally, the Act does not provide for any financial compensation for a divorced wife.

The first Bengali language film was the silent feature film Billwamangal, produced by the Madan Theatre Company of Kolkata and released on 8th November, 1919.

Howrah bridge is built over the Hooghly river of West Bengal. It was established in 1943.

The correct answer is: D. None of the above

The length of the day is determined by the Earth's rotation on its axis. It takes the Earth 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4.09 seconds to rotate once on its axis. This is called a sidereal day. A solar day is the time it takes for the Sun to return to the same position in the sky, as seen from Earth. It is slightly longer than a sidereal day, at 24 hours.

Astronomical units are a unit of length used to measure the distance between astronomical objects. One astronomical unit is equal to the average distance between the Earth and the Sun, which is about 150 million kilometers.

Solar terms are a system of dividing the year into 24 periods, each of which is about 15 days long. The solar terms are based on the Sun's position in the sky, and they are used to track the seasons.

The length of the hours is a human-made construct. It is based on the Earth's rotation on its axis, but it is not a perfect measure of that rotation. The Earth's rotation is slowing down very gradually, so the length of the hour is also slowly getting longer.

WB Dairy and Poultry Development Corporation Ltd. (DAIRPOUL), Kolkata was established in 1969 with the task to facilitate animal feed production.

The correct answer is (a) Godavari.

The Godavari River is the largest river in India by discharge. It originates in the Western Ghats near Nasik in Maharashtra and flows eastward across the Deccan Plateau before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. The Godavari River is a major source of irrigation and drinking water for millions of people in India. It is also a popular destination for fishing, boating, and other water sports.

The Aliabet Island is located in the Godavari River estuary, near the city of Rajahmundry. The island is a popular tourist destination, known for its beaches, temples, and wildlife.

The other options are incorrect because they are not rivers that flow into the Bay of Bengal. The Cauvery River flows into the Bay of Bengal, but it is not the largest river in India. The Narmada River flows into the Arabian Sea, and the Tapti River also flows into the Arabian Sea.

The correct answer is **A) Mayor**.

The Mayor is the head of the Kolkata Municipal Corporation. He/She is elected by the people of Kolkata. The Mayor is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the city. He/She also represents the city in various forums.

The Municipal Commissioner is the chief executive officer of the Kolkata Municipal Corporation. He/She is appointed by the state government. The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions of the Mayor and the Corporation Council.

The Chairman is the presiding officer of the Corporation Council. He/She is elected by the members of the Corporation Council. The Chairman is responsible for conducting the meetings of the Corporation Council.

The Chief Executive Officer is the head of the Kolkata Municipal Corporation's administrative wing. He/She is appointed by the Mayor. The Chief Executive Officer is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the Corporation's administrative wing.

The correct answer is A. GATT (now WTO).

GATT, or the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, was founded in 1947. It was an international agreement that aimed to reduce tariffs and other trade barriers between countries. The agreement was successful in reducing tariffs and promoting trade, and it was eventually replaced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995.

NAM, or the Non-Aligned Movement, was founded in 1961. It is a group of countries that are not aligned with either the United States or the Soviet Union. The movement was founded in response to the Cold War, and it has since grown to include over 100 countries.

UNO, or the United Nations, was founded in 1945. It is an international organization that aims to maintain international peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, and promote social progress, better living standards, and human rights.

ASEAN, or the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, was founded in 1967. It is a regional organization that aims to promote economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in Southeast Asia.

In conclusion, the year 1995 is the golden Jubilee year of GATT (now WTO).

The correct answer is: B. By decreasing solubility of Soap.

Saponification is a chemical reaction that produces soap and glycerin from fats or oils and an alkali. The alkali can be sodium hydroxide (NaOH), potassium hydroxide (KOH), or another strong base.

When soap is made, the fats or oils are first heated until they melt. Then, the alkali is added and the mixture is stirred. This causes a chemical reaction to occur, which produces soap and glycerin. The soap is then separated from the glycerin and water by filtration.

Common salt (NaCl) can be added to the soap solution after saponification. This helps to decrease the solubility of the soap, which makes it easier to separate from the solution. The salt ions interact with the soap molecules, which makes them less likely to dissolve in water. This results in a precipitate of soap, which can be easily filtered out of the solution.

The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because common salt does not decrease the density of soap. Option C is incorrect because common salt does not increase the density of soap. Option D is incorrect because common salt does not increase the solubility of soap.

The correct answer is (c). Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has not been accorded status of ‘Navaratua’.

Navaratnas are a group of 17 public sector undertakings (PSUs) in India that have been identified as being of strategic importance to the country. They are considered to be among the best-performing PSUs and are given special treatment by the government.

REC is a government-owned corporation that was established in 1969. It is responsible for financing, planning, and implementing rural electrification projects in India. REC has played a major role in the country's rural electrification program, and has helped to bring electricity to millions of people who previously did not have access to it.

However, REC has not been accorded status of ‘Navaratua’. This is likely because REC is not considered to be a strategic sector of the economy. The government has decided to focus its resources on developing other sectors, such as information technology and manufacturing.

Despite not being a Navaratna, REC is still a very important PSU. It plays a vital role in the country's rural electrification program, and has helped to improve the lives of millions of people.

The correct answer is (c) Jaipur.

The North Western Railway (NWR) is one of the 17 railway zones of Indian Railways. It is headquartered in Jaipur, Rajasthan. The NWR has a network of over 6,000 route kilometers and serves 12 states in India. It is one of the busiest railway zones in India, carrying over 1.5 billion passengers annually.

The NWR was formed on 1 April 1952, by merging the Jaipur Railway Division of the Western Railway and the Bikaner Railway Division of the East Indian Railway. The NWR's jurisdiction covers the states of Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

The NWR has a total of 12 divisions: Jaipur, Ajmer, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Kota, Bharatpur, Agra, Firozabad, Meerut, Ambala, and Ludhiana. The NWR also has a number of workshops and training institutes.

The NWR is a major employer in India, with over 200,000 employees. The NWR is also a major contributor to the Indian economy, generating over ₹1 lakh crore in revenue annually.

The NWR has a long and rich history. The first railway line in the NWR's jurisdiction was opened in 1857, between Delhi and Agra. The NWR has played a major role in the development of India, and continues to be a vital part of the Indian economy.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the headquarters of the North-Western Railways.

The correct answer is D. no article.

The word "money" is a non-count noun, which means it does not have a plural form and does not take a determiner (such as "a", "an", or "the").

In this sentence, "money" is the object of the preposition "in need of". The preposition "in need of" requires a non-count noun as its object.

Here are some other examples of non-count nouns:

• water
• air
• love
• happiness
• information

Note that some non-count nouns can be used with a determiner when they are used in a specific sense. For example, we can say "I need a new car" or "I need the money to pay my rent". In these cases, the determiner is used to indicate that we are talking about a specific car or a specific amount of money.

The correct answer is (b).

Let $x$ be the original time taken by the train. If the train increases its speed by 12.5%, then the new time taken is $frac{112.5}{100}x = frac{27}{20}x$. Since the new time is 20 minutes earlier, we have $frac{27}{20}x = x - 20$. Solving for $x$, we get $x = boxed{180}$ minutes.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is the time taken by the train if it does not increase its speed. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the time taken by the train if it increases its speed by 25%. Option (d) is incorrect because it is the time taken by the train if it increases its speed by 50%.

The answer is 45.

The sequence is $3^2, 5^2, 7^2, 9^2, 11^2, 13^2$.

Option A: 27 is not a perfect square.

Option B: 35 is not a perfect square.

Option C: 45 is a perfect square, and it is the square of 7.

Option D: 56 is not a perfect square.

The correct answer is (a) Article 243.

Article 243 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of District Planning Committees in every district. The Committees are to be constituted by the State Election Commission and consist of elected representatives of the people, representatives of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the district, and such other persons as the State Government may think fit to nominate.

The functions of the District Planning Committees are to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole and to recommend measures for the coordination of development plans prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities in the district. The Committees are also to review the progress of implementation of development plans and to suggest measures for their effective implementation.

Article 243 is one of the most important provisions of the Constitution of India, as it provides for the devolution of power to the local level. The establishment of District Planning Committees is a step in the direction of decentralization and participatory democracy.

Article 362 of the Constitution of India deals with the power of the President to suspend the operation of the Constitution in certain areas. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the imposition of President's Rule in a State. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment of the Constitution.

The answer is D. Shrew.

Sheep, gazelle, ibex, and tapir are all ungulates, which are mammals with hooves. Shrews, on the other hand, are insectivores, which are mammals that eat insects.

Sheep are domesticated ruminant mammals that are members of the genus Ovis. They are closely related to goats, and both species are members of the subfamily Caprinae. Sheep are raised for their wool, meat, and milk.

Gazelles are antelopes that are found in Africa, Asia, and Europe. They are characterized by their long, slender legs and their graceful leaps. Gazelles are herbivores, and they eat a variety of plants, including grasses, leaves, and fruits.

Ibex are wild goats that are found in mountainous regions of Europe, Asia, and Africa. They are characterized by their large, curved horns and their sure-footedness on steep slopes. Ibex are herbivores, and they eat a variety of plants, including grasses, leaves, and fruits.

Tapirs are odd-toed ungulates that are found in Central and South America. They are characterized by their long, flexible snouts and their short legs. Tapirs are herbivores, and they eat a variety of plants, including leaves, fruits, and roots.

Shrews are small, mouse-like mammals that are found in almost every part of the world. They are characterized by their long, pointed snouts and their sharp teeth. Shrews are insectivores, and they eat a variety of insects, including beetles, flies, and moths.

The correct answer is (c), Mahabharat.

The Mahabharat is an ancient Indian epic poem that tells the story of the Kurukshetra War. It is one of the longest epic poems in the world, with over 100,000 verses. The Mahabharat is considered to be one of the most important texts in Hinduism.

The manuscript of the Mahabharat was included in the United Nations Heritage in June, 2007. This was in recognition of the poem's cultural and historical significance.

The other options are also important texts in Hinduism, but they were not included in the United Nations Heritage.

The Valmiki Ramayana is an ancient Indian epic poem that tells the story of Rama, a prince who is exiled from his kingdom. It is one of the most popular texts in Hinduism.

The Rigveda is a collection of Vedic Sanskrit hymns. It is one of the oldest scriptures in Hinduism.

The Bhagvad Gita is a Hindu scripture that is part of the Mahabharat. It is a dialogue between the warrior Arjuna and his charioteer Krishna. The Gita is considered to be one of the most important texts in Hinduism.

The correct answer is: A. Haryana

The Panchayati Raj system was first adopted by the state of Haryana in 1962. It was later adopted by other states, including Rajasthan (1963), Madhya Pradesh (1964), and Karnataka (1987).

The Panchayati Raj system is a system of local self-government in India. It is based on the principle of devolution of power to the local level. The system consists of three tiers: the village panchayat, the block panchayat, and the district panchayat.

The village panchayat is the lowest tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is responsible for the development and management of the village. The block panchayat is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is responsible for the development and management of the block. The district panchayat is the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj system. It is responsible for the development and management of the district.

The Panchayati Raj system is a powerful tool for rural development. It has helped to improve the lives of millions of people in rural India.

Here is a brief explanation of each option:

• Option A: Haryana was the first state to adopt the Panchayati Raj system in 1962.
• Option B: Rajasthan adopted the Panchayati Raj system in 1963.
• Option C: Madhya Pradesh adopted the Panchayati Raj system in 1964.
• Option D: Karnataka adopted the Panchayati Raj system in 1987.

The correct answer is (d) Jointing stage.

The jointing stage is the most critical stage of irrigation in wheat because it is the stage when the plant is forming its tillers. Tillers are the secondary stems that grow from the main stem of the plant. The more tillers a plant has, the more grain it will produce. If the plant does not receive enough water during the jointing stage, it will not produce as many tillers and will therefore produce less grain.

The C.R.I. state (Critical Reproductive Initiation) is the stage when the plant is beginning to flower. The late tilting stage is the stage when the plant is beginning to form its head. The boot stage is the stage when the plant is beginning to form its grain.

All of these stages are important, but the jointing stage is the most critical because it is the stage when the plant is forming its tillers.

The correct answer is: increase.

Family planning is essential for curbing the rapid increase in population. This is because family planning allows couples to have the number of children they want and can afford, which helps to control population growth.

Option A, spread, is incorrect because it does not accurately describe the problem of population growth. Population growth is not a problem of people spreading out over a larger area, but rather of there being too many people in a given area.

Option B, spurt, is incorrect because it suggests that population growth is a sudden event, when in fact it is a gradual process.

Option C, augment, is incorrect because it means to make something larger or greater, which is not the goal of family planning. The goal of family planning is to control population growth, not to increase it.

Bishnupur Gharana is the sole classical gharana of West Bengal.

The correct answer is D. Wetlands.

Wetlands are a type of ecosystem that is saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally. They are found in a variety of locations, including coastal areas, riverbanks, and bogs. Wetlands are important for a number of reasons, including their ability to filter water, provide habitat for wildlife, and store carbon.

Methane is a greenhouse gas that is released from wetlands as a result of the decomposition of organic matter. Methane is a more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide, and its release into the atmosphere contributes to climate change.

The other options are incorrect because they are not sources of methane emission into the atmosphere.

• Automobile exhaust fume is a source of carbon monoxide and other pollutants, but not methane.
• Industrial chimneys emit a variety of pollutants, including sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter, but not methane.
• Mining can release methane into the atmosphere, but this is typically a localized issue.

In conclusion, the correct answer is D. Wetlands.

The correct answer is: A. Air

An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) is a device that removes particulate matter from a gas stream. It is commonly used in power plants, steel mills, and other industrial facilities to control air pollution.

ESPs work by charging particles in the gas stream with an electric field. The charged particles are then attracted to a collector electrode, where they are removed from the gas stream.

ESPs are very effective at removing small particles, such as those that are responsible for particulate matter pollution. They are also relatively energy-efficient and have a long lifespan.

The other options are incorrect because:

• B. Water pollution is controlled by devices such as filters, clarifiers, and activated carbon.
• C. Noise pollution is controlled by devices such as mufflers, silencers, and sound barriers.
• D. Thermal pollution is controlled by devices such as cooling towers and heat exchangers.

The correct answer is (d) 26th.

The 26th Amendment to the Constitution of India was enacted on 4 November 1971. It added a new Part IVA to the Constitution, which contains Fundamental Duties. These duties are moral obligations that every Indian citizen is expected to follow. They are not enforceable in a court of law, but they are nevertheless important as a guide to good citizenship.

The Fundamental Duties are as follows:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; and to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
6. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
7. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
8. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
9. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
10. To provide opportunities for education and to promote adult education.

The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution in order to promote a sense of national unity and integration, and to encourage citizens to participate in the development of the country. They are also intended to remind citizens of their responsibilities to society and to the environment.

The odd one out is C. Bulb.

• Heat, light, and electricity are all forms of energy.
• A bulb is a device that converts electricity into light.

Therefore, a bulb is not a form of energy, but rather a device that converts one form of energy (electricity) into another form of energy (light).

According to John Locke, a natural right is a right that is inherent to all human beings, regardless of their race, religion, nationality, or any other status. These rights are not granted by governments or other institutions, but are instead inalienable and universal.

Locke believed that there are three natural rights: life, liberty, and property. The right to life means that people have the right to live without being killed or harmed by others. The right to liberty means that people have the right to be free from slavery and other forms of oppression. The right to property means that people have the right to own and control their own possessions.

Locke's theory of natural rights has been highly influential in the development of Western political thought. It has been used to justify revolutions, to establish democracies, and to protect individual liberties.

The correct answer to the question is: D. Right to Vote

The right to vote is not a natural right because it is not inherent to all human beings. It is a right that is granted by governments or other institutions. In some countries, women and minorities are not allowed to vote. In other countries, only people who own property or pay taxes are allowed to vote.

The right to vote is an important right, but it is not a natural right.

The correct answer is (a) One.

The only city of purely hilly region in Uttarakhand that has been designated as Municipal Corporation is Dehradun. It was designated as a Municipal Corporation in 2000.

The other options are incorrect because they are not the correct number of cities of purely hilly region in Uttarakhand that have been designated as Municipal Corporation.

The correct answer is (c) Serena Williams.

Serena Williams won the Rome Masters (2015) women's singles title by defeating Maria Sharapova in the final. Williams won the match in two sets, 6-1, 6-3.

Carla Suarez Navarro was the runner-up in the Rome Masters (2015) women's singles tournament. She lost to Serena Williams in the final.

Daria Gavrilova was the third-place finisher in the Rome Masters (2015) women's singles tournament. She lost to Maria Sharapova in the semifinals.

Here is a brief description of each option:

(a) Carla Suarez Navarro is a Spanish professional tennis player. She has won 10 singles titles on the WTA Tour, including the 2015 Monterrey Open. She has also reached the quarterfinals of the French Open twice, in 2014 and 2015.

(b) Maria Sharapova is a Russian professional tennis player. She has won five Grand Slam singles titles, including the 2004 US Open, the 2006 Australian Open, the 2008 French Open, the 2012 Wimbledon Championships, and the 2014 US Open. She has also been ranked world No. 1 in singles by the Women's Tennis Association (WTA) on five occasions.

(c) Serena Williams is an American professional tennis player. She has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles, the most in the Open Era and the second-most in history, behind Margaret Court's 24 titles. She has also been ranked world No. 1 in singles by the Women's Tennis Association (WTA) on 31 occasions, the most in history for a female player.

(d) Daria Gavrilova is an Australian professional tennis player. She has won two singles titles on the WTA Tour, including the 2017 Nottingham Open. She has also reached the quarterfinals of the Australian Open twice, in 2017 and 2018.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C. 30%}}$.

The probability of event A happening, given that event B has already happened, is called the conditional probability of A given B, and is denoted by $P(A|B)$. It can be calculated using the following formula:

$$P(A|B) = frac{P(A cap B)}{P(B)}$$

In this case, event A is picking a red ball, and event B is mixing the contents of Bags A and B. The probability of picking a red ball from Bag A is $0.2$, and the probability of picking a red ball from Bag B is $0.3$. The probability of mixing the contents of Bags A and B is $1$, since it is certain that the contents will be mixed. Therefore, the conditional probability of picking a red ball given that the contents of Bags A and B have been mixed is:

$$P(A|B) = frac{P(A cap B)}{P(B)} = frac{0.2 + 0.3}{1} = 0.3$$

Therefore, the probability of picking a red ball is $boxed{text{30%}}$.

Option A is incorrect because it is the probability of picking a red ball from Bag A, not from the mixture of Bags A and B. Option B is incorrect because it is the average of the probabilities of picking a red ball from Bags A and B, but these probabilities are not equally likely. Option D is incorrect because it is the probability of picking a red ball from Bag B, not from the mixture of Bags A and B.

The correct answer is (d) Cobalt-60.

Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope of cobalt that is used in the treatment of blood cancer. It is a beta emitter, which means that it emits beta particles when it decays. Beta particles are high-energy electrons that can damage DNA, which can kill cancer cells.

Iodine-131 is a radioactive isotope of iodine that is used in the treatment of thyroid cancer. It is a gamma emitter, which means that it emits gamma rays when it decays. Gamma rays are high-energy photons that can damage DNA, but they are not as effective at killing cancer cells as beta particles.

Sodium-24 is a radioactive isotope of sodium that is used in the treatment of bone cancer. It is a beta emitter, but it is not as effective at killing cancer cells as cobalt-60.

Phosphorus-32 is a radioactive isotope of phosphorus that is used in the treatment of leukemia. It is a beta emitter, but it is not as effective at killing cancer cells as cobalt-60.

The correct answer is C. Triggers the immune system.

An antigen is a substance that can trigger an immune response. This means that it can cause the body to produce antibodies, which are proteins that help to fight off infection. Antigens can be found on the surface of bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances.

Option A is incorrect because antigens do not lower body temperature. This is the job of the hypothalamus, a part of the brain that regulates body temperature.

Option B is incorrect because antigens do not destroy harmful bacteria. This is the job of the immune system, which uses a variety of mechanisms to fight off infection.

Option D is incorrect because antigens are not used as antidotes to poison. Antidotes are substances that are used to treat poisoning. They work by blocking the effects of the poison or by helping the body to remove the poison from the body.

The correct answer is (c) Bombay High.

Bombay High is an offshore oil and gas field located in the Arabian Sea, about 100 kilometers (62 mi) off the west coast of India. It is one of the largest oil and gas fields in India, and has been in production since 1974. The field is operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), and is estimated to contain about 3.5 billion barrels of oil and 1.2 trillion cubic feet of natural gas.

The other options are incorrect because they are not major producers of natural gas in India. Andhra Pradesh Coast is a region along the east coast of India, and does not have any major natural gas fields. Gujarat Coast is a region along the west coast of India, and has some natural gas fields, but they are not as large as Bombay High. Tamil Nadu Coast is a region along the south coast of India, and does not have any major natural gas fields.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question "Most of the production of Natural gas in India comes from" is (c) Bombay High.

The correct answer is (c) 1645.

As on March 2012, there were 1645 Urban Co-operative Banks in India. These banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). They are governed by a board of directors, which is elected by the members of the bank. The board of directors appoints a managing director to run the day-to-day operations of the bank.

Urban co-operative banks provide a range of financial services to their members, including savings accounts, loans, and investments. They also provide a number of other services, such as bill payments and remittances.

Urban co-operative banks play an important role in the Indian economy. They provide financial services to a large number of people who would not otherwise have access to these services. They also help to promote economic development in the areas where they operate.

The following are the reasons why the other options are incorrect:

• Option (a) is incorrect because there were 1645 Urban Co-operative Banks in India as on March 2012, not 65.
• Option (b) is incorrect because there were 1645 Urban Co-operative Banks in India as on March 2012, not 164.
• Option (d) is incorrect because there were 1645 Urban Co-operative Banks in India as on March 2012, not 6540.

The correct answer is: C. of

Jealousy is a feeling of envy or resentment towards someone because of their superior qualities or advantages. In this case, the woman is jealous of her friend because her friend has something that she does not, such as a better job, a more attractive partner, or more money.

The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the feeling of jealousy.

• A. from suggests that the woman is being excluded from something, but this is not necessarily the case. She may simply be envious of her friend's good fortune.
• B. with suggests that the woman is happy for her friend, but this is not necessarily the case. She may be feeling a mixture of emotions, including jealousy and happiness.
• D. by suggests that the woman is being harmed by her friend, but this is not necessarily the case. She may simply be envious of her friend's good fortune.

The correct answer is (c) 1000:933.

The sex ratio in India is the number of females per 1000 males. According to the provisional figures of the 2011 Census, the sex ratio in India is 933 females per 1000 males. This means that for every 1000 males, there are 933 females in India.

The sex ratio in India has been declining over the past few decades. In 1991, the sex ratio was 927 females per 1000 males. This decline is due to a number of factors, including female infanticide, sex-selective abortion, and the preference for sons in Indian society.

The decline in the sex ratio is a serious concern, as it has a number of negative consequences for the country. For example, it can lead to a shortage of women in the workforce, which can impact economic growth. It can also lead to an increase in crime and violence against women.

The government of India has taken a number of measures to address the issue of declining sex ratio. These measures include awareness campaigns, stricter laws against female infanticide and sex-selective abortion, and incentives for families to have more daughters.

However, these measures have not been successful in reversing the trend of declining sex ratio. More needs to be done to address this issue, which is a serious threat to the future of India.

The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the actual sex ratio in India.

The answer is B. Canine.

Canines are pointed teeth that are used for tearing and piercing food. They are found in carnivores and omnivores, but not in herbivores. Herbivores do not need canine teeth because they do not eat meat. They eat plants, which can be easily chewed with incisors and molars.

Incisors are the front teeth that are used for cutting food. They are found in all mammals, including herbivores. Molars are the back teeth that are used for grinding food. They are also found in all mammals, including herbivores. Premolars are teeth that are located between the canines and molars. They are used for both cutting and grinding food.

Herbivores have a variety of adaptations that help them to eat plants. Their teeth are designed for grinding tough plant material, and their digestive system is able to extract nutrients from plants that carnivores and omnivores cannot.

Sombhu Mitra founded the Bohurupee Theatre Group in Kolkata in 1948.

The correct answer is D. no article.

A palm tree is a tall, woody plant with a crown of large, fan-shaped leaves. It is native to tropical and subtropical regions around the world. There are over 2,600 species of palm trees, and they come in a variety of shapes and sizes. Some palm trees are only a few feet tall, while others can grow to be over 100 feet tall. Palm trees are an important part of the ecosystem, and they provide food, shelter, and medicine for many people.

The article "a" is used before singular nouns that refer to a specific person, place, thing, or idea. The article "an" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound. The article "the" is used before singular nouns that refer to a specific person, place, thing, or idea that has already been mentioned. No article is used before singular nouns that refer to a general person, place, thing, or idea.

In the sentence "A palm tree is generally very tall," the noun "palm tree" is a general noun that refers to any palm tree. Therefore, no article is used.

The correct answer is: D. no article

The reason is that London is a proper noun, which is the name of a specific place. Proper nouns are always capitalized and do not take articles.

Here are some other examples of proper nouns:

• The United States of America
• The Eiffel Tower
• The Great Wall of China
• Mount Everest
• The Atlantic Ocean

Note that there are some exceptions to this rule. For example, the names of continents and countries are often used with articles, such as "the Americas" or "the United Kingdom." However, the names of cities, towns, and other places are usually not used with articles.

The correct answer is: C. Either I or II is implicit

The statement is: "The President assured the people that elections will be held here after every five years."

Assumption I is: "People are afraid that the elections may not be held at all."

Assumption II is: "People are afraid that the elections may not be held after five years."

Neither assumption is necessarily true. It is possible that the President made the assurance because he or she believes that elections are important and should be held regularly, regardless of whether or not people are afraid that they will not be held. However, it is also possible that the President made the assurance because he or she believes that people are afraid that the elections may not be held, and that making the assurance will help to reassure them.

Therefore, either assumption I or assumption II is implicit in the statement.

The correct answer is: C) Soil degradation.

Excessive use of chemical fertilizers can lead to a number of problems, including soil degradation. This is because chemical fertilizers can disrupt the natural balance of soil organisms, which can lead to the loss of nutrients and the degradation of soil structure. Additionally, chemical fertilizers can pollute groundwater and surface water, and can harm wildlife.

Option A is incorrect because excessive use of chemical fertilizers can actually lead to a decrease in soil fertility. This is because chemical fertilizers can leach out of the soil, carrying away essential nutrients. Additionally, chemical fertilizers can kill beneficial soil organisms, which are essential for maintaining soil fertility.

Option B is incorrect because excessive use of chemical fertilizers can actually lead to a decrease in soil texture. This is because chemical fertilizers can cause the soil to become compacted, which makes it difficult for water and air to penetrate the soil. Additionally, chemical fertilizers can cause the soil to become eroded, which can lead to the loss of topsoil.

Option D is incorrect because excessive use of chemical fertilizers can actually lead to an increase in the need for irrigation. This is because chemical fertilizers can make the soil more saline, which makes it difficult for plants to absorb water. Additionally, chemical fertilizers can cause the soil to become hydrophobic, which makes it difficult for water to penetrate the soil.

The correct answer is A. arrogant.

Careful is to cautious as boastful is to arrogant. This is because careful and cautious are both synonyms of the word "wary," which means to be on one's guard or to be careful. Similarly, boastful and arrogant are both synonyms of the word "prideful," which means to have or show an excessively high opinion of oneself.

Option B, humble, is incorrect because humble means to be modest or to have a low opinion of oneself. This is the opposite of arrogant, which means to have or show an excessively high opinion of oneself.

Option C, joyful, is incorrect because joyful means to be happy or full of joy. This is not related to the concept of being careful or cautious.

Option D, suspicious, is incorrect because suspicious means to be doubtful or mistrustful. This is not related to the concept of being boastful or arrogant.

The correct answer is C. Both 1 and 2.

Photochromic lenses are lenses that darken on exposure to ultraviolet light. This is due to the embedded microcrystalline of silver chloride in the glass. When exposed to ultraviolet light, the silver chloride molecules break down and form silver metal. This silver metal absorbs visible light, which makes the lenses appear darker.

When the lenses are not exposed to ultraviolet light, the silver chloride molecules reform and the lenses return to their clear state.

Photochromic lenses are a type of sunglasses that provide protection from the sun's harmful ultraviolet rays. They are also useful for people who are sensitive to bright light.

The Cooch Behar district is the northernmost district of West Bengal. It is located at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas.

The correct answer is C. Ester.

Alcohols have a characteristic "alcoholic" smell, which is often described as being sweet or sharp. Aldehydes have a strong, unpleasant, or even sickening smell. Ethers have a sweet, ethereal smell. Esters have a pleasant, fruity smell.

Esters are organic compounds that are formed by the reaction of an acid and an alcohol. The general formula for an ester is R-COO-R', where R and R' are alkyl groups. Esters are found in many fruits and vegetables, and they are responsible for the characteristic flavors of many foods. They are also used in perfumes and other fragrances.

Here are some examples of esters:

• Ethyl acetate, which is found in apples and bananas.
• Butyl acetate, which is found in pineapples and apricots.
• Isoamyl acetate, which is found in raspberries and strawberries.
• Vanillin, which is found in vanilla beans.

The correct answer is (d). Rural roads are not a component of 'Bharat Nirman' launched in 2005 - 2006.

'Bharat Nirman' is a national rural development program launched by the Government of India in 2005. It aims to improve the quality of life in rural areas by providing basic infrastructure and services such as rural housing, drinking water, rural sanitation, rural electrification, rural roads, and irrigation.

Rural roads are not a component of 'Bharat Nirman' because they are already covered by the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which is a national rural road development program launched in 2000. The PMGSY aims to provide all-weather roads to all villages with a population of 500 or more.

The other options (a), (b), and (c) are all components of 'Bharat Nirman'. Rural housing is a component of 'Bharat Nirman' because it aims to provide housing for all rural families living below the poverty line. Drinking water is a component of 'Bharat Nirman' because it aims to provide safe drinking water to all rural households. Rural sanitation is a component of 'Bharat Nirman' because it aims to provide toilets to all rural households.

Rajbanshi Dialect is spoken in Rangpur Division of Bangladesh and Northernmost district of West Bengal like North Dinajpur, Jalpaiguri and Cooch Behar.

The correct answer is A. Chinese, English.

Chinese is the official language of China and is spoken by the majority of the population. English is the second most widely spoken language in China, and is used in business, education, and government.

Arabic is not widely spoken in China. French is not widely spoken in China. Korean is not widely spoken in China.

Here are some additional details about each of the options:

• Chinese is a tonal language, which means that the pitch of your voice can change the meaning of a word. There are seven tones in Mandarin Chinese, the most widely spoken dialect of Chinese.
• English is a Germanic language that is spoken in many countries around the world. It is the most widely spoken language in the world, with over 1.5 billion speakers.
• Arabic is a Semitic language that is spoken in many countries in the Middle East and North Africa. It is the official language of 26 countries.
• French is a Romance language that is spoken in many countries around the world. It is the official language of 29 countries.
• Korean is a Koreanic language that is spoken in Korea. It is the official language of both North Korea and South Korea.

The correct answer is D. Pleonasm.

Pleonasm is the use of more words than are necessary to express a thought. It is often used for emphasis or clarity, but it can also be used to make writing or speech sound more sophisticated or impressive.

Some examples of pleonasm include:

• "The big, giant elephant" (the words "big" and "giant" mean the same thing, so one of them is unnecessary)
• "I saw it with my own two eyes" (the word "own" is unnecessary, since it is implied that you would not be able to see something with someone else's eyes)
• "The reason why is because" (the word "why" already implies a reason, so the word "because" is unnecessary)

Pleonasm can be a useful tool for writers and speakers, but it is important to use it sparingly and only when it is necessary. When used too often, pleonasm can make writing or speech sound awkward and repetitive.

Here are brief explanations of the other options:

• Circumlocution is the use of indirect or roundabout language to express something. For example, instead of saying "I'm hungry," you might say "I could eat a horse."
• Verbatim means "word for word." For example, if you are asked to repeat something verbatim, you would be expected to repeat it exactly as it was said.
• Ventriloquism is the art of making it appear as if a voice is coming from somewhere other than the person speaking. This is often done by using a dummy or puppet.

The correct answer is: A. Kabaddi

India won the gold medal in the men's kabaddi event at the 2002 Asian Games. The team defeated Iran in the final by a score of 55-41. This was India's second consecutive gold medal in kabaddi at the Asian Games.

Kabaddi is a contact team sport played between two teams of seven players, where each player tries to score points by "raiding" into the other team's half of the court, touching as many of the other team's players as possible without being tackled, and then returning to their own half of the court. The team with the most points at the end of the game wins.

Kabaddi is a popular sport in India and other South Asian countries. It is also played in some other parts of the world, including the United States, Canada, and the United Kingdom.

The other options are incorrect because:

• Option B, Hockey, is incorrect because India did not win a gold medal in hockey at the 2002 Asian Games. The Indian men's hockey team finished in fourth place, while the Indian women's hockey team finished in fifth place.
• Option C, 4 x 200 m Relay, is incorrect because India did not win a gold medal in the 4 x 200 m relay at the 2002 Asian Games. The Indian men's 4 x 200 m relay team finished in sixth place, while the Indian women's 4 x 200 m relay team finished in seventh place.
• Option D, 4 x 100 m Relay, is incorrect because India did not win a gold medal in the 4 x 100 m relay at the 2002 Asian Games. The Indian men's 4 x 100 m relay team finished in fifth place, while the Indian women's 4 x 100 m relay team finished in sixth place.

The correct answer is B. frightened me.

The phrase "made my flesh creep" is a common idiom that means to cause someone to feel fear or disgust. In this case, the sight of the accident caused the speaker to feel frightened.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the speaker's reaction to the accident. Option A, "worried me," is incorrect because the speaker does not seem to be worried about the accident. Option C, "confused me," is incorrect because the speaker does not seem to be confused by the accident. Option D, "drew my attention," is incorrect because the speaker is already aware of the accident and is not simply drawn to it.

The correct answer is: C. Both 'a' and 'b'

The demand curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded of that good. It shows how much consumers are willing and able to buy at different prices.

The marginal utility curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the marginal utility of a good and the quantity consumed of that good. It shows how much additional satisfaction a consumer gets from consuming an additional unit of a good.

The price consumption curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity consumed of that good. It shows how much consumers are willing and able to buy at different prices, taking into account their income and the prices of other goods.

The demand curve can be derived from the marginal utility curve and the price consumption curve. The marginal utility curve shows how much additional satisfaction a consumer gets from consuming an additional unit of a good. The price consumption curve shows how much consumers are willing and able to buy at different prices, taking into account their income and the prices of other goods.

The demand curve is downward-sloping because consumers are willing and able to buy more of a good at a lower price. This is because the marginal utility of a good declines as consumers consume more of it. At a lower price, consumers can afford to buy more of the good, and they will do so until the marginal utility of the good is equal to the price.

The demand curve can also be derived from the price consumption curve. The price consumption curve shows how much consumers are willing and able to buy at different prices, taking into account their income and the prices of other goods. The demand curve is the same as the price consumption curve, except that the price consumption curve is drawn with the price on the vertical axis and the quantity consumed on the horizontal axis.

The demand curve is a useful tool for understanding how consumers behave. It can be used to predict how consumers will respond to changes in price, income, and the prices of other goods.

Alipurduar district was carved out from Jalpaiguri on 25th June, 2014 as the 20th district in West Bengal.

The correct answer is (a) below 2.0 percent of the GDP.

The primary deficit is the difference between the government's total revenue and its total expenditure, excluding interest payments. A primary deficit indicates that the government is spending more money than it is taking in, and must borrow money to finance the difference.

The Union Budget for 2010-11 estimated the primary deficit at 1.9 percent of GDP. This was a significant improvement from the previous year, when the primary deficit was 3.6 percent of GDP. The improvement was due to a number of factors, including higher tax revenues and lower expenditure.

The primary deficit is an important indicator of the government's fiscal health. A high primary deficit can lead to a build-up of debt, which can make it difficult for the government to finance its operations in the future. A low primary deficit, on the other hand, indicates that the government is managing its finances well and is less likely to face financial problems in the future.

The options (b) and (d) are incorrect because the primary deficit was estimated to be below 2.0 percent of GDP. Option (c) is incorrect because the primary deficit was estimated to be below 2.0 percent of GDP, not above 2.0 percent of GDP.

The correct answer is: D. Gullible : Trick

The relationship between "elusive" and "capture" is that something that is elusive is difficult to capture. Something that is gullible is easily tricked.

The other options do not have the same relationship.

• Sensible and decide do not have the same relationship. Something that is sensible is reasonable or practical. Deciding something is not the same as making it sensible.
• Headstrong and control do not have the same relationship. Something that is headstrong is stubborn or determined. Controlling something is not the same as making it headstrong.
• Elastic and stretch do not have the same relationship. Something that is elastic can be stretched. Stretching something is not the same as making it elastic.

The correct answer is B. Inaugrate. The correct spelling is "inaugurate".

• Inflammable: able to be easily set on fire.
• Incandescent: emitting light as a result of high temperature.
• Illustrate: provide (something) with pictures or diagrams to make it clearer or more interesting.

The word "inaugrate" is not a real word. It is a misspelling of the word "inaugurate". The word "inaugurate" means to begin or establish something formally. For example, a new president is inaugurated when they take office.

The correct answer is (c) Chess. Magnus Carlsen is a Norwegian chess grandmaster and current world champion, having held the title since 2013. He is the highest-rated player in the world and has been since July 2011. Carlsen is also the youngest person to become a grandmaster, at the age of 13 years and 4 months.

Football (a) is a team sport that involves two teams of eleven players trying to maneuver the ball into the other team's goal without using their hands or arms. The team that scores more goals by the end of the match wins.

Hockey (b) is a family of team sports in which two teams play against each other by trying to maneuver a ball or puck into the other team's goal using a hockey stick. The team that scores more goals by the end of the game wins.

Badminton (d) is a racquet sport that can be played individually against a single opponent (singles) or between two teams of two players each (doubles). Each player uses a racquet that is strung with cord to strike a shuttlecock, a feathered or plastic projectile that is much lighter than a tennis ball. The shuttlecock is kept aloft by alternately hitting it with the racquets so that it flies back and forth over a net.

Tapan Sinha has won the National Award many times and was awarded with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2006.

Bhupendra Nath Bose was the founder and first president of Mohun Bagan Club.

The correct answer is (d), Equality before Law.

A Directive Principle of State Policy is a principle enshrined in the Constitution of India that the State shall strive to achieve. They are not enforceable by any court, but the State is expected to follow them in making laws and policies.

Equality before Law is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. It means that all persons are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the law. This means that no person can be discriminated against on the basis of caste, creed, religion, sex, place of birth, or any other grounds.

The other options are not Directive Principles of State Policy.

(a) Uniform Civil Code is a code of law that would apply to all citizens of India, regardless of their religion. It is not a Directive Principle of State Policy, but it is a goal that the government has been working towards for many years.

(b) Freedom of the Press is the right of the press to publish news and information without censorship or interference from the government. It is a fundamental right guaranteed by the Constitution of India.

(c) Freedom of Religion is the right of every person to practice their religion without interference from the government. It is a fundamental right guaranteed by the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is A. 5.

Sunlight is a mixture of all the colors of the rainbow, which are red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet. These colors are all part of the visible spectrum, which is the range of wavelengths of light that humans can see. The visible spectrum is made up of light with wavelengths between 380 and 700 nanometers.

When sunlight hits an object, some of the light is absorbed and some of the light is reflected. The color of the object depends on which colors of light are reflected. For example, a red object reflects red light and absorbs all the other colors of light.

The human eye has three types of cone cells, which are responsible for color vision. Each type of cone cell is most sensitive to a different range of wavelengths of light. The cones that are most sensitive to red light are called L cones, the cones that are most sensitive to green light are called M cones, and the cones that are most sensitive to blue light are called S cones.

When all three types of cone cells are stimulated equally, we see white light. When only L cones are stimulated, we see red light. When only M cones are stimulated, we see green light. When only S cones are stimulated, we see blue light.

The other colors of the rainbow are seen when different combinations of L, M, and S cones are stimulated. For example, when L and M cones are stimulated equally, we see yellow light. When L and S cones are stimulated equally, we see cyan light. When M and S cones are stimulated equally, we see magenta light.

So, the total number of colors that exist in sunlight is 5: red, orange, yellow, green, and blue. The other colors of the rainbow are seen when different combinations of these five colors are stimulated.

The correct answer is C. Firoz Shah Tuglaq.

Firoz Shah Tuglaq was the third Sultan of the Tughluq dynasty who ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1351 to 1388 CE. He was a great administrator and a patron of the arts. He was also a great builder and constructed many public works, including mosques, madrasas, bridges, and canals.

One of the most important reforms that Firoz Shah Tuglaq introduced was the establishment of a separate agriculture department. This department was responsible for planning and implementing agricultural policies. It also oversaw the construction of canals and other irrigation works. The department also established a system of rotation of crops, which helped to improve crop yields.

The rotation of crops is a farming practice in which different types of crops are planted in the same field in a planned sequence. This helps to prevent the soil from becoming depleted of nutrients and also helps to control pests and diseases.

The rotation of crops is a very important practice in agriculture. It helps to improve crop yields and also helps to protect the environment.

The answer is D, eczema. The other four options are all eye diseases. Eczema is a skin condition.

• Cataract is a clouding of the lens in the eye that can cause blurred vision.
• Hypermetropia, also known as farsightedness, is a condition in which people can see objects that are far away clearly, but objects that are close appear blurry.
• Trachoma is a contagious eye disease that can cause blindness.
• Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, which carries visual information from the eye to the brain.

The correct answer is (b), Section 357A.

Section 357A of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for a victim compensation scheme. The scheme is designed to provide financial assistance to victims of crime who have suffered loss or injury as a result of the crime. The scheme is administered by the state government and is funded by the central government.

To be eligible for compensation under the scheme, the victim must have suffered loss or injury as a result of a crime that has been reported to the police. The victim must also be a citizen of India and must not have been convicted of any crime.

The amount of compensation that is payable to the victim is determined by the state government. The amount of compensation is based on the nature and extent of the victim's loss or injury.

The victim compensation scheme is a valuable resource for victims of crime. The scheme can help to alleviate the financial burden that is often associated with being a victim of crime. The scheme can also help to provide closure for victims of crime.

Section 357 of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the issue of bail. Section 357A of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the issue of victim compensation. Section 357C of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the issue of the release of accused persons on probation.

The correct answer is (a). Guru Amar Das started the Masand system.

The Masand system was a system of religious administration that was established by Guru Amar Das, the third Sikh Guru. The system was designed to help the Guru connect with his followers and to provide them with religious guidance. Under the Masand system, each village had a Masand, or religious teacher, who was responsible for collecting offerings from the villagers and for teaching them about Sikhism. The Masands also reported back to the Guru on the religious and social conditions in their villages.

The Masand system was a very effective way for the Guru to connect with his followers and to spread the message of Sikhism. The system continued to be used by the Gurus after Guru Amar Das, and it played an important role in the development of Sikhism.

Option (b) is incorrect because Guru Ram Das was the fourth Sikh Guru. He did not start the Masand system.

Option (c) is incorrect because Guru Arjun Dev was the fifth Sikh Guru. He did not start the Masand system.

Option (d) is incorrect because the Masand system was started by Guru Amar Das.

The correct answer is C. Percentage.

Relative humidity is a measure of how much water vapor is in the air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor that the air can hold at that temperature. It is expressed as a percentage, with 100% being the maximum amount of water vapor that the air can hold at that temperature.

Grams and kilograms are units of mass, not percentage. A ratio is a comparison of two quantities, not percentage.

The correct answer is A. Deterioration in law and order situation.

The Mughal Empire was a powerful and prosperous empire that ruled over much of India for over 200 years. However, the empire began to decline in the late 17th century, and by the early 18th century, it had collapsed. One of the main reasons for the decline of the Mughal Empire was the deterioration in law and order.

During the early years of the Mughal Empire, there was a strong central government that maintained law and order. However, as the empire grew larger, it became more difficult to maintain control. The Mughal emperors became increasingly reliant on local officials to maintain order, but these officials were often corrupt and incompetent. This led to a breakdown in law and order, which made it difficult for trade and commerce to flourish.

In addition to the deterioration in law and order, there were other factors that contributed to the decline of the Mughal Empire. These included the rise of regional powers, the decline of the Mughal army, and the economic crisis. However, the deterioration in law and order was one of the most important factors that led to the decline of the Mughal Empire.

The other options are not correct because they are not the main reasons for the decline of the Mughal Empire. Option B, closure of old routes of trade, is not a valid reason because the Mughal Empire had a well-developed network of trade routes. Option C, abuse of trade licence by European companies, is not a valid reason because the Mughal Empire had a strict system of trade regulations. Option D, poverty of the Mughal nobility, is not a valid reason because the Mughal nobility was very wealthy.

The correct answer is $boxed{text{C}}$.

The normal temperature of human body is 37 degrees Celsius. On the Kelvin scale, 37 degrees Celsius is equal to 310 Kelvin.

The Kelvin scale is a temperature scale where absolute zero, the coldest possible temperature, is zero. The freezing point of water is 273.15 Kelvin, and the boiling point of water is 373.15 Kelvin.

The other options are incorrect because they are not equal to 310 Kelvin.

The correct answer is B. detailed.

A vivid description is one that is full of detail and makes the reader feel like they are right there, experiencing the scene. In this case, the speaker is saying that the person who described the house did such a good job that they did not need to see it in person to know what it was like. This suggests that the description was very detailed and included all of the important information about the house.

The other options are not as accurate. A simple description would not be enough to give someone a good idea of what a house is like. A clear description is important, but it is not the only thing that matters. A confused description would not be helpful at all.

In conclusion, the correct answer is B. detailed.

The correct answer is: A. Rectangle : Diagonal

A diameter is a line that passes through the center of a circle and has endpoints on the circle. A diagonal is a line that connects two non-adjacent vertices of a polygon. In a rectangle, all four sides are of equal length and all four angles are right angles. A diagonal of a rectangle is a line that connects two non-adjacent vertices.

The other options are incorrect because:

• A radius is a line that passes through the center of a circle and has one endpoint on the circle. It is half the length of a diameter.
• A square is a rectangle with four sides of equal length. It has four right angles.
• A bisector is a line that divides an angle into two equal parts.

The correct answer is (b).

Let $x$ be the number of white marbles in the bag. The probability of drawing a white marble is $frac{x}{x+5}$. The probability of drawing a red marble is $frac{5}{x+5}$. We are given that the probability of drawing a white marble is double that of red marble, so $frac{x}{x+5} = 2 cdot frac{5}{x+5}$. This simplifies to $x = 5$.

Option (a) is incorrect because there are only 5 red marbles in the bag, so there cannot be 10 white marbles. Option (c) is incorrect because there are only 5 red marbles in the bag, so there cannot be 20 white marbles. Option (d) is incorrect because the number of white marbles is not 15.

The correct answer is: A. Goa

Goa is a state in western India with coastlines stretching along the Arabian Sea. Its long history as a Portuguese colony prior to 1961 has left its mark on its culture and architecture. Goa is known for its beaches, ranging from popular stretches at Baga and Palolem to those in laid-back fishing villages such as Agonda. Inland, Goa features tropical forests and mountains. The state is also home to many temples and churches.

In 2016, Goa received a record 8.5 million tourists, making it the most popular tourist destination in India. The state's popularity is due to its beautiful beaches, laid-back atmosphere, and rich culture.

Option B, Uttar Pradesh, is the most populous state in India. It is home to many historical and religious sites, including the Taj Mahal. However, Uttar Pradesh is not as popular as Goa among tourists.

Option C, Maharashtra, is the second most populous state in India. It is home to the financial capital of Mumbai. However, Maharashtra is not as popular as Goa among tourists.

Option D, Tamil Nadu, is the sixth most populous state in India. It is home to the ancient city of Madurai. However, Tamil Nadu is not as popular as Goa among tourists.

The correct answer is E. No error.

The sentence is grammatically correct. The word "at" is used to indicate a time or place, but it is not necessary in this sentence. The word "is" is used to connect the subject and predicate of the sentence, and the word "likely" is used to express a possibility. The word "to yield" means to produce or give something, and the word "the desired results" refers to the outcome that is hoped for.

The sentence is clear and concise, and it conveys the intended meaning. There is no error in grammar, punctuation, or spelling.

Tripti Mitra is always remembered for her famous role Nandini, the protagonist of Rabindranath Tagore's play Rakta Karabi.

The answer is D. Bully.

A scoop is a tool used to lift or move things. A corner is the point where two walls or lines meet. A bunker is a defensive structure, typically underground. A bully is a person who uses strength or power to harm or intimidate others.

Scoop, corner, and bunker are all nouns that refer to physical objects or places. Bully, on the other hand, is a noun that refers to a person. Additionally, the other three words are all neutral in meaning, while bully has a negative connotation.